CDC 4N051 Medical Technician Set B (5th Edition) Practice Test!

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| By Erica Funke
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Erica Funke
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1. (213) Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally ______________

Explanation

Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process. This is because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations. The goal of rehabilitation is not necessarily to fully recover, but rather to maximize independence, functionality, and quality of life. Therefore, ongoing therapy and support are typically required throughout the patient's lifetime to manage symptoms, prevent complications, and adapt to any changes in their condition.

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About This Quiz
CDC 4N051 Medical Technician Set B (5th Edition) Practice Test! - Quiz

This is a practice test for the individuals who are looking towards getting into "Centers for Diseases Control and Prevention (CDC)". This test is created with extremely useful questions which will help you to settle well in your preparation for the upcoming exam as well as for the gain of... see moreknowledge on various diseases and their treatments. So, let's take this test!
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2. (028) When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor is operational?

Explanation

After ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor is operational, the next step is to annotate the date and time on a rhythm strip. This is important for documentation purposes and helps in tracking the patient's condition and any changes that may occur during the use of the defibrillator or cardiac monitor. It allows healthcare professionals to accurately assess and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm over time.

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3. (220) Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be

Explanation

When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to maintain a consistent behavior or approach. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability for the patient, which can help to alleviate anxiety. By consistently providing reassurance, clear communication, and a calm demeanor, healthcare professionals can help the patient feel more at ease and build trust. This can contribute to a more positive patient experience and better overall outcomes.

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4. (010) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

Explanation

Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood because as individuals age, their muscle mass and strength naturally decline. This can lead to decreased mobility and increased risk of falls and injuries. Regular exercise and strength training can help slow down the process of muscle atrophy in late adulthood.

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5. (012) A good source of protein is _______________

Explanation

Poultry is a good source of protein because it is a lean meat that contains all essential amino acids needed for the body's growth and repair. It is also low in saturated fat and high in vitamins and minerals. Fruits and rice may provide some protein, but they are not as concentrated or complete as poultry. Vitamins, on the other hand, are not a source of protein but rather essential nutrients that support various bodily functions.

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6. (421) What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

Explanation

Antihistamines are the correct type of medication that would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen. Antihistamines work by blocking the effects of histamine, which is released by the body in response to allergens like grass and tree pollen. By blocking histamine, antihistamines can help relieve symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and runny nose associated with allergies. Antineoplastic medications are used to treat cancer, antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, and antivirals are used to treat viral infections.

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7. (004) One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is_________________?

Explanation

One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix and uterus to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and other reproductive organs. It can lead to severe pain in the lower abdomen, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and can even cause infertility if left untreated. It is important for females with gonorrhea to seek medical attention to prevent the development of PID and its potential long-term consequences.

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8. (415) Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

Explanation

Caffeine is a commonly used over the counter central nervous system stimulant that is often taken in high doses for prolonged periods. Regular consumption of caffeine can lead to habituation, where the body becomes accustomed to the effects of the drug and requires higher doses to achieve the same level of stimulation. Additionally, caffeine can also cause psychological dependence, where individuals feel a strong urge or craving for the drug.

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9. (012) Complex carbohydrates are called

Explanation

Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates because they consist of multiple monosaccharide units joined together through glycosidic bonds. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, cellulose, and glycogen. These molecules are larger and more complex than monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are made up of one or two sugar units, respectively. Bisaccharides is not a term commonly used to describe carbohydrates, and disaccharides refer to simple sugars composed of two monosaccharides. Therefore, polysaccharides is the correct answer to describe complex carbohydrates.

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10. (409) Before administering any medications, you are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT _______________

Explanation

As a healthcare professional, it is not your responsibility to ensure that A1C Jones is available for work the next day. Your main responsibilities include performing all steps in the six medication rights, being knowledgeable about the side effects of the medications, and verifying any possible interactions against current medications. Ensuring someone's availability for work is not within the scope of your responsibilities as a healthcare professional.

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11. (012) What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

Explanation

The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It synthesizes and breaks down lipids, regulates cholesterol levels, and produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels and detoxifying harmful substances. Therefore, it is the organ that has the most significant influence on lipid metabolism in the body.

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12. (413) When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to _________________

Explanation

When administering eye medications, it is important to ensure that the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This positioning helps to keep the medication contained within the treated eye and prevents any potential cross-contamination or irritation to the unaffected eye.

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13. (406) A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to ______________

Explanation

A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to body fat absorption. This is because some drugs are lipophilic, meaning they dissolve in fat. In patients with higher body fat percentage, these drugs may be more readily absorbed and distributed throughout the body, leading to potentially higher drug concentrations and altered drug effects. On the other hand, patients with lower body fat percentage may have lower drug absorption and distribution, resulting in different drug action. Therefore, body fat absorption plays a role in drug action and can vary based on a patient's weight.

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14. (204) What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

Explanation

Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect before, during, and after surgery, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, preoperative teaching helps alleviate anxiety and fear. This education empowers the patient, making them feel more prepared and in control, which can lead to better outcomes and a smoother recovery process.

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15. (206) Which exercise is NOT commonly used for postoperative patients?

Explanation

Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they involve bending forward at the waist, which can put strain on the surgical incision site. Postoperative patients are typically advised to avoid activities that involve bending or straining the abdominal muscles to promote healing and prevent complications. Other exercises mentioned, such as TC&DB, diaphragmatic breathing, and circles with the big toe, are commonly used for postoperative patients to improve lung function, promote circulation, and prevent complications such as pneumonia and blood clots.

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16. (003) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of the particular disease?

Explanation

The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation refers to the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but the symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this stage, the pathogen is multiplying and spreading within the body. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific infectious agent and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period ends, the individual may start showing symptoms and enter the illness stage of the infection.

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17. (236) What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?

Explanation

The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98%. This means that the percentage of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in the arteries should fall within this range. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which is a low level of oxygen in the blood. On the other hand, levels above 98% may suggest hyperoxemia, which is an excess of oxygen in the blood. Therefore, the range of 95 to 98% is considered the normal and optimal range for arterial oxygen saturation.

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18. (204) What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. This means that how the staff members conduct themselves and how they show empathy and concern towards the patient greatly affects how the patient perceives the quality of care they are receiving. It is important for the staff to be professional in their interactions and to show a caring attitude towards the patients to ensure a positive experience and perception of the care provided.

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19. (221) When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

Explanation

The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the successful treatment of mentally ill patients. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows for early identification of the patient's needs and the development of a personalized treatment plan. It also helps in preventing further deterioration of the patient's condition and promotes a faster recovery. Therefore, initiating rehabilitation as soon as the patient is admitted ensures that they receive the necessary support and interventions from the beginning of their treatment journey.

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20. (212) What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

Explanation

After a surgical amputation of a limb, a tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside. A tourniquet is a device used to temporarily stop the blood flow to a limb during surgery or in emergency situations. It is used to control bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss. Having a tourniquet readily available is crucial in case of any postoperative bleeding or complications that may arise after the surgery. The other options listed, such as a nasogastric (NG) tube, oxygen, and suction, are not directly related to the immediate postoperative care of a surgical amputation.

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21. (220) A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of

Explanation

The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt indicate a sense of isolation and emotional pain. This can lead to the behavior of withdrawal, where the individual may distance themselves from others and prefer to be alone. They may avoid social interactions and isolate themselves physically and emotionally. This behavior serves as a coping mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional harm.

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22. (411) The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is ________________

Explanation

The correct answer is intramuscular (IM). This method of parenteral medication administration involves injecting a drug into a muscle. It is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, where it is then absorbed into the bloodstream over time. This route of administration allows for a more rapid onset of action compared to oral medications and is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and certain pain medications.

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23. (024) Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called ______________

Explanation

Artifacts refer to any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include any interference or disturbances that are not related to the actual electrical activity of the heart. Artifacts can be caused by various factors such as patient movement, improper electrode placement, electrical interference, or equipment malfunction. It is important to recognize and differentiate artifacts from true cardiac abnormalities in order to accurately interpret an electrocardiogram.

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24. (201) What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

Explanation

During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important for assessing the patient's overall health and monitoring any changes throughout their stay. By measuring vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature, the technician can gather important information about the patient's current condition. Obtaining the height and weight helps in determining the patient's body mass index (BMI) and can be useful for medication dosage calculations and monitoring changes in nutritional status.

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25. (030) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called _______________

Explanation

The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called scene size-up. This process involves evaluating the safety of the scene, determining the number of patients, identifying any potential hazards or additional resources needed, and gathering information about the mechanism of injury. By conducting a thorough scene size-up, EMTs can effectively prioritize their actions and provide appropriate care to the patients.

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26. (411) Name the parts of a needle.

Explanation

The correct answer is hub, shaft, and bevel. These are the three main parts of a needle. The hub is the part that attaches to the syringe or other device, the shaft is the long, slender portion of the needle, and the bevel is the slanted tip that allows for easier insertion into the skin or other material.

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27. (224) What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?

