Smartest Pulmonologist Quiz Questions
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A patient asks what causes pneumonia. How should the nurse reply? Pneumonia is caused by:
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Use of anesthetic agents in surgery
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Atelectasis
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Chronic lung changes seen with aging
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Viral or bacterial infections
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About This Quiz
The 'Smartest Pulmonologist Quiz' assesses knowledge on respiratory conditions and their documentation. It covers terms like dyspnea, orthopnea, and Cheyne-Stokes respiration, essential for healthcare professionals, particularly in pulmonology and critical care.
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- 2.
When the nurse observes a diagnosis of nosocomial pneumonia, the patient generally acquires this pneumonia:
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At day care centers
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On airplanes
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During hospitalization
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In the winter season
Correct Answer
A. During hospitalizationExplanation
Nosocomial pneumonia refers to pneumonia that is acquired in a hospital setting. This means that the patient develops pneumonia while they are already hospitalized for another reason. Nosocomial pneumonia is often caused by bacteria that can be present in healthcare facilities, and it typically occurs in patients who are already sick or have weakened immune systems. Therefore, the correct answer is during hospitalization.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A 60-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. He is diagnosed with atherosclerosis. This disease is caused by:
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Arterial wall thinning and weakening
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Abnormally dilated arteries and veins
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Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls
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Autonomic nervous system imbalances
Correct Answer
A. Abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel wallsExplanation
The correct answer is abnormal thickening and hardening of vessel walls. Atherosclerosis is a disease characterized by the buildup of plaque, consisting of cholesterol, fat, and other substances, in the walls of arteries. Over time, this plaque can cause the arteries to become thickened and hardened, leading to reduced blood flow and potentially causing chest pain or other symptoms. This condition is commonly associated with risk factors such as high cholesterol, high blood pressure, smoking, and diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A nurse takes an adult patient’s blood pressure and determines it to be normal. What reading did the nurse obtain?
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Systolic pressure between 140 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg
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Systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mm Hg
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Systolic pressure less than 100 mm Hg regardless of diastolic pressure
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Systolic pressure greater than 140 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 100 mm Hg
Correct Answer
A. Systolic pressure less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure less than 80 mm HgExplanation
The nurse obtained a blood pressure reading that is considered normal for an adult patient. The systolic pressure is less than 120 mm Hg, indicating the pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting is within a normal range. The diastolic pressure is less than 80 mm Hg, indicating the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest is also within a normal range. This combination of systolic and diastolic pressures falls within the normal blood pressure range for adults.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A 32-year-old female presents with lower leg pain, with swelling and redness. While obtaining the patient’s history, which finding could have caused her condition?
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Venous thrombus
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Heart valve damage
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Bacterial infection
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Athersclerosis
Correct Answer
A. Venous thrombusExplanation
The patient's presentation of lower leg pain, swelling, and redness is consistent with the symptoms of venous thrombus, also known as deep vein thrombosis (DVT). A venous thrombus occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. This can cause pain, swelling, and redness due to the obstruction of blood flow. Other conditions listed, such as heart valve damage, bacterial infection, and atherosclerosis, may also cause similar symptoms but are less likely to be the cause in this case.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 30-year-old female presents to her primary care provider with fever, cardiac murmur, and petechial skin lesions. She is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. When the patient wants to know what caused the disease, what is the nurse’s best response? The most likely cause of the disease is:
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Bacteria
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Viruses
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Fungi
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Parasites
Correct Answer
A. BacteriaExplanation
The most likely cause of infective endocarditis is bacteria. Bacterial endocarditis occurs when bacteria enter the bloodstream and attach to the heart valves or other damaged areas of the heart. This can happen through dental procedures, surgeries, IV drug use, or certain medical conditions. Bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans are commonly implicated in infective endocarditis. Viruses, fungi, and parasites are less common causes of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A nurse is teaching a patient about anaphylactic shock. Which information should the nurse include? The onset of anaphylactic shock is usually:
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Mild
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Immediate and life threatening
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Delayed by several hours
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Delayed by 24 hours
Correct Answer
A. Immediate and life threateningExplanation
The nurse should include in the teaching that the onset of anaphylactic shock is usually immediate and life-threatening. This means that the symptoms of anaphylactic shock can occur rapidly after exposure to an allergen and can be severe, potentially leading to a life-threatening situation if not treated promptly. It is important for the patient to be aware of the urgency in seeking medical attention if they experience any signs or symptoms of anaphylactic shock.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition?
