CDC 4N051 Medical Technician Set B (5th Edition) Practice Test!

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CDC 4N051 Medical Technician Set B (5th Edition) Practice Test! - Quiz

This is a practice test for the individuals who are looking towards getting into "Centers for Diseases Control and Prevention (CDC)". This test is created with extremely useful questions which will help you to settle well in your preparation for the upcoming exam as well as for the gain of knowledge on various diseases and their treatments. So, let's take this test!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria?

    • A.

      The Joint Commission

    • B.

      Infection Control Committee

    • C.

      American College of Surgeons

    • D.

      Center for Disease control and Prevention

    Correct Answer
    A. The Joint Commission
    Explanation
    The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria. They are an independent, non-profit organization that aims to improve the quality and safety of healthcare services. They develop standards and guidelines that hospitals must meet in order to receive accreditation. The Joint Commission evaluates hospitals based on various criteria including patient care, infection control, medication management, and leadership. Their accreditation process helps ensure that hospitals provide high-quality care and meet certain standards of excellence.

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  • 2. 

    (001) As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions (OI) be reviewed?

    • A.

      Quarterly

    • B.

      Annually

    • C.

      Every two years

    • D.

      As needed

    Correct Answer
    B. Annually
    Explanation
    Area-specific general operating instructions (OI) should be reviewed annually to ensure they are up to date and reflect any changes in procedures, equipment, or regulations. This regular review helps to maintain the accuracy and effectiveness of the instructions, ensuring that employees have the most current information to safely and efficiently carry out their tasks. Quarterly reviews may be too frequent and time-consuming, while reviews every two years may not be frequent enough to address any necessary updates in a timely manner. "As needed" is not a specific timeframe and does not provide a clear guideline for regular review.

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  • 3. 

    (002) Which  of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • A.

      Antigen

    • B.

      Antibody

    • C.

      Pathogen

    • D.

      Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    C. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It refers to any microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, that can invade the body and disrupt its normal functioning. Pathogens have the ability to multiply and spread, leading to various illnesses and health problems. Therefore, the term "pathogen" accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease.

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  • 4. 

    (002) Which infectious agents are primitive, one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

    • A.

      Helminths

    • B.

      Viruses

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      Fungi

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacteria
    Explanation
    Bacteria are primitive, one-celled organisms that can reproduce rapidly. They are considered to be plant-like because they are prokaryotes and lack a true nucleus. Bacteria can be found in various environments and can cause infections in humans and other organisms. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out metabolic processes. Therefore, bacteria are the correct answer to the question.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Which infectious agent included two structural categories known as yeast and molds?

    • A.

      Fungi

    • B.

      Virus

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      Chlamydiae

    Correct Answer
    A. Fungi
    Explanation
    Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only option that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Fungi are a group of organisms that can exist as single-celled yeasts or multicellular molds. They are distinct from viruses, bacteria, and chlamydiae, which do not have the same structural categories as fungi.

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  • 6. 

    (002) What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

    • A.

      Water and soil

    • B.

      Cool and dry

    • C.

      Warm and moist

    • D.

      Susceptible tissue

    Correct Answer
    D. Susceptible tissue
    Explanation
    For a virus to multiply, it requires susceptible tissue. This means that the virus needs to find a host organism with cells or tissues that it can infect and replicate within. Without susceptible tissue, the virus cannot successfully multiply and spread throughout the organism.

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  • 7. 

    (003) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of the particular disease?

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Virulence

    • C.

      Incubation

    • D.

      Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    C. Incubation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation refers to the stage of infection where the infectious agent has entered the body but the symptoms of the disease have not yet appeared. During this stage, the pathogen is multiplying and spreading within the body. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific infectious agent and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period ends, the individual may start showing symptoms and enter the illness stage of the infection.

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  • 8. 

    (003) Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

    • A.

      Prevent the risk of transmission of blood borne pathogens

    • B.

      Reduce the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of transmission

    • C.

      Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organism's known method of reproduction

    • D.

      Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals
    Explanation
    The purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC is to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. This means that these precautions are designed to prevent the spread of infectious agents and protect both healthcare workers and patients from acquiring infections. By following these precautions, healthcare facilities can minimize the risk of infections and create a safer environment for everyone involved.

