Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure)

  • URE
  • ROE
  • US Supreme Court
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1. Vegetation in clear zones will not Exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities?

Explanation

In restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities, vegetation in clear zones is limited to a maximum height of 8 inches. This restriction is likely in place to ensure clear visibility and accessibility in these areas, reducing the risk of any potential interference or damage to the facilities. Keeping the vegetation at a low height also helps prevent any potential fire hazards and allows for easier maintenance and surveillance of the area.

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About This Quiz
Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure) - Quiz

Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises focuses on the mental preparedness, rules of engagement, and reasonable force levels in law enforcement and military contexts. It assesses understanding of force application and legal standards crucial for security personnel.

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2. What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

Explanation

During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the individuals involved and gathering information about the situation, including any injuries or threats that may have occurred. The purpose of the interview is to gather as much information as possible to ensure the safety and well-being of all family members involved.

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3. Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area per escort official?

Explanation

An exclusion area is a restricted zone where access is limited to authorized personnel only. The question asks about the maximum number of persons that can be escorted inside the exclusion area per escort official. The correct answer is 6, which means that each escort official is responsible for escorting up to 6 individuals at a time. This ensures that the number of people inside the exclusion area is manageable and allows for proper supervision and control.

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4. Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

Explanation

Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of children for sexual purposes, which includes the production, distribution, and consumption of explicit materials involving minors. It is a grave violation of a child's rights and can cause severe psychological and physical harm.

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5. What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

Explanation

Your tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because it creates a safe and supportive environment. By approaching the victim with sensitivity and respect, you can help them feel more comfortable and validated. Tactful communication and maintaining composure can also help to build trust and establish a rapport with the victim, allowing them to open up and share their experience more freely. Overall, your tact and poise can contribute to the victim feeling heard, understood, and supported during a very difficult and traumatic time.

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6. What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

Explanation

Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim. This means that the defendant's actions go beyond the level of simple assault, which is a lesser offense. Aggravated assault typically involves the use of a weapon or results in serious bodily harm to the victim.

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7. Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?

Explanation

The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting those who violate them. The DOJ has various agencies under its umbrella, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI), which plays a crucial role in investigating and preventing terrorist activities. Additionally, the DOJ has the resources and authority to coordinate with other agencies and departments to respond effectively to such incidents and protect the nation's security.

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8. The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to

Explanation

The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

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9. Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?

Explanation

The correct answer is Kirkland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA. This facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. It is located in the United States and is responsible for storing and maintaining a significant portion of the country's nuclear arsenal. The facility is designed to ensure the safety and security of the weapons, as well as to provide maintenance and support services when needed.

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10. What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

Explanation

The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving the infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations within the United States Air Force, and they have the authority to investigate and address cases of child abuse or neglect that result in serious bodily harm. This agency is specifically tasked with investigating and resolving such cases within the Air Force.

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11. What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made.

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12. Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

Explanation

Mental abuse is not one of the three types of child abuse. The three types of child abuse are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse refers to the emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, such as constant belittling, humiliation, or manipulation. While mental abuse is a serious form of harm to a child, it is not categorized as one of the three primary types of child abuse.

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13. Who ensures that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft?

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft. Couriers are responsible for transporting sensitive and classified materials, including nuclear weapons, and they play a crucial role in maintaining security and preventing unauthorized access. They work closely with Security Forces and follow strict protocols to ensure the safety and integrity of the nuclear logistics aircraft.

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14. ONLY PERSONNEL CERTIFIED THROUGH WHAT PROGRAM OR THE HOST-NATION EQUIVALENT AT A WEAPONS STORAGE and SECURITY SYSTEM (WS3) INSTALLATIONS CAN BE PERMITTED UNESCORTED ENTRY INTO EXCLUSION AREAS OR CAN PERFORM ESCORT DUTIES WITHIN EXCLUSION AREAS?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP). This program certifies personnel to have unescorted entry into exclusion areas or perform escort duties within exclusion areas at Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3) installations. The other options, such as the Personnel Escort Program (PEP), Personnel Protection Program (PPP), and Personnel Certification Program (PCP), do not specifically pertain to the requirements for unescorted entry or escort duties in exclusion areas at WS3 installations.

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15. (DCNI) What security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility (LF), and establishes site security?

Explanation

The Security Escort Team (SET) is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing security for a penetrated launch facility and establishing site security. They are routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team to ensure the safety and protection of the facility. The other options, Alert Fire Team (AFT), Mobile Fire Team (MFT), and Camper Alert Team (CAT), do not specifically mention the tasks mentioned in the question.

