Smartest Pulmonologist Quiz Questions

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1. A patient asks what causes pneumonia. How should the nurse reply? Pneumonia is caused by: 

Explanation

Pneumonia is caused by viral or bacterial infections. These infections can lead to inflammation and infection in the lungs, resulting in pneumonia. Other factors such as the use of anesthetic agents in surgery, atelectasis, and chronic lung changes seen with aging can contribute to the development of pneumonia, but the primary cause is viral or bacterial infections.

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About This Quiz
Smartest Pulmonologist Quiz Questions - Quiz

The 'Smartest Pulmonologist Quiz' assesses knowledge on respiratory conditions and their documentation. It covers terms like dyspnea, orthopnea, and Cheyne-Stokes respiration, essential for healthcare professionals, particularly in pulmonology and critical care.

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2. When the nurse observes a diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia, the patient generally acquires this pneumonia:

Explanation

Nosocomial pneumonia refers to pneumonia that is acquired in a hospital setting. This means that the patient develops pneumonia while they are already hospitalized for another reason. Nosocomial pneumonia is often caused by bacteria that can be present in healthcare facilities, and it typically occurs in patients who are already sick or have weakened immune systems. Therefore, the correct answer is during hospitalization.

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3. A nurse is teaching a patient about anaphylactic shock. Which information should the nurse include? The onset of anaphylactic shock is usually: 

Explanation

The nurse should include in the teaching that the onset of anaphylactic shock is usually immediate and life-threatening. This means that the symptoms of anaphylactic shock can occur rapidly after exposure to an allergen and can be severe, potentially leading to a life-threatening situation if not treated promptly. It is important for the patient to be aware of the urgency in seeking medical attention if they experience any signs or symptoms of anaphylactic shock.

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4. A nurse takes an adult patient's blood pressure and determines it to be normal. What reading did the nurse obtain?

Explanation

The nurse obtained a blood pressure reading that is considered normal for an adult patient. The systolic pressure is less than 120 mm Hg, indicating the pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting is within a normal range. The diastolic pressure is less than 80 mm Hg, indicating the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest is also within a normal range. This combination of systolic and diastolic pressures falls within the normal blood pressure range for adults.

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5. A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with swelling and redness. While obtaining the patient's history, which finding could have caused her condition? 

Explanation

The patient's presentation of lower leg pain, swelling, and redness is consistent with the symptoms of venous thrombus, also known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). A venous thrombus occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. This can cause pain, swelling, and redness due to the obstruction of blood flow. Other conditions listed, such as heart valve damage, bacterial infection, and atherosclerosis, may also cause similar symptoms but are less likely to be the cause in this case.

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6. A 60-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. He is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. This disease is caused by:

Explanation

The correct answer is abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls. Atherosclerosis is a disease characterized by the buildup of plaque, consisting of cholesterol, fat, and other substances, in the walls of arteries. Over time, this plaque can cause the arteries to become thickened and hardened, leading to reduced blood flow and potentially causing chest pain or other symptoms. This condition is commonly associated with risk factors such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, smoking, and diabetes.

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7. A 30-year-old female presents to her primary care provider with fever, cardiac murmur, and petechial skin lesions. She is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. When the patient wants to know what caused the disease, what is the nurse's best response? The most likely cause of the disease is: 

Explanation

The most likely cause of infective endocarditis is bacteria. Bacterial endocarditis occurs when bacteria enter the bloodstream and attach to the heart valves or other damaged areas of the heart. This can happen through dental procedures, surgeries, IV drug use, or certain medical conditions. Bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans are commonly implicated in infective endocarditis. Viruses, fungi, and parasites are less common causes of the disease.

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8. 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes. How should the nurse chart this condition? Patient has: 

Explanation

The nurse should chart that the patient has cyanosis. Cyanosis is a condition characterized by bluish skin and mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygenation of the blood. In this case, the patient's difficulty breathing and emphysema may be causing a lack of oxygen exchange in the lungs, leading to cyanosis. Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood, hematemesis refers to vomiting blood, and ischemia refers to inadequate blood supply to a tissue or organ. None of these terms accurately describe the patient's presentation.

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9. A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? 

Explanation

The term the nurse should use to document this condition is dyspnea. Dyspnea refers to difficulty in breathing or the sensation of not getting enough air. The patient's symptoms of subcostal and intercostal retractions, along with feeling that breathing is difficult, indicate dyspnea. Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen, hyperpnea refers to increased depth and rate of breathing, and orthopnea refers to difficulty in breathing while lying flat.

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10. A 28-year-old male reports to his primary care provider that he has had a cold for a week and is coughing up bloody secretions. When giving report, what term should the nurse use to describe this condition? 

Explanation

The term "hemoptysis" should be used to describe the condition in which the patient is coughing up bloody secretions. Hemoptysis refers specifically to the coughing up of blood or blood-stained sputum from the respiratory tract. This term is appropriate in this case because the patient is experiencing a cold and is coughing up bloody secretions. Hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood, Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, and Rhinitis refers to inflammation of the nasal passages.

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11. A group of mountain climbers experience confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal output after climbing Mount Rainier. A nurse recalls this condition is caused by: 

Explanation

The group of mountain climbers experienced confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal output after climbing Mount Rainier. This suggests that they may be suffering from high altitude sickness, also known as acute mountain sickness (AMS). One of the main causes of AMS is decreased inspired oxygen at high altitudes. As the climbers ascend, the air becomes thinner and contains less oxygen, leading to a decrease in the amount of oxygen available for the body to use. This can result in various symptoms, including confusion, increased heart rate (tachycardia), fluid retention (edema), and decreased urine output (decreased renal output).

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12. A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. While planning interactions, the nurse realizes the patient can transmit this disease through:

Explanation

The correct answer is airborne droplets. Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks and releases tiny droplets containing the bacteria. These droplets can be inhaled by others, leading to the spread of the disease. Skin contact, fecal-oral contact, and blood transfusions are not common modes of transmission for tuberculosis.

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13. A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment?

Explanation

Chest pain and shortness of breath are common symptoms of pulmonary embolism. This occurs when a blood clot blocks one or more of the arteries in the lungs. The clot restricts blood flow, leading to chest pain and difficulty breathing. These symptoms typically occur before treatment because the clot is still present and causing obstruction. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing these symptoms to prevent further complications.

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14. An 82-year-old female was admitted to the hospital with confusion and severe hypotension. Her body's compensatory mechanisms are increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and movement of large volumes of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment. What kind of shock does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? 

Explanation

Based on the given information, the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock. This type of shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid volume, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. The patient's severe hypotension and compensatory mechanisms such as increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and movement of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment are consistent with the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by a severe allergic reaction, neurogenic shock is caused by damage to the nervous system, and septic shock is a result of a severe infection.

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15. A 57-year-old male presents with cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume. He is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. When taking the patient's history, which finding is the most probable cause of his illness? 

Explanation

The most probable cause of the patient's illness is inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica. Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease caused by the inhalation of mineral dust particles, such as silica, asbestos, or mica. These particles can accumulate in the lungs over time, leading to inflammation, scarring, and decreased lung function. The patient's symptoms of cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume are consistent with the diagnosis of pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of these mineral dust particles.

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16. For an infection to progress to septic shock, which of the following factors should the nurse determine occurred? 

Explanation

In order for an infection to progress to septic shock, bacteria must enter the bloodstream. This is because septic shock is a severe and life-threatening condition that occurs when the body's response to an infection causes widespread inflammation and organ dysfunction. When bacteria enter the bloodstream, they can spread throughout the body and trigger an overwhelming immune response, leading to septic shock. The other factors listed in the options, such as immunosuppression or impairment of the myocardium, may contribute to the severity of the infection but are not necessary for the progression to septic shock.

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17. A 49-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. EKG reveals ST elevation. He is diagnosed with myocardial ischemia. Which of the following interventions would be most beneficial? 

