Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

    • Selfishness
    • Higher awareness
    • Insecurity and isolation
    • Tentativeness and hesitation
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About This Quiz

Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises focuses on the mental preparedness, rules of engagement, and reasonable force levels in law enforcement and military contexts. It assesses understanding of force application and legal standards crucial for security personnel.

Volume 2 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4th Amendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

    • Must only use deadly force when the subject resist apprehension

    • Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject

    • Have to apply the least intrusive force to apprehend the subject

    • Have to apply the minimum force needed to apprehend the subject

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, only a reasonable one to apprehend the subject
    Explanation
    The US Supreme Court holds that law enforcement and security personnel do not have to apply the least intrusive force alternative, but rather a reasonable amount of force to apprehend a subject. This means that they are not required to use the least amount of force possible, but rather a level of force that is deemed reasonable in the given situation. The court recognizes that law enforcement officers may need to use force to protect themselves and others, and that the level of force used should be proportionate to the threat posed by the subject.

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  • 3. 

    In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

    • Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle

    • Protect inherently dangerous property

    • Protect assets vital to national security

    • Protect others from imminent danger or death or serious bodily harm

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep someone from breaking into a government vehicle
    Explanation
    Using deadly force is not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force is typically only justified when there is a threat of imminent danger or death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others, or when protecting assets vital to national security. Preventing property damage, such as breaking into a vehicle, does not typically meet the threshold for the use of deadly force.

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  • 4. 

    What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

    • Permits defenders to open fire upon all identified enemy targets

    • Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • Prohibits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense

    • Requires defenders to get authorization before firing upon identified enemy targets

    Correct Answer
    A. Permits defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense
    Explanation
    The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that US forces are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their country, or their unit when they are under threat or attack. They do not need to seek authorization before engaging identified enemy targets in these circumstances.

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  • 5. 

    WHAT ARE TWO DISTINCT CATEGORIES OF RULES OF ENGAGEMENT(ROE)?

    • See first and act first

    • First in and fit to fight

    • Defense of others and operationally fortified

    • Self-defense and mission accomplishment

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-defense and mission accomplishment
    Explanation
    The two distinct categories of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow individuals or groups to use force to protect themselves or others from imminent harm or threat. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, refers to the rules that outline the objectives and goals that need to be achieved in a particular operation or mission. These rules ensure that the mission is successfully completed while adhering to legal and ethical guidelines.

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  • 6. 

    What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?

    • Law of armed conflict

    • Rules for use of force

    • Operational orders

    • Operations plans

    Correct Answer
    A. Rules for use of force
    Explanation
    During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). While ROE govern the circumstances and level of force that can be used in specific military operations, the rules for use of force provide guidelines and regulations for the use of force by law enforcement agencies within the US territory. These rules ensure that law enforcement officers follow proper procedures and use force only when necessary and in accordance with the law.

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  • 7. 

    Conscious verbal communication occurs when

    • Words are chosen carefully during a conversation

    • Words occur naturally during a conversation

    • The communicator reads it directly from a form

    • The communicator is in a hurry

    Correct Answer
    A. Words are chosen carefully during a conversation
    Explanation
    Conscious verbal communication occurs when words are chosen carefully during a conversation. This suggests that the communicator is actively thinking about their choice of words and selecting them deliberately to convey a specific meaning or message. This level of conscious effort implies a higher level of intentionality and thoughtfulness in the communication process.

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  • 8. 

    HOW DO YOU PLACE A SUSPECT ON FOOT INTO THE FINAL CHALLENGE POSITION?

    • Command subject to "HALT," bring your m4 carbine to port arms or your m9 pistol to ready pistol and contact BDOC for further direction to disposition of the individual

    • Command subject to slowly place identification on the ground then turn around and walk approximately six paces away from you

    • Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOUT YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD."

    • Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOVE YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, DROP TO YOUR KNEES, and CROSS YOUR FEET."

