CDC 4N051 Medical Technician Set B (5th Edition) Practice Test!
-
(003) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of the particular disease?
-
Illness
-
Virulence
-
Incubation
-
Convalescence
-
This is a practice test for the individuals who are looking towards getting into "Centers for Diseases Control and Prevention (CDC)". This test is created with extremely useful questions which will help you to settle well in your preparation for the upcoming exam as well as for the gain of knowledge on various diseases and their treatments. So, let's take this test!
(72).jpg "CDC 4N051 Medical Technician Set B (5th Edition) Practice Test! - Quiz")
Quiz Preview
- 2.
(004) One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is_________________?
-
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
-
Irregular menstrual cycles
-
Vaginal discharge
-
Chlamydia
Correct Answer
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)Explanation
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix and uterus to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and other reproductive organs. It can lead to severe pain in the lower abdomen, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and can even cause infertility if left untreated. It is important for females with gonorrhea to seek medical attention to prevent the development of PID and its potential long-term consequences.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(010) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?
-
Muscle atrophy
-
Caring for elderly parents
-
Increased cellular oxygen content
-
Calcium loss in females is first noticed
Correct Answer
A. Muscle atrophyExplanation
Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood because as individuals age, their muscle mass and strength naturally decline. This can lead to decreased mobility and increased risk of falls and injuries. Regular exercise and strength training can help slow down the process of muscle atrophy in late adulthood.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(012) A good source of protein is _______________
-
Fruits
-
Rice
-
Poultry
-
Vitamins
Correct Answer
A. PoultryExplanation
Poultry is a good source of protein because it is a lean meat that contains all essential amino acids needed for the body's growth and repair. It is also low in saturated fat and high in vitamins and minerals. Fruits and rice may provide some protein, but they are not as concentrated or complete as poultry. Vitamins, on the other hand, are not a source of protein but rather essential nutrients that support various bodily functions.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
(012) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen _____________
-
During a blood transfusion
-
As a result of not using table salt
-
When an individual is unable to sink in water
-
Through excessive amount of fluid loss
Correct Answer
A. Through excessive amount of fluid lossExplanation
Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, the body can become deficient in sodium chloride. This deficiency can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through excessive amount of fluid loss.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(012) Complex carbohydrates are called
-
Bisaccharides
-
Disaccharides
-
Polysaccharides
-
Monosacchrides
Correct Answer
A. PolysaccharidesExplanation
Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates because they consist of multiple monosaccharide units joined together through glycosidic bonds. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, cellulose, and glycogen. These molecules are larger and more complex than monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are made up of one or two sugar units, respectively. Bisaccharides is not a term commonly used to describe carbohydrates, and disaccharides refer to simple sugars composed of two monosaccharides. Therefore, polysaccharides is the correct answer to describe complex carbohydrates.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(012) What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?
-
Stomach
-
Heart
-
Brain
-
Liver
Correct Answer
A. LiverExplanation
The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It synthesizes and breaks down lipids, regulates cholesterol levels, and produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels and detoxifying harmful substances. Therefore, it is the organ that has the most significant influence on lipid metabolism in the body.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
(019) What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?
-
Call the nurse to come and see the patient
-
Call the doctor to come and see the patient
-
Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab
-
Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse
Correct Answer
A. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurseExplanation
If a small object is identified while straining urine, the correct step to take is to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is important because the nurse needs to be made aware of any abnormal findings in the patient's urine sample. By placing the object in a sterile urine cup, it ensures that the object is properly contained and can be examined further if necessary. The nurse can then assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(024) Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called ______________
-
Artifacts
-
Disturbances
-
Random waves
-
Deflection waves
Correct Answer
A. ArtifactsExplanation
Artifacts refer to any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include any interference or disturbances that are not related to the actual electrical activity of the heart. Artifacts can be caused by various factors such as patient movement, improper electrode placement, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. It is important to recognize and differentiate artifacts from true cardiac abnormalities in order to accurately interpret an electrocardiogram.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(024) What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on the electrocardiogram tracings?
-
Arrhythmia
-
Cardiac arrest
-
Depolarization
-
Atrial excitation
Correct Answer
A. ArrhythmiaExplanation
Arrhythmia is the correct term used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on the electrocardiogram tracings. Arrhythmia refers to any abnormality in the rhythm or regularity of the heartbeat, which can include irregular heartbeats, skipped beats, or a faster or slower heartbeat than normal. It can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. Arrhythmias can range from harmless to life-threatening, and treatment may be required depending on the severity and underlying cause.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(026) When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
-
When the provider says its time
-
After the consent form is signed
-
Once a set of vital signs are repeated
-
Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room
Correct Answer
A. After the consent form is signedExplanation
The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because the consent form ensures that the patient has given their informed consent for the procedure and understands the potential risks and benefits. It is a legal and ethical requirement to obtain consent before performing any medical procedure. Therefore, the procedure should not start until the consent form is signed.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(028) When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor is operational?
