Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
    • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
    • Department of Justice (DOJ)
    • Department of State (DOS)
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About This Quiz

Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises focuses on the mental preparedness, rules of engagement, and reasonable force levels in law enforcement and military contexts. It assesses understanding of force application and legal standards crucial for security personnel.

Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

    • Rights advisement

    • Complete search

    • Interrogation

    • Interview

    Correct Answer
    A. Interview
    Explanation
    During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the individuals involved and gathering information about the situation, including any injuries or threats that may have occurred. The purpose of the interview is to gather as much information as possible to ensure the safety and well-being of all family members involved.

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  • 3. 

    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual

    • Mental

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Sexual
    Explanation
    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of children for sexual purposes, which includes the production, distribution, and consumption of explicit materials involving minors. It is a grave violation of a child's rights and can cause severe psychological and physical harm.

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  • 4. 

    What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

    • Your tact and poise

    • Your ability to cope

    • Your physical appearance

    • Your tone of voice and manners

    Correct Answer
    A. Your tact and poise
    Explanation
    Your tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because it creates a safe and supportive environment. By approaching the victim with sensitivity and respect, you can help them feel more comfortable and validated. Tactful communication and maintaining composure can also help to build trust and establish a rapport with the victim, allowing them to open up and share their experience more freely. Overall, your tact and poise can contribute to the victim feeling heard, understood, and supported during a very difficult and traumatic time.

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  • 5. 

    What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

    • Aggravated assault

    • Simple assault

    • Assault

    • Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggravated assault
    Explanation
    Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim. This means that the defendant's actions go beyond the level of simple assault, which is a lesser offense. Aggravated assault typically involves the use of a weapon or results in serious bodily harm to the victim.

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  • 6. 

    The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to

    • Educate personnel in those restricted areas

    • Escort personnel into those restricted areas

    • Exclude personnel into those restricted areas

    • Employee personnel for those restricted areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Escort personnel into those restricted areas
    Explanation
    The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

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  • 7. 

    Vegetation in clear zones will not Exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities?

    • 24 inches

    • 16 inches

    • 8 inches

    • 4 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 inches
    Explanation
    In restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities, vegetation in clear zones is limited to a maximum height of 8 inches. This restriction is likely in place to ensure clear visibility and accessibility in these areas, reducing the risk of any potential interference or damage to the facilities. Keeping the vegetation at a low height also helps prevent any potential fire hazards and allows for easier maintenance and surveillance of the area.

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  • 8. 

    Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area per escort official?

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    An exclusion area is a restricted zone where access is limited to authorized personnel only. The question asks about the maximum number of persons that can be escorted inside the exclusion area per escort official. The correct answer is 6, which means that each escort official is responsible for escorting up to 6 individuals at a time. This ensures that the number of people inside the exclusion area is manageable and allows for proper supervision and control.

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  • 9. 

    What must be established at each incident site?

    • Cordon and entry control point (ECP)

    • Secondary ECP

    • Cordon and operational rally point

    • Evacuation point

    Correct Answer
    A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP)
    Explanation
    At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a Cordon and Entry Control Point (ECP). This is important for maintaining security and controlling access to the site. The cordon helps to create a physical barrier around the incident area, preventing unauthorized personnel from entering. The entry control point is where authorized personnel can enter and exit the site after proper identification and screening. By establishing a Cordon and ECP, the incident site can be effectively secured and managed.

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  • 10. 

    How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

    • Flat markers

    • Lights and cones

    • Elevated markers

    • Posted SF personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated markers
    Explanation
    Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are more visible and can be easily noticed by drivers and pedestrians. They provide a clear indication of the boundaries, ensuring that people do not enter these areas accidentally. Flat markers may not be as noticeable, while lights and cones can be easily moved or knocked over. Posted SF personnel may not always be available or visible, making elevated markers a more reliable option for marking boundaries.

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  • 11. 

    What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

    • Simple

    • Partial

    • Complete

    • Plainview

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple
    Explanation
    A simple search refers to searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This type of search involves visually inspecting the vehicle and conducting a basic examination to identify any visible evidence or objects of interest. It does not involve any extensive or invasive procedures, making it a quick and straightforward method of searching a vehicle.

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  • 12. 

    What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of a vehicle?

    • Simple

    • Partial

    • Complete

    • Plainview

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete
    Explanation
    A complete search refers to a search that involves a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle. This type of search may require the disassembly of various parts of the vehicle to ensure a comprehensive inspection. It is a more extensive and meticulous search compared to simple or partial searches, as it aims to uncover any hidden or concealed evidence or objects.