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  • 9. 

    (003) What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated?

    • A.

      Change into clean clothes before leaving work and throw the clothes in the trash

    • B.

      Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water

    • C.

      Wipe off the affected area before leaving work and launder clothes in hot soapy water

    • D.

      Wipe off the affected area, change into clean clothes, and throw dirty clothes into the trash

    Correct Answer
    B. Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water
    Explanation
    If the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes, and launder them in hot soapy water. This ensures that any contaminants are properly contained and removed from the clothing, reducing the risk of further contamination or spreading of harmful substances. Throwing the clothes in the trash without properly laundering them may still pose a risk, as the contaminants could potentially come into contact with other people or surfaces.

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  • 10. 

    (004) One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is_________________?

    • A.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

    • B.

      Irregular menstrual cycles

    • C.

      Vaginal discharge

    • D.

      Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
    Explanation
    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix and uterus to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and other reproductive organs. It can lead to severe pain in the lower abdomen, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge, and can even cause infertility if left untreated. It is important for females with gonorrhea to seek medical attention to prevent the development of PID and its potential long-term consequences.

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  • 11. 

    (004) A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

    • A.

      Using the telephone or locally derived form

    • B.

      Completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile

    • C.

      Paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic

    • D.

      Faxing a Standard For (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care

    Correct Answer
    A. Using the telephone or locally derived form
    Explanation
    The correct answer is using the telephone or locally derived form. This is the most efficient and immediate way for a health care provider to notify Public Health of a suspected communicable disease. Using the telephone allows for real-time communication and the ability to provide any necessary details or updates. A locally derived form can also be used to document and report the suspected disease, ensuring accurate and timely notification to Public Health.

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  • 12. 

    (005) Which medical term means the absence of infection?

    • A.

      Antimicrobial

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Asepsis

    • D.

      Sepsis

    Correct Answer
    C. Asepsis
    Explanation
    Asepsis is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms. Asepsis is an important concept in healthcare settings, where strict measures are taken to prevent the spread of infections and maintain a sterile environment. Antimicrobial and antiseptic, on the other hand, refer to substances or treatments that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, while sepsis is a severe infection that can lead to organ failure and death.

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  • 13. 

    (005) Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of micro-organisms on living tissue?

    • A.

      Disinfectant

    • B.

      Antiseptic

    • C.

      Detergent

    • D.

      Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    B. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. They are specifically designed to be used on the skin, mucous membranes, and wounds to prevent infections. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are safe to use on living tissue. They work by either killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Common examples of antiseptics include hydrogen peroxide, iodine, and alcohol.

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  • 14. 

    (006) When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on_______________

    • A.

      After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving

    • B.

      After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • C.

      Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • D.

      Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    C. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the mask should be put on before entering the isolation unit and taken off before leaving. This is the most effective way to prevent the spread of any contaminants or pathogens present in the unit. Wearing the mask before entering ensures that any particles or droplets in the air are filtered out, protecting the wearer. Taking off the mask before leaving prevents any contaminants that may have accumulated on the mask from being spread outside of the unit.

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  • 15. 

    (007) What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      45 days

    • C.

      6 months

    • D.

      When the package integrity is compromised

    Correct Answer
    D. When the package integrity is compromised
    Explanation
    When the package integrity is compromised, the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is determined. This means that if the packaging of the equipment is damaged or compromised in any way, the sterilization process may no longer be effective, and the equipment should not be used. The shelf life in this case would be reduced or even nonexistent, as the equipment may no longer be considered sterile or safe for use.

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  • 16. 

    (007) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

    • A.

      Formaldehydes

    • B.

      Hydrochloric Acid

    • C.

      Phenolics

    • D.

      Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydrochloric Acid
    Explanation
    Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a strong corrosive acid that can cause severe burns and damage to living tissues. It is primarily used in industrial settings for cleaning and etching metals, but its harsh nature makes it unsuitable for disinfecting purposes. In contrast, formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used disinfecting agents due to their antimicrobial properties and effectiveness in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.

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  • 17. 

    (007) What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

    • A.

      Between 112 and 121 degrees F

    • B.

      Between 122 and 131 degrees F

    • C.