Explanation

When providing care to a patient that has abused a substance, the priority is to monitor vital signs and sustain life. This is because the patient's immediate health and well-being are at risk, and their vital signs need to be closely monitored to ensure their condition does not deteriorate further. Sustaining life involves providing any necessary medical interventions or treatments to stabilize the patient and prevent any life-threatening complications. Drawing blood for alcohol and drug testing, as well as contacting the First Sergeant or Security Forces, may be important steps to take later on, but they are not the immediate priority in providing care to the patient.

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28. (024) What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on the electrocardiogram tracings?

Explanation

Arrhythmia is the correct term used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on the electrocardiogram tracings. Arrhythmia refers to any abnormality in the rhythm or regularity of the heartbeat, which can include irregular heartbeats, skipped beats, or a faster or slower heartbeat than normal. It can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. Arrhythmias can range from harmless to life-threatening, and treatment may be required depending on the severity and underlying cause.

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29. (412) What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive track?

Explanation

The correct answer is Oral. This administration method involves delivering medication directly into the patient's digestive tract, typically through the mouth. It is the most common and convenient method of medication administration, as it can be easily swallowed and absorbed by the body. Buccal administration involves placing medication between the cheek and gum, inhalation involves delivering medication through inhalation into the lungs, and sublingual administration involves placing medication under the tongue. However, none of these methods directly deliver medication into the digestive tract like oral administration does.

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30. (210) Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

Explanation

Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound can occur due to various reasons, such as joint inflammation, degeneration of cartilage, or fractures. It is often described as a crackling or grating sound and can be felt or heard during movement. Crepitus is commonly associated with conditions like arthritis and can be a sign of joint damage or dysfunction.

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31. (012) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen _____________

Explanation

Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, the body can become deficient in sodium chloride. This deficiency can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through excessive amount of fluid loss.

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32. (026) When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

Explanation

The minor surgery procedure can begin after the consent form is signed. This is because the consent form ensures that the patient has given their informed consent for the procedure and understands the potential risks and benefits. It is a legal and ethical requirement to obtain consent before performing any medical procedure. Therefore, the procedure should not start until the consent form is signed.

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33. (019) What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Explanation

If a small object is identified while straining urine, the correct step to take is to place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse. This is important because the nurse needs to be made aware of any abnormal findings in the patient's urine sample. By placing the object in a sterile urine cup, it ensures that the object is properly contained and can be examined further if necessary. The nurse can then assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action.

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34. (412) To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

Explanation

Liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination during transportation from the pharmacy or work station to the patient's room. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for accurate dosage and immediate administration, reducing the chances of errors or delays in the medication administration process.

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35. (202) If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the _______________

Explanation

If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the nursing staff being busy or understaffed, the patient refusing to have their vital signs taken, or any other unforeseen circumstances that prevented the completion of the task. However, without further information, it is difficult to determine the exact reason why the vital signs were not completed.

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36. (414) Opioid antagonist are used in the treatment of ___________________

Explanation

Opioid antagonists are medications that block the effects of opioids in the body. They are used in the treatment of opioid overdose to reverse the life-threatening effects of opioids, such as respiratory depression and sedation. Acetaminophen overdose, ibuprofen overdose, and vitamin C overdose are not treated with opioid antagonists.

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37. (034) Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Explanation

The army field stretcher is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations. This type of stretcher is specifically designed for military use and is lightweight, portable, and durable. It allows for easy transportation of injured individuals over rough terrain and can be quickly assembled and disassembled. It is an essential tool for military medical personnel to evacuate and transport casualties efficiently and safely in challenging environments.

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38. (002) Which  of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Explanation

A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can invade the body and disrupt its normal functioning. Pathogens have the ability to multiply and spread, leading to various illnesses and health problems. Therefore, the term "pathogen" accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease.

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39. (409) How many pounds (lbs) are equal to 65 kg?

Explanation

To convert kilograms to pounds, we need to multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.2046. In this case, 65 kg multiplied by 2.2046 equals approximately 143 pounds. Therefore, the correct answer is 143.

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40. (213) The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the ____________

Explanation

The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the side of the brain that was traumatized. When a stroke occurs, it is usually due to a blockage or rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, which can cause damage to specific areas of the brain. Depending on which side of the brain is affected, the opposite side of the body may experience weakness or paralysis. Therefore, the side of the brain that was traumatized determines the side of the body that is affected by a stroke.

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41. (002) Which infectious agent included two structural categories known as yeast and molds?

Explanation

Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are distinct from viruses, bacteria, and chlamydiae, which do not have the same structural categories as fungi.

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42. (421) What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon pearls to help stop coughing?

Explanation

The appropriate patient-education for a patient prescribed Tessalon pearls to help stop coughing would be to inform them not to chew the capsule. Chewing the capsule may alter the medication's effectiveness or cause unwanted side effects.

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43. (036) Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Explanation

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) use the acronym PSD to describe a possible fracture. This acronym stands for painful, swollen deformity. When assessing a patient in the field, EMTs look for signs of pain, swelling, and deformity, which are common indicators of a fracture. By using the acronym PSD, EMTs can quickly communicate their suspicion of a fracture to other healthcare professionals and ensure appropriate care is provided to the patient.

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44. (215) Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?

Explanation

Restraining a child should never be done for the reason of having other tasks to do and not having time to sit with the child. Restraints should only be used when necessary for the safety of the child or others involved. In this case, the other reasons mentioned, such as the need for suturing the child's face, the child climbing out of bed at night, and preventing the child from falling out of their highchair, are all appropriate reasons for restraining a child to ensure their safety.

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45. (223) What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?

Explanation

If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. As a responsible individual, it is our duty to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and initiate necessary interventions to address the situation. It is not enough to simply counsel the parents or ignore the situation, as the child's safety should be the top priority.

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46. (024) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the __________________

Explanation

When performing an electrocardiogram on a rated individual, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library. This suggests that the library plays a crucial role in maintaining records and monitoring the cardiac health of rated individuals in the US Air Force. The library is likely responsible for storing and analyzing electrocardiograms to ensure the well-being of service members and to provide a centralized resource for medical professionals to access cardiac data.

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47. (031) When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status?

Explanation

If a patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly during an initial assessment, it indicates that the patient is alert. This means that the patient is awake, attentive, and able to respond appropriately to their surroundings and questions. Assessing the patient's mental status is important as it helps determine their level of consciousness and cognitive functioning.

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48. (031) if THE PATIENT IS NOT ALERT AND HIS OR HER BREATHING IS LOWER THAN EIGHT BREATHES PER MINUTE, PROVIDE

Explanation

If the patient is not alert and their breathing is lower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a severe respiratory distress or failure. In such cases, providing high concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask or high concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask may not be sufficient to support their breathing. The best course of action would be to provide ventilations with a bag valve mask (BVM) and high flow oxygen. This combination helps to deliver oxygen directly to the patient's lungs and assists with their breathing, ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

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49. (402) Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights?

Explanation

The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed of the drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by the healthcare provider based on the patient's condition and the most appropriate and safe method of administering the medication.

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50. (037) While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

Explanation

When a patient comes in with a chemical splash in their eye, it is important to determine if they are wearing contact lenses and which type. This is because contact lenses can trap chemicals against the eye, causing further damage. Different types of contact lenses may require different treatment approaches. Therefore, knowing if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type can help guide the appropriate course of action and ensure the best possible care for the patient.

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51. (241) How are corneal abrasions detected?

Explanation

Fluorescein stain is used to detect corneal abrasions. This is because the stain is a dye that highlights any damage or irregularities on the surface of the cornea. When the stain is applied to the eye, it adheres to the damaged areas, making them easily visible under a special blue light. This helps healthcare professionals accurately diagnose and treat corneal abrasions. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not appropriate methods for detecting corneal abrasions as they are used for imaging other parts of the body.

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52. (027) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Explanation

The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important because foreign material in the wound can increase the risk of infection. Flushing the wound with a sterile solution, such as saline, helps to remove any debris or contaminants, reducing the risk of infection and promoting proper healing.

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53. (414) Non-opioid analgesics are available __________________________

Explanation

Non-opioid analgesics are available over the counter, meaning that they can be purchased without a prescription directly from a pharmacy or store. This suggests that these medications are considered safe and effective for self-medication without the need for a healthcare professional's supervision.

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54. (219) Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

Explanation

Compulsion is the correct answer because it refers to an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions. In psychiatry, a compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to certain rules, in order to prevent or reduce anxiety or distress. These actions may seem pointless to others, but they are driven by the individual's need to alleviate their anxiety. Delusion, anxiety, and conflict do not specifically describe this type of behavior.

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55. (405) Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

Explanation

Penicillin administered to treat an infection is categorized as a curative drug because it directly targets and eliminates the infection-causing bacteria, thus curing the infection. Curative drugs are specifically designed to eliminate the cause of a disease or condition, rather than simply alleviating symptoms or providing temporary relief.

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56. (420) Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?

Explanation

Upon entering the Air Force, all recruits receive a booster for the Tetanus vaccine. Tetanus is a bacterial infection that can be caused by a puncture wound or exposure to contaminated soil or animal feces. It is important for recruits to receive a booster for Tetanus to ensure they are protected against this potentially life-threatening infection.