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16. What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?

Explanation

Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to provide the necessary care, support, and basic needs for a child's physical, emotional, and psychological well-being. This includes not providing nourishment, depriving them of necessities such as shelter and clothing, and failing to meet their basic needs. Neglect can have severe consequences on a child's development and overall health.

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17. What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?

Explanation

Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another person, regardless of whether it is successful or not, as long as the target is aware of the danger. It does not require any physical contact or injury to occur. Aggravated Assault involves a more serious level of harm or use of a deadly weapon, while Simple Assault refers to a less severe form of assault. Battery, on the other hand, involves actual physical contact or harm caused to another person.

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18. WHAT ARE THE FOUR PHASES OF THE JUDICIAL PROCESS IN WHICH YOU MUST BRIEF ALL VICTIMS AND WITNESSES ON IN THE VICTIM/WITNESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAM?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where law enforcement agencies respond to a crime and gather initial information. The second phase is the investigation, where evidence is collected, witnesses are interviewed, and a case is built. The third phase is prosecution, where the case is presented in court and a decision is made by a judge or jury. The final phase is confinement, where the convicted individual serves their sentence.

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19. What must be established at each incident site?

Explanation

At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a Cordon and Entry Control Point (ECP). This is important for maintaining security and controlling access to the site. The cordon helps to create a physical barrier around the incident area, preventing unauthorized personnel from entering. The entry control point is where authorized personnel can enter and exit the site after proper identification and screening. By establishing a Cordon and ECP, the incident site can be effectively secured and managed.

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20. How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

Explanation

Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are more visible and can be easily noticed by drivers and pedestrians. They provide a clear indication of the boundaries, ensuring that people do not enter these areas accidentally. Flat markers may not be as noticeable, while lights and cones can be easily moved or knocked over. Posted SF personnel may not always be available or visible, making elevated markers a more reliable option for marking boundaries.

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21. What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

Explanation

A simple search refers to searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This type of search involves visually inspecting the vehicle and conducting a basic examination to identify any visible evidence or objects of interest. It does not involve any extensive or invasive procedures, making it a quick and straightforward method of searching a vehicle.

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22. What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of a vehicle?

Explanation

A complete search refers to a search that involves a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle. This type of search may require the disassembly of various parts of the vehicle to ensure a comprehensive inspection. It is a more extensive and meticulous search compared to simple or partial searches, as it aims to uncover any hidden or concealed evidence or objects.

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23. What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

Explanation

The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient search techniques to employ. The situations and terrain can affect the accessibility and visibility of the area, while weather and light conditions can impact search efforts. Additionally, the number of searchers available will determine the scope and coverage of the search operation. Overall, considering these factors is essential for the OSC to make informed decisions and maximize the chances of success in the search.

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24. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REASON TO MAKE AN ENTRY WITHOUT SEARCH AUTHORITY?

Explanation

Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. The other options listed - preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, and preventing serious damage to property - all involve potential harm or danger that may require immediate action. However, securing an unlocked door does not fall under the same urgency or necessity, as it does not involve an immediate threat to individuals or property.

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25. When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

Explanation

When processing a crime scene, it is important to leave the body of a deceased person uncovered until it has been fully processed for evidence. This is because covering the body too early may disturb or contaminate potential evidence that could be crucial to the investigation. Therefore, it is best practice to wait until all necessary evidence has been collected and documented before covering the body.

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26. What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?

Explanation

Rough and finished sketches are the two types of sketches normally made of a crime scene. A rough sketch is a preliminary drawing that provides a general overview of the crime scene, including the location of evidence, bodies, and other important elements. It is typically hand-drawn and not to scale. On the other hand, a finished sketch is a more detailed and accurate representation of the crime scene. It is usually created using computer software or precise measurements and includes specific measurements, distances, and angles. The finished sketch is often used as evidence in court proceedings.

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27. What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?

Explanation

The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. This document provides the guidelines and procedures for presenting and evaluating evidence in military courts. It outlines the admissibility of evidence, the burden of proof, and the rights of the accused. The Manual for Courts Martial is an essential reference for military legal proceedings and ensures fair and consistent application of the rules of evidence within the military justice system.

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28. WHICH UNIFORM CODE OF MILITARY JUSTICE (UCMJ) ARTICLE COVERS THE WRONGFUL USE AND POSSESSION OF A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE?