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  • 13. 

    What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

    • How to employ different types of searching techniques

    • Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area

    • Situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available

    • Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs

    Correct Answer
    A. Situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available
    Explanation
    The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient search techniques to employ. The situations and terrain can affect the accessibility and visibility of the area, while weather and light conditions can impact search efforts. Additionally, the number of searchers available will determine the scope and coverage of the search operation. Overall, considering these factors is essential for the OSC to make informed decisions and maximize the chances of success in the search.

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  • 14. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REASON TO MAKE AN ENTRY WITHOUT SEARCH AUTHORITY?

    • To secure an unlocked door

    • To prevent injury to persons

    • To render air to someone in danger

    • To prevent serious damage to property

    Correct Answer
    A. To secure an unlocked door
    Explanation
    Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. The other options listed - preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, and preventing serious damage to property - all involve potential harm or danger that may require immediate action. However, securing an unlocked door does not fall under the same urgency or necessity, as it does not involve an immediate threat to individuals or property.

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  • 15. 

    When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

    • Before it has been fully processed for evidence

    • After it has been fully processed for evidence

    • After the coroner pronounces them dead

    • After the body has been photographed

    Correct Answer
    A. After it has been fully processed for evidence
    Explanation
    When processing a crime scene, it is important to leave the body of a deceased person uncovered until it has been fully processed for evidence. This is because covering the body too early may disturb or contaminate potential evidence that could be crucial to the investigation. Therefore, it is best practice to wait until all necessary evidence has been collected and documented before covering the body.

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  • 16. 

    What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?

    • Rough and refine

    • Partial and refined

    • Rough and finished

    • Partial and complete

    Correct Answer
    A. Rough and finished
    Explanation
    Rough and finished sketches are the two types of sketches normally made of a crime scene. A rough sketch is a preliminary drawing that provides a general overview of the crime scene, including the location of evidence, bodies, and other important elements. It is typically hand-drawn and not to scale. On the other hand, a finished sketch is a more detailed and accurate representation of the crime scene. It is usually created using computer software or precise measurements and includes specific measurements, distances, and angles. The finished sketch is often used as evidence in court proceedings.

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  • 17. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?

    • Federal Rules of Evidence

    • Manual for Courts Martial

    • Federal Statutes of Evidence

    • Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual for Courts Martial
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. This document provides the guidelines and procedures for presenting and evaluating evidence in military courts. It outlines the admissibility of evidence, the burden of proof, and the rights of the accused. The Manual for Courts Martial is an essential reference for military legal proceedings and ensures fair and consistent application of the rules of evidence within the military justice system.

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  • 18. 

    WHICH UNIFORM CODE OF MILITARY JUSTICE (UCMJ) ARTICLE COVERS THE WRONGFUL USE AND POSSESSION OF A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE?

    • Article 92

    • Article 108

    • Article 112a

    • Article 123a

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 112a
    Explanation
    Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the offense of using, possessing, distributing, or manufacturing a controlled substance without a valid prescription or authorization. Violation of this article can result in serious consequences for military personnel, including disciplinary action, court-martial, and potential discharge from the military. It is important for military members to adhere to the regulations outlined in Article 112a to maintain discipline, order, and the overall readiness of the armed forces.

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  • 19. 

    When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

    • To show inability to take full responsibility for actions

    • Without legal justification or authorization

    • With full medical justification and authorization

    • With legal authorization and personal justification

    Correct Answer
    A. Without legal justification or authorization
    Explanation
    Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as performing an action without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity related to controlled substances, such as possession, distribution, or use, without the necessary legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the action is illegal and not sanctioned by the law.

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  • 20. 

    What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

    • Family Advocacy Officer (FAO)

    • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

    • Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving the infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations within the United States Air Force, and they have the authority to investigate and address cases of child abuse or neglect that result in serious bodily harm. This agency is specifically tasked with investigating and resolving such cases within the Air Force.

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  • 21. 

    What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

    • AF Form 1109

    • AF Form 1297

    • AF Form 1920

    • AF Form 3545

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 3545
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual abuse

    • Mental abuse

    • Physical abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental abuse
    Explanation
    Mental abuse is not one of the three types of child abuse. The three types of child abuse are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse refers to the emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, such as constant belittling, humiliation, or manipulation. While mental abuse is a serious form of harm to a child, it is not categorized as one of the three primary types of child abuse.

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  • 23. 