Explanation

Administering oxygen to the patient would be the most beneficial intervention in this scenario. Myocardial ischemia refers to a reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to inadequate oxygen supply. By applying oxygen, the myocardial oxygen supply can be increased, which helps alleviate the ischemia and reduce the chest pain. This intervention aims to improve the oxygenation of the heart muscle and promote its proper functioning. The other options, such as administering a diuretic, encouraging exercise, or giving an antibiotic, are not directly related to addressing the underlying issue of myocardial ischemia.

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18. When the nurse is asked what causes asthma, how should the nurse respond? Asthma is thought to be caused by: 

Explanation

Asthma is believed to be caused by interactions between genetic and environmental factors. This means that both genetic predisposition and exposure to certain environmental triggers can contribute to the development of asthma. While genetics play a role in determining a person's susceptibility to asthma, environmental factors such as allergens, air pollution, and respiratory infections can also trigger asthma symptoms. Therefore, it is the combination of both genetic and environmental factors that is believed to cause asthma.

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19. A 50-year-old male visits the cardiologist for an EKG. Results indicate that he has no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm irregularity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be recorded on the chart?

Explanation

The EKG results show no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm irregularity, which are characteristic findings of atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is a condition where the atria of the heart quiver instead of contracting normally, leading to an irregular heart rhythm. This condition is commonly seen in older individuals and can increase the risk of stroke and other complications. Therefore, atrial fibrillation is the most likely diagnosis for this patient based on the given information.

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20. A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following symptoms would he most likely experience?

Explanation

A 50-year-old male diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension would most likely experience syncope and fainting. Orthostatic hypotension is a condition characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to inadequate blood flow to the brain. This can result in dizziness, lightheadedness, and ultimately syncope, which is a temporary loss of consciousness. Fainting is a common symptom of orthostatic hypotension as the brain does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients due to low blood pressure.

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21. Individuals with Raynaud disease need to be counseled to avoid which of the following conditions to prevent severe symptoms? 

Explanation

Individuals with Raynaud disease experience extreme sensitivity to cold temperatures, which can trigger severe symptoms such as numbness, pain, and color changes in the fingers and toes. Therefore, they should avoid cold exposure to prevent these symptoms. Cold exposure can include being in cold environments, handling cold objects, or even drinking cold beverages. By avoiding cold exposure, individuals with Raynaud disease can minimize the risk of experiencing severe symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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22. A 75-year-old obese female presents to her primary care provider reporting edema in the lower extremities. Physical exam reveals that she has varicose veins. Upon performing the history, which of the following is a possible cause for the varicose veins?

Explanation

Long periods of standing can be a possible cause for varicose veins. Varicose veins occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to pool and the veins to become enlarged and twisted. Standing for long periods of time can increase the pressure in the veins of the lower extremities, making it harder for blood to flow properly and leading to the development of varicose veins. Other risk factors for varicose veins include obesity, older age, and being female.

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23. A 10-year-old male presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, and nose bleeds. He is diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease. When a staff member asks what caused the disease, what is the nurse's most correct response? The most likely cause of this disease is: 

Explanation

The most likely cause of rheumatic heart disease in this 10-year-old male is Group A ß-hemolytic streptococcus infections. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication of untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infections, particularly streptococcal pharyngitis. The infection triggers an immune response in which antibodies attack the heart valves, leading to inflammation and damage. This can result in symptoms such as fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, and nose bleeds. Congenital heart defects, HIV infections, and acute pericarditis are not typically associated with the development of rheumatic heart disease.

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24. A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. When the nurse reviews the lab results, the organism that caused this condition is a:

Explanation

The correct answer is Bacterium. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a contagious infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also spread to other parts of the body. The bacteria are transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Treatment for tuberculosis typically involves a combination of antibiotics taken over a long period of time.

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25. A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to: 

Explanation

Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation is an important factor in airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma. Mast cells, which are present in the airways, release various chemicals including histamine when exposed to an allergen. Histamine causes inflammation and constriction of the airways, leading to symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and difficulty breathing. Therefore, understanding the role of allergen exposure and mast cell degranulation is crucial in managing and treating asthma.

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26. A 20-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? 

Explanation

Orthopnea is the term used to describe difficulty breathing when lying down. It is a common symptom seen in patients with heart failure or other cardiac conditions. When a person with orthopnea lies flat, fluid can accumulate in the lungs, making it harder to breathe. To relieve this symptom, patients often need to prop themselves up with pillows or sleep in a more upright position. Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing in general, while apnea refers to the cessation of breathing, and tachypnea refers to rapid breathing.

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27. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)?

Explanation

The 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital is at the highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE). Surgery, especially orthopedic surgery such as hip replacement, increases the risk of blood clots. Immobility during the recovery period further increases the risk. Additionally, advanced age is a risk factor for PE.

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28. A 30-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains trauma to the lungs and chest wall. He experiences respiratory failure. Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect? 

Explanation

In a patient with trauma to the lungs and chest wall, respiratory failure can occur. Elevated PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) is expected in this case. When the lungs are injured, they are unable to effectively remove carbon dioxide from the body, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in an increase in PaCO2 levels.

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29. A 60-year-old male undergoes surgery for a bone fracture. Which of the following nursing measures would be most effective for preventing pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient?

Explanation

Preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) formation would be the most effective nursing measure for preventing pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient. DVT is a common risk factor for PE, as blood clots can form in the deep veins of the legs and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening PE. By implementing measures to prevent DVT formation, such as early mobilization, leg exercises, compression stockings, and anticoagulant medications, the risk of PE can be significantly reduced.

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30. A 50-year-old male presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? 

Explanation

The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing a tension pneumothorax. This is indicated by the tracheal deviation to the left, which suggests a shift in the mediastinum due to increased pressure in the pleural cavity. Hypotension and hypoxemia are also consistent with tension pneumothorax, as the increased pressure can compress the blood vessels and impede blood flow. Pleural effusion involves the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, which is not indicated in this case. Open pneumothorax refers to a hole in the chest wall, which is not mentioned. Transudative pneumothorax is not a recognized medical condition.

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31. A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with bronchogenic cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? 

Explanation

The nurse will observe the diagnosis of Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) on the chart. This condition occurs when there is obstruction or compression of the superior vena cava, which is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the heart. In this case, the patient's bronchogenic cancer is likely causing the obstruction, leading to symptoms such as edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Thromboembolism and deep vein thrombosis are not the correct diagnoses because they involve blood clots, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Chronic venous insufficiency is also not the correct diagnosis as the symptoms described are not consistent with this condition.

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32. A 30-year-old female received a severe head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She is now experiencing respiratory abnormalities characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. What term should the nurse use when charting this condition? 

Explanation

The nurse should use the term "Cheyne-Stokes" when charting the patient's respiratory abnormalities. Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in patients with severe head injuries or brain damage. It is important for the nurse to accurately document this condition to ensure appropriate care and monitoring for the patient.

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33. A 51-year-old male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion. He is diagnosed with angina pectoris. When he asks what causes the pain, how should the nurse respond? The pain occurs when:

Explanation

The nurse should respond that the pain occurs when the myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand. Angina pectoris is typically caused by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, which reduces blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle. This imbalance between oxygen supply and demand leads to chest pain.

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34. A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the:

Explanation

The correct answer is deep veins of the leg. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot, usually from the deep veins of the leg (deep vein thrombosis), travels through the bloodstream and lodges in the pulmonary arteries, causing chest pain and shortness of breath. This is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism. The other options, such as left ventricle, systemic arteries, and superficial veins of the arm, are not typical sources of blood clots that lead to pulmonary embolism.

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35. A 35-year-old male presents with pulmonary hypertension. Testing reveals he is in right heart failure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will see listed on the chart? 