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Cyanosis
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Dyspnea
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Hyperpnea
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Orthopnea
Correct Answer
A. DyspneaExplanation
The term the nurse should use to document this condition is dyspnea. Dyspnea refers to difficulty in breathing or the sensation of not getting enough air. The patient's symptoms of subcostal and intercostal retractions, along with feeling that breathing is difficult, indicate dyspnea. Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen, hyperpnea refers to increased depth and rate of breathing, and orthopnea refers to difficulty in breathing while lying flat.Rate this question:
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- 9.
65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes. How should the nurse chart this condition? Patient has:
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Cyanosis
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Hemoptysis
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Hematemisis
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Ischemia
Correct Answer
A. CyanosisExplanation
The nurse should chart that the patient has cyanosis. Cyanosis is a condition characterized by bluish skin and mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygenation of the blood. In this case, the patient's difficulty breathing and emphysema may be causing a lack of oxygen exchange in the lungs, leading to cyanosis. Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood, hematemesis refers to vomiting blood, and ischemia refers to inadequate blood supply to a tissue or organ. None of these terms accurately describe the patient's presentation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A 28-year-old male reports to his primary care provider that he has had a cold for a week and is coughing up bloody secretions. When giving report, what term should the nurse use to describe this condition?
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Hematemesis
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Cyanosis
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Rhinitis
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Hemoptysis
Correct Answer
A. HemoptysisExplanation
The term "hemoptysis" should be used to describe the condition in which the patient is coughing up bloody secretions. Hemoptysis refers specifically to the coughing up of blood or blood-stained sputum from the respiratory tract. This term is appropriate in this case because the patient is experiencing a cold and is coughing up bloody secretions. Hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood, Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, and Rhinitis refers to inflammation of the nasal passages.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A group of mountain climbers experience confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal output after climbing Mount Rainier. A nurse recalls this condition is caused by:
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Bronchoconstriction
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Hypoventilation
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Decreased inspired oxygen
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Diffusion abnormalities
Correct Answer
A. Decreased inspired oxygenExplanation
The group of mountain climbers experienced confusion, tachycardia, edema, and decreased renal output after climbing Mount Rainier. This suggests that they may be suffering from high altitude sickness, also known as acute mountain sickness (AMS). One of the main causes of AMS is decreased inspired oxygen at high altitudes. As the climbers ascend, the air becomes thinner and contains less oxygen, leading to a decrease in the amount of oxygen available for the body to use. This can result in various symptoms, including confusion, increased heart rate (tachycardia), fluid retention (edema), and decreased urine output (decreased renal output).Rate this question:
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- 12.
A 57-year-old male presents with cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume. He is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. When taking the patient’s history, which finding is the most probable cause of his illness?
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Inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica
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Autoimmune disease
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Allergic reactions
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Flail chest
Correct Answer
A. Inhalation of silica, asbestos, micaExplanation
The most probable cause of the patient's illness is inhalation of silica, asbestos, mica. Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease caused by the inhalation of mineral dust particles, such as silica, asbestos, or mica. These particles can accumulate in the lungs over time, leading to inflammation, scarring, and decreased lung function. The patient's symptoms of cough, sputum production, dyspnea, and decreased lung volume are consistent with the diagnosis of pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of these mineral dust particles.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. While planning interactions, the nurse realizes the patient can transmit this disease through:
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Skin contact
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Fecal-oral contact
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Airborne droplets
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Blood transfusions
Correct Answer
A. Airborne dropletsExplanation
The correct answer is airborne droplets. Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks and releases tiny droplets containing the bacteria. These droplets can be inhaled by others, leading to the spread of the disease. Skin contact, fecal-oral contact, and blood transfusions are not common modes of transmission for tuberculosis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment?
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Dry cough and inspiratory crackles
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Shallow respirations and wheezing
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Chest pain and shortness of breath
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Kussmaul respirations and back pain
Correct Answer
A. Chest pain and shortness of breathExplanation
Chest pain and shortness of breath are common symptoms of pulmonary embolism. This occurs when a blood clot blocks one or more of the arteries in the lungs. The clot restricts blood flow, leading to chest pain and difficulty breathing. These symptoms typically occur before treatment because the clot is still present and causing obstruction. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing these symptoms to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 15.