Explanation

Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the offense of using, possessing, distributing, or manufacturing a controlled substance without a valid prescription or authorization. Violation of this article can result in serious consequences for military personnel, including disciplinary action, court-martial, and potential discharge from the military. It is important for military members to adhere to the regulations outlined in Article 112a to maintain discipline, order, and the overall readiness of the armed forces.

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29. What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?

Explanation

A casual crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together. This type of crowd is characterized by a lack of organization or purpose, and the individuals within it may not have any specific goal or shared interest. They may have come together by chance or circumstance, but there is no strong bond or collective identity among them.

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30. The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?

Explanation

The use of the riot baton is based on the commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The commander is responsible for assessing the circumstances, evaluating the level of threat or violence, and determining the appropriate response. They have the authority to decide when to deploy the riot baton or any other force option based on their expertise and understanding of the situation at hand.

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31. Which riot control formation is sued as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

Explanation

The correct answer is Wedge. A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation is effective in breaking through a dense crowd by creating a narrow point that can easily push through and divide the crowd into smaller sections. The shape of the wedge allows for a concentrated force to be applied, making it easier to disperse and control the crowd.

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32. Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?

Explanation

Negate is the correct answer because it refers to the act of rendering a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF (Air Force) operations. This implies taking actions or implementing measures to neutralize or eliminate the threat, thus preventing it from causing any disruption or harm to the operations.

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33. Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?

Explanation

Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the control authority exercised by a commander over subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. This type of control allows the commander to direct and coordinate military forces and operations to accomplish specific missions and objectives. OPCON ensures that the commander has the necessary authority to plan, organize, and employ forces effectively in order to achieve operational goals.

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34. Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?

Explanation

Very near infrared (VNIR) lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas. VNIR lighting emits light in the near infrared spectrum, which is not visible to the human eye. This type of lighting is used in sensitive areas to provide illumination without compromising security or safety measures. It allows for discreet lighting while maintaining a low level of visibility.

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35. How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?

Explanation

To ensure proper visibility and adherence to the restricted area, restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along the boundaries. This distance allows for clear visibility of the signs and provides sufficient warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. Displaying the signs closer together may create confusion or make it difficult for people to notice and understand the restrictions. On the other hand, spacing them further apart may not effectively communicate the boundaries of the restricted area, potentially leading to unauthorized access.

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36. When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

Explanation

Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as performing an action without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity related to controlled substances, such as possession, distribution, or use, without the necessary legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the action is illegal and not sanctioned by the law.

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37. WHAT TYPE OF FORCE IS REQUIRED AT ALL INSTALLAIONS SUPPORTING PROTECTION LEVEL (PL) 1, 2 OR 3 RESOURCES?

Explanation

At all installations supporting Protection Level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources, a Security Response Team (SRT) is required. This suggests that the SRT is responsible for providing security and responding to any potential threats or incidents at these installations. The SRT is likely trained and equipped to handle various security situations and is tasked with ensuring the safety and protection of the resources at these installations.

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38. WHAT TYPE OF SENTRIES CONTROLS THE ENTRY INTO AIRCRAFT WHEN THE AIRCRAFT IS CARRYING SPECIFIC PROTECTION LEVEL (PL) 1 ASSESTS?

Explanation

Close-in-sentry (CIS) is the correct answer because they are responsible for controlling the entry into the aircraft when it is carrying specific Protection Level (PL) 1 assets. They are stationed close to the aircraft and have the authority to monitor and regulate access to ensure the security of the assets being transported. Flight line sentry (FLS) may also be responsible for aircraft security, but they do not specifically control entry into the aircraft carrying PL 1 assets. Installation Controller (EC) and Close-boundary sentry (CBS) are not directly involved in controlling entry into the aircraft.

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39. HOW OFTEN MUST THE APPROVING AUTHORITY REVIEW ALL PERMANENT SECURITY DEVIATIONS?

Explanation

The approving authority must review all permanent security deviations every year. This ensures that the security measures in place are up to date and effective in protecting the system or facility. Regular reviews help identify any potential vulnerabilities or changes in the threat landscape, allowing for necessary adjustments or updates to maintain a high level of security.

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40. WHAT FORM IS USED TO DOCUMENT SECURITY DEVIATION AND IS SUBMITTED THROUGH COMMAND CHANNELS?

Explanation

AF Form 116 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels. This form is commonly used in the United States Air Force to report and document any deviations from standard security procedures or protocols. It allows for a standardized and formalized process of reporting and addressing security deviations, ensuring that they are properly documented and addressed through the appropriate command channels.