Explanation

Tricuspid regurgitation is the most likely diagnosis for a 35-year-old male presenting with pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure. Tricuspid regurgitation is a condition where the tricuspid valve does not close properly, allowing blood to flow back into the right atrium during ventricular contraction. This can lead to right heart failure and symptoms such as pulmonary hypertension. Aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation, and mitral regurgitation are less likely to cause right heart failure and pulmonary hypertension in this patient population.

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36. A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months' duration. Which of the following is the most significant concern for the nurse to monitor in this patient? 

Explanation

The most significant concern for the nurse to monitor in this patient with chronic bronchitis is recurrent pulmonary infections. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to increased mucus production and cough. This chronic inflammation weakens the immune system and impairs the ability to fight off infections, making the patient more prone to recurrent pulmonary infections. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, increased sputum production, and worsening cough, is important in order to promptly treat and manage these infections.

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37. Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for which most common presenting factor? 

Explanation

Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for dyspnea, which refers to shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs, leading to reduced lung function and impaired oxygen exchange. Dyspnea is a common symptom of emphysema, as the damaged air sacs make it harder for air to flow in and out of the lungs. Assessing for dyspnea in individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema is important to determine the severity of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

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38. Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as _____ hypertension. 

Explanation

Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as primary hypertension. This means that the hypertension is not a result of any underlying medical condition or secondary cause. Primary hypertension is the most common type of hypertension and is often related to lifestyle factors such as diet, exercise, and stress. It is important to manage primary hypertension through lifestyle changes and, if necessary, medication to prevent complications such as heart disease and stroke.

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39. A 60-year-old female had a myocardial infarction. She was brought to the hospital 30 minutes later. She survived, but now the nurse is providing care for impaired ventricular function because: 

Explanation

The correct answer is that the resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death. Ischemia refers to a lack of blood flow to a particular area, in this case, the heart. When the blood flow is restricted, the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to hypoxic injury. This lack of oxygen can cause damage to the myocardial cells, leading to their death. This can result in impaired ventricular function, which the nurse is now providing care for.

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40. A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T. Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred? 

Explanation

The elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T indicate damage to the heart muscle. This is a specific marker for myocardial infarction (MI), commonly known as a heart attack. Raynaud disease is a condition that affects blood flow to the extremities, causing them to turn white or blue. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. Varicose veins are enlarged, twisted veins that usually occur in the legs. None of these conditions would explain the elevated cardiac troponins, making myocardial infarction the most likely explanation.

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41. Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following conditions should alert the nurse that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction? 

Explanation

Rheumatic fever or heart disease should alert the nurse that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can cause damage to the heart valves, leading to both stenosis and regurgitation disorders. Heart disease, particularly when caused by rheumatic fever, can also result in valve dysfunction. Therefore, the presence of rheumatic fever or heart disease increases the likelihood that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction.

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42. A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm. Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located?

Explanation

The nurse suspects that the cerebral aneurysm is located in the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is a circular arrangement of blood vessels at the base of the brain that provides collateral circulation to the brain. It connects the carotid and vertebral arteries, allowing for blood flow to both sides of the brain. A cerebral aneurysm is a bulging or ballooning of a blood vessel in the brain, and it is commonly found in the Circle of Willis.

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43. A 60-year-old female was diagnosed with mitral stenosis. As a result, the nurse realizes the patient has incomplete emptying of the: 

Explanation

Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, located between the left atrium and left ventricle, becomes narrowed. This narrowing obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, causing incomplete emptying of the left atrium. Therefore, the correct answer is the left atrium.

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44. A 56-year-old male is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following modifiable risk factors would the nurse suggest the patient change?

Explanation

Smoking cigarettes is a modifiable risk factor that the nurse would suggest the patient change. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease as it damages blood vessels, increases blood pressure, and reduces oxygen supply to the heart. Quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of developing or worsening coronary artery disease.

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45. A 50-year-old male was admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI). He is being treated for shock. His cardiopulmonary symptoms include low blood pressure, tachycardia, and tachypnea. His skin is pale and cool. The primary cause of his shock is most likely: 

Explanation

The primary cause of the patient's shock is most likely decreased cardiac contractility. This is indicated by the symptoms of low blood pressure, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Decreased cardiac contractility means that the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues. This can result in shock, which is characterized by decreased blood pressure and poor tissue perfusion. The other options, such as rapid heart rate, increased capillary permeability, and decreased afterload due to vasodilation, may contribute to the patient's condition but are not the primary cause of the shock.

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46. A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause? 

Explanation

The nurse suspects that hyperventilation is the most likely cause of the decreased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the arterial blood gas. Hyperventilation refers to rapid and deep breathing, which leads to excessive elimination of CO2 from the body. This can result in a decrease in CO2 levels in the blood.

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47. A nurse is reviewing the results of an ABG and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition? 

Explanation

Hypoxemia is the correct term to describe reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. Hypoxemia refers specifically to low levels of oxygen in the blood, which can occur due to various reasons such as lung diseases, heart problems, or low oxygen levels in the environment. Ischemia refers to inadequate blood supply to a specific organ or tissue, while hypoxia is a broader term that refers to a deficiency of oxygen in the body as a whole. Hypocapnia, on the other hand, refers to low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.

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48. A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in asthma is caused by: 

Explanation

The nurse should include information about mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema as the causes of airway obstruction in asthma. These factors contribute to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in individuals with asthma.

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49. A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months' duration. When obtaining the patient's history, which of the following findings is most likely to cause this condition? 

Explanation

Cigarette smoke is the most likely cause of chronic bronchitis in this case. Chronic bronchitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and irritation of the bronchial tubes, which results in a persistent cough, mucus production, and difficulty breathing. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals and irritants that can damage the lining of the bronchial tubes and lead to chronic bronchitis. The patient's history of chronic bronchitis for 5 months suggests a chronic exposure to a respiratory irritant, and cigarette smoke is a common cause of this condition.

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50. A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When a staff member asks why the patient's airways are obstructed, how should the nurse respond? The airways are obstructed because of: 

Explanation

The airways are obstructed in emphysema due to the loss of elastic recoil. In emphysema, the walls of the air sacs in the lungs become damaged, causing them to lose their elasticity. This loss of elasticity leads to the collapse of the airways during exhalation, trapping air in the lungs and making it difficult for the patient to breathe. This obstruction of the airways is a key characteristic of emphysema and contributes to the symptoms experienced by the patient.

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51. A 70-year-old female is in the hospital for pelvic fracture. She develops pulmonary thromboembolism. The nurse realizes this embolus is composed of:

Explanation

The correct answer is blood clot. Pulmonary thromboembolism refers to the obstruction of the pulmonary artery or its branches by a blood clot that has traveled from elsewhere in the body, typically the legs. In this case, the embolus causing the pulmonary thromboembolism is composed of a blood clot.

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52. An 80-year-old female is in the hospital for a bone fracture. While there she develops a large, nonlethal pulmonary embolus. Which of the following is a direct result of the obstruction to pulmonary blood flow? 

Explanation

The obstruction to pulmonary blood flow caused by the large, nonlethal pulmonary embolus leads to an increase in pressure in the pulmonary arteries, resulting in pulmonary hypertension. This occurs because the embolus blocks blood flow to a portion of the lungs, causing the unaffected areas to compensate by increasing their resistance to blood flow. This increased resistance leads to elevated pressure in the pulmonary arteries, which is known as pulmonary hypertension.

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53. A 65-year-old male recently had a cerebrovascular accident that resulted in dysphagia. He now has aspiration of gastric contents. The nurse assesses the patient for which complication? 

Explanation

After a cerebrovascular accident causing dysphagia, the patient is at risk for aspiration of gastric contents, which can lead to pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia occurs when food, liquid, or stomach acid is inhaled into the lungs, causing an infection. This is a common complication in patients with dysphagia, as the weakened swallowing muscles make it difficult to prevent food or liquid from entering the airway. Therefore, pneumonia is the most likely complication in this case.