    What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual

    • Mental

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Neglect
    Explanation
    Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to provide the necessary care, support, and basic needs for a child's physical, emotional, and psychological well-being. This includes not providing nourishment, depriving them of necessities such as shelter and clothing, and failing to meet their basic needs. Neglect can have severe consequences on a child's development and overall health.

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  • 24. 

    What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?

    • Aggravated Assault

    • Simple Assault

    • Assault

    • Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault
    Explanation
    Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another person, regardless of whether it is successful or not, as long as the target is aware of the danger. It does not require any physical contact or injury to occur. Aggravated Assault involves a more serious level of harm or use of a deadly weapon, while Simple Assault refers to a less severe form of assault. Battery, on the other hand, involves actual physical contact or harm caused to another person.

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  • 25. 

    WHAT ARE THE FOUR pHASES OF THE JUDICIAL PROCESS IN WHICH YOU MUST BRIEF ALL VICTIMS AND WITNESSES ON IN THE VICTIM/WITNESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAM?

    • Notification, response, confinement, and release

    • Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement

    • Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement

    • Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement

    Correct Answer
    A. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where law enforcement agencies respond to a crime and gather initial information. The second phase is the investigation, where evidence is collected, witnesses are interviewed, and a case is built. The third phase is prosecution, where the case is presented in court and a decision is made by a judge or jury. The final phase is confinement, where the convicted individual serves their sentence.

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  • 26. 

    What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?

    • Casual

    • Sighting

    • Agitated

    • Mob-like

    Correct Answer
    A. Casual
    Explanation
    A casual crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together. This type of crowd is characterized by a lack of organization or purpose, and the individuals within it may not have any specific goal or shared interest. They may have come together by chance or circumstance, but there is no strong bond or collective identity among them.

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  • 27. 

    The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?

    • Fire chief

    • Flight chief

    • Commander

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The use of the riot baton is based on the commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The commander is responsible for assessing the circumstances, evaluating the level of threat or violence, and determining the appropriate response. They have the authority to decide when to deploy the riot baton or any other force option based on their expertise and understanding of the situation at hand.

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  • 28. 

    Which riot control formation is sued as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

    • Line

    • Wedge

    • Circular

    • Diamond

    Correct Answer
    A. Wedge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Wedge. A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation is effective in breaking through a dense crowd by creating a narrow point that can easily push through and divide the crowd into smaller sections. The shape of the wedge allows for a concentrated force to be applied, making it easier to disperse and control the crowd.

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  • 29. 

    Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?

    • Deter

    • Detect

    • Negate

    • Preempt

    Correct Answer
    A. Negate
    Explanation
    Negate is the correct answer because it refers to the act of rendering a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF (Air Force) operations. This implies taking actions or implementing measures to neutralize or eliminate the threat, thus preventing it from causing any disruption or harm to the operations.

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  • 30. 

    Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders?

    • Military Control (MILCON)

    • Tactical Control (TACON)

    • Operational Control (OPCON)

    • Administrative Control (ADCON)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational Control (OPCON)
    Explanation
    Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the control authority exercised by a commander over subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. This type of control allows the commander to direct and coordinate military forces and operations to accomplish specific missions and objectives. OPCON ensures that the commander has the necessary authority to plan, organize, and employ forces effectively in order to achieve operational goals.

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  • 31. 

    Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas?

    • Area lighting

    • Boundary lighting

    • Special Purpose lighting

    • Very near infrared (VNIR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Very near infrared (VNIR)
    Explanation
    Very near infrared (VNIR) lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas. VNIR lighting emits light in the near infrared spectrum, which is not visible to the human eye. This type of lighting is used in sensitive areas to provide illumination without compromising security or safety measures. It allows for discreet lighting while maintaining a low level of visibility.

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  • 32. 

    How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?

    • 50 feet

    • 75 feet

    • 100 feet

    • 125 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 feet
    Explanation
    To ensure proper visibility and adherence to the restricted area, restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along the boundaries. This distance allows for clear visibility of the signs and provides sufficient warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. Displaying the signs closer together may create confusion or make it difficult for people to notice and understand the restrictions. On the other hand, spacing them further apart may not effectively communicate the boundaries of the restricted area, potentially leading to unauthorized access.

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  • 33. 

    WHAT TYPE OF FORCE IS REQUIRED AT ALL INSTALLAIONS SUPPORTING PROTECTION LEVEL (PL) 1, 2 OR 3 RESOURCES?