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57. (420) What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

Explanation

Individuals deploying to Africa are given the yellow fever and typhoid vaccines. This is because yellow fever is endemic in many parts of Africa and vaccination is required for entry into some countries. Typhoid is also common in Africa and vaccination is recommended to prevent the spread of the disease. Hepatitis, polio, anthrax, influenza, smallpox, and varicella are not specifically mentioned as vaccines given to individuals deploying to Africa.

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58. (218) What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?

Explanation

An individual's feeling about themselves is affected by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how a person sees and evaluates themselves, including their beliefs, attitudes, and opinions about their own abilities, worth, and value. It is influenced by factors such as personal experiences, achievements, and self-reflection. Self-perception plays a crucial role in shaping an individual's self-esteem, self-confidence, and overall self-image.

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59. (012) Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except ___________________

Explanation

Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a significant source of calcium.

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60. (413) Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

Explanation

Inhalation medication has a disadvantage in that it is difficult to monitor the precise amount of drug administration. This means that it can be challenging to ensure that the correct dosage of medication is being delivered to the patient. This lack of precise monitoring can potentially lead to under or over-dosing, which may result in ineffective treatment or adverse effects.

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61. (202) What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake & Output Worksheet?

Explanation

At shift change, the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake & Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This indicates that the total has been reviewed and verified by the person responsible for the shift change. No additional documentation or remarks are required in this case.

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62. (405) The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as ________________

Explanation

Absorption refers to the process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry (such as the gastrointestinal tract or the skin) into the circulatory system. This process allows the drug to be distributed throughout the body and reach its target site of action. Osmosis, solubility, and stimulation are not accurate terms to describe this process.

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63. (406) Why are oral medications that are taken BEFORE meals generally faster acting?

Explanation

Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content allows for quicker absorption of the medication into the bloodstream. When the digestive system is empty, there are fewer substances for the medication to compete with for absorption, resulting in faster and more efficient absorption. This leads to a quicker onset of action for the medication.

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64. (035) In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment for an unstable patient?

Explanation

The recommended interval for reassessment for an unstable patient is 5 minutes. This means that medical professionals should regularly check and evaluate the patient's condition every 5 minutes to ensure their stability and make necessary adjustments to their treatment plan if needed. Regular reassessment is crucial in monitoring any changes or deterioration in the patient's condition and allows for timely interventions to be made.

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65. (013) What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Explanation

Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulf and destroy pathogens. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate invading microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection.

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66. (013) Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time.  His body's response is called a ____________________

Explanation

When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because the primary immune response is the initial reaction of the immune system to an antigen (in this case, the chickenpox virus) that it has never encountered before. The primary immune response involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, which produce antibodies to fight against the virus. This response is usually slower and less effective compared to a secondary immune response, which occurs when the immune system encounters the same antigen again.

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67. (201) Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually 24 to 48 hours?

Explanation

The term "pass" refers to a statement that allows a patient to temporarily leave the medical facility for a short period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours. This could be for various reasons such as attending a family event or taking care of personal matters outside the facility. It is a temporary permission granted by the medical staff to the patient, indicating that they are allowed to be absent from the facility for a short period before returning.

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68. (216) How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Explanation

Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite as it ensures that the food is prepared according to their preferences and cultural background. By offering familiar and comforting foods, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and enjoy their meals. This can also help create a positive dining experience, which can further enhance their appetite and overall nutritional intake.

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69. (003) What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

Explanation

If the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes, and launder them in hot soapy water. This ensures that any contaminants are properly contained and removed from the clothing, reducing the risk of further contamination or spreading of harmful substances. Throwing the clothes in the trash without properly laundering them may still pose a risk, as the contaminants could potentially come into contact with other people or surfaces.

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70. (007) What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

Explanation

When the package integrity is compromised, the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is determined. This means that if the packaging of the equipment is damaged or compromised in any way, the sterilization process may no longer be effective, and the equipment should not be used. The shelf life in this case would be reduced or even nonexistent, as the equipment may no longer be considered sterile or safe for use.

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71. (244) How do you apply moist heat?

Explanation

The correct answer is to moisten a towel and place it between the heat application and the patient. This method allows the heat to penetrate the affected area while also providing a barrier between the heat source and the patient's skin to prevent burns or discomfort. Moist heat can help to increase blood flow, relax muscles, and reduce pain or inflammation.

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72. (034) What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Explanation

As an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident, it is your responsibility to care for the injured individuals and monitor their condition. Additionally, you are also responsible for rehabilitating the hazmat team members who may have been exposed to hazardous materials. This includes providing medical treatment, ensuring their safety, and assisting with any necessary decontamination procedures. By prioritizing the well-being of both the injured and the hazmat team, you can help mitigate the effects of the incident and ensure a timely and effective response.

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73. (020) What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Explanation

Prior to operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This is necessary in order to understand how the meter works, how to properly use it, and any specific precautions or guidelines that need to be followed. By reading the operating instructions, one can ensure that they are using the glucose meter correctly and obtaining accurate results.

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74. (401) Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

Explanation

Medical service technicians are allowed to administer medications, but they must do so under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians cannot administer medications on their own without the direct observation and guidance of a nurse or physician.

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75. (001) What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

Explanation

The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria. They are an independent, non-profit organization that aims to improve the quality and safety of healthcare services. They develop standards and guidelines that hospitals must meet in order to receive accreditation. The Joint Commission evaluates hospitals based on various criteria including patient care, infection control, medication management, and leadership. Their accreditation process helps ensure that hospitals provide high-quality care and meet certain standards of excellence.

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76. (029) In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on the ambulance call ONLY __________

Explanation

The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on the ambulance call is only permitted when it is in accordance with the specific guidelines and regulations set by the local authorities or organization. It is important to follow these protocols to ensure the safety of both the ambulance crew and other road users, and to ensure that the use of lights and sirens is justified and necessary in each situation.

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77. (410) Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a day.  Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg.  The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/ml.  How many ml's of Ancef will be given for each dose?

Explanation

To calculate the amount of Ancef to be given for each dose, we need to multiply the weight of Mrs. Green (65 kg) by the prescribed dosage (5 mg/kg). This gives us 325 mg. Since the medication is supplied in vials of 50 mg/ml, we divide 325 mg by 50 mg/ml to get the volume in milliliters. The result is 6.5 ml. Therefore, 6.5 ml of Ancef will be given for each dose.

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78. (214) The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

Explanation

Regression is the correct answer because it refers to a normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control. Regression involves reverting back to behaviors and coping mechanisms that were used at an earlier stage of development, which can provide a sense of comfort and security. This may involve behaviors such as seeking more attention, becoming more dependent on others, or displaying childlike behaviors. By regressing, children are attempting to regain a sense of control and security in situations where they feel overwhelmed or powerless.

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79. (036) Which classifications of fractures are considered more serious because of greater blood loss or contamination?

Explanation

Open fractures are considered more serious because they involve a break in the skin, which increases the risk of infection and contamination. The open wound also leads to greater blood loss, making it a more severe type of fracture. Closed fractures, on the other hand, do not break the skin, reducing the risk of infection and blood loss. Internal and external fixation are methods used to stabilize fractures and are not directly related to the severity of blood loss or contamination.

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80. (215) When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

Explanation

When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, dehydration would be a primary concern. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children. Dehydration can cause various symptoms such as dry mouth, decreased urine output, lethargy, and dizziness. It is important to monitor the child's fluid intake and provide adequate hydration to prevent further complications. Hypernatremia and hyperkalemia are conditions related to electrolyte imbalances and are not directly associated with nausea and vomiting. Aspiration, while a potential risk, is not the primary concern in this case.

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81. (023) During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are _______________

Explanation

During pulmonary function testing, it is necessary for the examinee to perform a minimum of 2 practice attempts and produce at least 3 acceptable tracings. This ensures that the examinee has sufficient practice and produces accurate and reliable results. Performing fewer practice attempts or producing fewer acceptable tracings may lead to inaccurate test results and compromise the validity of the pulmonary function testing. Therefore, the correct answer is 2:3.

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82. (029) When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should NOT be broadcasted?

Explanation

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcasted. This is because broadcasting the name of a patient can potentially violate their privacy and confidentiality. It is important to protect the patient's personal information and only share necessary medical details while communicating over the radio.

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83. (209) Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as.......

Explanation

Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormalities in the development of the fetus. They are not caused by infection or pathology, and they are not temporary conditions that will resolve on their own.

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84. (216) When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using

Explanation

When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using alcohol because it can be drying and irritating to the skin. Alcohol can strip the skin of its natural oils, leading to dryness and potential damage. Elderly individuals often have thinner, more fragile skin, and using alcohol-based products can exacerbate these issues. It is better to use gentle, moisturizing products that can help nourish and protect the skin.

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85. (017) The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to ______________

Explanation

Infusion therapy refers to the process of delivering fluids, medications, or nutrients directly into the bloodstream. The purpose of infusion therapy is to administer fluids into the circulatory system, which helps to replenish and maintain fluid balance in the body. This method is commonly used to provide hydration, deliver medications, or administer blood products to patients who are unable to take fluids orally or require immediate absorption. It is an essential medical procedure that ensures the efficient delivery of necessary substances to the body.