      Between 215 and 230 degrees F

    • D.

      Between 270 and 285 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    B. Between 122 and 131 degrees F
    Explanation
    The temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer is between 122 and 131 degrees F.

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  • 18. 

    (007) Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

    • A.

      Plastic Trays

    • B.

      Count Sheets

    • C.

      Metal Instruments

    • D.

      Nonmetal Instruments

    Correct Answer
    B. Count Sheets
    Explanation
    Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or fabric, which can be damaged or disintegrated by the sterilization process. Hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers use a combination of hydrogen peroxide vapor and low-temperature plasma to sterilize items, and this process may not be suitable for count sheets.

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  • 19. 

    (008) What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

    • A.

      Patient's full name and date of birth

    • B.

      Patient's full name and Social Security Number

    • C.

      Patient's Social Security Number and date of birth

    • D.

      Patient's last name, age, and Social Security Number

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient's full name and date of birth
    Explanation
    The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used to ensure accurate patient identification and to prevent errors in healthcare settings. Using the patient's full name helps to distinguish between patients with similar names, while the date of birth helps to further confirm the patient's identity and avoid confusion. This combination of identifiers is widely recognized and recommended for ensuring patient safety and maintaining accurate medical records.

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  • 20. 

    (008) What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

    • A.

      Risk assessment and control

    • B.

      Risk management and patient safety

    • C.

      Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control

    • D.

      Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety

    Correct Answer
    C. Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control
    Explanation
    The foundations of safe and effective healthcare involve proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare providers should actively identify potential risks, assess their impact on patient safety, and implement measures to control and mitigate these risks. By taking a proactive approach, healthcare professionals can prevent adverse events and ensure the well-being of patients. This approach emphasizes the importance of identifying and addressing potential risks before they lead to harm, promoting a culture of safety within healthcare settings.

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  • 21. 

    (009) The very low-density lipoproteins transport _______________

    • A.

      Glucose from the small intestine to the live to be stored as glycogen

    • B.

      Amino acids to the liver to dispose of most of the cholesterol through bile

    • C.

      Lipids from the liver to the stomach where they are joined with amino acids

    • D.

      Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells
    Explanation
    Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) are responsible for transporting triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells. Triglycerides are a type of lipid that is stored in adipose cells for energy storage. VLDL helps transport these triglycerides from the liver to adipose cells throughout the body.

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  • 22. 

    (009) Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Wellness

    • C.

      Diagnosis

    • D.

      Rehabilitation

    Correct Answer
    D. Rehabilitation
    Explanation
    During the rehabilitation phase of nursing care, the focus is on helping the patient regain their independence and reach their full potential. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization, such as providing education, support, and encouragement, are crucial during this phase. This helps the patient develop the skills and confidence needed to manage their condition and achieve their goals.

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  • 23. 

    (010) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at _____________

    • A.

      12 months

    • B.

      18 months

    • C.

      24 months

    • D.

      30 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 months
    Explanation
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months. This is because during the first two years of life, children experience rapid growth and development. By 24 months, most children have already doubled their birth weight and continue to gain weight steadily. Four times the birth weight at 24 months indicates healthy growth and development in a toddler.

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  • 24. 

    (010) Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

    • A.

      Muscle atrophy

    • B.

      Caring for elderly parents

    • C.

      Increased cellular oxygen content

    • D.

      Calcium loss in females is first noticed

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle atrophy
    Explanation
    Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood because as individuals age, their muscle mass and strength naturally decline. This can lead to decreased mobility and increased risk of falls and injuries. Regular exercise and strength training can help slow down the process of muscle atrophy in late adulthood.

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  • 25. 

    (011) What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

    • A.

      Fitness

    • B.

      Pure Water

    • C.

      Work site safety

    • D.

      Psychological wellness

    Correct Answer
    B. Pure Water
    Explanation
    Florence Nightingale linked pure water with health and the environment. This is because she recognized the importance of clean and safe water in preventing the spread of diseases and maintaining good health. She believed that access to pure water was crucial for maintaining hygiene and preventing infections, especially in healthcare settings. Nightingale's work and advocacy for improved sanitation and access to clean water played a significant role in transforming healthcare practices and reducing mortality rates.