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41. At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission at the operational level. This means that it deals with the day-to-day activities and strategies involved in managing and executing the nuclear mission. It includes tasks such as planning, coordinating, and implementing operational plans and procedures to ensure the successful execution of the mission. The operational level is crucial in ensuring the effective and efficient management of the nuclear mission, and the roadmap provides guidance and direction at this level.

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42. WHAT CONCEPT WAS DESIGNED TO PREVENT A LONE INDIVIDUAL FROM HAVING COMPLETE KNOWLEDGE OF THE ENTIRE NUCLEAR WEAPONS LAUNCH FUNCTION?

Explanation

Split knowledge is a concept that was designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function. This means that the information and responsibilities required to launch nuclear weapons are divided among multiple individuals, ensuring that no single person has the ability to initiate a launch on their own. By implementing split knowledge, it adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized or accidental launches.

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43. In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and

Explanation

In the context of a nuclear security system, the three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and terrorists. While criminals may seek to steal nuclear material for illicit purposes, and protestors may aim to disrupt nuclear operations, terrorists pose the highest level of threat. Terrorists could potentially use nuclear materials as weapons of mass destruction, causing widespread devastation and loss of life. Therefore, ensuring the security of nuclear facilities and preventing access to terrorists is of utmost importance.

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44. WHAT ARE TWO DISTINCT CATEGORIES OF RULES OF ENGAGEMENT(ROE)?

Explanation

The two distinct categories of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow individuals or groups to use force to protect themselves or others from imminent harm or threat. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, refers to the rules that outline the objectives and goals that need to be achieved in a particular operation or mission. These rules ensure that the mission is successfully completed while adhering to legal and ethical guidelines.

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45. What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?

Explanation

During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). While ROE govern the circumstances and level of force that can be used in specific military operations, the rules for use of force provide guidelines and regulations for the use of force by law enforcement agencies within the US territory. These rules ensure that law enforcement officers follow proper procedures and use force only when necessary and in accordance with the law.

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46. Conscious verbal communication occurs when

Explanation

Conscious verbal communication occurs when words are chosen carefully during a conversation. This suggests that the communicator is actively thinking about their choice of words and selecting them deliberately to convey a specific meaning or message. This level of conscious effort implies a higher level of intentionality and thoughtfulness in the communication process.

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47. HOW DO YOU PLACE A SUSPECT ON FOOT INTO THE FINAL CHALLENGE POSITION?

Explanation

The correct answer instructs the subject to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position helps to ensure that the suspect is in a vulnerable and compliant stance, making it easier for the authorities to control and apprehend them. By spreading their fingers, it also reduces the risk of the suspect concealing any weapons or making sudden movements. This position allows for better visibility and control of the suspect during the final challenge.

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48. Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ring or middle finger." When gaining positive control of a subject prior to applying handcuffs, grasping the ring or middle finger provides a secure hold and allows for better control and manipulation of the subject's hand. This grip minimizes the risk of the subject breaking free or causing harm to themselves or others.

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49. When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

Explanation

When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic means following a methodical approach, ensuring that all relevant information is considered and no steps are missed. Being thorough means leaving no stone unturned, thoroughly examining all available sources and conducting a comprehensive investigation. By being systematic and thorough, you can ensure that your search is comprehensive and accurate, minimizing the chances of missing any important information.

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50. WHAT TYPE OF SEARCH IS PRIMARILY USED ON SUSPECTS WHO DO NOT APPEAR DANGEROUS, VIOLENT, OR SO DRUNK THEY CANNOT STAND UNDER THEIR OWN POWER?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Standing." This type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power. Standing is the most common position for suspects during a search as it allows for better control and observation of the individual. It also ensures that the suspect can cooperate and follow instructions during the search process.

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51. When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

Explanation

Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force was justified, the same factors and considerations are taken into account as when evaluating the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be reasonable based on the circumstances at hand, and the level of force used should be proportionate to the threat faced by the officer or others involved.

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52. WHAT IS THE LEVEL OF FORCE NECESSARY TO COMPEL A SUBJECT'S COMPLIANCE AND IS NEITHER LIKELY NOR INTENDED TO CAUSE DEATH?

Explanation

The question is asking about the level of force that is necessary to compel a subject's compliance without causing death. The answer "Intermediate use of force" suggests that a moderate level of force is required in order to achieve compliance, but it is not excessive or likely to result in death. This implies that there are other levels of force that are less intense (minimum use of force) or more intense (maximum use of force) than the intermediate level. Transitional use of force is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.