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86. (401) Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

Explanation

The trade name of a medication is given by the manufacturer. It is the brand name under which the drug is marketed and sold. The trade name is usually catchy and easy to remember, and it helps to distinguish the medication from others in the market. It is important for the manufacturer to choose a unique and appealing trade name to create brand recognition and attract consumers.

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87. (237) What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a venture mask?

Explanation

When moving a patient on a venture mask, it is important to monitor the patient during transport to ensure their condition remains stable. This allows for immediate intervention if any changes occur. Additionally, it is necessary to reassess the patient upon arrival to ensure their condition has not deteriorated during the transfer. This helps in providing appropriate and timely care to the patient.

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88. (404) Drug administration is controlled primarily by ________________

Explanation

Drug administration is controlled primarily by federal law because the federal government has the authority to regulate and enforce laws related to drug administration across the entire country. This ensures consistency and uniformity in drug regulations, standards, and safety measures, regardless of the state or facility. State amendments and state laws may also play a role in drug administration, but they are secondary to federal law and must align with federal regulations. Facility mandates may vary from one institution to another, but they must still comply with federal laws.

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89. (010) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at _____________

Explanation

A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months. This is because during the first two years of life, children experience rapid growth and development. By 24 months, most children have already doubled their birth weight and continue to gain weight steadily. Four times the birth weight at 24 months indicates healthy growth and development in a toddler.

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90. (420) Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

Explanation

Mosquitoes transmit the viral disease known as Yellow Fever. Yellow Fever is caused by the yellow fever virus, which is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The virus can cause a range of symptoms, from mild flu-like symptoms to severe liver damage and bleeding. It is prevalent in tropical and subtropical regions of Africa and South America, where mosquitoes are abundant. Vaccination is available to prevent Yellow Fever, especially for individuals traveling to high-risk areas.

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91. (012) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called _____________

Explanation

Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH less than 7 and are capable of donating protons (H+) in a solution. When acids dissolve in water, they dissociate into hydrogen ions, which give the solution an acidic character. This is in contrast to salts, which are formed when an acid reacts with a base and do not release hydrogen ions in water. Catalyzed and synthesized are unrelated terms and do not describe electrolytes that release hydrogen ions.

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92. (002) Which infectious agents are primitive, one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

Explanation

Bacteria are primitive, one-celled organisms that can reproduce rapidly. They are considered to be plant-like because they are prokaryotes and lack a true nucleus. Bacteria can be found in various environments and can cause infections in humans and other organisms. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out metabolic processes. Therefore, bacteria are the correct answer to the question.

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93. (002) What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Explanation

For a virus to multiply, it requires susceptible tissue. This means that the virus needs to find a host organism with cells or tissues that it can infect and replicate within. Without susceptible tissue, the virus cannot successfully multiply and spread throughout the organism.

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94. (226) What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?

Explanation

Allowing patients to channel their hostilities through verbal expression can be a helpful way to address their anger and hostility. This approach provides them with a safe outlet to express their emotions and allows them to feel heard and understood. It can also help to deescalate the situation and prevent the patient from becoming physically abusive. Referring the patient to the nurse or physician for counseling may be necessary in some cases, but in the immediate moment, allowing them to express their feelings verbally can be a beneficial strategy.

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95. (214) During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

Explanation

Separation anxiety is most stressful during the preschool stage of child development. This is because preschoolers are at a stage where they are starting to develop a sense of independence but still heavily rely on their primary caregivers for security and support. The fear of being separated from their caregivers can cause significant distress and anxiety in preschool-aged children. They may experience separation anxiety when being dropped off at school or when their parents leave them with a babysitter. This stage is characterized by a strong attachment to their caregivers and a heightened fear of abandonment, making separation anxiety particularly challenging during the preschool years.

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96. (205) What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?

Explanation

Prepping the skin prior to surgery helps reduce the chance of infection. This is because the prepping process involves cleaning the skin with an antiseptic solution, which helps kill any bacteria present on the skin's surface. By eliminating or reducing the number of bacteria, the risk of infection is significantly lowered. Properly prepping the skin also ensures that any potential contaminants are removed, preventing them from entering the surgical site and reducing the risk of post-operative complications.

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97. (240) When preparing a patient for insertion of the central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism?

Explanation

During the insertion of a central venous pressure line, the patient is taught to perform the Valsalva maneuver in order to decrease the chance of an air embolism. The Valsalva maneuver involves the patient holding their breath and bearing down, which increases intra-thoracic pressure and decreases the risk of air entering the bloodstream. This maneuver is commonly used in various medical procedures to prevent complications related to air embolisms.

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98. (201) What individual is NOT authorized to see and treat patients?

Explanation

Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. Dentists, Physician Assistants (PA), and Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM) are also authorized healthcare professionals who can see and treat patients.

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99. (207) If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea.  What should you do first?

Explanation

If a patient receiving a blood transfusion presents with distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential transfusion reaction or fluid overload. These symptoms suggest that the patient may be experiencing an adverse reaction to the transfusion, such as fluid overload or transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI). The immediate action should be to stop the transfusion to prevent further complications and assess the patient's condition. Continuing to monitor, placing the patient on their left side, or administering oxygen may be necessary interventions but should be done after stopping the transfusion.

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100. (416) While undergoing Heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin _______________

Explanation

During Heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, and Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors that depend on vitamin K. Consuming foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Heparin and increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, monitoring and controlling the intake of vitamin K-rich foods is essential to maintain the desired therapeutic effect of Heparin.

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101. (408) What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?

Explanation

Cathartics are a type of medication that have a cleansing action on the intestines, resulting in watery evacuation of intestinal content. They are commonly used as laxatives to relieve constipation or to prepare the bowel for medical procedures. Cathartics work by increasing the movement of the intestines and promoting bowel movements. This helps to clear the intestines of waste material and improve regularity.

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102. (014) Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

Explanation

In an intoxicated patient, impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes are signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment. Impaired vision can occur due to alcohol's effect on the brain and visual pathways. Uncoordinated movement is a common symptom of alcohol intoxication, as alcohol affects the cerebellum, which is responsible for coordinating movement. Behavioral changes can also occur due to alcohol's impact on the brain, leading to alterations in mood, judgment, and behavior. These signs and symptoms collectively indicate impairment of the nervous system in an intoxicated patient.

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103. (401) A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a ___________________

Explanation

A clinical pharmacist is the best definition for a specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs. Clinical pharmacists have advanced knowledge and expertise in medication therapy management and work closely with healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective drug therapy for patients. They provide recommendations and guidance on drug selection, dosage adjustments, and potential drug interactions, among other things. Their role is crucial in optimizing patient outcomes and minimizing medication-related risks.

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104. (414) Which medication's primary action is pain relief?

Explanation

The primary action of analgesics is pain relief. Sedatives and hypnotics are medications that induce sleep or relaxation, and they may also help with pain relief indirectly by promoting rest and relaxation. Therefore, the combination of analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics can provide pain relief and promote sleep or relaxation.

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105. (223) What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?

Explanation

In the third and final phase of spousal abuse, the abuser typically apologizes and promises that the abuse will never happen again. This is known as the "honeymoon phase" or the reconciliation phase. During this phase, the abuser may try to regain control over the victim by showing remorse, making promises, and expressing love and affection. However, it is important to note that this phase is often temporary and the cycle of abuse may continue unless proper intervention and support are provided.

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106. (018) In a piggy back setup, what prevents the mixing of the primary and secondary solutions?

Explanation

A back-check valve prevents the mixing of the primary and secondary solutions in a piggyback setup. This valve allows the flow of fluid in one direction only, preventing any backflow or mixing of the solutions. It ensures that the primary and secondary solutions remain separate and do not contaminate each other.

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107. (008) What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

Explanation

The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used to ensure accurate patient identification and to prevent errors in healthcare settings. Using the patient's full name helps to distinguish between patients with similar names, while the date of birth helps to further confirm the patient's identity and avoid confusion. This combination of identifiers is widely recognized and recommended for ensuring patient safety and maintaining accurate medical records.

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108. (232) What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?

Explanation

Liquid diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract. A liquid diet consists of foods that are in liquid or semi-liquid form, such as soups, juices, shakes, and pureed foods. This type of diet is easier to swallow and requires minimal chewing, making it suitable for individuals with chewing or swallowing difficulties. Additionally, a liquid diet helps to reduce the amount of residue in the digestive tract, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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109. (420) Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?

Explanation

Influenza vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products because the vaccine is typically made using eggs. The manufacturing process involves growing the influenza virus in eggs, which can lead to traces of egg proteins in the final vaccine. This can trigger an allergic reaction in individuals with egg allergies. Therefore, it is important to avoid administering the influenza vaccine to such individuals to prevent any adverse reactions.