-
Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip
-
Remove paddles and release joules
-
Make a list of expired medications
-
Remove the battery and recharge
Correct Answer
A. Annotate date and time on a rhythm stripExplanation
After ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor is operational, the next step is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for documentation purposes and helps in tracking the patient's condition and any changes that may occur during the use of the defibrillator or cardiac monitor. It allows healthcare professionals to accurately assess and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm over time.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(030) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called _______________
-
Expanded primary survey
-
Secondary survey
-
Trauma history
-
Scene size-up
Correct Answer
A. Scene size-upExplanation
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called scene size-up. This process involves evaluating the safety of the scene, determining the number of patients, identifying any potential hazards or additional resources needed, and gathering information about the mechanism of injury. By conducting a thorough scene size-up, EMTs can effectively prioritize their actions and provide appropriate care to the patients.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(201) What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
-
Evaluate patient
-
Obtain patient's history
-
Transcribe doctor orders
-
Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight
Correct Answer
A. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weightExplanation
During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important for assessing the patient's overall health and monitoring any changes throughout their stay. By measuring vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature, the technician can gather important information about the patient's current condition. Obtaining the height and weight helps in determining the patient's body mass index (BMI) and can be useful for medication dosage calculations and monitoring changes in nutritional status.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(202) If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the _______________
-
Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed
-
Patient is doing well and no problems were noted
-
Doctor probably changed the orders verbally
-
Vital signs were not completed
Correct Answer
A. Vital signs were not completedExplanation
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the nursing staff being busy or understaffed, the patient refusing to have their vital signs taken, or any other unforeseen circumstances that prevented the completion of the task. However, without further information, it is difficult to determine the exact reason why the vital signs were not completed.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(204) What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?
-
Sedation
-
Back message
-
Oxygen Therapy
-
Preoperative teaching
Correct Answer
A. Preoperative teachingExplanation
Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect before, during, and after surgery, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, preoperative teaching helps alleviate anxiety and fear. This education empowers the patient, making them feel more prepared and in control, which can lead to better outcomes and a smoother recovery process.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(204) What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?
-
Credentials of the surgeon
-
Availability of a base chaplain
-
Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
-
Number of nurses and technicians on staff
Correct Answer
A. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staffExplanation
The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. This means that how the staff members conduct themselves and how they show empathy and concern towards the patient greatly affects how the patient perceives the quality of care they are receiving. It is important for the staff to be professional in their interactions and to show a caring attitude towards the patients to ensure a positive experience and perception of the care provided.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(206) Which exercise is NOT commonly used for postoperative patients?
-
Standing hamstring stretches
-
Turn, cough, and deep breathing (TC&DB)
-
Diaphragmatic breathing
-
Circles with the big toe
Correct Answer
A. Standing hamstring stretchesExplanation
Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they involve bending forward at the waist, which can put strain on the surgical incision site. Postoperative patients are typically advised to avoid activities that involve bending or straining the abdominal muscles to promote healing and prevent complications. Other exercises mentioned, such as TC&DB, diaphragmatic breathing, and circles with the big toe, are commonly used for postoperative patients to improve lung function, promote circulation, and prevent complications such as pneumonia and blood clots.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
(210) Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
-
Crepitus
-
Vibration
-
Resonance
-
Intonation
Correct Answer
A. CrepitusExplanation
Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound can occur due to various reasons, such as joint inflammation, degeneration of cartilage, or fractures. It is often described as a crackling or grating sound and can be felt or heard during movement. Crepitus is commonly associated with conditions like arthritis and can be a sign of joint damage or dysfunction.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
(212) What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
-
Nasogastric (NG) tube
-
Tourniquet
-
Oxygen
-
Suction
Correct Answer
A. TourniquetExplanation
After a surgical amputation of a limb, a tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside. A tourniquet is a device used to temporarily stop the blood flow to a limb during surgery or in emergency situations. It is used to control bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss. Having a tourniquet readily available is crucial in case of any postoperative bleeding or complications that may arise after the surgery. The other options listed, such as a nasogastric (NG) tube, oxygen, and suction, are not directly related to the immediate postoperative care of a surgical amputation.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(213) Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally ______________
-
A lifelong process
-
Of no use because they do not fully recover
-
Continued for six months after the injury occurred
-
Continued for up to two years after the final surgery
Correct Answer
A. A lifelong processExplanation
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process. This is because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations. The goal of rehabilitation is not necessarily to fully recover, but rather to maximize independence, functionality, and quality of life. Therefore, ongoing therapy and support are typically required throughout the patient's lifetime to manage symptoms, prevent complications, and adapt to any changes in their condition.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
(220) Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be
-
Excited
-
Consistent
-
Demanding
-
Unsympathetic
Correct Answer
A. ConsistentExplanation
When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to maintain a consistent behavior or approach. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability for the patient, which can help to alleviate anxiety. By consistently providing reassurance, clear communication, and a calm demeanor, healthcare professionals can help the patient feel more at ease and build trust. This can contribute to a more positive patient experience and better overall outcomes.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(220) A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
-
Withdrawal
-
Suspicious
-
Anxiety
-
Anger
Correct Answer
A. WithdrawalExplanation
The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt indicate a sense of isolation and emotional pain. This can lead to the behavior of withdrawal, where the individual may distance themselves from others and prefer to be alone. They may avoid social interactions and isolate themselves physically and emotionally. This behavior serves as a coping mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional harm.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
(221) When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?