    Correct Answer
    A. Command, "RAISE YOUR HANDS ABOUT YOUR HEAD, SPREAD YOUR FINGERS, AND SPREAD YOUR FEET, and POINT YOUR TOES OUTWARD."
    Explanation
    The correct answer instructs the subject to raise their hands above their head, spread their fingers, spread their feet, and point their toes outward. This position helps to ensure that the suspect is in a vulnerable and compliant stance, making it easier for the authorities to control and apprehend them. By spreading their fingers, it also reduces the risk of the suspect concealing any weapons or making sudden movements. This position allows for better visibility and control of the suspect during the final challenge.

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  • 9. 

    Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

    • Back of the neck

    • Wrist of the farthest hand

    • Ring or middle finger

    • Wrist of the nearest hand

    Correct Answer
    A. Ring or middle finger
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ring or middle finger." When gaining positive control of a subject prior to applying handcuffs, grasping the ring or middle finger provides a secure hold and allows for better control and manipulation of the subject's hand. This grip minimizes the risk of the subject breaking free or causing harm to themselves or others.

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  • 10. 

    When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

    • Complete and simple

    • Systematic and simple

    • Complete and thorough

    • Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    A. Systematic and thorough
    Explanation
    When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic means following a methodical approach, ensuring that all relevant information is considered and no steps are missed. Being thorough means leaving no stone unturned, thoroughly examining all available sources and conducting a comprehensive investigation. By being systematic and thorough, you can ensure that your search is comprehensive and accurate, minimizing the chances of missing any important information.

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  • 11. 

    WHAT TYPE OF SEARCH IS PRIMARILY USED ON SUSPECTS WHO DO NOT APPEAR DANGEROUS, VIOLENT, OR SO DRUNK THEY CANNOT STAND UNDER THEIR OWN POWER?

    • Wall

    • Prone

    • Kneeling

    • Standing

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Standing." This type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power. Standing is the most common position for suspects during a search as it allows for better control and observation of the individual. It also ensures that the suspect can cooperate and follow instructions during the search process.

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  • 12. 

    When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

    • Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • Lower standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • Higher standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    • Different standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force

    Correct Answer
    A. Same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force
    Explanation
    Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force was justified, the same factors and considerations are taken into account as when evaluating the use of deadly force. The decision to use non-lethal force must be reasonable based on the circumstances at hand, and the level of force used should be proportionate to the threat faced by the officer or others involved.

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  • 13. 

    WHAT IS THE LEVEL OF FORCE NECESSARY TO COMPEL A SUBJECT'S COMPLIANCE AND IS NEITHER LIKELY NOR INTENDED TO CAUSE DEATH?

    • Minimum use of force

    • Maximum use of force

    • Transitional use of force

    • Intermediate use of force

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate use of force
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the level of force that is necessary to compel a subject's compliance without causing death. The answer "Intermediate use of force" suggests that a moderate level of force is required in order to achieve compliance, but it is not excessive or likely to result in death. This implies that there are other levels of force that are less intense (minimum use of force) or more intense (maximum use of force) than the intermediate level. Transitional use of force is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be considered as the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

    • T-position

    • Shrimping

    • Comb blocks

    • Standup to base

    Correct Answer
    A. Comb blocks
    Explanation
    Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the hands and arms to create a protective barrier around the head, blocking and deflecting incoming strikes. By using comb blocks, the person can minimize the impact of strikes and reduce the risk of injury to the head.

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  • 15. 

    How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

    • By rolling onto your Weapons Side(WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground

    • By rolling onto support side (SS), keeping holstered weapon away from suspect

    • By grabbing your weapon with your support side (SS) hand

    • By grabbing your weapon with your weapons side(WS) hand

    Correct Answer
    A. By rolling onto your Weapons Side(WS), keeping holstered weapon pinned against the ground
    Explanation
    Attaining weapons retention during a rear mount involves rolling onto the Weapons Side (WS) and keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This position helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed or used by the suspect. Rolling onto the support side (SS) or grabbing the weapon with either the support side (SS) or weapons side (WS) hand would not effectively retain the weapon in this situation.