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54. A 27-year-old male is admitted to a neurologic unit with a complete C-5 spinal cord transection. On initial assessment, he is bradycardic, hypotensive, and hyperventilating. He appears to be going into shock. The most likely mechanism of his shock is: 

Explanation

The most likely mechanism of the patient's shock is vasodilation caused by a decrease in sympathetic stimulation. A complete spinal cord transection at the C-5 level disrupts the sympathetic outflow from the spinal cord, leading to loss of sympathetic tone. This loss of sympathetic stimulation causes vasodilation, resulting in decreased systemic vascular resistance and hypotension. The bradycardia and hyperventilation seen in the patient are compensatory responses to maintain perfusion. Hypovolemia caused by blood loss or evaporative fluid losses are less likely in this case, as there is no mention of trauma or significant fluid loss. Gram-negative bacterial infection causing vasodilation is also less likely given the absence of clinical indicators of infection.

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55. Which patient is most prone to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? In a patient with:

Explanation

Patients with septic shock are most prone to developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). Septic shock is a severe condition caused by a systemic infection that leads to widespread inflammation and organ dysfunction. It can affect multiple organs such as the lungs, liver, kidneys, and heart. The infection triggers an exaggerated immune response, causing damage to the organs. This can ultimately result in MODS, where multiple organs fail to function properly.

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56. When a patient asks the nurse what is the most common cause of myocardial ischemia, which statement is the correct response? The most common cause of myocardial ischemia is:

Explanation

Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of myocardial ischemia. Atherosclerosis refers to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, leading to narrowing and blockage of blood flow. This can result in reduced blood supply to the heart muscle, causing myocardial ischemia. Other causes such as idiopathic vasospasm, arterial emboli from heart valve, and venous emboli are less common in comparison.

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57. A 75-year-old female has been critically ill with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) for longer than a week and has developed a severe oxygen supply and demand imbalance. The statement that best describes this imbalance is which of the following? 

Explanation

In this scenario, the patient has been critically ill for a prolonged period, resulting in multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). This has led to a severe oxygen supply and demand imbalance. The correct answer states that the reserve of oxygen in the body has been exhausted, and the amount of oxygen consumed by cells now depends on the ability of the circulation system to deliver oxygen. This means that the body is unable to meet the oxygen demands of the cells, leading to a critical situation where the available oxygen is not sufficient to meet the body's needs.

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58. An 80-year-old female develops pneumonia in the hospital. She becomes cyanotic, tachycardic, and develops a fever and cough. Chest x-ray reveals pus in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart? 

Explanation

The most likely diagnosis documented on the chart is empyema. Empyema refers to the accumulation of pus in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. The patient's symptoms of cyanosis, tachycardia, fever, and cough, along with the chest x-ray findings of pus in the pleural space, are consistent with empyema. Emphysema is a lung condition characterized by the destruction of the lung tissue and is not associated with pus accumulation. Pleurisy refers to inflammation of the pleura, but it does not necessarily involve pus. Chyle is a milky fluid that can accumulate in the pleural space, but it is not typically associated with pneumonia.

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59. A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with empyema. Upon receiving and reviewing the culture result, which organism does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause? 

Explanation

Empyema is a condition characterized by the accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity, usually as a result of a bacterial infection. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of empyema, especially in adults. This bacterium is known for its ability to cause various types of infections, including skin and soft tissue infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections. Therefore, considering the diagnosis of empyema, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely organism responsible for the infection in this case.

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60. A 42-year-old female presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia. Tests reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart? 

Explanation

The patient's presentation of dyspnea, rapid, shallow breathing, inspiratory crackles, decreased lung compliance, and hypoxemia, along with the findings of acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury on tests, are consistent with the diagnosis of Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). ARDS is a severe form of respiratory failure that occurs due to lung injury, leading to inflammation and damage to the alveoli and capillaries in the lungs. It is characterized by the rapid onset of respiratory symptoms and severe hypoxemia. Sarcoidosis, postoperative respiratory failure, and malignant respiratory failure do not typically present with the same clinical features as ARDS.

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61. Which of the following shows a correct cause and effect sequence in the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? 

Explanation

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62. A nurse recalls asthma is classified by:

Explanation

Asthma is classified based on clinical severity because the severity of symptoms and the frequency of asthma attacks can vary from person to person. By classifying asthma based on clinical severity, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate treatment plan and medications for each individual. This classification helps in managing and controlling asthma symptoms effectively and reducing the risk of complications.

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63. While planning care for a patient with superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), which principle should the nurse remember? SVCS is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava (SVC) that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head

Explanation

SVCS is a condition characterized by the blockage or obstruction (occlusion) of the superior vena cava (SVC). This obstruction leads to the distention or swelling of the upper extremities and head due to the impaired blood flow. Inflammation, sclerosis, and distention are not the primary causes of SVCS.

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64. A 10-year-old male is brought to the ER with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia. The most likely diagnosis on the chart is: 

Explanation

Status asthmaticus is the most likely diagnosis for a 10-year-old male presenting with prolonged bronchospasm and severe hypoxemia. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening form of asthma that does not respond to standard treatment. It is characterized by persistent bronchospasm, airway inflammation, and impaired gas exchange. This condition requires immediate medical attention and aggressive treatment to prevent respiratory failure and other complications.

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65. A 47-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Which assessment findings will the nurse observe? 

Explanation

In pulmonary edema, there is an accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing. The presence of pink, frothy sputum is a characteristic finding in pulmonary edema. This occurs due to the leakage of fluid from the capillaries into the alveoli, causing the sputum to be tinged with blood and have a frothy appearance. Thick mucus secretions, hypocapnia (low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood), and wheezing are not typically associated with pulmonary edema.

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66. The hypotensive state seen in septic shock can lead to: 

Explanation

The hypotensive state seen in septic shock can lead to gut lining disruption and the translocation of bacteria into the bloodstream. This occurs because the low blood pressure reduces blood flow to the intestines, causing damage to the gut lining. As a result, bacteria from the intestines can enter the bloodstream, leading to the spread of infection throughout the body.

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67. Which of the following lab tests will the nurse check to help diagnose heart failure and provide insight into its severity?

Explanation

The nurse will check the brain natriuretic (BNP) level to help diagnose heart failure and provide insight into its severity. BNP is a hormone released by the heart in response to increased pressure and stretching of the heart muscle. Elevated levels of BNP indicate heart failure and can also provide information about the severity of the condition. Therefore, checking the BNP level is an important lab test in diagnosing and assessing the severity of heart failure.

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68. A 30-year-old Caucasian female was recently diagnosed with primary hypertension. She reports that she eats fairly well, usually having red meat and potatoes daily. She also reports that her father has hypertension as well. A nurse determines which of the following risk factors is most likely associated with this diagnosis? 

Explanation

The most likely risk factor associated with the diagnosis of primary hypertension in this 30-year-old Caucasian female is genes. This is indicated by the fact that her father also has hypertension, suggesting a familial or genetic predisposition to the condition. While factors such as race, diet, and age can also contribute to hypertension, the presence of a family history of the disease strongly suggests a genetic component.

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69. A 56-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for a checkup. Physical exam reveals edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is of greatest concern to the nurse?

Explanation

The nurse should be most concerned about tamponade in this case. Tamponade refers to the compression of the heart due to the accumulation of fluid or blood in the pericardial space. The symptoms mentioned in the question, such as edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds, are consistent with tamponade. This condition can be life-threatening as it can lead to decreased cardiac output and hemodynamic instability. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to relieve the compression on the heart and restore normal cardiac function.

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70. A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department reporting difficulty swallowing and shortness of breath. A CT scan would most likely reveal an aneurysm in the: 

Explanation

The given clinical presentation of difficulty swallowing and shortness of breath suggests a possible aneurysm in the thoracic aorta. The thoracic aorta is responsible for supplying blood to the upper body, including the esophagus and lungs. An aneurysm in this region can compress these structures, leading to the reported symptoms. A CT scan is commonly used to diagnose aortic aneurysms as it provides detailed imaging of the aorta and can confirm the presence of an aneurysm.