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53. What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

Explanation

Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the hands and arms to create a protective barrier around the head, blocking and deflecting incoming strikes. By using comb blocks, the person can minimize the impact of strikes and reduce the risk of injury to the head.

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54. What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch or other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening?

Explanation

An electronic sensor that must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch or other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening is called point detection. This type of sensor is designed to detect the presence or absence of an object at a specific point or location. It is commonly used in security systems to monitor doors, windows, or other access points for unauthorized entry.

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55. How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

Explanation

Attaining weapons retention during a rear mount involves rolling onto the Weapons Side (WS) and keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This position helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or used by the suspect. Rolling onto the support side (SS) or grabbing the weapon with either the support side (SS) or weapons side (WS) hand would not effectively retain the weapon in this situation.

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56. To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces vehicle for transporting?

Explanation

Before placing a suspect in a Security Forces vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and to prevent any potential harm or danger during transportation. By conducting a search or frisk, any hidden weapons or contraband can be discovered and removed, reducing the risk of harm or escape.

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57. Who can make judgement on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties?

Explanation

The certifying official is responsible for making judgments on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties. This individual has the authority and knowledge to assess the qualifications, trustworthiness, and suitability of personnel for PRP duties. They are responsible for ensuring that individuals meet the necessary requirements and standards to perform these duties effectively and safely. The certifying official plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and reliability of the PRP.

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58. What are the two types of removal within the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is suspension and decertification. In the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), suspension refers to the temporary removal of an individual from their duties due to concerns about their reliability or suitability. Decertification, on the other hand, is a permanent removal from the program due to a failure to meet the required standards or a breach of trust. These two types of removal ensure that only reliable and trustworthy personnel are allowed to perform critical duties within the PRP.

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59. What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

Explanation

When transporting a member of the opposite sex, it is necessary to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This requirement ensures the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues or incidents arise during the transportation. This policy is in place to maintain a secure and trustworthy environment for both the officer and the individual being transported.

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60. TO WHOM DO YOU RELEASE CIVILIANS WHO COMMIT A MINOR OFFENSE IN AREAS WITH CONCURRENT JURISDICTION?

Explanation

In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, civilians who commit a minor offense are released to their military sponsor. This means that the military sponsor, who is responsible for the individual, will take custody of them and handle any necessary disciplinary actions or legal proceedings within the military system. This ensures that the military maintains control and accountability over their personnel, even when they commit minor offenses in areas where other law enforcement agencies also have jurisdiction.

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61. WHAT TYPE OF NUCLEAR INSPECTION ASSESSES A UNIT'S ABILITY TO ACCOMPLISH ITS ASSIGNED NUCLEAR WEAPONS MISSION AND PRODUCE RELIABLE NUCLEAR WEAPONS IN A SAFE AND SECURE ENVIRONMENT IN COMPLIANCE WITH APPLICABLE DIRECTIVES?

Explanation

A nuclear surety inspection (NSI) assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives. This inspection ensures that the unit is following all necessary protocols and procedures to maintain the safety and security of nuclear weapons. It evaluates the unit's adherence to regulations and guidelines and ensures that all personnel involved in the nuclear weapons mission are properly trained and qualified. The NSI is a comprehensive assessment that aims to ensure the effectiveness and reliability of the unit's nuclear weapons program.

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62. What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

Explanation

If you are armed with an expandable baton, you would require initial training to learn how to properly use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basics and ensure that you have the necessary skills to handle the baton safely and effectively. Additionally, an annual refresher training would be needed to reinforce and update your knowledge and skills, ensuring that you stay proficient in using the expandable baton. Therefore, the correct answer is "Initial and annual refresher."

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63. How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?

Explanation

A direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for 1 second. This duration is sufficient to effectively incapacitate the subject and allow the user to escape or seek help. A longer burst may cause excessive discomfort or harm to the subject, while a shorter burst may not be enough to effectively disable them. Therefore, 1 second is the optimal duration for a direct pepper spray burst.

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64. How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

Explanation

The electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired. These probes are designed to attach to the target's clothing or skin, delivering an electric shock that temporarily disables their neuromuscular system.

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65. How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

Explanation

To find a grid coordinate on a grid map, you should read the map from left to right, starting at the bottom and moving towards the top. This means that you start at the leftmost column and move across each row, progressing upwards. This reading direction ensures that you can accurately locate the grid coordinate on the map.

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66. Which term defines a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems?