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  • 16. 

    To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces vehicle for transporting?

    • Advise the suspect of rights

    • Handcuff the suspect's hands in the front

    • Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband

    • Have a second SF member ride in the back with the suspect

    Correct Answer
    A. Search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband
    Explanation
    Before placing a suspect in a Security Forces vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and to prevent any potential harm or danger during transportation. By conducting a search or frisk, any hidden weapons or contraband can be discovered and removed, reducing the risk of harm or escape.

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  • 17. 

    What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

    • Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger

    • Have a family member or friend ride in the front seat

    • Notify Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) of ending mileage

    • Have a second patrol officer follow you to BDOC

    Correct Answer
    A. Have an additional patrol officer as a passenger
    Explanation
    When transporting a member of the opposite sex, it is necessary to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This requirement ensures the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misconduct or false accusations. It also provides a witness in case any issues or incidents arise during the transportation. This policy is in place to maintain a secure and trustworthy environment for both the officer and the individual being transported.

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  • 18. 

    TO WHOM DO YOU RELEASE CIVILIANS WHO COMMIT A MINOR OFFENSE IN AREAS WITH CONCURRENT JURISDICTION?

    • US Marshal

    • Military sponsor

    • Local Law enforcement

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigation AFOSI

    Correct Answer
    A. Military sponsor
    Explanation
    In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, civilians who commit a minor offense are released to their military sponsor. This means that the military sponsor, who is responsible for the individual, will take custody of them and handle any necessary disciplinary actions or legal proceedings within the military system. This ensures that the military maintains control and accountability over their personnel, even when they commit minor offenses in areas where other law enforcement agencies also have jurisdiction.

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  • 19. 

    What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

    • Annual refresher

    • Quarterly refresher

    • Initial and annual refresher

    • Initial and semiannual refresher

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial and annual refresher
    Explanation
    If you are armed with an expandable baton, you would require initial training to learn how to properly use the weapon. This initial training would cover the basics and ensure that you have the necessary skills to handle the baton safely and effectively. Additionally, an annual refresher training would be needed to reinforce and update your knowledge and skills, ensuring that you stay proficient in using the expandable baton. Therefore, the correct answer is "Initial and annual refresher."

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  • 20. 

    How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?

    • 1 second

    • 3 seconds

    • 5 seconds

    • 7 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 second
    Explanation
    A direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for 1 second. This duration is sufficient to effectively incapacitate the subject and allow the user to escape or seek help. A longer burst may cause excessive discomfort or harm to the subject, while a shorter burst may not be enough to effectively disable them. Therefore, 1 second is the optimal duration for a direct pepper spray burst.

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  • 21. 

    How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The electronic control device (ECD) neuromuscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired. These probes are designed to attach to the target's clothing or skin, delivering an electric shock that temporarily disables their neuromuscular system.

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  • 22. 

    How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

    • From top to bottom, left to right

    • From right to left, top to bottom

    • From left to right, bottom to top

    • From bottom to top, left to right

    Correct Answer
    A. From left to right, bottom to top
    Explanation
    To find a grid coordinate on a grid map, you should read the map from left to right, starting at the bottom and moving towards the top. This means that you start at the leftmost column and move across each row, progressing upwards. This reading direction ensures that you can accurately locate the grid coordinate on the map.

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  • 23. 

    Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

    • Department of Justice (DOJ)

    • Department of State (DOS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Justice (DOJ)
    Explanation
    The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories because it is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting those who violate them. The DOJ has various agencies under its umbrella, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI), which plays a crucial role in investigating and preventing terrorist activities. Additionally, the DOJ has the resources and authority to coordinate with other agencies and departments to respond effectively to such incidents and protect the nation's security.