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71. A 10-year-old male presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, and nose bleeds. He is diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease. While planning care, which characteristic changes should the nurse remember?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Antigens that bind to the valvular lining, triggering an autoimmune response." Rheumatic heart disease is caused by a previous streptococcal infection, where antigens from the bacteria bind to the valvular lining. This triggers an autoimmune response, leading to inflammation and damage to the heart valves. This immune response is not directly caused by blood-borne organisms adhering to the valvular surface, high fevers damaging collagen in valve leaflets, or rheumatoid factor stimulating valvular degeneration.

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72. A 65-year-old male with a history of untreated hypertension is now experiencing left heart failure. A nurse recalls his untreated hypertension led to:

Explanation

Untreated hypertension can lead to increased workload on the heart, causing the myocardium (heart muscle) to thicken and enlarge (hypertrophy) in order to compensate for the increased pressure. This can eventually lead to ventricular remodeling, where the shape and size of the ventricles change. This remodeling can negatively affect the heart's ability to pump blood effectively, leading to left heart failure.

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73. Which patient would the nurse assess for paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)? A patient with:

Explanation

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a condition characterized by sudden episodes of shortness of breath during sleep. Left ventricular failure, also known as congestive heart failure, is a common cause of PND. In this condition, the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid accumulation in the lungs. This fluid buildup can cause sudden episodes of breathlessness, especially when lying down at night. Therefore, the nurse would assess the patient with left ventricular failure for symptoms of PND. Pulmonary fibrosis, asthma, and hypotension are not typically associated with PND.

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74. A 55-year-old male died of a myocardial infarction. Autopsy would most likely reveal:

Explanation

Autopsy of a 55-year-old male who died of a myocardial infarction would most likely reveal platelet aggregation within the atherosclerotic coronary artery. Platelet aggregation is a key event in the formation of a blood clot, which can lead to the obstruction of blood flow in the coronary artery. This obstruction can cause a myocardial infarction, also known as a heart attack. Atherosclerosis refers to the buildup of plaque within the arteries, and when this plaque ruptures, it can trigger platelet aggregation and the formation of a clot. Therefore, the presence of platelet aggregation within the atherosclerotic coronary artery is a common finding in cases of myocardial infarction.

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75. A 42-year-old female is diagnosed with constrictive pericarditis. The nurse assesses the blood pressure for decreased cardiac output because of: 

Explanation

Fibrosis and calcification of the pericardial layers can lead to constrictive pericarditis, a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid. This restricts the normal filling and expansion of the heart, reducing cardiac output. As a result, blood pressure may decrease as the heart is unable to pump an adequate amount of blood to meet the body's needs. Pericardial effusions, cardiomyopathy, and hemorrhage in the pericardial cavity are not directly associated with decreased cardiac output in constrictive pericarditis.

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76. While planning care, the nurse remembers which principle? In valvular _____, the valve opening is constricted and narrowed because the valve leaflets, or cusps, fail to open completely.

Explanation

The nurse remembers the principle of stenosis while planning care. Stenosis refers to a condition where the valve opening is constricted and narrowed because the valve leaflets or cusps fail to open completely. This can lead to decreased blood flow through the valve, causing symptoms and complications.

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77. A nurse recalls the most common cardiac valve disease in the United States, which tends to be most prevalent in young women, is:

Explanation

Mitral valve prolapse is the most common cardiac valve disease in the United States, particularly affecting young women. This condition occurs when the mitral valve in the heart does not close properly, causing blood to leak back into the left atrium. It is often asymptomatic, but can lead to symptoms such as chest pain, palpitations, and shortness of breath. Risk factors for mitral valve prolapse include genetic predisposition and certain connective tissue disorders. Treatment may not be necessary for mild cases, but severe cases may require medication or surgery to repair or replace the valve.

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78. A 52-year-old female is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. The nurse assesses for myocardial:

Explanation

Ischemia refers to a lack of blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium (heart muscle) due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. In coronary artery disease, the arteries that supply blood to the heart become narrowed or blocked, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle. This can result in ischemia, which can cause chest pain (angina) or lead to a heart attack if the blood flow is completely blocked. Therefore, in a patient diagnosed with coronary artery disease, the nurse would assess for signs and symptoms of myocardial ischemia.

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79. A 72-year-old female has a history of right heart failure caused by a right ventricular myocardial infarction. Which of the following symptoms are specifically related to her right heart failure? 

Explanation

Significant edema to both lower legs and feet is specifically related to right heart failure. Right heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lower extremities due to impaired blood flow and increased pressure in the right side of the heart. This can cause fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate in the tissues, leading to edema. Hypertension, decreased urine output, and dyspnea upon exertion can be seen in various types of heart failure, but significant edema to both lower legs and feet is more specific to right heart failure.

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80. A 60-year-old female with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. She has an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to:

Explanation

The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter in a patient with emphysema is due to air trapping. Emphysema is a condition characterized by the destruction of the alveoli in the lungs, leading to decreased elasticity and increased air trapping. This causes the lungs to become hyperinflated, resulting in an increased chest diameter, particularly in the anterior-posterior direction. Decreased inspiratory reserve volumes and increased flow rates are not directly related to the increased chest diameter in emphysema. Alveolar destruction is a characteristic feature of emphysema, but it does not directly cause the increased chest diameter.

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81. When a patient has a massive pulmonary embolism (PE), what complications will the nurse monitor for?

Explanation

In a patient with a massive pulmonary embolism (PE), the nurse will monitor for complications such as shock and death. A massive PE can obstruct blood flow to the lungs, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure and inadequate oxygenation of tissues, resulting in shock. If not promptly treated, the lack of oxygen can cause severe damage to vital organs and potentially lead to death. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the patient's vital signs and intervene promptly if any signs of shock or deterioration occur.

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82. What factors make a patient prone to neurogenic shock? Neurogenic shock can be caused by any factor that inhibits the: 

Explanation

Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating the body's response to stress and maintaining blood pressure. This can be caused by factors such as spinal cord injury, brain injury, or certain medications. When the sympathetic nervous system is inhibited, there is a decrease in vascular tone and peripheral resistance, leading to low blood pressure and inadequate tissue perfusion. Therefore, a patient is prone to neurogenic shock if their sympathetic nervous system is affected.

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83. A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with lung cancer. He was previously exposed to air pollution, asbestos, and radiation at his job. Which of the following should the nurse realize had the greatest impact on the development of his cancer?

Explanation

Cigarette smoke should be realized as having the greatest impact on the development of the patient's lung cancer. The patient had a 30-year history of smoking, which is a significant risk factor for lung cancer. While exposure to air pollution, asbestos, and radiation may also contribute to the development of lung cancer, the long-term smoking history is the most significant factor in this case.

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84. A 15-year-old male who is allergic to peanuts eats a peanut butter cup. He then goes into anaphylactic shock. Which assessment findings will the nurse assess for? 

Explanation

When a person with a peanut allergy consumes peanuts, it can trigger an allergic reaction known as anaphylactic shock. This is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction. The assessment findings that the nurse will look for in this situation include bronchoconstriction (narrowing of the airways leading to difficulty breathing), hives or edema (swelling and itching of the skin), and hypotension (low blood pressure). These symptoms are commonly seen in anaphylactic shock and require immediate medical intervention.

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85. A 45-year-old male undergoes lung transplantation. He now suffers from airway occlusion secondary to fibrosis. Which diagnosis will the nurse see on the chart? 

Explanation

Bronchiolitis obliterans is the most likely diagnosis for the patient with airway occlusion secondary to fibrosis following lung transplantation. Bronchiolitis obliterans is a condition characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the small airways, leading to their narrowing or complete obstruction. This can result in airway occlusion and subsequent respiratory symptoms. Other options such as compression atelectasis, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis are less likely to cause airway occlusion secondary to fibrosis in this scenario.