Explanation

An exclusion area is a term used to define a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems. This area is restricted and controlled to prevent unauthorized access and ensure the safety and security of the weapons or systems. It is a measure taken to protect against potential threats and to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the nuclear assets.

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67. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

Explanation

Greater community voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood by involving the community in decision-making processes. When the community has a say in setting police priorities, it ensures that law enforcement efforts align with the specific needs and concerns of the neighborhood. This approach fosters trust, collaboration, and a sense of ownership among community members, leading to more effective crime prevention strategies and a safer environment. It also promotes transparency and accountability, as the police are held responsible for addressing the issues that matter most to the community.

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68. WHICH CRIME PREVENTION PROGRAM ALLOWS SOME PEOPLE TO REPORT THEIR OBSERVATIONS TO POLICE ONLY WHEN THEY KNOW THEY CAN REMAIN ANONYMOUS?

Explanation

Operation crime stop is a crime prevention program that allows individuals to report their observations to the police while remaining anonymous. This program aims to encourage community members to provide information about criminal activities without fear of retaliation or exposure. By ensuring anonymity, Operation crime stop creates a safe environment for people to come forward with valuable information, thereby helping law enforcement agencies in their efforts to prevent and solve crimes.

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69. What does "Code Three" indicate when Security Forces personnel are making an emergency response?

Explanation

"Code Three" indicates the use of emergency lights and siren when Security Forces personnel are making an emergency response. This means that they will activate both their emergency lights and siren to alert other drivers and pedestrians of their presence and to clear the way for the emergency vehicle. The use of emergency lights and siren helps to ensure a safe and efficient response to the emergency situation.

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70. How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop?

Explanation

To accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop, the backup patrol vehicle should park parallel and to the right or left of the primary patrol vehicle. This positioning allows for a strong and visible presence, making it difficult for the suspect to escape or pose a threat. It also provides officers with a clear line of sight and allows them to cover different angles of approach. By positioning the vehicles in this manner, it creates a barrier and enhances officer safety during the stop.

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71. How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

Explanation

To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard, you should position your vehicle at the scene of an accident. This means that you should park your vehicle in a way that it does not obstruct the flow of traffic or create any additional hazards. By positioning your vehicle appropriately, you can ensure the safety of the accident scene and those involved, while also allowing other vehicles to pass through smoothly.

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72. When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand

Explanation

When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This position allows you to have a clear view of oncoming traffic and be visible to drivers approaching from both directions. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road may obstruct the view for drivers and increase the risk of accidents. Standing in the center of the intersection is also not recommended as it can confuse drivers and disrupt the flow of traffic.

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73. SPEED MEASURING DEVICES ARE USED TO CONTROL SPEED, INCREASE COMPLIANCE WITH TRAFFIC LAWS, and

Explanation

Speed measuring devices are used to conduct speed studies. These studies involve collecting data on the speed of vehicles in a particular area to analyze the traffic patterns and determine if there is a need for any changes or improvements in the road design or speed limits. By conducting speed studies, authorities can gain a better understanding of the traffic flow and make informed decisions to enhance safety and efficiency on the roads.

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74. IT IS IMPORTANT THAT YOU RECEIVE OFFICIAL CERTIFICATION OF YOUR QUALIFIFCATIONS AND TRAINING STANDARDS WHEN TRAINING ON SPEED MEASURING DEVICES SO THE EVIDENCE IS ADMISSIBLE

Explanation

Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices is important in both civilian and military courts because it ensures that the evidence obtained from the devices is admissible in both types of courts. This certification serves as proof that the training and qualifications of the individual operating the device meet the required standards, making the evidence reliable and trustworthy in legal proceedings.

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75. What shape is he radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into?

Explanation

Police traffic RADAR uses a type of electromagnetic wave called radio waves to transmit and receive signals. Radio waves are known to have a cone-shaped radiation pattern, meaning that the energy is concentrated into a cone shape as it travels away from the RADAR device. This cone shape allows the RADAR to cover a wider area and detect objects within that range. Therefore, the correct answer is cone.

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76. Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the

Explanation

The correct answer is National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). This agency is responsible for setting the standards and guidelines for field sobriety tests used by law enforcement personnel. The SFSTs approved by NHTSA are widely recognized and utilized by various security forces personnel to determine if a driver is impaired by alcohol or drugs while operating a vehicle. The other options listed, such as AFT, AFOSI, and FLEOA, are not directly involved in setting the standards for field sobriety tests.

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77. From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?