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  • 24. 

    What must be established at each incident site?

    • Cordon and entry control point (ECP)

    • Secondary ECP

    • Cordon and operational rally point

    • Evacuation point

    Correct Answer
    A. Cordon and entry control point (ECP)
    Explanation
    At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a Cordon and Entry Control Point (ECP). This is important for maintaining security and controlling access to the site. The cordon helps to create a physical barrier around the incident area, preventing unauthorized personnel from entering. The entry control point is where authorized personnel can enter and exit the site after proper identification and screening. By establishing a Cordon and ECP, the incident site can be effectively secured and managed.

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  • 25. 

    How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

    • Flat markers

    • Lights and cones

    • Elevated markers

    • Posted SF personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated markers
    Explanation
    Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are more visible and can be easily noticed by drivers and pedestrians. They provide a clear indication of the boundaries, ensuring that people do not enter these areas accidentally. Flat markers may not be as noticeable, while lights and cones can be easily moved or knocked over. Posted SF personnel may not always be available or visible, making elevated markers a more reliable option for marking boundaries.

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  • 26. 

    What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

    • Simple

    • Partial

    • Complete

    • Plainview

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple
    Explanation
    A simple search refers to searching all areas of a vehicle without the need to disassemble any part of it. This type of search involves visually inspecting the vehicle and conducting a basic examination to identify any visible evidence or objects of interest. It does not involve any extensive or invasive procedures, making it a quick and straightforward method of searching a vehicle.

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  • 27. 

    What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of a vehicle?

    • Simple

    • Partial

    • Complete

    • Plainview

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete
    Explanation
    A complete search refers to a search that involves a thorough and detailed examination of a vehicle. This type of search may require the disassembly of various parts of the vehicle to ensure a comprehensive inspection. It is a more extensive and meticulous search compared to simple or partial searches, as it aims to uncover any hidden or concealed evidence or objects.

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  • 28. 

    What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

    • How to employ different types of searching techniques

    • Items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and area

    • Situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available

    • Number of patrols available, weather, and if the unit commander concurs

    Correct Answer
    A. Situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available
    Explanation
    The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situations, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are crucial in determining the most effective and efficient search techniques to employ. The situations and terrain can affect the accessibility and visibility of the area, while weather and light conditions can impact search efforts. Additionally, the number of searchers available will determine the scope and coverage of the search operation. Overall, considering these factors is essential for the OSC to make informed decisions and maximize the chances of success in the search.

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  • 29. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REASON TO MAKE AN ENTRY WITHOUT SEARCH AUTHORITY?

    • To secure an unlocked door

    • To prevent injury to persons

    • To render air to someone in danger

    • To prevent serious damage to property

    Correct Answer
    A. To secure an unlocked door
    Explanation
    Making an entry without search authority is not a reason to secure an unlocked door. The other options listed - preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, and preventing serious damage to property - all involve potential harm or danger that may require immediate action. However, securing an unlocked door does not fall under the same urgency or necessity, as it does not involve an immediate threat to individuals or property.

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  • 30. 

    When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person?

    • Before it has been fully processed for evidence

    • After it has been fully processed for evidence

    • After the coroner pronounces them dead

    • After the body has been photographed

    Correct Answer
    A. After it has been fully processed for evidence
    Explanation
    When processing a crime scene, it is important to leave the body of a deceased person uncovered until it has been fully processed for evidence. This is because covering the body too early may disturb or contaminate potential evidence that could be crucial to the investigation. Therefore, it is best practice to wait until all necessary evidence has been collected and documented before covering the body.

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  • 31. 

    What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene?

    • Rough and refine

    • Partial and refined

    • Rough and finished

    • Partial and complete

    Correct Answer
    A. Rough and finished
    Explanation
    Rough and finished sketches are the two types of sketches normally made of a crime scene. A rough sketch is a preliminary drawing that provides a general overview of the crime scene, including the location of evidence, bodies, and other important elements. It is typically hand-drawn and not to scale. On the other hand, a finished sketch is a more detailed and accurate representation of the crime scene. It is usually created using computer software or precise measurements and includes specific measurements, distances, and angles. The finished sketch is often used as evidence in court proceedings.