An 82-year-old female was admitted to the hospital with confusion and severe hypotension. Her body’s compensatory mechanisms are increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and movement of large volumes of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment. What kind of shock does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
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Anaphylactic
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Hypovolemic
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Neurogenic
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Septic
Correct Answer
A. HypovolemicExplanation
Based on the given information, the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock. This type of shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid volume, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. The patient's severe hypotension and compensatory mechanisms such as increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and movement of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment are consistent with the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by a severe allergic reaction, neurogenic shock is caused by damage to the nervous system, and septic shock is a result of a severe infection.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When the nurse is asked what causes asthma, how should the nurse respond? Asthma is thought to be caused by:
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An autosomal recessive trait
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Autoimmunity
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Excessive use of antibiotics as a young child
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Interactions between genetic and environmental factors
Correct Answer
A. Interactions between genetic and environmental factorsExplanation
Asthma is believed to be caused by interactions between genetic and environmental factors. This means that both genetic predisposition and exposure to certain environmental triggers can contribute to the development of asthma. While genetics play a role in determining a person's susceptibility to asthma, environmental factors such as allergens, air pollution, and respiratory infections can also trigger asthma symptoms. Therefore, it is the combination of both genetic and environmental factors that is believed to cause asthma.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A 49-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting chest pain. EKG reveals ST elevation. He is diagnosed with myocardial ischemia. Which of the following interventions would be most beneficial?
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Administer a diuretic to decrease volume.
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Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply
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Encourage exercise to increase heart rate
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Give an antibiotic to decrease infection
Correct Answer
A. Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supplyExplanation
Administering oxygen to the patient would be the most beneficial intervention in this scenario. Myocardial ischemia refers to a reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to inadequate oxygen supply. By applying oxygen, the myocardial oxygen supply can be increased, which helps alleviate the ischemia and reduce the chest pain. This intervention aims to improve the oxygenation of the heart muscle and promote its proper functioning. The other options, such as administering a diuretic, encouraging exercise, or giving an antibiotic, are not directly related to addressing the underlying issue of myocardial ischemia.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A 50-year-old male visits the cardiologist for an EKG. Results indicate that he has no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm irregularity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be recorded on the chart?
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Atrial tachycardia
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Atrial fibrillation
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Sinus dysrythmia
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Idioventricular rythym
Correct Answer
A. Atrial fibrillationExplanation
The EKG results show no PR interval and a variable QRS rate with rhythm irregularity, which are characteristic findings of atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is a condition where the atria of the heart quiver instead of contracting normally, leading to an irregular heart rhythm. This condition is commonly seen in older individuals and can increase the risk of stroke and other complications. Therefore, atrial fibrillation is the most likely diagnosis for this patient based on the given information.Rate this question:
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- 19.
For an infection to progress to septic shock, which of the following factors should the nurse determine occurred?
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The individual must be immunosuppressed
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The myocardium must be impaired
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The infection must be gram negative
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Bacteria must enter the bloodstream
Correct Answer
A. Bacteria must enter the bloodstreamExplanation
In order for an infection to progress to septic shock, bacteria must enter the bloodstream. This is because septic shock is a severe and life-threatening condition that occurs when the body's response to an infection causes widespread inflammation and organ dysfunction. When bacteria enter the bloodstream, they can spread throughout the body and trigger an overwhelming immune response, leading to septic shock. The other factors listed in the options, such as immunosuppression or impairment of the myocardium, may contribute to the severity of the infection but are not necessary for the progression to septic shock.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension. Which of the following symptoms would he most likely experience?
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Headache and blurred vision
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Nausea and vomiting
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Chest pain and palpitations
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Syncope and fainting
Correct Answer
A. Syncope and faintingExplanation
A 50-year-old male diagnosed with orthostatic hypotension would most likely experience syncope and fainting. Orthostatic hypotension is a condition characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to inadequate blood flow to the brain. This can result in dizziness, lightheadedness, and ultimately syncope, which is a temporary loss of consciousness. Fainting is a common symptom of orthostatic hypotension as the brain does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients due to low blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Individuals with Raynaud disease need to be counseled to avoid which of the following conditions to prevent severe symptoms?