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110. (217) The first stage of dying is

Explanation

Denial is the first stage of dying because it is a common psychological defense mechanism where individuals refuse to accept or acknowledge the reality of their impending death. During this stage, people may deny their diagnosis, downplay the severity of their condition, or ignore medical advice. Denial allows individuals to temporarily avoid the emotional distress associated with facing their own mortality, providing a buffer to gradually come to terms with the situation. It is a natural response to cope with the overwhelming emotions and uncertainties that come with the prospect of death.

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111. (409) Which element is not required on a medication order?

Explanation

The patient's age is not required on a medication order because the age of the patient does not impact the medication itself or the instructions for administering it. The patient's name is necessary to ensure that the medication is given to the correct individual. The specified time is important to indicate when the medication should be taken. The provider's signature is required for authentication and accountability purposes.

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112. (021) A proctoscopy is an inspection of the ________________

Explanation

A proctoscopy is a medical procedure that involves the examination of the rectum. It is a diagnostic tool used to inspect the rectal lining for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a proctoscopy, a flexible tube with a light and camera at the end is inserted into the rectum to allow the healthcare provider to visualize the rectal area. This procedure helps in the diagnosis and management of conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, and inflammatory bowel disease.

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113. (021) When educating that patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following EXCEPT shaving

Explanation

When educating a patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, it is important to instruct the patient to avoid shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth, with facial skin stretched, and with slow strokes. However, shaving in the direction of hair growth is actually the correct method to follow. Shaving against the direction of hair growth can increase the risk of PFB, so it should be avoided.

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114. (206) What precaution is taken for postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

Explanation

After receiving a radioisotope implant, the postoperative patient needs to be isolated. This is because radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to others. By isolating the patient, the risk of exposure to radiation is minimized, ensuring the safety of both the patient and others around them.

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115. (242) When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is _________________

Explanation

When caring for a patient with electrical burns, the first priority is the management of the patient's airway. Electrical burns can cause airway swelling and obstruction due to thermal injury or inhalation of hot gases. Therefore, ensuring that the patient's airway is open and maintained is crucial to prevent respiratory distress or failure. This may involve providing oxygen support, suctioning any secretions or debris, and potentially intubating the patient if necessary.

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116. (407) Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

Explanation

Physician Desk Reference is a common reference source for drugs. It is a comprehensive guide that provides information on prescription drugs, including their uses, side effects, dosages, and interactions. It is widely used by healthcare professionals, including physicians, to ensure safe and effective medication prescribing. The Internet Search may provide information on drugs, but it is not a specific reference source dedicated to drugs. Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook and Technician Pharmacy Handbook may also contain drug information, but they are more specialized for nursing and pharmacy professionals, respectively.

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117. (013) The life span of lymphocytes is ____________

Explanation

Lymphocytes have a relatively long life span compared to other cells in the body. They can survive for years, allowing them to provide long-term immune protection. This extended life span is important for their role in adaptive immunity, as they can remember and respond to specific pathogens encountered in the past. This longevity also ensures that the immune system maintains a diverse population of lymphocytes to effectively combat a wide range of infections and diseases.

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118. (014) For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their FIRST psychological reaction is ________________

Explanation

When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because their sudden health crisis can be overwhelming and unexpected, causing a state of disbelief and confusion. They may struggle to process the severity of their situation and may feel disoriented as they try to adjust to their new circumstances. This initial shock and disorientation is a common response before other emotions such as fear, anxiety, guilt, or acceptance may come into play.

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119. (230) Which is safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?

Explanation

Four point gait is a safe and stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs. In this gait, the patient moves one crutch forward followed by the opposite leg, then moves the other crutch forward followed by the other leg. This pattern provides a wider base of support and improves stability while walking. It is commonly used for patients with mild to moderate weakness or instability in both legs.

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120. (414) A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is _____________

Explanation

Sedatives and hypnotic medications are known to suppress the central nervous system, leading to a depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. This means that these medications can interfere with the normal sleep cycle and reduce the amount of REM sleep that a person experiences. REM sleep is important for various functions such as memory consolidation and emotional regulation, so a decrease in REM sleep can have negative effects on overall sleep quality and cognitive functioning.

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121. (224) Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing?

Explanation

Stimulants are a drug classification that can cause euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), tachycardia (rapid heartbeat), and rapid breathing. These drugs work by increasing activity in the central nervous system, leading to heightened alertness and increased energy levels. Examples of stimulants include amphetamines, cocaine, and methamphetamine.

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122. (012) When administering potassium intravenously, you should ______________

Explanation

When administering potassium intravenously, it is important to mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. This is because potassium can settle at the bottom of the container and uneven distribution of the medication can lead to inaccurate dosing. By mixing the potassium thoroughly, healthcare professionals ensure that the medication is evenly distributed, reducing the risk of complications or adverse effects.

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123. (404) What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Explanation

The Controlled Substances Act requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. This law regulates the manufacturing, distribution, and possession of certain drugs and substances. It aims to prevent the abuse and misuse of controlled substances by ensuring that accurate and up-to-date inventories are maintained. By regularly monitoring these substances, the law helps to ensure accountability and prevent illegal activities related to controlled substances.

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124. (416) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by  ___________________

Explanation

ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by decreasing vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which can lead to increased blood pressure. ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the production of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes vasoconstriction. By reducing the levels of angiotensin II, ACE inhibitors promote the dilation of blood vessels, resulting in decreased resistance to blood flow and ultimately lowering blood pressure.

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125. (218) All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed

Explanation

Personality refers to the unique set of characteristics, traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses the way a person thinks, feels, and behaves in different situations. It is shaped by a combination of genetic factors (heredity) and environmental influences. Personality is different from character, which refers to a person's moral and ethical qualities. Therefore, personality is the most appropriate term to encompass all aspects of an individual's being, feelings, and actions.

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126. (011) Which of the following is most likely to be part of a work site wellness program?

Explanation

Blood pressure screening is most likely to be part of a work site wellness program because it helps identify individuals who may have high blood pressure, which is a common risk factor for many chronic diseases. By offering blood pressure screening, employers can promote early detection and encourage employees to take necessary steps to manage their blood pressure and overall health. This aligns with the goal of work site wellness programs, which aim to improve employee health and well-being.

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127. (212) The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a ____________

Explanation

The correct answer is phantom limb pain. Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This phenomenon occurs even though the limb is no longer present, and it is believed to be caused by the brain's attempt to process the loss of sensory input from the amputated limb. It is a physiological phenomenon rather than a psychological one, as it is related to the body's physical response to amputation.

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128. (012) Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with ________________

Explanation

Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may cause newborns to be born with seizures. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in the development of the nervous system. However, excessive intake of B6 during pregnancy can lead to toxicity, resulting in neurological complications for the baby. Seizures are a common manifestation of B6 overdose in newborns, indicating abnormal brain activity. It is important for pregnant women to maintain an appropriate intake of B6 to prevent such complications.

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129. (419) When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control?

Explanation

When a patient is taking penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat and also taking oral contraceptives for birth control, it is important to inform the patient to use a back-up method of birth control while taking the penicillin. This is because penicillin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. Therefore, using an additional method of birth control, such as condoms, is necessary to ensure effective contraception during the course of penicillin treatment.

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130. (205) Without provider approval , what is the maximum number of minutes anti-embolism stockings may be removed?

Explanation

Anti-embolism stockings are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. It is important to keep them on as much as possible to maintain their effectiveness. However, they may need to be removed for certain activities or personal hygiene. Without provider approval, the maximum number of minutes anti-embolism stockings may be removed is 30. This ensures that there is minimal interruption in the prevention of blood clots while still allowing for necessary activities.

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131. (004) A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

Explanation

The correct answer is using the telephone or locally derived form. This is the most efficient and immediate way for a health care provider to notify Public Health of a suspected communicable disease. Using the telephone allows for real-time communication and the ability to provide any necessary details or updates. A locally derived form can also be used to document and report the suspected disease, ensuring accurate and timely notification to Public Health.

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132. (013) What is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Explanation

Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial component of the immune system and play a vital role in protecting the body against diseases. They are responsible for identifying and eliminating foreign substances, such as bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens, that can cause infections or diseases. Leukocytes act at the cellular level by recognizing and destroying these harmful agents, thereby helping to maintain the overall health and well-being of the body.

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133. (005) Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of micro-organisms on living tissue?

Explanation

Antiseptics are substances used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. They are specifically designed to be used on the skin, mucous membranes, and wounds to prevent infections. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are safe to use on living tissue. They work by either killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Common examples of antiseptics include hydrogen peroxide, iodine, and alcohol.

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134. (408) A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a _______________

Explanation

A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally is commonly referred to as a powder. Powders are versatile medication preparations that can be ingested orally or applied topically. They are finely ground substances that can be easily mixed with liquids or other substances for administration. Powders are commonly used in the pharmaceutical industry for their ease of use and ability to provide accurate dosing.

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135. (421) What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

Explanation

Grapefruit juice is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs. This is because grapefruit juice contains compounds called furanocoumarins that inhibit the activity of a specific enzyme in the intestines, known as CYP3A4. This enzyme is responsible for metabolizing many medications, and when its activity is inhibited, it can lead to higher levels of the drugs in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects or reducing their effectiveness. Therefore, consuming grapefruit juice while taking certain medications can be risky and should be avoided.