-
During preadmission
-
Within 12 hours of admission
-
Within 24 hours of admission
-
As soon as the patient is admitted
Correct Answer
A. As soon as the patient is admittedExplanation
The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the successful treatment of mentally ill patients. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows for early identification of the patient's needs and the development of a personalized treatment plan. It also helps in preventing further deterioration of the patient's condition and promotes a faster recovery. Therefore, initiating rehabilitation as soon as the patient is admitted ensures that they receive the necessary support and interventions from the beginning of their treatment journey.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(224) What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?
-
Draw blood for alcohol and drug testing
-
Monitor vital signs and sustain life
-
Contact the First Sergeant
-
Contact Security Forces
Correct Answer
A. Monitor vital signs and sustain lifeExplanation
When providing care to a patient that has abused a substance, the priority is to monitor vital signs and sustain life. This is because the patient's immediate health and well-being are at risk, and their vital signs need to be closely monitored to ensure their condition does not deteriorate further. Sustaining life involves providing any necessary medical interventions or treatments to stabilize the patient and prevent any life-threatening complications. Drawing blood for alcohol and drug testing, as well as contacting the First Sergeant or Security Forces, may be important steps to take later on, but they are not the immediate priority in providing care to the patient.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(236) What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
-
85 to 88%
-
89 to 91%
-
92 to 95%
-
95 to 98%
Correct Answer
A. 95 to 98%Explanation
The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98%. This means that the percentage of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in the arteries should fall within this range. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which is a low level of oxygen in the blood. On the other hand, levels above 98% may suggest hyperoxemia, which is an excess of oxygen in the blood. Therefore, the range of 95 to 98% is considered the normal and optimal range for arterial oxygen saturation.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(406) A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to ______________
-
Acid content
-
Water content
-
Enzyme production
-
Body fat absorption
Correct Answer
A. Body fat absorptionExplanation
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to body fat absorption. This is because some drugs are lipophilic, meaning they dissolve in fat. In patients with higher body fat percentage, these drugs may be more readily absorbed and distributed throughout the body, leading to potentially higher drug concentrations and altered drug effects. On the other hand, patients with lower body fat percentage may have lower drug absorption and distribution, resulting in different drug action. Therefore, body fat absorption plays a role in drug action and can vary based on a patient's weight.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
(409) Before administering any medications, you are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT _______________
-
Ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
-
Performing all steps in the six medication rights
-
Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medications
-
Verifying any possible interactions against current medications
Correct Answer
A. Ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next dayExplanation
As a healthcare professional, it is not your responsibility to ensure that A1C Jones is available for work the next day. Your main responsibilities include performing all steps in the six medication rights, being knowledgeable about the side effects of the medications, and verifying any possible interactions against current medications. Ensuring someone's availability for work is not within the scope of your responsibilities as a healthcare professional.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
(411) The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is ________________
-
Intravenous (IV) push
-
Intramuscular (IM)
-
Subcutaneous (SQ)
-
IV Drip
Correct Answer
A. Intramuscular (IM)Explanation
The correct answer is intramuscular (IM). This method of parenteral medication administration involves injecting a drug into a muscle. It is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, where it is then absorbed into the bloodstream over time. This route of administration allows for a more rapid onset of action compared to oral medications and is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and certain pain medications.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(411) Name the parts of a needle.