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Allergic reactions
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Cold exposure
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Hot water immersion
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Tissue injury
Correct Answer
A. Cold exposureExplanation
Individuals with Raynaud disease experience extreme sensitivity to cold temperatures, which can trigger severe symptoms such as numbness, pain, and color changes in the fingers and toes. Therefore, they should avoid cold exposure to prevent these symptoms. Cold exposure can include being in cold environments, handling cold objects, or even drinking cold beverages. By avoiding cold exposure, individuals with Raynaud disease can minimize the risk of experiencing severe symptoms and improve their quality of life.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A 75-year-old obese female presents to her primary care provider reporting edema in the lower extremities. Physical exam reveals that she has varicose veins. Upon performing the history, which of the following is a possible cause for the varicose veins?
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Extreme exercise
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Long periods of standing
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Trauma to the deep veins
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Ischemia
Correct Answer
A. Long periods of standingExplanation
Long periods of standing can be a possible cause for varicose veins. Varicose veins occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to pool and the veins to become enlarged and twisted. Standing for long periods of time can increase the pressure in the veins of the lower extremities, making it harder for blood to flow properly and leading to the development of varicose veins. Other risk factors for varicose veins include obesity, older age, and being female.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A 10-year-old male presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, and nose bleeds. He is diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease. When a staff member asks what caused the disease, what is the nurse’s most correct response? The most likely cause of this disease is:
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Congenital heart defects
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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections
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Group A ß-hemolytic streptococcus infections
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Acute pericarditis
Correct Answer
A. Group A ß-hemolytic streptococcus infectionsExplanation
The most likely cause of rheumatic heart disease in this 10-year-old male is Group A ß-hemolytic streptococcus infections. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication of untreated or inadequately treated streptococcal infections, particularly streptococcal pharyngitis. The infection triggers an immune response in which antibodies attack the heart valves, leading to inflammation and damage. This can result in symptoms such as fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia, and nose bleeds. Congenital heart defects, HIV infections, and acute pericarditis are not typically associated with the development of rheumatic heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A 20-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when lying down. What term should the nurse use to document this condition?
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Dyspnea
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Orthopnea
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Apnea
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Tachypnea
Correct Answer
A. OrthopneaExplanation
Orthopnea is the term used to describe difficulty breathing when lying down. It is a common symptom seen in patients with heart failure or other cardiac conditions. When a person with orthopnea lies flat, fluid can accumulate in the lungs, making it harder to breathe. To relieve this symptom, patients often need to prop themselves up with pillows or sleep in a more upright position. Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing in general, while apnea refers to the cessation of breathing, and tachypnea refers to rapid breathing.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to:
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Increased sympathetic nervous system response
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The release of stress hormones
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Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation
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Hereditary decrease in IgE responsiveness
Correct Answer
A. Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulationExplanation
Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation is an important factor in airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma. Mast cells, which are present in the airways, release various chemicals including histamine when exposed to an allergen. Histamine causes inflammation and constriction of the airways, leading to symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and difficulty breathing. Therefore, understanding the role of allergen exposure and mast cell degranulation is crucial in managing and treating asthma.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A 30-year-old male prison inmate contracted tuberculosis during an outbreak. When the nurse reviews the lab results, the organism that caused this condition is a:
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Bacterium
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Fungus
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Virus
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Parasite
Correct Answer
A. BacteriumExplanation
The correct answer is Bacterium. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a contagious infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also spread to other parts of the body. The bacteria are transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Treatment for tuberculosis typically involves a combination of antibiotics taken over a long period of time.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A 30-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustains trauma to the lungs and chest wall. He experiences respiratory failure. Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect?