Explanation

Before disposing of crime scene evidence, you must obtain approval from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military unit or organization. They ensure that all legal requirements and procedures are followed in the disposal of evidence to maintain the integrity of the investigation and any potential legal proceedings. The SJA's approval is necessary to ensure that the disposal is conducted in accordance with the law and any applicable regulations.

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78. PRIOR TO USING ANY ALCOHOL OR CHEMICAL DETECTION EQUIPMENT, YOU MUST ADVISE THE SUSPECTS

Explanation

Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, it is necessary to advise the suspects of the implied consent policy. This means that by operating a motor vehicle, individuals are deemed to have given their consent to chemical tests to determine their blood alcohol concentration. By informing the suspects of this policy, they are made aware that they are legally obligated to comply with the breath test or other chemical tests.

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79. HOW LONG MUST YOU OBSERVE A PERSON BEFORE COLLECTING A BREATH SPECIMEN?

Explanation

To collect a breath specimen from a person, you must observe them for 20 minutes. This observation period ensures that the person does not eat, drink, smoke, or regurgitate, which could affect the accuracy of the breath test results. By waiting for 20 minutes, any residual alcohol in the person's mouth will be eliminated, providing a more accurate measurement of their blood alcohol concentration.

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80. Once completed, who is given the second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag?

Explanation

The second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is given to the person relinquishing possession of the property. This is because the evidence tag is used to document and track the chain of custody of the evidence. By giving the second copy to the person who is giving up possession of the property, it ensures that there is a record of their involvement in the handling of the evidence. This helps maintain the integrity of the evidence and provides accountability throughout the investigation process.

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81. What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it?

Explanation

Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This implies that the completed form is handed over to the person for whom the pass is issued.

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82. IN HOW MANY COPIES IS THE AF FORM 1109, VISITOR REGISTRATION LOG, PREPARED?

Explanation

The AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration Log, is prepared in one copy. This means that only a single copy of the form is created when preparing the visitor registration log.

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83. HOW MANY SECTIONS DOES THE AF FORM 1168, STATEMENT OF SUSPECT/WITNESS/COMPLAINANT, HAVE?

Explanation

The AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, has 6 sections.

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84. ON THE REVERSE SIDE OF THE AF FORM 1176, AUTHORITY to SEARCH and SEIZE, or BOND SHEET OF PAPER, YOU MUST WRITE OR TYPE A

Explanation

On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, the authority to search and seize or bond sheet of paper, a probable cause statement must be written or typed. This statement provides justification for the search and seizure, explaining the reasons and evidence that support the belief that a crime has been committed or that there is evidence of a crime on the premises. It helps establish the legal basis for the search and ensures that the search is conducted in accordance with the Fourth Amendment rights of individuals.

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85. A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime

Explanation

This answer is correct because it states that a traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident when it involves a fatality, injury, or property damage above the amount established by the installation commander. This means that the severity of the accident is determined by the level of harm or damage caused, rather than the involvement of government vehicles or the number of vehicles involved.

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86. WHAT MUST YOU DO IF DURING A SEARCH, THE INDIVIDUAL WITHDRAWS A PREVIOUS CONSENT TO SEARCH?

Explanation

If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct course of action is to terminate the search immediately. Consent to search is voluntary and can be withdrawn at any time. Continuing the search without consent would violate the individual's rights and potentially be considered an unlawful search. Therefore, it is necessary to stop the search once consent is withdrawn.

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87. Who uses section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident Report?

Explanation

Section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident Report is used by Security Forces Reports and Analyses. This section is responsible for handling administrative actions related to the incident report, such as reviewing and analyzing the report, documenting the findings, and determining any necessary actions or recommendations.

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88. THE AF FORM 3907, SECURITY FORCES FIELD INTERVIEW DATA IS USED TO RECORD

Explanation

The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data, is used to record routine contact between Security Force members and members of the public. This form is not specifically designed for interviews with suspects or complainants, or for emergency contacts. It is meant to document regular interactions and engagements between Security Force personnel and individuals in the community.

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89. DD FORM 1408, ARMED FORCES TRAFFIC TICKET, IS ISSUED TO SOMEONE WHO

Explanation

The DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense. This form is used to document the details of the offense, including the violation, the offender's information, and any necessary actions or penalties. It is not specific to accidents or military membership, but rather applies to any traffic offense committed by an individual.

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90. What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended?

Explanation

The copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, that is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended is pink.

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91. Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice. This implies that the Defense Force Commander holds the highest authority and responsibility in the military organization to make decisions regarding the voiding of such forms.

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92. Where on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, would you annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test?