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  • 32. 

    What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military?

    • Federal Rules of Evidence

    • Manual for Courts Martial

    • Federal Statutes of Evidence

    • Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Manual for Courts Martial
    Explanation
    The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. This document provides the guidelines and procedures for presenting and evaluating evidence in military courts. It outlines the admissibility of evidence, the burden of proof, and the rights of the accused. The Manual for Courts Martial is an essential reference for military legal proceedings and ensures fair and consistent application of the rules of evidence within the military justice system.

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  • 33. 

    From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence?

    • Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

    • Defense Force Commander (DFC)

    • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)
    Explanation
    Before disposing of crime scene evidence, you must obtain approval from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military unit or organization. They ensure that all legal requirements and procedures are followed in the disposal of evidence to maintain the integrity of the investigation and any potential legal proceedings. The SJA's approval is necessary to ensure that the disposal is conducted in accordance with the law and any applicable regulations.

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  • 34. 

    WHICH UNIFORM CODE OF MILITARY JUSTICE (UCMJ) ARTICLE COVERS THE WRONGFUL USE AND POSSESSION OF A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE?

    • Article 92

    • Article 108

    • Article 112a

    • Article 123a

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 112a
    Explanation
    Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the offense of using, possessing, distributing, or manufacturing a controlled substance without a valid prescription or authorization. Violation of this article can result in serious consequences for military personnel, including disciplinary action, court-martial, and potential discharge from the military. It is important for military members to adhere to the regulations outlined in Article 112a to maintain discipline, order, and the overall readiness of the armed forces.

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  • 35. 

    When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? An action done

    • To show inability to take full responsibility for actions

    • Without legal justification or authorization

    • With full medical justification and authorization

    • With legal authorization and personal justification

    Correct Answer
    A. Without legal justification or authorization
    Explanation
    Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as performing an action without legal justification or authorization. This means that engaging in any activity related to controlled substances, such as possession, distribution, or use, without the necessary legal permission or authorization is considered wrongful. It implies that the action is illegal and not sanctioned by the law.

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  • 36. 

    What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm?

    • Family Advocacy Officer (FAO)

    • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)

    • Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving the infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations within the United States Air Force, and they have the authority to investigate and address cases of child abuse or neglect that result in serious bodily harm. This agency is specifically tasked with investigating and resolving such cases within the Air Force.

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  • 37. 

    What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made?

    • AF Form 1109

    • AF Form 1297

    • AF Form 1920

    • AF Form 3545

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 3545
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made.

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  • 38. 

    What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody?

    • Rights advisement

    • Complete search

    • Interrogation

    • Interview

    Correct Answer
    A. Interview
    Explanation
    During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves speaking with the individuals involved and gathering information about the situation, including any injuries or threats that may have occurred. The purpose of the interview is to gather as much information as possible to ensure the safety and well-being of all family members involved.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual abuse

    • Mental abuse

    • Physical abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Mental abuse
    Explanation
    Mental abuse is not one of the three types of child abuse. The three types of child abuse are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse refers to the emotional or psychological harm inflicted on a child, such as constant belittling, humiliation, or manipulation. While mental abuse is a serious form of harm to a child, it is not categorized as one of the three primary types of child abuse.

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  • 40. 

    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual

    • Mental

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Sexual
    Explanation
    Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of sexual child abuse. This type of abuse involves the exploitation of children for sexual purposes, which includes the production, distribution, and consumption of explicit materials involving minors. It is a grave violation of a child's rights and can cause severe psychological and physical harm.

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  • 41. 

    What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing?