    • Security patrols

    • Fire teams (FT)

    • Alarm fire team (AFT)

    • Security response team (SRT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Security response team (SRT)
    Explanation
    At all installations supporting Protection Level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources, a Security Response Team (SRT) is required. This suggests that the SRT is responsible for providing security and responding to any potential threats or incidents at these installations. The SRT is likely trained and equipped to handle various security situations and is tasked with ensuring the safety and protection of the resources at these installations.

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  • 34. 

    WHAT TYPE OF SENTRIES CONTROLS THE ENTRY INTO AIRCRAFT WHEN THE AIRCRAFT IS CARRYING SPECIFIC PROTECTION LEVEL (PL) 1 ASSESTS?

    • Close-in-sentry (CIS)

    • Flight line sentry (FLS)

    • Installation Controller (EC)

    • Close-boundary sentry (CBS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Close-in-sentry (CIS)
    Explanation
    Close-in-sentry (CIS) is the correct answer because they are responsible for controlling the entry into the aircraft when it is carrying specific Protection Level (PL) 1 assets. They are stationed close to the aircraft and have the authority to monitor and regulate access to ensure the security of the assets being transported. Flight line sentry (FLS) may also be responsible for aircraft security, but they do not specifically control entry into the aircraft carrying PL 1 assets. Installation Controller (EC) and Close-boundary sentry (CBS) are not directly involved in controlling entry into the aircraft.

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  • 35. 

    HOW OFTEN MUST THE APPROVING AUTHORITY REVIEW ALL PERMANENT SECURITY DEVIATIONS?

    • Monthly

    • Every six months

    • Every year

    • Every two years

    Correct Answer
    A. Every year
    Explanation
    The approving authority must review all permanent security deviations every year. This ensures that the security measures in place are up to date and effective in protecting the system or facility. Regular reviews help identify any potential vulnerabilities or changes in the threat landscape, allowing for necessary adjustments or updates to maintain a high level of security.

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  • 36. 

    WHAT FORM IS USED TO DOCUMENT SECURITY DEVIATION AND IS SUBMITTED THROUGH COMMAND CHANNELS?

    • AF Form 116

    • AF Form 1315

    • DD Form 1805

    • DD Form 2708

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 116
    Explanation
    AF Form 116 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels. This form is commonly used in the United States Air Force to report and document any deviations from standard security procedures or protocols. It allows for a standardized and formalized process of reporting and addressing security deviations, ensuring that they are properly documented and addressed through the appropriate command channels.

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  • 37. 

    At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission?

    • Tactical

    • Financial

    • Operational

    • Administrative

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational
    Explanation
    The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission at the operational level. This means that it deals with the day-to-day activities and strategies involved in managing and executing the nuclear mission. It includes tasks such as planning, coordinating, and implementing operational plans and procedures to ensure the successful execution of the mission. The operational level is crucial in ensuring the effective and efficient management of the nuclear mission, and the roadmap provides guidance and direction at this level.

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  • 38. 

    WHAT CONCEPT WAS DESIGNED TO PREVENT A LONE INDIVIDUAL FROM HAVING COMPLETE KNOWLEDGE OF THE ENTIRE NUCLEAR WEAPONS LAUNCH FUNCTION?

    • Roadmap

    • Two-person

    • No-lone zone

    • Split knowledge

    Correct Answer
    A. Split knowledge
    Explanation
    Split knowledge is a concept that was designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function. This means that the information and responsibilities required to launch nuclear weapons are divided among multiple individuals, ensuring that no single person has the ability to initiate a launch on their own. By implementing split knowledge, it adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized or accidental launches.

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  • 39. 

    In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and

    • Vandals

    • Psychotics

    • Trespassers

    • Terrorists

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrorists
    Explanation
    In the context of a nuclear security system, the three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and terrorists. While criminals may seek to steal nuclear material for illicit purposes, and protestors may aim to disrupt nuclear operations, terrorists pose the highest level of threat. Terrorists could potentially use nuclear materials as weapons of mass destruction, causing widespread devastation and loss of life. Therefore, ensuring the security of nuclear facilities and preventing access to terrorists is of utmost importance.

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  • 40. 

    Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world?

    • Lob Nur Nuclear (LUN) site in China

    • Aldermastion Central Facility (ACF) in the United Kingdom

    • Kirkland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA

    • Semipalatinsk Nuclear (SN) site in the Soviet Union/Russia

    Correct Answer
    A. Kirkland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Kirkland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC), USA. This facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. It is located in the United States and is responsible for storing and maintaining a significant portion of the country's nuclear arsenal. The facility is designed to ensure the safety and security of the weapons, as well as to provide maintenance and support services when needed.

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  • 41. 

    Who ensures that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft?