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136. (419) If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate?

Explanation

If a patient develops diarrhea after five days of penicillin treatment, it would be appropriate to advise them to add yogurt or buttermilk to their diet and monitor the number of episodes. This suggestion is based on the assumption that the diarrhea may be a side effect of the medication and can be managed by introducing probiotics (yogurt or buttermilk) into the diet. Monitoring the number of episodes will help determine if the diarrhea persists or improves with this dietary change.

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137. (243) How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?

Explanation

To apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound, the wet to dry method is used. This involves moistening the dressing with a saline solution or wound cleanser and placing it onto the wound. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound and when removed, it pulls away any dead tissue or debris, promoting wound healing. This method is effective in removing necrotic material and promoting a clean wound bed.

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138. (019) Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of a patient?

Explanation

Specific gravity is a urine test that is done to determine the hydration level of a patient. The specific gravity of urine measures the concentration of solutes in the urine and indicates how well the kidneys are functioning to concentrate or dilute urine. A low specific gravity may indicate overhydration, while a high specific gravity may indicate dehydration. Therefore, by measuring the specific gravity of urine, healthcare professionals can assess the hydration status of a patient.

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139. (026) When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a _____________________

Explanation

When cutting through thick muscular skin on the back, a provider would most likely use mayo scissors. Mayo scissors are specifically designed for cutting through tough tissues and are commonly used in surgical procedures. They have a robust, curved blade that allows for precise and controlled cutting, making them ideal for dissecting through thick skin and muscles. Allis clamp is commonly used for grasping and holding tissues, iris scissors are used for delicate and fine dissection, and a retractor is used to hold back tissues and provide better visibility during surgery.

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140. (229) The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned

Explanation

The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned at the head of the bed on the stretcher side because this allows them to have a clear view of the patient's position and provide necessary guidance and support during the transfer. Being at the head of the bed also enables the person to communicate effectively with the patient and coordinate the transfer process smoothly.

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141. (033) While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical  patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?

Explanation

When asking a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, the healthcare provider is trying to determine the time pattern of the pain. This information helps in understanding the duration and frequency of the pain episodes, which can be crucial in diagnosing the underlying cause and determining the appropriate treatment plan.

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142. (414) Opioids are contraindicated with ___________________

Explanation

Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can mask the symptoms of a head injury, making it difficult to accurately assess the patient's condition. Opioids can also cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous for someone with a head injury who may already have compromised breathing. It is important to avoid using opioids in these cases to ensure proper evaluation and management of the head injury.

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143. (219) Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical over activity?

Explanation

Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity. Neurosis refers to a psychological disorder involving anxiety and distress, obsession refers to a persistent, intrusive thought or impulse, and psychosis refers to a severe mental disorder characterized by a loss of contact with reality.

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144. (403) What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?

Explanation

Many medical treatment facilities use computer-generated products to avoid errors when copying a drug order. Computer-generated products provide a more efficient and accurate method of recording and transmitting drug orders compared to manual methods like Kardex or Medication Cards. Computer systems can automatically check for potential drug interactions, allergies, and correct dosages, reducing the risk of errors and improving patient safety. Additionally, computer-generated products allow for easier tracking and documentation of medication orders, streamlining the overall medication management process.

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145. (009) Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

Explanation

During the rehabilitation phase of nursing care, the focus is on helping the patient regain their independence and reach their full potential. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization, such as providing education, support, and encouragement, are crucial during this phase. This helps the patient develop the skills and confidence needed to manage their condition and achieve their goals.

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146. (420) Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in the early 2000's the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?

Explanation

Smallpox is the correct answer because it was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 through a global vaccination campaign led by the World Health Organization (WHO). The disease was responsible for millions of deaths throughout history, but thanks to the success of the vaccination efforts, the last natural case of smallpox was reported in 1977. However, the vaccine was reintroduced in the early 2000s as a mobility vaccine for military personnel due to concerns about the potential use of smallpox as a bioweapon.

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147. (034) If an individual walks into a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask ___________________

Explanation

You should ask what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device. This is because the type of assistance needed will depend on the patient's condition or injury. By knowing what is wrong with the patient, you can assess the level of assistance required and provide the appropriate transfer device to ensure their safety and comfort during the process.

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148. (035) If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the _______________________

Explanation

When treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the detailed physical exam. This is because in such critical situations, time is of the essence and immediate interventions or treatments may be necessary to stabilize the patient. Conducting a detailed physical exam can be time-consuming and may delay potentially life-saving actions. Instead, the focus should be on quickly assessing vital signs and addressing the immediate life-threatening issue.

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149. (226) To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every

Explanation

To prevent decubitus ulcers, it is recommended to change the patient's position every two hours. This is because prolonged pressure on certain areas of the body can lead to the development of these ulcers, also known as bedsores. By changing the patient's position regularly, pressure is relieved from specific areas, allowing blood flow to be restored and reducing the risk of ulcers. Changing the position every two hours helps to distribute pressure evenly and maintain skin integrity.

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150. (406) Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

Explanation

Warmer temperatures increase circulation by dilating blood vessels, which leads to a more rapid drug action. This is because increased blood flow allows the drug to be delivered to its target site more quickly, enhancing its effectiveness.

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151. (233) What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

Explanation

The solution temperature during gastric gavage should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, such as hot or chilled solutions, can cause discomfort or harm to the animal's stomach. Lukewarm solutions may also be uncomfortable for the animal. Therefore, maintaining the solution at room temperature ensures that it is neither too hot nor too cold, providing a safe and comfortable administration of the solution.

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152. (012) Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except ____________

Explanation

Vitamin C is commonly found in citrus fruits, broccoli, and tomatoes. However, cheese does not naturally contain high levels of vitamin C. Therefore, the correct answer is cheese.

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153. (012) A sign of Vitamin A deficiency includes _________________

Explanation

Night blindness is a sign of Vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining good vision, particularly in low light conditions. A lack of Vitamin A can lead to a condition called night blindness, where individuals struggle to see in dim lighting or at night. This occurs because Vitamin A is necessary for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin, which is responsible for detecting light in the retina. Without enough Vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, resulting in difficulty seeing in low light situations.

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154. (418) With type I diabetes, the pancreas ___________________

Explanation

In type I diabetes, the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. Without enough insulin, glucose cannot enter the cells effectively, leading to high blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct answer is that the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar.

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155. (012) Which ailment is NOT treated by Vitamin K?

Explanation

Vitamin K is not used to treat Heparin overdose. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and Vitamin K is involved in the process of blood clotting. Therefore, administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of Heparin and could potentially lead to further complications.

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156. (415) Antianxiety medications are prescribed for ______________________

Explanation

Antianxiety medications are prescribed to treat insomnia. These medications help to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can aid in falling asleep and staying asleep. Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or both. Antianxiety medications can be used as a short-term treatment for insomnia, particularly in cases where anxiety or stress is contributing to sleep difficulties. They can help to calm the mind and body, making it easier to achieve restful sleep.

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157. (030) When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

Explanation

When there is an apparent vehicle fire, the ambulance should be parked 100 feet away from the affected vehicle. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the ambulance crew and patients from any potential explosions, flames, or other hazards associated with the fire. Being at a safe distance allows the ambulance personnel to provide medical assistance without being in immediate danger.

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158. (418) Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection?

Explanation

Corticosteroids are used to prevent organ transplant rejection because they have immunosuppressive properties. These drugs suppress the immune system, reducing the body's immune response to the transplanted organ. This helps to prevent the immune system from attacking and rejecting the organ. Insulin is used to treat diabetes, not prevent organ transplant rejection. Tapazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism, and thyroid agents are used to treat thyroid disorders.

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159. (032) A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with _____________

Explanation

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury because this indicates that there is a high likelihood of severe injuries. By focusing on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and address life-threatening conditions, such as internal bleeding or organ damage. This approach allows for timely intervention and prioritization of treatment to maximize the patient's chances of survival and recovery.

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160. (213) Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause _________

Explanation

Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because the sudden movement and change in position can put stress on the heart, leading to a disruption in its normal rhythm and function. This can result in a sudden cessation of the heart's pumping action, leading to cardiac arrest. It is important to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid any sudden or jarring movements to prevent such complications.

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161. (231) Which type of patient exercise is provided for patient who are wither unable or not allowed to exercise? 

Explanation

Passive exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise. This type of exercise involves the therapist or caregiver moving the patient's limbs or body without any effort from the patient themselves. This helps to maintain joint flexibility, prevent muscle atrophy, and improve circulation in patients who are unable to actively participate in exercise due to physical limitations or medical conditions.

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162. (007) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a strong corrosive acid that can cause severe burns and damage to living tissues. It is primarily used in industrial settings for cleaning and etching metals, but its harsh nature makes it unsuitable for disinfecting purposes. In contrast, formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used disinfecting agents due to their antimicrobial properties and effectiveness in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.