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86. A 52-year-old male is diagnosed with primary hypertension. He has no other health problems. Present treatment would cause the nurse to anticipate administering which drug to the patient?

Explanation

Primary hypertension, also known as essential hypertension, is the most common form of high blood pressure. It has no identifiable cause and is typically treated with lifestyle modifications and medications. Diuretics are commonly prescribed as the first-line treatment for primary hypertension. They work by increasing the excretion of sodium and water from the body, which helps to lower blood pressure. Therefore, in this case, the nurse would anticipate administering a diuretic to the patient as part of their treatment plan.

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87. A nurse is planning care for a patient in shock. Which principle should the nurse remember? During shock states, glucose uptake is usually: 

Explanation

During shock states, the body's ability to take up and utilize glucose is impaired. This is because shock disrupts the normal functioning of the body's organs and tissues, including the cells responsible for glucose uptake and metabolism. Impaired glucose uptake can lead to decreased energy production and further exacerbate the patient's condition. Therefore, the nurse should remember that glucose uptake is impaired in patients in shock and take appropriate measures to address this metabolic dysfunction.

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88. A 28-year-old female presents to the ER reporting severe chest pain that worsens with respirations or lying down. She has a fever, tachycardia, and a friction rub. Based upon the assessment findings, the nurse determines the patient is experiencing:

Explanation

The patient's presentation of severe chest pain that worsens with respirations or lying down, along with the presence of a fever, tachycardia, and a friction rub, are consistent with acute pericarditis. Acute pericarditis is characterized by inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. This inflammation can cause chest pain that is sharp and worsens with breathing or lying down. The presence of a friction rub is a classic finding in acute pericarditis. Myocardial infarction (MI) typically presents with different symptoms such as crushing chest pain, shortness of breath, and ECG changes. Stable angina is characterized by chest pain that is predictable and relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. Pericardial effusion may cause symptoms such as dyspnea, but it does not typically present with severe chest pain.

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89. One consequence of switching from aerobic to anaerobic cellular metabolism during shock states is: 

Explanation

During shock states, the body switches from aerobic to anaerobic cellular metabolism. This switch is due to decreased oxygen supply to the cells. Anaerobic metabolism produces ATP at a slower rate compared to aerobic metabolism. As a result, there is a decrease in ATP production. ATP is the main energy source for cellular processes, so a decrease in ATP production can lead to cellular dysfunction and organ damage.

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90. A 53-year-old male with a 20-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. When the nurse is asked what causes this, what is the nurse's best response? Changes in his lungs are caused by: 

Explanation

The nurse's best response would be "Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency." Emphysema is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) that is often caused by smoking. However, in some cases, it can also be caused by a genetic condition called alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. This condition leads to a deficiency of a protein called alpha-1-antitrypsin, which helps protect the lungs from damage. Without enough of this protein, the lungs are more susceptible to damage from the enzymes released by immune cells, leading to the development of emphysema.

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91. A 62-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain at rest and with exertion. He does not have a history of coronary artery disease and reports that the pain often occurs at night. He is most likely experiencing which type of angina? 

Explanation

Based on the given information, the patient is a 62-year-old male who experiences chest pain at rest and with exertion, and the pain often occurs at night. This pattern suggests Prinzmetal angina, also known as variant angina. Prinzmetal angina is caused by vasospasms of the coronary arteries, which can occur at rest and may be triggered by emotional stress or exposure to cold. Unlike stable angina, which is typically caused by physical exertion and relieved by rest, Prinzmetal angina can occur at rest and is not necessarily relieved by rest.

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92. A 72-year-old female has a history of hypertension and atherosclerosis. An echocardiogram reveals backflow of blood into the left ventricle. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart?

Explanation

Aortic regurgitation is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart. Aortic regurgitation is a condition in which the aortic valve does not close properly, causing blood to flow back into the left ventricle. This condition can be caused by atherosclerosis, which can lead to damage or weakening of the aortic valve. Given the patient's history of hypertension and atherosclerosis, it is likely that these conditions have contributed to the development of aortic regurgitation.

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93. A 68-year-old female is experiencing left heart failure. Physical exam reveals elevated blood pressure. The nurse understands this is most likely caused by: 

Explanation

The elevated blood pressure in a 68-year-old female with left heart failure is most likely caused by sympathetic nervous system compensation for decreased cardiac output. When the heart is unable to pump effectively, the sympathetic nervous system is activated to increase heart rate and constrict blood vessels, in an attempt to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. This compensatory response helps to maintain blood pressure, but it can also contribute to the progression of heart failure.

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94. A nurse is teaching staff about pulmonary edema. Which information should the nurse include? The most common cause of pulmonary edema is: 

Explanation

The nurse should include in the teaching that the most common cause of pulmonary edema is left heart failure. Pulmonary edema occurs when there is an accumulation of fluid in the lungs, and left heart failure can lead to an increased pressure in the left side of the heart, causing fluid to back up into the lungs. Right heart failure can also cause pulmonary edema, but it is less common compared to left heart failure. Asthma and lung cancer are not typically associated with the development of pulmonary edema.

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95. A 60-year-old female with a history of cirrhosis presents with dyspnea, impaired ventilation, and pleural pain. A diagnosis of pleural effusion is made, and a watery fluid is drained. When giving report, the nurse will refer to this fluid as: 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Transudative". In this scenario, the patient's history of cirrhosis suggests that the pleural effusion is likely a result of increased hydrostatic pressure in the blood vessels of the liver. Transudative fluid is characterized by a low protein content and is typically caused by systemic factors, such as congestive heart failure or liver disease. Therefore, when giving report, the nurse will refer to this fluid as transudative to indicate its likely origin and composition.

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96. A 60-year-old female with emphysema is having difficulty expiring a given volume of air. When giving report, the nurse will relay that the patient is most likely experiencing _____ pulmonary disease. 

Explanation

The patient's difficulty expiring a given volume of air suggests that there is an obstruction in their airways, causing air to be trapped. This is a characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease, such as emphysema. Restrictive pulmonary disease is characterized by difficulty inhaling, not exhaling. Atelectatic refers to collapsed lung tissue, which is not mentioned in the scenario. Pleuritic refers to inflammation of the pleura, the lining of the lungs, which is also not mentioned in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms is obstructive pulmonary disease.

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97. A 73-year-old female has increased pulmonary pressure resulting in right heart failure. The nurse should monitor for a possible complication because a potential cause for her heart to fail is:

Explanation

Left heart failure is the correct answer because it is a potential cause for the patient's right heart failure. Left heart failure occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body. This can lead to increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and subsequently increased pulmonary pressure, which can result in right heart failure. Therefore, monitoring for left heart failure is important in this patient to prevent further complications.

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98. A 22-year-old female presents with chronic bronchitis. Tests reveal closure of the airway during expiration. While planning care, a nurse recalls this condition is most likely caused by: 

Explanation

Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing. The thick mucus from hypertrophied glands is the most likely cause of this condition. The hypertrophied glands produce excessive mucus, which can obstruct the airways and lead to closure of the airway during expiration. This can result in symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch refers to an imbalance between the amount of air reaching the alveoli and the blood flow to the lungs, which is not directly related to the closure of the airway. Hyperventilation and thinning smooth muscle in the bronchioles are not typically associated with chronic bronchitis.

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99. A nurse remembers a low ventilation-perfusion ratio results in: 

Explanation

A low ventilation-perfusion ratio refers to an imbalance between the amount of air reaching the alveoli and the blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries. In this scenario, shunting occurs, which means that blood is being poorly oxygenated and bypassing the alveoli. This leads to a decrease in oxygenation and an increase in the amount of deoxygenated blood returning to the systemic circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is shunting.