Explanation

In Section III, Standardization Field Sobriety Testing of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, you would annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test. This section is specifically designated for recording the details and outcomes of any field sobriety tests conducted during the incident. Since a blood alcohol chemical test is a type of field sobriety test, it is appropriate to document the results in this section.

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93. You use the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial/Post-Trial Prisoner or Detained Person, when

Explanation

The correct answer is Security Forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended. This is because the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial/Post-Trial Prisoner or Detained Person, is used specifically by Security Forces personnel to document the release of an individual who has been detained or apprehended. It is not used by First Sergeants, civil law enforcement, or federal law enforcement personnel.

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94. WHAT IS THE PRIMARY METHOD FOR IDENTIFYING OBSERVATIONS AND POTENTIAL LESSONS IDENTIFIED?

Explanation

The primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified is through an After Action Report. This report is typically conducted after a specific event or action has taken place and involves a thorough analysis of what occurred, including the identification of any observations or lessons that can be learned from the experience. The After Action Report helps to identify strengths and weaknesses, highlight areas for improvement, and provide recommendations for future actions.

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95. WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS FROM THE EVENT IT REFERS WILL AN AFTER ACTION REPORT BE SUBMITTED?

Explanation

An after-action report is a document that outlines the events, actions, and outcomes of a specific event. It is typically submitted after a certain period to allow for proper analysis and evaluation. In this case, the correct answer is 30 days, which means that the after-action report should be submitted within 30 days from the event it refers to. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather and analyze all the necessary information and provide an accurate and comprehensive report.

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96. When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report fulfills the characteristic of being

Explanation

A well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how is considered complete because it includes all the necessary information to provide a comprehensive understanding of the incident. By addressing each of these questions, the report covers all relevant aspects and ensures that no crucial details are omitted. This allows the reader to have a clear and thorough understanding of the incident, making the report complete in its coverage of the incident.

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97. In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

Explanation

When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause them to be tentative and hesitant in employing force. They may second-guess their actions and hesitate to take necessary steps due to their fear of the consequences. This can lead to a lack of assertiveness and a delay in responding effectively, which can compromise their ability to protect themselves or others.

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98. What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

Explanation

The US Supreme Court holds that law enforcement and security personnel do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, but rather a reasonable amount of force to apprehend a subject. This means that they are not required to use the least amount of force possible, but rather a level of force that is deemed reasonable in the given situation. The court recognizes that law enforcement officers may need to use force to protect themselves and others, and that the level of force used should be proportionate to the threat posed by the subject.

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99. In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

Explanation

Using deadly force is not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is typically only justified when there is a threat of imminent danger or death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others, or when protecting assets vital to national security. Preventing property damage, such as breaking into a vehicle, does not typically meet the threshold for the use of deadly force.

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100. What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

Explanation

The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that US forces are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their country, or their unit when they are under threat or attack. They do not need to seek authorization before engaging identified enemy targets in these circumstances.

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What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?
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WHICH UNIFORM CODE OF MILITARY JUSTICE (UCMJ) ARTICLE COVERS THE...
What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small...
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When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what...
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When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best...
SPEED MEASURING DEVICES ARE USED TO CONTROL SPEED, INCREASE COMPLIANCE...
IT IS IMPORTANT THAT YOU RECEIVE OFFICIAL CERTIFICATION OF YOUR...
What shape is he radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR...
Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST)...
From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene...
PRIOR TO USING ANY ALCOHOL OR CHEMICAL DETECTION EQUIPMENT, YOU MUST...
HOW LONG MUST YOU OBSERVE A PERSON BEFORE COLLECTING A BREATH...
Once completed, who is given the second copy of the AF Form 52,...
What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass,...
IN HOW MANY COPIES IS THE AF FORM 1109, VISITOR REGISTRATION LOG,...
HOW MANY SECTIONS DOES THE AF FORM 1168, STATEMENT OF...
ON THE REVERSE SIDE OF THE AF FORM 1176, AUTHORITY to SEARCH and...
A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime
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Who uses section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545,...
THE AF FORM 3907, SECURITY FORCES FIELD INTERVIEW DATA IS USED TO...
DD FORM 1408, ARMED FORCES TRAFFIC TICKET, IS ISSUED TO SOMEONE WHO
What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is given...
Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United...
Where on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, would you annotate the...
You use the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial/Post-Trial Prisoner or...
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WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS FROM THE EVENT IT REFERS WILL AN AFTER ACTION...
When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six...
In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel...
What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under...
In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?
What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?
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