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163. (241) There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident?

Explanation

If a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within 30 minutes of the accident, there is a high rate of success. This suggests that the sooner the procedure is performed, the better the chances of success. It is important to act quickly in order to minimize any damage or complications that may arise from the accident.

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164. (028) How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

Explanation

Suction units must provide a vacuum of 300 mmHg when the tube is clamped. This level of vacuum is necessary to effectively remove fluids or air from the patient's body. It ensures that the suctioning process is efficient and thorough. A lower vacuum level may not be sufficient to remove all the fluid or air, while a higher vacuum level may be too strong and potentially cause harm to the patient. Therefore, 300 mmHg is the appropriate vacuum level for suction units when the tube is clamped.

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165. (242) Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn?

Explanation

Partial thickness burns involve damage to the epidermis and possible damage to the dermis and its appendages. This means that both the outer layer of the skin and the layer beneath it may be affected. Superficial burns only involve damage to the epidermis, while full-thickness burns involve damage to all layers of the skin and severe thickness burns are not a recognized classification. Therefore, the correct answer is partial thickness.

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166. (231) Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that my cause

Explanation

Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as it may cause a heart attack. Isometric exercises involve contracting muscles without movement, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Holding one's breath during these exercises further increases blood pressure and can cause a sudden spike in heart rate. This can put excessive strain on the heart, potentially leading to a heart attack in individuals with underlying cardiovascular conditions.

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167. (404) Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as _____________________

Explanation

Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have a high potential for abuse but also have acceptable medical uses. These substances are classified as Schedule II drugs. This classification means that they have a high potential for abuse, can lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, and have a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions. This classification allows for their use in medical treatment but also acknowledges the need for strict regulations to prevent misuse and abuse.

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168. (418) Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with _______________

Explanation

Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When taken concomitantly with alcohol or salicylates, which are substances commonly found in medications like aspirin, it can potentiate or enhance the hypoglycemic effect of insulin. This means that the combination of insulin with alcohol or salicylates can further lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which is a condition characterized by abnormally low blood sugar levels. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using insulin in combination with alcohol or salicylates to avoid complications from hypoglycemia.

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169. (417) When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?

Explanation

Dramamine should be taken 30 minutes before expected motion because it is a medication used to prevent and treat motion sickness. By taking it before the motion, it allows the medication to be absorbed and start working in the body before the symptoms of motion sickness occur. This timing ensures that the medication is effective in preventing or reducing the symptoms of motion sickness during the anticipated motion.

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170. (012) Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by ________________

Explanation

Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a type of anemia that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, pale skin, and neurological symptoms, are first noted in individuals with pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia are all different types of anemia that have different causes and clinical presentations.

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171. (229) Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to the stretcher?

Explanation

Drawsheet and roller board can be used to slide a patient from the bed to the stretcher. A drawsheet is a sheet placed under the patient, which can be used to help slide them across surfaces. A roller board is a device with wheels that can be placed under the patient, allowing them to be easily moved. By using both the drawsheet and roller board together, healthcare professionals can safely transfer a patient from the bed to the stretcher.

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172. (208) Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

Explanation

The patient is ideally placed in a semi-sitting position before performing oropharyngeal suctioning. This position allows for better access to the oropharynx and helps prevent aspiration of secretions into the lungs. It also helps to reduce the risk of complications such as hypoxia and aspiration pneumonia.

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173. (012) Amino Acids are the small molecular building blocks of ______________

Explanation

Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. They are organic compounds that contain both an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH). These building blocks are linked together through peptide bonds to form long chains called polypeptides, which then fold into specific three-dimensional structures to create proteins. Lipids, glucose, and carbohydrates are not composed of amino acids and do not serve as building blocks for proteins.

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174. (234) During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis help, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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175. (005) Which medical term means the absence of infection?

Explanation

Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms. Asepsis is an important concept in healthcare settings, where strict measures are taken to prevent the spread of infections and maintain a sterile environment. Antimicrobial and antiseptic, on the other hand, refer to substances or treatments that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, while sepsis is a severe infection that can lead to organ failure and death.

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176. (003) Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

Explanation

The purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC is to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. This means that these precautions are designed to prevent the spread of infectious agents and protect both healthcare workers and patients from acquiring infections. By following these precautions, healthcare facilities can minimize the risk of infections and create a safer environment for everyone involved.

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177. (235) For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned

Explanation

The correct answer is "on his or her left side." When administering an enema, positioning the patient on their left side allows for better flow of the enema solution into the rectum and colon. This position helps to facilitate gravity-assisted movement of the solution through the intestines, making it easier for the patient to retain and expel the enema effectively.

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178. (209) A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called ___________

Explanation

A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by a disease process, making it more susceptible to breaking. Unlike traumatic fractures, which are caused by an injury or accident, pathologic fractures are a result of an underlying condition or disease.

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179. (416) Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to ________________

Explanation

Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion. Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in individuals with certain types of abnormal heart rhythms. Quinidine helps to prevent the recurrence of abnormal heart rhythms and maintain a normal rhythm after cardioversion. It does not treat anemia, produce bradycardia, or increase myocardial excitability.

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180. (210) The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it ____________________

Explanation

The semi-recumbent position can lead to flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position puts the hip joint in a flexed position for a prolonged period of time, which can lead to contractures and muscle imbalances. This can result in a decrease in range of motion and an increased risk of developing flexion deformities, where the hip joint is permanently fixed in a flexed position. Therefore, it is important to avoid the semi-recumbent position over long periods of time in these patients to prevent the development of hip deformities.

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181. (025) Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below ____________________

Explanation

Oxygen saturation (SaO2) refers to the percentage of hemoglobin in the blood that is saturated with oxygen. A normal oxygen saturation level is considered to be 95-100%. Therefore, if the patient's oxygen saturation falls below 97%, it indicates a decrease in the amount of oxygen being carried by the blood. This can be a sign of respiratory distress or inadequate oxygenation, and it is important to notify the nurse or physician immediately to assess and address the situation.

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182. (032) As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the _________________

Explanation

Apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the clavicles. This is because the clavicles are located above the neck and any blow above this area can potentially cause injury to the cervical spine. The cervical collar helps to stabilize the neck and prevent further damage in case of a potential spinal injury.

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183. (413) To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe __________________

Explanation

To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier and more accurate placement of the drops into the ear. By straightening the canal, the drops can reach the target area more effectively, ensuring proper medication delivery and treatment.

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184. (208) Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?

Explanation

The administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are powerful pain medications that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. This means that the rate and depth of breathing can decrease, which can be dangerous for the patient. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor the patient's respiratory status when administering narcotics to ensure their safety.

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185. (413) Vaginal suppositories are _________________

Explanation

Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This means that they are used to treat and fight against infections in the vagina. They are not used for cleaning purposes or to be cooled before administration. The answer indicates that vaginal suppositories have a specific medical purpose, which is to combat infections. It does not mention anything about the location of administration along the anterior wall of the vagina.

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186. (201) A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered _____________

Explanation

A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered "subsisting out." This term implies that the patient is able to maintain their existence outside of the hospital while still undergoing necessary medical care. It indicates that the patient is not completely discharged from the hospital but is allowed to continue their treatment in a different setting.

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187. (007) Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

Explanation

Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or fabric, which can be damaged or disintegrated by the sterilization process. Hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers use a combination of hydrogen peroxide vapor and low-temperature plasma to sterilize items, and this process may not be suitable for count sheets.

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188. (403) How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?

Explanation

There are two ways a provider can initiate a drug order. The first way is by writing a prescription for the patient, which can be given to the patient to take to a pharmacy. The second way is by electronically transmitting the prescription directly to the pharmacy using an electronic prescribing system.

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189. (420) Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of _______________

Explanation

Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of contaminated food or water. This means that the virus can be spread when a person consumes food or water that has been contaminated with the hepatitis A virus. This can occur when food or water is contaminated with the feces of an infected person. It is important to practice good hygiene and proper food handling to prevent the spread of hepatitis A.

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190. (015) What electrolyte deficiency or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Explanation

Hyperkalemia is a condition characterized by excessive levels of potassium in the blood. This electrolyte imbalance can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to dysrhythmias. Dysrhythmias can cause the heart to beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly, and if left untreated, can progress to cardiac arrest. In severe cases, dysrhythmias can also affect the respiratory system, leading to respiratory arrest. Therefore, hyperkalemia can be a potentially life-threatening condition that can result in cardiac or respiratory arrest.

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191. (011) What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

Explanation

Florence Nightingale linked pure water with health and the environment. This is because she recognized the importance of clean and safe water in preventing the spread of diseases and maintaining good health. She believed that access to pure water was crucial for maintaining hygiene and preventing infections, especially in healthcare settings. Nightingale's work and advocacy for improved sanitation and access to clean water played a significant role in transforming healthcare practices and reducing mortality rates.