    • Couriers

    • Load masters

    • Security Forces

    • Aircraft commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Couriers
    Explanation
    Couriers ensure that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft. Couriers are responsible for transporting sensitive and classified materials, including nuclear weapons, and they play a crucial role in maintaining security and preventing unauthorized access. They work closely with Security Forces and follow strict protocols to ensure the safety and integrity of the nuclear logistics aircraft.

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  • 42. 

    ONLY PERSONNEL CERTIFIED THROUGH WHAT PROGRAM OR THE HOST-NATION EQUIVALENT AT A WEAPONS STORAGE and SECURITY SYSTEM (WS3) INSTALLATIONS CAN BE PERMITTED UNESCORTED ENTRY INTO EXCLUSION AREAS OR CAN PERFORM ESCORT DUTIES WITHIN EXCLUSION AREAS?

    • Nuclear Weapons Personnel Escort Program (PEP)

    • Nuclear Weapons Personnel Protection Program (PPP)

    • Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)

    • Nuclear Weapons Personnel Certification Program (PCP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP). This program certifies personnel to have unescorted entry into exclusion areas or perform escort duties within exclusion areas at Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3) installations. The other options, such as the Personnel Escort Program (PEP), Personnel Protection Program (PPP), and Personnel Certification Program (PCP), do not specifically pertain to the requirements for unescorted entry or escort duties in exclusion areas at WS3 installations.

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  • 43. 

    (DCNI) What security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility (LF), and establishes site security?

    • Alert Fire Team (AFT)

    • Mobile Fire Team (MFT)

    • Camper Alert Team (CAT)

    • Security Escort Team (SET)

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Escort Team (SET)
    Explanation
    The Security Escort Team (SET) is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing security for a penetrated launch facility and establishing site security. They are routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team to ensure the safety and protection of the facility. The other options, Alert Fire Team (AFT), Mobile Fire Team (MFT), and Camper Alert Team (CAT), do not specifically mention the tasks mentioned in the question.

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  • 44. 

    In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

    • Selfishness

    • Higher awareness

    • Insecurity and isolation

    • Tentativeness and hesitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Tentativeness and hesitation
    Explanation
    When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause them to be tentative and hesitant in employing force. They may second-guess their actions and hesitate to take necessary steps due to their fear of the consequences. This can lead to a lack of assertiveness and a delay in responding effectively, which can compromise their ability to protect themselves or others.

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  • 45. 

    What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

    • Must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension

    • Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject

    • Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject

    • Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject
    Explanation
    The US Supreme Court holds that law enforcement and security personnel do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, but rather a reasonable amount of force to apprehend a subject. This means that they are not required to use the least amount of force possible, but rather a level of force that is deemed reasonable in the given situation. The court recognizes that law enforcement officers may need to use force to protect themselves and others, and that the level of force used should be proportionate to the threat posed by the subject.

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  • 46. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

    • Protect inherently dangerous property

    • Protect assets vital to national security

    • Protect others from imminent danger or death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle
    Explanation
    Using deadly force is not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is typically only justified when there is a threat of imminent danger or death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others, or when protecting assets vital to national security. Preventing property damage, such as breaking into a vehicle, does not typically meet the threshold for the use of deadly force.

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  • 47. 

    What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

    • Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets

    • Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets

    Correct Answer
    A. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense
    Explanation
    The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that US forces are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their country, or their unit when they are under threat or attack. They do not need to seek authorization before engaging identified enemy targets in these circumstances.

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  • 48. 

    WHAT ARE TWO DISTINCT CATEGORIES OF RULES OF ENGAGEMENT(ROE)?

    • See first and act first

    • First in and fit to fight

    • Defense of others and operationally fortified

    • Self-defense and mission accomplishment

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-defense and mission accomplishment
    Explanation
    The two distinct categories of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow individuals or groups to use force to protect themselves or others from imminent harm or threat. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, refers to the rules that outline the objectives and goals that need to be achieved in a particular operation or mission. These rules ensure that the mission is successfully completed while adhering to legal and ethical guidelines.

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  • 49. 

    What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?

    • Law of armed conflict

    • Rules for use of force

    • Operational orders

    • Operations plans

    Correct Answer
    A. Rules for use of force
    Explanation
    During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). While ROE govern the circumstances and level of force that can be used in specific military operations, the rules for use of force provide guidelines and regulations for the use of force by law enforcement agencies within the US territory. These rules ensure that law enforcement officers follow proper procedures and use force only when necessary and in accordance with the law.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 14, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 14, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 02, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Stephanie Ryan

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