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Electrolyte imbalances
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Elevated PaCO2
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Low hematocrit
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Elevated pH
Correct Answer
A. Elevated PaCO2Explanation
In a patient with trauma to the lungs and chest wall, respiratory failure can occur. Elevated PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) is expected in this case. When the lungs are injured, they are unable to effectively remove carbon dioxide from the body, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in an increase in PaCO2 levels.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A 50-year-old male presents with hypotension, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation to the left. Tests reveal that the air pressure in the pleural cavity exceeds barometric pressure in the atmosphere. Based upon these assessment findings, what does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
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Pleural effusion
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Tension pneumothorax
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Open pneumothorax
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Transudative pneumothorax
Correct Answer
A. Tension pneumothoraxExplanation
The nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing a tension pneumothorax. This is indicated by the tracheal deviation to the left, which suggests a shift in the mediastinum due to increased pressure in the pleural cavity. Hypotension and hypoxemia are also consistent with tension pneumothorax, as the increased pressure can compress the blood vessels and impede blood flow. Pleural effusion involves the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, which is not indicated in this case. Open pneumothorax refers to a hole in the chest wall, which is not mentioned. Transudative pneumothorax is not a recognized medical condition.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)?
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21-year-old male with a hemophilia bleeding disorder
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28-year-old woman who had a baby 6 months earlier
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36-year-old woman with a history of alcohol abuse who is recovering from a gastric ulcer
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72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital
Correct Answer
A. 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospitalExplanation
The 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital is at the highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE). Surgery, especially orthopedic surgery such as hip replacement, increases the risk of blood clots. Immobility during the recovery period further increases the risk. Additionally, advanced age is a risk factor for PE.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A 60-year-old male undergoes surgery for a bone fracture. Which of the following nursing measures would be most effective for preventing pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient?
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Ensure that patient uses supplemental oxygen
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Prevent deep vein thrombosis formation
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Check hematocrit and hemoglobin levels frequently during the postoperative period
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Promote aggressive fluid intake
Correct Answer
A. Prevent deep vein thrombosis formationExplanation
Preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) formation would be the most effective nursing measure for preventing pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient. DVT is a common risk factor for PE, as blood clots can form in the deep veins of the legs and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening PE. By implementing measures to prevent DVT formation, such as early mobilization, leg exercises, compression stockings, and anticoagulant medications, the risk of PE can be significantly reduced.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A 50-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with bronchogenic cancer. He developed edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Which of the following diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?
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Thromboembolism
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Deep vein thrombosis
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Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)
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Chronic venous insufficiency
Correct Answer
A. Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)Explanation
The nurse will observe the diagnosis of Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) on the chart. This condition occurs when there is obstruction or compression of the superior vena cava, which is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the heart. In this case, the patient's bronchogenic cancer is likely causing the obstruction, leading to symptoms such as edema and venous distention in the upper extremities and face. Thromboembolism and deep vein thrombosis are not the correct diagnoses because they involve blood clots, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Chronic venous insufficiency is also not the correct diagnosis as the symptoms described are not consistent with this condition.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A 30-year-old female received a severe head injury in a motor vehicle accident. She is now experiencing respiratory abnormalities characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. What term should the nurse use when charting this condition?
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Cheyne-Stokes
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Frank-Starling
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Apnea
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Orthopnea
Correct Answer
A. Cheyne-StokesExplanation
The nurse should use the term "Cheyne-Stokes" when charting the patient's respiratory abnormalities. Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing with periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in patients with severe head injuries or brain damage. It is important for the nurse to accurately document this condition to ensure appropriate care and monitoring for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months’ duration. Which of the following is the most significant concern for the nurse to monitor in this patient?
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Left heart failure
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Pulmonary embolus
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Immunosuppression
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Recurrent pulmonary infections
Correct Answer
A. Recurrent pulmonary infectionsExplanation
The most significant concern for the nurse to monitor in this patient with chronic bronchitis is recurrent pulmonary infections. Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to increased mucus production and cough. This chronic inflammation weakens the immune system and impairs the ability to fight off infections, making the patient more prone to recurrent pulmonary infections. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, increased sputum production, and worsening cough, is important in order to promptly treat and manage these infections.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A 28-year-old female presents with severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism, which most likely originated from the:
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Left ventricle
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Systemic arteries
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Deep veins of the leg
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Superficial veins of the arm
Correct Answer
A. Deep veins of the legExplanation
The correct answer is deep veins of the leg. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot, usually from the deep veins of the leg (deep vein thrombosis), travels through the bloodstream and lodges in the pulmonary arteries, causing chest pain and shortness of breath. This is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism. The other options, such as left ventricle, systemic arteries, and superficial veins of the arm, are not typical sources of blood clots that lead to pulmonary embolism.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A 51-year-old male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion. He is diagnosed with angina pectoris. When he asks what causes the pain, how should the nurse respond? The pain occurs when:
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Cardiac output has fallen below normal levels.