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192. (417) Cathartics are categorized as _________________

Explanation

Cathartics are categorized as laxatives because they are substances that promote bowel movements and relieve constipation. Laxatives work by increasing the frequency and/or ease of passing stools. They can be used to treat temporary constipation or as a part of bowel preparation before certain medical procedures. Unlike antidiarrheal medications, which are used to slow down bowel movements, cathartics have the opposite effect and stimulate bowel activity. Similarly, antiemetics are used to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting, while emetics are substances that induce vomiting. Therefore, the correct category for cathartics is laxatives.

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193. (012) Which route is injectable iron administered?

Explanation

Z-track is a technique used to administer injectable iron. It involves pulling the skin to one side before injecting the medication into a deep muscle, such as the gluteus maximus. This technique helps to prevent the medication from leaking back into the subcutaneous tissue and causing skin discoloration or irritation. Intra muscular, intra venous, and transdermal routes are not commonly used for administering injectable iron.

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194. (203) Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

Explanation

Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a course of action to address the identified nursing problems. It includes setting goals, determining interventions, and establishing priorities. Through planning, nurses can create a roadmap for providing effective care and achieving positive patient outcomes. Assessing involves gathering data to identify nursing diagnoses, evaluating involves determining the effectiveness of interventions, and implementing involves carrying out the planned interventions. However, planning is the initial step that guides the entire nursing process.

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195. (227) To use the internal girdle of support, you MUST

Explanation

To use the internal girdle of support, it is necessary to simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles. This is because the internal girdle of support refers to the engagement of the deep core muscles, including the transverse abdominis and the muscles of the pelvic floor, which provide stability and support to the spine and pelvis. By contracting both the abdominal and buttocks muscles at the same time, the core is activated and strengthened, allowing for better posture, stability, and movement control.

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196. (416) Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis?

Explanation

Before the administration of digitalis, the pulse point that should be checked is the apical pulse. The apical pulse is located at the apex of the heart, which is the point where the heartbeat is most easily felt. Checking the apical pulse allows healthcare providers to assess the heart rate and rhythm accurately, as digitalis is a medication that affects the heart. By checking the apical pulse, healthcare providers can ensure that the heart is functioning properly before administering digitalis.

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197. (416) Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with _________________

Explanation

Grapefruit juice should not be taken with calcium channel blockers because it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized in the body. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit an enzyme in the liver, which is responsible for breaking down certain medications, including calcium channel blockers. When this enzyme is inhibited, the medication may not be broken down properly, leading to higher levels of the drug in the body. This can increase the risk of side effects and toxicity. It is important to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers to ensure the medication works effectively and safely.

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198. (222) Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except

Explanation

Psychotherapy is a form of treatment that focuses on improving an individual's mental health and well-being. It typically involves various therapeutic approaches such as talk therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and group therapy. Hypnosis, psychoanalysis, and occupational therapy are all commonly utilized techniques within psychotherapy. However, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not considered a form of psychotherapy. ECT is a medical procedure that involves the administration of electric shocks to the brain to induce seizures, primarily used in severe cases of depression or other mental illnesses. Therefore, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is the correct answer as it is not typically included in psychotherapy.

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199. (234) When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to

Explanation

One gram of diaper weight is equal to one milliliter (ml) of urine output in an infant. This means that for every gram the diaper weighs, it indicates that the infant has produced one milliliter of urine.

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200. (235) Colostomy irrigations are performed to

Explanation

Colostomy irrigations are performed to establish fecal control. This means that by performing colostomy irrigations, the healthcare provider aims to regulate and control the elimination of feces from the body through the colostomy. This can help in preventing accidents or unexpected bowel movements, allowing the patient to have better control over their bowel movements and promoting a more predictable and manageable bowel routine.

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(213) Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is...
(028) When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after...
(220) Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is...
(010) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?
(012) A good source of protein is _______________
(421) What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with...
(004) One of the most common and serious complications a female may...
(415) Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is...
(012) Complex carbohydrates are called
(409) Before administering any medications, you are responsible for...
(012) What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid...
(413) When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's...
(406) A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to...
(204) What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns...
(206) Which exercise is NOT commonly used for postoperative patients?
(003) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the...
(236) What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
(204) What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived...
(221) When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill...
(212) What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside...
(220) A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt...
(411) The method of parenteral medication administration that involves...
(024) Any artificial products or features which appear on an...
(201) What would be the responsibility of the medical technician...
(030) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide...
(411) Name the parts of a needle.
(224) What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has...
(024) What term is used to describe any variance in the normal...
(412) What administration method delivers medication directly into a...
(210) Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they...
(012) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen _____________
(026) When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
(019) What steps should you take if you identify a small object while...
(412) To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid...
(202) If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs...
(414) Opioid antagonist are used in the treatment of...
(034) Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime...
(002) Which  of the following most accurately describes an...
(409) How many pounds (lbs) are equal to 65 kg?
(213) The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined...
(002) Which infectious agent included two structural categories known...
(421) What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who...
(036) Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in...
(215) Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?
(223) What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child...
(024) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is...
(031) When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the...
(031) if THE PATIENT IS NOT ALERT AND HIS OR HER BREATHING IS LOWER...
(402) Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal...
(037) While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and...
(241) How are corneal abrasions detected?
(027) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty...
(414) Non-opioid analgesics are available __________________________
(219) Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform...
(405) Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of...
(420) Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon...
(420) What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?
(218) What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?
(012) Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except...
(413) Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?
(202) What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on...
(405) The process by which a drug is transported from the site of...
(406) Why are oral medications that are taken BEFORE meals generally...
(035) In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment...
(013) What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight...
(013) Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first...
(201) Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical...
(216) How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
(003) What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become...
(007) What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the...
(244) How do you apply moist heat?
(034) What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical...
(020) What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?
(401) Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service...
(001) What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital...
(029) In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on the ambulance...
(410) Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef...
(214) The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose...
(036) Which classifications of fractures are considered more serious...
(215) When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary...
(023) During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of...
(029) When transmitting information about a patient over the radio,...
(209) Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are...
(216) When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to...
(017) The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to ______________
(401) Out of the several names given each medication, which of these...
(237) What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a...
(404) Drug administration is controlled primarily by ________________
(010) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at...
(420) Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?
(012) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called...
(002) Which infectious agents are primitive, one-celled, plant-like...
(002) What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?
(226) What should you do to help patients who become angry and...
(214) During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the...
(205) What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?
(240) When preparing a patient for insertion of the central venous...
(201) What individual is NOT authorized to see and treat patients?
(207) If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion...
(416) While undergoing Heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet...
(408) What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces...
(014) Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you...
(401) A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is...
(414) Which medication's primary action is pain relief?
(223) What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?
(018) In a piggy back setup, what prevents the mixing of the primary...
(008) What are the standard identifiers associated with the National...
(232) What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty...
(420) Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic...
(217) The first stage of dying is
(409) Which element is not required on a medication order?
(021) A proctoscopy is an inspection of the ________________
(021) When educating that patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB)...
(206) What precaution is taken for postoperative patient who received...
(242) When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility,...
(407) Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
(013) The life span of lymphocytes is ____________
(014) For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical...
(230) Which is safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can...
(414) A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is...
(224) Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated...
(012) When administering potassium intravenously, you should...
(404) What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled...
(416) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood...
(218) All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed
(011) Which of the following is most likely to be part of a work site...
(212) The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by...
(012) Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be...
(419) When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of...
(205) Without provider approval , what is the maximum number of...
(004) A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected...
(013) What is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
(005) Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of...
(408) A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used...
(421) What food or drink is known for its high potential to change...
(419) If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient...
(243) How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a...
(019) Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of a...
(026) When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider...
(229) The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be...
(033) While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a...
(414) Opioids are contraindicated with ___________________
(219) Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by...
(403) What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors...
(009) Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent...
(420) Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972...
(034) If an individual walks into a medical treatment facility (MTF)...
(035) If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life...
(226) To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning...
(406) Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can...
(233) What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?
(012) Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods...
(012) A sign of Vitamin A deficiency includes _________________
(418) With type I diabetes, the pancreas ___________________
(012) Which ailment is NOT treated by Vitamin K?
(415) Antianxiety medications are prescribed for...
(030) When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the...
(418) Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ...
(032) A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with...
(213) Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord...
(231) Which type of patient exercise is provided for patient who are...
(007) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
(241) There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth...
(028) How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is...
(242) Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and...
(231) Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while...
(404) Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which...
(418) Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken...
(417) When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?
(012) Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by...
(229) Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to the...
(208) Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing...
(012) Amino Acids are the small molecular building blocks of...
(234) During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the...
(005) Which medical term means the absence of infection?
(003) Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard...
(235) For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably...
(209) A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer...
(416) Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to...
(210) The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods...
(025) Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's...
(032) As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow...
(413) To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age,...
(208) Which pain management method must be closely monitored because...
(413) Vaginal suppositories are _________________
(201) A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while...
(007) Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma...
(403) How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?
(420) Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of...
(015) What electrolyte deficiency or excess can cause dysrhythmias,...
(011) What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with...
(417) Cathartics are categorized as _________________
(012) Which route is injectable iron administered?
(203) Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing...
(227) To use the internal girdle of support, you MUST
(416) Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of...
(416) Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with...
(222) Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments...
(234) When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper...
(235) Colostomy irrigations are performed to
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