-
Hub, shaft, and bevel
-
Cylinder, shank, and tip
-
Barrel, bevel, and gauges
-
Hub, tip and calibrations
Correct Answer
A. Hub, shaft, and bevelExplanation
The correct answer is hub, shaft, and bevel. These are the three main parts of a needle. The hub is the part that attaches to the syringe or other device, the shaft is the long, slender portion of the needle, and the bevel is the slanted tip that allows for easier insertion into the skin or other material.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
(412) What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive track?
-
Oral
-
Buccal
-
Inhalation
-
Sublingual (SL)
Correct Answer
A. OralExplanation
The correct answer is Oral. This administration method involves delivering medication directly into the patient's digestive tract, typically through the mouth. It is the most common and convenient method of medication administration, as it can be easily swallowed and absorbed by the body. Buccal administration involves placing medication between the cheek and gum, inhalation involves delivering medication through inhalation into the lungs, and sublingual administration involves placing medication under the tongue. However, none of these methods directly deliver medication into the digestive tract like oral administration does.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(412) To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?
-
In the pharmacy
-
At the work station
-
At the nurses station
-
At the patient's bedside
Correct Answer
A. At the patient's bedsideExplanation
Liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination during transportation from the pharmacy or work station to the patient's room. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for accurate dosage and immediate administration, reducing the chances of errors or delays in the medication administration process.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(413) When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to _________________
-
Maintain comfort
-
Keep the medication off the patient's face
-
Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye
-
Allow the solution to pool in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac
Correct Answer
A. Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eyeExplanation
When administering eye medications, it is important to ensure that the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This positioning helps to keep the medication contained within the treated eye and prevents any potential cross-contamination or irritation to the unaffected eye.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(414) Opioid antagonist are used in the treatment of ___________________
-
Acetaminophen overdose
-
Ibuprofen overdose
-
Vitamin C overdose
-
Opioid overdose
Correct Answer
A. Opioid overdoseExplanation
Opioid antagonists are medications that block the effects of opioids in the body. They are used in the treatment of opioid overdose to reverse the life-threatening effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression and sedation. Acetaminophen overdose, ibuprofen overdose, and vitamin C overdose are not treated with opioid antagonists.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(415) Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?
-
Dexedrine
-
Concerta
-
Caffeine
-
Ritalin
Correct Answer
A. CaffeineExplanation
Caffeine is a commonly used over the counter central nervous system stimulant that is often taken in high doses for prolonged periods. Regular consumption of caffeine can lead to habituation, where the body becomes accustomed to the effects of the drug and requires higher doses to achieve the same level of stimulation. Additionally, caffeine can also cause psychological dependence, where individuals feel a strong urge or craving for the drug.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(421) What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?
-
Antineoplastic
-
Antihistamines
-
Antifungals
-
Antivirals
Correct Answer
A. AntihistaminesExplanation
Antihistamines are the correct type of medication that would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen. Antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, which is released by the body in response to allergens like grass and tree pollen. By blocking histamine, antihistamines can help relieve symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and runny nose associated with allergies. Antineoplastic medications are used to treat cancer, antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, and antivirals are used to treat viral infections.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(002) Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
-
Antigen
-
Antibody
-
Pathogen
-
Micro-organism
Correct Answer
A. PathogenExplanation
A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can invade the body and disrupt its normal functioning. Pathogens have the ability to multiply and spread, leading to various illnesses and health problems. Therefore, the term "pathogen" accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(002) Which infectious agent included two structural categories known as yeast and molds?
-
Fungi
-
Virus
-
Bacteria
-
Chlamydiae
Correct Answer
A. FungiExplanation
Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are distinct from viruses, bacteria, and chlamydiae, which do not have the same structural categories as fungi.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(024) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the __________________
-
Major command (MAJCOM)
-
Local medical examination board (MEB)
-
Command level Electrocardiographic Library
-
US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
Correct Answer
A. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic LibraryExplanation
When performing an electrocardiogram on a rated individual, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library. This suggests that the library plays a crucial role in maintaining records and monitoring the cardiac health of rated individuals in the US Air Force. The library is likely responsible for storing and analyzing electrocardiograms to ensure the well-being of service members and to provide a centralized resource for medical professionals to access cardiac data.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(027) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
-
Begin suturing
-
Flush the wound
-
Clean out the debris with an allis clamp
-
Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution
Correct Answer
A. Flush the woundExplanation
The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important because foreign material in the wound can increase the risk of infection. Flushing the wound with a sterile solution, such as saline, helps to remove any debris or contaminants, reducing the risk of infection and promoting proper healing.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
(031) When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?