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The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand
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Myocardial stretch has exceeded the upper limits
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The vagus nerve is stimulated
Correct Answer
A. The myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demandExplanation
The nurse should respond that the pain occurs when the myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand. Angina pectoris is typically caused by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, which reduces blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart muscle. This imbalance between oxygen supply and demand leads to chest pain.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A 35-year-old male presents with pulmonary hypertension. Testing reveals he is in right heart failure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will see listed on the chart?
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Aortic stenosis
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Tricuspid regurgitation
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Aortic regurgitation
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Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer
A. Tricuspid regurgitationExplanation
Tricuspid regurgitation is the most likely diagnosis for a 35-year-old male presenting with pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure. Tricuspid regurgitation is a condition where the tricuspid valve does not close properly, allowing blood to flow back into the right atrium during ventricular contraction. This can lead to right heart failure and symptoms such as pulmonary hypertension. Aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation, and mitral regurgitation are less likely to cause right heart failure and pulmonary hypertension in this patient population.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for which most common presenting factor?
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A productive cough
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Cyanosis
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Dyspnea
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Cor pulmonale
Correct Answer
A. DyspneaExplanation
Individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema should be assessed for dyspnea, which refers to shortness of breath or difficulty in breathing. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs, leading to reduced lung function and impaired oxygen exchange. Dyspnea is a common symptom of emphysema, as the damaged air sacs make it harder for air to flow in and out of the lungs. Assessing for dyspnea in individuals with a recent diagnosis of emphysema is important to determine the severity of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as _____ hypertension.
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Primary
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Secondary
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Congenital
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Acquired
Correct Answer
A. PrimaryExplanation
Most cases of combined systolic and diastolic hypertension have no known cause and are documented on the chart as primary hypertension. This means that the hypertension is not a result of any underlying medical condition or secondary cause. Primary hypertension is the most common type of hypertension and is often related to lifestyle factors such as diet, exercise, and stress. It is important to manage primary hypertension through lifestyle changes and, if necessary, medication to prevent complications such as heart disease and stroke.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm. Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located?
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Vertebral arteries
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Basilar artery
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Circle of Willis
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Carotid arteries
Correct Answer
A. Circle of WillisExplanation
The nurse suspects that the cerebral aneurysm is located in the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is a circular arrangement of blood vessels at the base of the brain that provides collateral circulation to the brain. It connects the carotid and vertebral arteries, allowing for blood flow to both sides of the brain. A cerebral aneurysm is a bulging or ballooning of a blood vessel in the brain, and it is commonly found in the Circle of Willis.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A 56-year-old male is diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which of the following modifiable risk factors would the nurse suggest the patient change?
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Eating meat
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Living arrangements
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Drinking tomato juice
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Smoking cigarettes
Correct Answer
A. Smoking cigarettesExplanation
Smoking cigarettes is a modifiable risk factor that the nurse would suggest the patient change. Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease as it damages blood vessels, increases blood pressure, and reduces oxygen supply to the heart. Quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk of developing or worsening coronary artery disease.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A 60-year-old female had a myocardial infarction. She was brought to the hospital 30 minutes later. She survived, but now the nurse is providing care for impaired ventricular function because:
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There is a temporary alteration in electrolyte balance
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There is too much stress on the heart.
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The cells become hypertrophic
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The resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death
Correct Answer
A. The resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell deathExplanation
The correct answer is that the resulting ischemia leads to hypoxic injury and myocardial cell death. Ischemia refers to a lack of blood flow to a particular area, in this case, the heart. When the blood flow is restricted, the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to hypoxic injury. This lack of oxygen can cause damage to the myocardial cells, leading to their death. This can result in impaired ventricular function, which the nurse is now providing care for.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A 75-year-old male has severe chest pain and dials 911. Lab tests at the hospital reveal elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T. Based upon the lab findings, the nurse suspects which of the following has occurred?
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Raynaud disease
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Myocardial infarction (MI)
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Orthostatic hypotension
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Varicose veins
Correct Answer
A. Myocardial infarction (MI)Explanation
The elevated levels of cardiac troponins I and T indicate damage to the heart muscle. This is a specific marker for myocardial infarction (MI), commonly known as a heart attack. Raynaud disease is a condition that affects blood flow to the extremities, causing them to turn white or blue. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. Varicose veins are enlarged, twisted veins that usually occur in the legs. None of these conditions would explain the elevated cardiac troponins, making myocardial infarction the most likely explanation.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following conditions should alert the nurse that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction?