    • Neglect

    • Sexual

    • Mental

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Neglect
    Explanation
    Neglect is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to provide the necessary care, support, and basic needs for a child's physical, emotional, and psychological well-being. This includes not providing nourishment, depriving them of necessities such as shelter and clothing, and failing to meet their basic needs. Neglect can have severe consequences on a child's development and overall health.

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  • 42. 

    What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim?

    • Your tact and poise

    • Your ability to cope

    • Your physical appearance

    • Your tone of voice and manners

    Correct Answer
    A. Your tact and poise
    Explanation
    Your tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because it creates a safe and supportive environment. By approaching the victim with sensitivity and respect, you can help them feel more comfortable and validated. Tactful communication and maintaining composure can also help to build trust and establish a rapport with the victim, allowing them to open up and share their experience more freely. Overall, your tact and poise can contribute to the victim feeling heard, understood, and supported during a very difficult and traumatic time.

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  • 43. 

    What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger?

    • Aggravated Assault

    • Simple Assault

    • Assault

    • Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault
    Explanation
    Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another person, regardless of whether it is successful or not, as long as the target is aware of the danger. It does not require any physical contact or injury to occur. Aggravated Assault involves a more serious level of harm or use of a deadly weapon, while Simple Assault refers to a less severe form of assault. Battery, on the other hand, involves actual physical contact or harm caused to another person.

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  • 44. 

    What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim?

    • Aggravated assault

    • Simple assault

    • Assault

    • Battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggravated assault
    Explanation
    Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states. It is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim. This means that the defendant's actions go beyond the level of simple assault, which is a lesser offense. Aggravated assault typically involves the use of a weapon or results in serious bodily harm to the victim.

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  • 45. 

    WHAT ARE THE FOUR pHASES OF THE JUDICIAL PROCESS IN WHICH YOU MUST BRIEF ALL VICTIMS AND WITNESSES ON IN THE VICTIM/WITNESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAM?

    • Notification, response, confinement, and release

    • Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement

    • Report, investigation, administrative action, confinement

    • Initial contact, administrative, prosecution, and confinement

    Correct Answer
    A. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement." In the judicial process, the first phase is the response, where law enforcement agencies respond to a crime and gather initial information. The second phase is the investigation, where evidence is collected, witnesses are interviewed, and a case is built. The third phase is prosecution, where the case is presented in court and a decision is made by a judge or jury. The final phase is confinement, where the convicted individual serves their sentence.

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  • 46. 

    What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together?

    • Casual

    • Sighting

    • Agitated

    • Mob-like

    Correct Answer
    A. Casual
    Explanation
    A casual crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together. This type of crowd is characterized by a lack of organization or purpose, and the individuals within it may not have any specific goal or shared interest. They may have come together by chance or circumstance, but there is no strong bond or collective identity among them.

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  • 47. 

    The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option?

    • Fire chief

    • Flight chief

    • Commander

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The use of the riot baton is based on the commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The commander is responsible for assessing the circumstances, evaluating the level of threat or violence, and determining the appropriate response. They have the authority to decide when to deploy the riot baton or any other force option based on their expertise and understanding of the situation at hand.

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  • 48. 

    Which riot control formation is sued as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups?

    • Line

    • Wedge

    • Circular

    • Diamond

    Correct Answer
    A. Wedge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Wedge. A wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation is effective in breaking through a dense crowd by creating a narrow point that can easily push through and divide the crowd into smaller sections. The shape of the wedge allows for a concentrated force to be applied, making it easier to disperse and control the crowd.

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  • 49. 

    Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations?

    • Deter

    • Detect

    • Negate

    • Preempt

    Correct Answer
    A. Negate
    Explanation
    Negate is the correct answer because it refers to the act of rendering a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF (Air Force) operations. This implies taking actions or implementing measures to neutralize or eliminate the threat, thus preventing it from causing any disruption or harm to the operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 14, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 14, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 02, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Stephanie Ryan

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