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  • 26. 

    (011) Which of the following is most likely to be part of a work site wellness program?

    • A.

      Blood Pressure Screening

    • B.

      Assessing current fitness status

    • C.

      Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • D.

      Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Pressure Screening
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screening is most likely to be part of a work site wellness program because it helps identify individuals who may have high blood pressure, which is a common risk factor for many chronic diseases. By offering blood pressure screening, employers can promote early detection and encourage employees to take necessary steps to manage their blood pressure and overall health. This aligns with the goal of work site wellness programs, which aim to improve employee health and well-being.

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  • 27. 

    (012) A good source of protein is _______________

    • A.

      Fruits

    • B.

      Rice

    • C.

      Poultry

    • D.

      Vitamins

    Correct Answer
    C. Poultry
    Explanation
    Poultry is a good source of protein because it is a lean meat that contains all essential amino acids needed for the body's growth and repair. It is also low in saturated fat and high in vitamins and minerals. Fruits and rice may provide some protein, but they are not as concentrated or complete as poultry. Vitamins, on the other hand, are not a source of protein but rather essential nutrients that support various bodily functions.

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  • 28. 

    (012) Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by ________________

    • A.

      Aplastic anemia

    • B.

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C.

      Pernicious anemia

    • D.

      Sickle cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a type of anemia that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, pale skin, and neurological symptoms, are first noted in individuals with pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia are all different types of anemia that have different causes and clinical presentations.

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  • 29. 

    (012) Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with ________________

    • A.

      Anemia

    • B.

      Seizures

    • C.

      Strabismus

    • D.

      Disfigurement

    Correct Answer
    B. Seizures
    Explanation
    Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may cause newborns to be born with seizures. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in the development of the nervous system. However, excessive intake of B6 during pregnancy can lead to toxicity, resulting in neurological complications for the baby. Seizures are a common manifestation of B6 overdose in newborns, indicating abnormal brain activity. It is important for pregnant women to maintain an appropriate intake of B6 to prevent such complications.

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  • 30. 

    (012) Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except ____________

    • A.

      Citrus

    • B.

      Cheese

    • C.

      Broccoli

    • D.

      Tomatoes

    Correct Answer
    B. Cheese
    Explanation
    Vitamin C is commonly found in citrus fruits, broccoli, and tomatoes. However, cheese does not naturally contain high levels of vitamin C. Therefore, the correct answer is cheese.

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  • 31. 

    (012) A sign of Vitamin A deficiency includes _________________

    • A.

      Myopia

    • B.

      Presbyopia

    • C.

      Night blindness

    • D.

      Macular degeneration

    Correct Answer
    C. Night blindness
    Explanation
    Night blindness is a sign of Vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for maintaining good vision, particularly in low light conditions. A lack of Vitamin A can lead to a condition called night blindness, where individuals struggle to see in dim lighting or at night. This occurs because Vitamin A is necessary for the production of a pigment called rhodopsin, which is responsible for detecting light in the retina. Without enough Vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, resulting in difficulty seeing in low light situations.

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  • 32. 

    (012) Which ailment is NOT treated by Vitamin K?

    • A.

      Ulcerative colitis

    • B.

      Heparin overdose

    • C.

      Malabsorption syndromes

    • D.

      Prolonged use of salicylates

    Correct Answer
    B. Heparin overdose
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is not used to treat Heparin overdose. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and Vitamin K is involved in the process of blood clotting. Therefore, administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of Heparin and could potentially lead to further complications.

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  • 33. 

    (012) What percentage of the body's weight are minerals responsible for? 

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    Minerals are responsible for approximately 4% of the body's weight. These essential nutrients are required in small amounts for various bodily functions, such as maintaining bone health, regulating fluid balance, and supporting nerve and muscle function. While 4% may seem like a small percentage, minerals play a crucial role in overall health and well-being.

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  • 34. 

    (012) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen _____________

    • A.

      During a blood transfusion

    • B.

      As a result of not using table salt

    • C.

      When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • D.

      Through excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    D. Through excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, the body can become deficient in sodium chloride. This deficiency can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 35. 

    (012) When administering potassium intravenously, you should ______________

    • A.

      Give a bolus

    • B.

      Administer directly through a saline lock

    • C.

      Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration

    • D.

      Add the potassium to an IV solution bag that is already infusing

    Correct Answer
    C. Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration
    Explanation
    When administering potassium intravenously, it is important to mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. This is because potassium can settle at the bottom of the container and uneven distribution of the medication can lead to inaccurate dosing. By mixing the potassium thoroughly, healthcare professionals ensure that the medication is evenly distributed, reducing the risk of complications or adverse effects.

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  • 36. 

    (012) Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except ___________________

    • A.

      Kale

    • B.

      Pork

    • C.

      Salmon

    • D.

      Turnip greens

    Correct Answer
    B. Pork
    Explanation
    Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a significant source of calcium.

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  • 37. 

    (012) Which route is injectable iron administered?

    • A.

      Intra muscular

    • B.

      Intra venous

    • C.

      Transdermal

    • D.

      Z-track

    Correct Answer
    D. Z-track
    Explanation
    Z-track is a technique used to administer injectable iron. It involves pulling the skin to one side before injecting the medication into a deep muscle, such as the gluteus maximus. This technique helps to prevent the medication from leaking back into the subcutaneous tissue and causing skin discoloration or irritation. Intra muscular, intra venous, and transdermal routes are not commonly used for administering injectable iron.

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  • 38. 

    (012) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called _____________

    • A.

      Salts

    • B.

      Acids

    • C.

      Catalyzed

    • D.

      Synthesized

    Correct Answer
    B. Acids
    Explanation
    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH less than 7 and are capable of donating protons (H+) in a solution. When acids dissolve in water, they dissociate into hydrogen ions, which give the solution an acidic character. This is in contrast to salts, which are formed when an acid reacts with a base and do not release hydrogen ions in water. Catalyzed and synthesized are unrelated terms and do not describe electrolytes that release hydrogen ions.

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  • 39. 

    (012) What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

    • A.

      Weak and malaise

    • B.

      Dizzy and agitated

    • C.

      Emotional and tired

    • D.

      Short of breath and confused

    Correct Answer
    B. Dizzy and agitated
    Explanation
    Symptoms of blood pH alkalosis may include feeling dizzy and agitated. Alkalosis occurs when the blood pH level becomes too high, indicating an excess of alkaline substances in the body. This can disrupt the balance of electrolytes and cause symptoms such as dizziness and agitation. Other possible symptoms of alkalosis may include weakness, malaise, emotional changes, tiredness, and confusion. However, the given answer specifically mentions the symptoms of dizziness and agitation, which are commonly associated with alkalosis.

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  • 40. 

    (012) Complex carbohydrates are called

    • A.

      Bisaccharides

    • B.

      Disaccharides

    • C.

      Polysaccharides

    • D.

      Monosacchrides

    Correct Answer
    C. Polysaccharides
    Explanation
    Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates because they consist of multiple monosaccharide units joined together through glycosidic bonds. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, cellulose, and glycogen. These molecules are larger and more complex than monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are made up of one or two sugar units, respectively. Bisaccharides is not a term commonly used to describe carbohydrates, and disaccharides refer to simple sugars composed of two monosaccharides. Therefore, polysaccharides is the correct answer to describe complex carbohydrates.

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  • 41. 

    (012) What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

    • A.

      Stomach

    • B.

      Heart

    • C.

      Brain

    • D.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    D. Liver
    Explanation
    The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It synthesizes and breaks down lipids, regulates cholesterol levels, and produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels and detoxifying harmful substances. Therefore, it is the organ that has the most significant influence on lipid metabolism in the body.

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  • 42. 

    (012) Amino Acids are the small molecular building blocks of ______________

    • A.

      Lipids

    • B.

      Proteins

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Carbohydrates

    Correct Answer
    B. Proteins
    Explanation
    Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. They are organic compounds that contain both an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH). These building blocks are linked together through peptide bonds to form long chains called polypeptides, which then fold into specific three-dimensional structures to create proteins. Lipids, glucose, and carbohydrates are not composed of amino acids and do not serve as building blocks for proteins.

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  • 43. 

    (013) What is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • A.

      Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • B.

      The body's only defense against infection

    • C.

      Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • D.

      Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial component of the immune system and play a vital role in protecting the body against diseases. They are responsible for identifying and eliminating foreign substances, such as bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens, that can cause infections or diseases. Leukocytes act at the cellular level by recognizing and destroying these harmful agents, thereby helping to maintain the overall health and well-being of the body.

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  • 44. 

    (013) The life span of lymphocytes is ____________

    • A.

      12 hours

    • B.

      2 weeks

    • C.

      Years

    • D.

      Days

    Correct Answer
    C. Years
    Explanation
    Lymphocytes have a relatively long life span compared to other cells in the body. They can survive for years, allowing them to provide long-term immune protection. This extended life span is important for their role in adaptive immunity, as they can remember and respond to specific pathogens encountered in the past. This longevity also ensures that the immune system maintains a diverse population of lymphocytes to effectively combat a wide range of infections and diseases.

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  • 45. 

    (013) What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

    • A.

      Lymphocytes and macrophages

    • B.

      Polyleukcytes and monocytes

    • C.

      Monocytes and phagocytes

    • D.

      Neutrophils and leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes and macrophages
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulf and destroy pathogens. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate invading microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection.

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  • 46. 

    ( 013) The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the __________________

    • A.

      Parathyroid glands

    • B.

      Pituitary gland

    • C.

      Thymus gland

    • D.

      Thyroid gland

    Correct Answer
    C. Thymus gland
    Explanation
    The thymus gland is the primary central gland of the lymphatic system. It plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T lymphocytes, which are important for immune responses. The thymus gland produces and releases hormones that stimulate the production and differentiation of T cells. These T cells then migrate to other lymphoid organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes, where they play a vital role in immune surveillance and defense against pathogens.

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  • 47. 

    (013) Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time.  His body's response is called a ____________________

    • A.

      Secondary immune response

    • B.

      Primary immune response

    • C.

      Partial immune response

    • D.

      Single immune response

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary immune response
    Explanation
    When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's response is called a primary immune response. This is because the primary immune response is the initial reaction of the immune system to an antigen (in this case, the chickenpox virus) that it has never encountered before. The primary immune response involves the activation of immune cells, such as B cells and T cells, which produce antibodies to fight against the virus. This response is usually slower and less effective compared to a secondary immune response, which occurs when the immune system encounters the same antigen again.

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  • 48. 

    (013) During which stage of healing are immune fiber cells and capillaries formed?

    • A.

      Bruising

    • B.

      Maturation

    • C.

      Inflammation

    • D.

      Reconstruction

    Correct Answer
    C. Inflammation
    Explanation
    During the inflammation stage of healing, immune fiber cells and capillaries are formed. This stage is characterized by the body's response to injury, where blood vessels dilate to increase blood flow to the area. This increased blood flow brings immune cells and nutrients to the site of injury, promoting healing. Immune fiber cells, such as macrophages, help to remove debris and bacteria from the wound, while capillaries form to provide oxygen and nutrients to the healing tissue.

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  • 49. 

    (014) For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their FIRST psychological reaction is ________________

    • A.

      Guilt

    • B.

      Acceptance

    • C.

      Fear and anxiety

    • D.

      Shock and disorientation

    Correct Answer
    D. Shock and disorientation
    Explanation
    When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because their sudden health crisis can be overwhelming and unexpected, causing a state of disbelief and confusion. They may struggle to process the severity of their situation and may feel disoriented as they try to adjust to their new circumstances. This initial shock and disorientation is a common response before other emotions such as fear, anxiety, guilt, or acceptance may come into play.

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  • 50. 

    (014) Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?

    • A.

      Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes

    • B.

      Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath

    • C.

      Muscle tremors, behavioral changes, rapid pulse rate

    • D.

      Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors

    Correct Answer
    A. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes
    Explanation
    In an intoxicated patient, impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes are signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment. Impaired vision can occur due to alcohol's effect on the brain and visual pathways. Uncoordinated movement is a common symptom of alcohol intoxication, as alcohol affects the cerebellum, which is responsible for coordinating movement. Behavioral changes can also occur due to alcohol's impact on the brain, leading to alterations in mood, judgment, and behavior. These signs and symptoms collectively indicate impairment of the nervous system in an intoxicated patient.

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