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100. A 50-year-old obese male with hypertension and coronary artery disease visits a nutritionist for food counseling. He has an elevated level of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and a low level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL). Which of the following should the nurse advise him to avoid?

Explanation

The nurse should advise the patient to avoid trans fats. Trans fats are known to increase LDL cholesterol levels and decrease HDL cholesterol levels, which is already a concern for this patient. Consuming trans fats can further worsen his lipid profile and increase his risk for cardiovascular diseases. Therefore, it is important for the patient to avoid foods that contain trans fats in order to maintain a healthier lipid profile.

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101. Which of the following findings in the patient with Raynaud disease would indicate a need for further teaching?

Explanation

Smoking cigarettes is a risk factor for Raynaud's disease and can worsen the symptoms. It causes vasoconstriction, narrowing the blood vessels and reducing blood flow to the extremities, which can trigger Raynaud's attacks. Therefore, if a patient with Raynaud's disease smokes cigarettes, it indicates a need for further teaching on the importance of quitting smoking to manage their condition effectively.

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102. A 55-year-old female has undiagnosed hypertension. She presents to her primary care provider reporting impaired vision and chronic edema. Lab tests reveal that she also has renal insufficiency. While planning care, the nurse realizes the most likely cause for these findings is: 

Explanation

The most likely cause for the impaired vision, chronic edema, and renal insufficiency in a 55-year-old female with undiagnosed hypertension is end-organ damage. Hypertension can lead to damage in various organs, including the eyes, kidneys, and cardiovascular system. The increased pressure in the blood vessels can cause damage to the small blood vessels in the eyes, leading to impaired vision. It can also damage the blood vessels in the kidneys, resulting in renal insufficiency. Chronic edema can occur due to fluid retention caused by the compromised cardiovascular system. Therefore, end-organ damage is the most likely explanation for these findings.

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103. A 52-year-old male presents with pooling of blood in the veins of the lower extremities and edema. The diagnosis is chronic venous insufficiency, and an expected assessment finding of this disorder is:

Explanation

Chronic venous insufficiency is a condition where the veins in the legs are unable to adequately pump blood back to the heart. This results in blood pooling in the veins and can lead to various symptoms, including edema (swelling) and skin hyperpigmentation. Skin hyperpigmentation occurs due to the accumulation of hemosiderin, a breakdown product of red blood cells, in the skin. This causes the skin to appear dark or discolored. Deep vein thrombus formation and gangrene are potential complications of chronic venous insufficiency but are not expected assessment findings. Edema above the knee is not specific to chronic venous insufficiency and can occur in other conditions as well.

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104. A nurse is teaching staff about endocarditis. Which information should the nurse include? Inflammatory cells have difficulty limiting the colonization of microorganisms in infective endocarditis because the: 

Explanation

In infective endocarditis, microorganisms are sequestered in a fibrin clot. This means that they are trapped within a clot, making it difficult for inflammatory cells to reach and eliminate them. This allows the microorganisms to continue to colonize and cause infection. The other options are not correct explanations for why inflammatory cells have difficulty limiting colonization in endocarditis.

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105. Which characteristic changes should the nurse keep in mind while caring for a patient with left heart failure? As left heart failure progresses: 

Explanation

As left heart failure progresses, the left ventricular preload increases. This means that the volume of blood returning to the left ventricle from the lungs increases, putting additional strain on the already weakened left ventricle. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and fluid retention. Monitoring and managing the patient's fluid status becomes crucial in order to prevent further complications.

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106. A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment? 

Explanation

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107. A patient wants to know what causes atherosclerosis. How should the nurse respond? In general, atherosclerosis is caused by:

Explanation

Atherosclerosis is caused by endothelial injury and inflammation. This refers to damage to the inner lining of the blood vessels, called the endothelium, which can occur due to various factors such as high blood pressure, smoking, high levels of cholesterol, and diabetes. When the endothelium is injured, it triggers an inflammatory response, leading to the accumulation of cholesterol, fats, and other substances in the blood vessel walls, forming plaques. Over time, these plaques can narrow and harden the arteries, restricting blood flow and increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke.

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108. A 68-year-old male presents to the ER reporting chest pain. He has a history of stable angina that now appears to be unstable. He most likely has: 

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the 68-year-old male presenting with chest pain and a history of stable angina that has now become unstable is most likely experiencing an impending myocardial infarction (MI). Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion and is often a precursor to a heart attack. This suggests that there may be a blockage in one or more of the coronary arteries, leading to decreased blood flow to the heart muscle. This can result in ischemia and potentially progress to a myocardial infarction if not treated promptly.

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109. A 67-year-old female was previously diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease. Tests reveal lipoprotein deposition with chronic inflammation that impairs blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis recorded on the chart? 

Explanation

The correct diagnosis in this case is Aortic stenosis. Aortic stenosis is a condition where there is narrowing or obstruction of the aortic valve, which impairs the flow of blood from the left ventricle into the aorta. In this patient with rheumatic heart disease, lipoprotein deposition with chronic inflammation has caused the narrowing of the aortic valve, leading to aortic stenosis. Aortic regurgitation involves the leaking of blood back into the left ventricle, which is not described in this case. Mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis involve issues with the mitral valve, which is not the primary problem in this patient.

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110. Upon assessment of the patient, the nurse finds a widened pulse pressure and throbbing peripheral pulses. Which valve disorder does the nurse suspect? 

Explanation

The nurse suspects aortic regurgitation based on the findings of widened pulse pressure and throbbing peripheral pulses. Aortic regurgitation is characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole, leading to an increased volume of blood in the ventricle. This increased volume causes an elevated systolic pressure and widened pulse pressure. Throbbing peripheral pulses are also a characteristic sign of aortic regurgitation due to the forceful ejection of blood into the arterial system.

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111. A 26-year-old female recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis. Tests reveal that she has a collapsed lung caused by removal of air from obstructed alveoli. What condition will the nurse observe on the chart? 

Explanation

Absorption atelectasis occurs when there is a blockage or obstruction in the airway, preventing air from reaching the alveoli. This leads to the absorption of the air already present in the alveoli, causing the lung to collapse. In this case, the patient recently underwent surgery, which can lead to the accumulation of mucus or other secretions in the airway, causing the obstruction. The symptoms of dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis are consistent with absorption atelectasis. The nurse would observe this condition on the chart as the likely cause of the patient's collapsed lung.

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112. A 65-year-old male is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures should the nurse assess for in this patient? 

Explanation

In a patient with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance, the nurse should assess for right heart failure. Right heart failure occurs when the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This can be caused by chronic lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or pulmonary hypertension, which increase the workload on the right side of the heart. Symptoms of right heart failure include fluid retention, edema in the legs and abdomen, and liver congestion.

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113. A staff member asks a nurse what foam cells are. What is the nurse's best response? Foam cells in a fatty streak are:

Explanation

Foam cells in a fatty streak are macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL). Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense mechanism. In the case of a fatty streak, which is an early stage of atherosclerosis, macrophages accumulate in the arterial walls and engulf LDL particles. This process leads to the formation of foam cells, which are characterized by their lipid-filled appearance. The accumulation of foam cells contributes to the development of atherosclerotic plaques and the progression of cardiovascular disease.

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114. When a nurse checks the patient for orthostatic hypotension, what did the nurse have the patient do?

Explanation

The nurse had the patient stand up in order to check for orthostatic hypotension. This condition is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when a person changes position from lying down or sitting to standing up. By having the patient stand up, the nurse can observe if the patient experiences a significant decrease in blood pressure, which can help diagnose orthostatic hypotension.

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115. A 59-year-old female is diagnosed with left ventricular failure. If a decrease in kidney perfusion occurs, the nurse knows this would ultimately cause: 

Explanation

If a decrease in kidney perfusion occurs, it would ultimately cause increased systemic vascular resistance. Kidney perfusion refers to the blood flow to the kidneys, and if it decreases, it can lead to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This system causes vasoconstriction, which increases systemic vascular resistance. Increased systemic vascular resistance can further strain the left ventricle, worsening left ventricular failure. This can lead to symptoms such as fluid retention, shortness of breath, and fatigue.