-
Able
-
Alert
-
Ambulatory
-
Asymptomatic
Correct Answer
A. AlertExplanation
If a patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly during an initial assessment, it indicates that the patient is alert. This means that the patient is awake, attentive, and able to respond appropriately to their surroundings and questions. Assessing the patient's mental status is important as it helps determine their level of consciousness and cognitive functioning.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
(031) if THE PATIENT IS NOT ALERT AND HIS OR HER BREATHING IS LOWER THAN EIGHT BREATHES PER MINUTE, PROVIDE
-
High concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask
-
Ventilations with bag valve mask (BVM) and high flow oxygen
-
High concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask
-
Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula
Correct Answer
A. Ventilations with bag valve mask (BVM) and high flow oxygenExplanation
If the patient is not alert and their breathing is lower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a severe respiratory distress or failure. In such cases, providing high concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask or high concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask may not be sufficient to support their breathing. The best course of action would be to provide ventilations with a bag valve mask (BVM) and high flow oxygen. This combination helps to deliver oxygen directly to the patient's lungs and assists with their breathing, ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(034) Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?
-
Army field stretcher
-
Long backboard
-
Scoop stretcher
-
Stoke's basket
Correct Answer
A. Army field stretcherExplanation
The army field stretcher is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. This type of stretcher is specifically designed for military use and is lightweight, portable, and durable. It allows for easy transportation of injured individuals over rough terrain and can be quickly assembled and disassembled. It is an essential tool for military medical personnel to evacuate and transport casualties efficiently and safely in challenging environments.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
(036) Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
-
Range of motion (ROM)
-
Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
-
Purified protein derivative (PPD)
-
Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU)
Correct Answer
A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)Explanation
Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture. This acronym stands for painful, swollen deformity. When assessing a patient in the field, EMTs look for signs of pain, swelling, and deformity, which are common indicators of a fracture. By using the acronym PSD, EMTs can quickly communicate their suspicion of a fracture to other healthcare professionals and ensure appropriate care is provided to the patient.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
(037) While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?
-
The patient's visual acuity
-
If the patient is experiencing any pain
-
Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility
-
If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
Correct Answer
A. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which typeExplanation
When a patient comes in with a chemical splash in their eye, it is important to determine if they are wearing contact lenses and which type. This is because contact lenses can trap chemicals against the eye, causing further damage. Different types of contact lenses may require different treatment approaches. Therefore, knowing if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type can help guide the appropriate course of action and ensure the best possible care for the patient.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
(213) The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the ____________
-
Dominant right or left side
-
Side of the body that is weaker
-
Side of the brain that was traumatized
-
Position the patient was in when the stroke occurred
Correct Answer
A. Side of the brain that was traumatizedExplanation
The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the side of the brain that was traumatized. When a stroke occurs, it is usually due to a blockage or rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, which can cause damage to specific areas of the brain. Depending on which side of the brain is affected, the opposite side of the body may experience weakness or paralysis. Therefore, the side of the brain that was traumatized determines the side of the body that is affected by a stroke.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(215) Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?
-
The physician needs to suture the child's face
-
The child continues to climb out of bed in the night
-
To prevent the child from falling out of their highchair
-
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
Correct Answer
A. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the childExplanation
Restraining a child should never be done for the reason of having other tasks to do and not having time to sit with the child. Restraints should only be used when necessary for the safety of the child or others involved. In this case, the other reasons mentioned, such as the need for suturing the child's face, the child climbing out of bed at night, and preventing the child from falling out of their highchair, are all appropriate reasons for restraining a child to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(223) What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?
-
Report the suspected abuse
-
Only report if the parents admit abuse
-
Counsel the parents on his/her actions
-
Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse
Correct Answer
A. Report the suspected abuseExplanation
If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. As a responsible individual, it is our duty to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and initiate necessary interventions to address the situation. It is not enough to simply counsel the parents or ignore the situation, as the child's safety should be the top priority.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(241) How are corneal abrasions detected?
-
X-ray
-
Venogram
-
Angiogram
-
Fluorescein stain
Correct Answer
A. Fluorescein stainExplanation
Fluorescein stain is used to detect corneal abrasions. This is because the stain is a dye that highlights any damage or irregularities on the surface of the cornea. When the stain is applied to the eye, it adheres to the damaged areas, making them easily visible under a special blue light. This helps healthcare professionals accurately diagnose and treat corneal abrasions. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not appropriate methods for detecting corneal abrasions as they are used for imaging other parts of the body.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 6, 2025 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Jan 06, 2025Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 15, 2018Quiz Created by
Erica Funke
Back to top