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Heart failure
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Connective tissue disorders
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Rheumatic fever or heart disease
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Syphilis infection
Correct Answer
A. Rheumatic fever or heart diseaseExplanation
Rheumatic fever or heart disease should alert the nurse that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can cause damage to the heart valves, leading to both stenosis and regurgitation disorders. Heart disease, particularly when caused by rheumatic fever, can also result in valve dysfunction. Therefore, the presence of rheumatic fever or heart disease increases the likelihood that the patient may have both types of valve dysfunction.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A 60-year-old female was diagnosed with mitral stenosis. As a result, the nurse realizes the patient has incomplete emptying of the:
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Right atrium
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Right ventricle
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Left atrium
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Left ventricle
Correct Answer
A. Left atriumExplanation
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, located between the left atrium and left ventricle, becomes narrowed. This narrowing obstructs blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, causing incomplete emptying of the left atrium. Therefore, the correct answer is the left atrium.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A 20-year-old male is in acute pain. An arterial blood gas reveals decreased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
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Hyperventilation
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Hypoventilation
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Apnea
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Cyanosis
Correct Answer
A. HyperventilationExplanation
The nurse suspects that hyperventilation is the most likely cause of the decreased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the arterial blood gas. Hyperventilation refers to rapid and deep breathing, which leads to excessive elimination of CO2 from the body. This can result in a decrease in CO2 levels in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A 50-year-old male was admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI). He is being treated for shock. His cardiopulmonary symptoms include low blood pressure, tachycardia, and tachypnea. His skin is pale and cool. The primary cause of his shock is most likely:
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Rapid heart rate
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Decreased cardiac contractility
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Increased capillary permeability
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Decreased afterload due to vasodilation
Correct Answer
A. Decreased cardiac contractilityExplanation
The primary cause of the patient's shock is most likely decreased cardiac contractility. This is indicated by the symptoms of low blood pressure, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Decreased cardiac contractility means that the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues. This can result in shock, which is characterized by decreased blood pressure and poor tissue perfusion. The other options, such as rapid heart rate, increased capillary permeability, and decreased afterload due to vasodilation, may contribute to the patient's condition but are not the primary cause of the shock.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A nurse is reviewing the results of an ABG and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition?
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Ischemia
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Hypoxia
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Hypoxemia
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Hypocapnia
Correct Answer
A. HypoxemiaExplanation
Hypoxemia is the correct term to describe reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. Hypoxemia refers specifically to low levels of oxygen in the blood, which can occur due to various reasons such as lung diseases, heart problems, or low oxygen levels in the environment. Ischemia refers to inadequate blood supply to a specific organ or tissue, while hypoxia is a broader term that refers to a deficiency of oxygen in the body as a whole. Hypocapnia, on the other hand, refers to low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma. Which information should the nurse include? Airway obstruction contributing to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in asthma is caused by:
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Type II alveolar cell injury and decreased surfactant
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Alveolar fibrosis and pulmonary edema
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Mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema
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Collapse of the cartilaginous rings in the bronchi
Correct Answer
A. Mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edemaExplanation
The nurse should include information about mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and airway edema as the causes of airway obstruction in asthma. These factors contribute to increased airflow resistance and hypoventilation in individuals with asthma.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A 25-year-old male presents with chronic bronchitis of 5 months’ duration. When obtaining the patient’s history, which of the following findings is most likely to cause this condition?
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Chronic asthma
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Air pollution
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Cigarette smoke
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Recurrent pneumonias
Correct Answer
A. Cigarette smokeExplanation
Cigarette smoke is the most likely cause of chronic bronchitis in this case. Chronic bronchitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and irritation of the bronchial tubes, which results in a persistent cough, mucus production, and difficulty breathing. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals and irritants that can damage the lining of the bronchial tubes and lead to chronic bronchitis. The patient's history of chronic bronchitis for 5 months suggests a chronic exposure to a respiratory irritant, and cigarette smoke is a common cause of this condition.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 28, 2017Quiz Created by
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