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116. When a person is in shock, a nurse remembers impairment in cellular metabolism is cause by: 

Explanation

Inadequate tissue perfusion refers to a condition where there is a reduced blood flow to the body tissues. When a person is in shock, their blood pressure drops significantly, leading to poor circulation and oxygen delivery to the tissues. This lack of adequate blood flow impairs cellular metabolism, causing a decrease in the production of energy and essential nutrients for the cells. Therefore, inadequate tissue perfusion is the cause of impairment in cellular metabolism in a person who is in shock.

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117. When the pulmonologist discusses the condition in which a series of alveoli in the left lower lobe receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion, which statement indicates the nurse understands this condition? When this occurs in a patient it is called: 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Alveolar dead space." When a series of alveoli in the left lower lobe receive adequate ventilation but do not have adequate perfusion, it is referred to as alveolar dead space. This means that the alveoli are not effectively participating in gas exchange, as there is ventilation without proper blood flow. This can result in a decrease in oxygenation and an increase in carbon dioxide levels.

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118. A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. The patient had a pulmonary functions test. Which of the following findings is expected? 

Explanation

Restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis leads to decreased functional residual capacity. Functional residual capacity is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration. In fibrosis, the lung tissue becomes stiff and less elastic, causing a decrease in the ability of the lungs to expand and hold air. This results in a decrease in the functional residual capacity.

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119. A 51-year-old male is at the health clinic for an annual physical exam. After walking from the car to the clinic, he developed substernal pain. He also reported discomfort in his left shoulder and his jaw, lasting 2 to 3 minutes and then subsiding with rest. He indicates that this has occurred frequently over the past few months with similar exertion. The nurse suspects he is most likely experiencing:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of substernal pain, discomfort in the left shoulder and jaw, lasting for a short duration and subsiding with rest, are consistent with stable angina. Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is relieved with rest or nitroglycerin. This pattern of symptoms occurring frequently over the past few months with similar exertion further supports the diagnosis of stable angina. Unstable angina is characterized by symptoms that occur at rest or with minimal exertion and are more severe and prolonged. Prinzmetal angina is caused by vasospasm of the coronary arteries, and myocardial infarction (MI) refers to a complete blockage of a coronary artery resulting in heart muscle damage.

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120. Which condition should cause the nurse to assess for high-output failure in a patient? 

Explanation

Anemia can cause high-output failure in a patient. Anemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a low hemoglobin level. This can lead to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, causing the heart to pump harder and faster in an attempt to compensate for the decreased oxygen supply. This increased workload on the heart can eventually lead to high-output failure, where the heart is unable to meet the body's demands. Therefore, if a patient is experiencing anemia, the nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of high-output failure.

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121. When a patient with left heart failure starts to have a cough and dyspnea, which principle should the nurse remember? Pulmonary symptoms, common to left heart failure, are a result of:

Explanation

Pulmonary symptoms in left heart failure are a result of pulmonary vascular congestion. In left heart failure, the left ventricle is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to a backup of blood in the pulmonary veins and increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure causes fluid to leak into the lungs, resulting in pulmonary congestion. This congestion leads to symptoms such as cough and dyspnea. Therefore, the nurse should remember that pulmonary symptoms in left heart failure are due to pulmonary vascular congestion.

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122. A 65-year-old male presents for a routine checkup. A blood pressure check reveals a systolic pressure of 160 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 70 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this type of pressure elevation? 

Explanation

Rigidity of the aorta is the most likely cause of the elevated blood pressure in this 65-year-old male. As people age, the walls of the arteries, including the aorta, may become stiff and less elastic. This rigidity can lead to increased resistance to blood flow, resulting in higher systolic blood pressure. The diastolic pressure remains normal because it reflects the relaxation phase of the heart. Vasospasm, decreased sodium intake, and lung disease are not typically associated with this type of pressure elevation.

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123. A nurse monitors the patient for _____ when rapid onset of malignant hypertension results.

Explanation

Encephalopathy is the correct answer because when there is a rapid onset of malignant hypertension, it can lead to damage in the blood vessels of the brain, causing encephalopathy. Encephalopathy refers to a group of neurological disorders that affect brain function, leading to symptoms such as confusion, altered mental status, seizures, and even coma. Monitoring for encephalopathy is crucial in these cases to detect any neurological changes and provide appropriate medical interventions.

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124. A 20-year-old female is being admitted to the hospital with fever and septic shock. Which set of assessment findings would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

Explanation

A 20-year-old female with fever and septic shock would likely exhibit low blood pressure, tachycardia, and generalized edema. Septic shock is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to widespread inflammation and vasodilation. This vasodilation causes a decrease in blood pressure, which is compensated for by an increase in heart rate (tachycardia). Generalized edema can occur as a result of fluid leakage from blood vessels due to increased capillary permeability caused by the inflammatory response. These assessment findings are consistent with the pathophysiology of septic shock.

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125. A 60-year-old male with a 40-year history of smoking presents with chest pain, cough, sputum production, and pneumonia. Tests reveal widespread metastatic cancer, and the primary care provider plans radiation therapy. Which of following is the most likely type of cancer to be documented on the chart? 

Explanation

The most likely type of cancer to be documented on the chart is non-small cell carcinoma. This is because the patient's history of smoking, along with the symptoms of chest pain, cough, sputum production, and pneumonia, are all consistent with non-small cell lung cancer. Adenoma, small cell carcinoma, and basal cell carcinoma are not typically associated with smoking or the symptoms described.

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126. What term should the nurse document for a detached blood clot?

Explanation

A detached blood clot is known as a thromboembolus. This term refers to a blood clot that has broken free from its original location and is now traveling through the bloodstream. It can potentially cause blockages in blood vessels, leading to serious complications such as stroke or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to document the term "thromboembolus" accurately to convey the specific condition of a detached blood clot.

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127. Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in pulmonary embolism (PE)? (Select all that apply.) 

Explanation

Chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hemoptysis are all expected assessment findings in pulmonary embolism (PE). Chest pain is commonly experienced in PE due to the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid breathing) occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen supply. Fever can be present due to inflammation caused by the clot. Hemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can occur if the clot causes damage to the blood vessels in the lungs.

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128. Which of the following are characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH)? (Select all that apply.) 

Explanation

Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is a condition characterized by high blood pressure in the arteries that supply the lungs. Fatigue and dyspnea (shortness of breath) are common symptoms of IPAH due to the increased workload on the heart and lungs. Jugular vein distention, which is the swelling of the jugular veins in the neck, can also occur in IPAH due to the increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries. Therefore, the correct answer options for characteristic features of IPAH are fatigue, dyspnea, and jugular vein distention.

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129. Which organ should the nurse monitor closely since it is often the first to fail in patients with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? 

Explanation

In patients with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), the lungs are often the first organ to fail. This is because MODS is characterized by the failure of multiple organs, and the lungs are particularly susceptible due to their constant exposure to external factors such as infections, toxins, and trauma. Lung failure can manifest as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which is a severe condition that impairs the ability to breathe and exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the lung function in patients with MODS to detect any signs of respiratory distress and initiate appropriate interventions promptly.

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130. A nurse recalls acute orthostatic hypotension can be caused by (select all that apply):

Explanation

Acute orthostatic hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up. Prolonged immobility can lead to this condition because it causes blood to pool in the lower extremities, resulting in a decrease in blood volume and subsequent drop in blood pressure. Drug action can also cause acute orthostatic hypotension as certain medications can affect blood pressure regulation. Starvation can lead to orthostatic hypotension due to a decrease in blood volume caused by inadequate fluid and nutrient intake. Volume depletion, which can occur due to dehydration or excessive fluid loss, can also cause a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Exercise, however, does not typically cause acute orthostatic hypotension.

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