Microbial Pathology: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Microorganisms!

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Microbial Pathology: Hardest Trivia Quiz On Microorganisms!

The quiz below is what is considered by many as the hardest trivia quiz when it comes to what we learned about microorganisms in microbial pathology. It is perfect if you want to see just how much you know about the microbes that cause diseases in both humans and animals. Take it up after reading your whole course thoroughly in preparation for the exam.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Bacteria associated with infection of IV catheters and prosthetic devices?
    • A. 

      Streptococcus Pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Streotococcus mutans

    • C. 

      Staphylococci aureus

    • D. 

      Staphylococci eoidermidis

  • 2. 
    All are Non-spore forming bacteria except?
    • A. 

      Corynebacterium

    • B. 

      Clostridum

    • C. 

      Listeria

    • D. 

      Actinomyces

  • 3. 
    Waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome caused by?
    • A. 

      Neisseria meningitidis

    • B. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • C. 

      E.coli

    • D. 

      H.pylori

    • E. 

      Salmonella flagella

  • 4. 
    Bloody diarrhea ?
    • A. 

      E.coli

    • B. 

      Shigella

    • C. 

      Vibrio cholerae

    • D. 

      Bacteriodes

  • 5. 
    Herpangina  and Hand-foot-and-mouth disease caused by?
    • A. 

      Echovirus

    • B. 

      Rhinovirus

    • C. 

      Coxsackie A virus

    • D. 

      Coxsackie B virus

  • 6. 
    Paramyxovirus cause ?
    • A. 

      Measles

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      RSV

    • D. 

      Parainfluenza

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 7. 
    Reyes syndrome caused by?
    • A. 

      HPV

    • B. 

      Influenza

    • C. 

      Adenovirus

    • D. 

      Retrovirus

  • 8. 
    Hepatitis B caused by?
    • A. 

      Delta virus

    • B. 

      Picornavirus

    • C. 

      Hepadnavirus

    • D. 

      Flavivirus

  • 9. 
    ________ is the micro-organism most commonly found on the surface of tongue
  • 10. 
    Eggshell calcification occur in
  • 11. 
    Calcinosis occur in
  • 12. 
    Hemosiderin detected histologicaly by
  • 13. 
    Primary mediator of anaphylaxis
  • 14. 
    Primary mediator of asthma
  • 15. 
    _____ cells are major dentric cells of gingival epithelium
  • 16. 
    _____ and _____ are only antibody that activate complement system
  • 17. 
    Dengue fever caused by?
  • 18. 
    Only double standard RNA virus is ?
  • 19. 
    Trisomy 18
  • 20. 
    XO
  • 21. 
    Most common fatal genetic disease in white children?
  • 22. 
    Right sided CHF result in _______ edema
  • 23. 
    Left sided CHF result in ________ edema
  • 24. 
    Fat embolism occur in
  • 25. 
    Gas embolism occur in?
  • 26. 
    Most common cause of secondary hypertension
  • 27. 
    Becks triad in cardiac temponade include all except
    • A. 

      Increase BP

    • B. 

      Decrease BP

    • C. 

      Distension of JV

    • D. 

      Muffled heart sound

  • 28. 
    Diagnosis of Rheumatoid fever with 
  • 29. 
    Cardiac enzymes elevated after MI
  • 30. 
    Pulmonary edema caused by
  • 31. 
    Treatment for acute asthmatic attack ?
    • A. 

      B1 agonist

    • B. 

      B2 agonist

    • C. 

      B1 antagonist

    • D. 

      B2 antagonist

    • E. 

      Epinephrine

  • 32. 
    Main cause of COPD
  • 33. 
    Pink puffer in?
  • 34. 
    Causes of Pan-lobular emphysema
    • A. 

      Smoking

    • B. 

      Familial antiproteanase def ( dec alpha 1 trypsin )

    • C. 

      Heart failure

    • D. 

      Hypertension

  • 35. 
    Barrel chest on X-ray ?
    • A. 

      Emphysema

    • B. 

      Chronic bronchitis

    • C. 

      Atrlectosis

    • D. 

      COPD

  • 36. 
    Blue bloaster in?
  • 37. 
    _________ occur in coal worker = black lung disease
  • 38. 
    Pnemoconosis caused by inhalation of cotton particles called?
  • 39. 
    Ferruginous bodies found in?
  • 40. 
    Sarcoidosis findings
    • A. 

      Enlarge hilar lymphnode

    • B. 

      Uveitis

    • C. 

      Polyarthritis

    • D. 

      Hypercalcemia

    • E. 

      All of them

  • 41. 
    Lobar penumonia caused by?
    • A. 

      Staph. aureus

    • B. 

      H.Influenza

    • C. 

      Klebsiella

    • D. 

      Pnemococcus

  • 42. 
    Most common causes of lung abcess
    • A. 

      Alcoholism

    • B. 

      Smoking

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus

  • 43. 
    Lesion like millet seed
  • 44. 
    Bird beak appearance on barrium swallow
  • 45. 
    Treatment of achalasia
    • A. 

      Myotomy

    • B. 

      Botox

    • C. 

      Pneumotic dilation

    • D. 

      Ca channel blocker

    • E. 

      All of them

  • 46. 
    Treatment of GERD
    • A. 

      Botox

    • B. 

      Antacid

    • C. 

      PP inhibitor

    • D. 

      Ca channel inhibitor

  • 47. 
    Complication of GERD
  • 48. 
    Zollinger Ellsion triad include all except?
    • A. 

      Peptic ulcer

    • B. 

      Increase gastic secretion

    • C. 

      Kidney stone

    • D. 

      Pancreatic gastrinoma

  • 49. 
    Causes of peptic ulcer
    • A. 

      NSAID

    • B. 

      Hypersecretion

    • C. 

      H.pylori

    • D. 

      Cigrette

  • 50. 
    Cobblestone appearance and transluminal inflammation in
    • A. 

      Celiac disease

    • B. 

      Crohns disease

    • C. 

      Cholestrolosis

    • D. 

      Peptic ulcer

  • 51. 
    Glucose in urine?
    • A. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • B. 

      Uncontrolled diabetes mellitis

    • C. 

      Starvation

    • D. 

      Alcohol intoxication

    • E. 

      Kidney disease

  • 52. 
    ________ is the classic cause of blood in urine in children
  • 53. 
    Most common cause of portal hypertension
  • 54. 
    Most important sign of portal hypertension
  • 55. 
    APCKD caused by?
  • 56. 
    Cafe au lait spots are associated with?
    • A. 

      Neurofibromatosis

    • B. 

      McCune-Albright syndrome

    • C. 

      Fanconi's anemia

    • D. 

      Pagets disease

    • E. 

      Tuberous sclerosis

  • 57. 
    Which test measure long term elevated blood glucose
    • A. 

      HLA-B27

    • B. 

      HbA1C

    • C. 

      HbA2C

    • D. 

      HLA-DR4

  • 58. 
    Most common cause of primary hypothyroidism
    • A. 

      Thyroid surgery

    • B. 

      Hashimotos thyroiditis

    • C. 

      XRT

    • D. 

      Idiopathic

  • 59. 
    Increase level of cortisol?
    • A. 

      Conn's syndrome

    • B. 

      Cushing syndrome

    • C. 

      Addison's disease

    • D. 

      McCune Albright syndrome

  • 60. 
    Which of the following lymphomas usually involves abdominal organ and is closely linked to the EBV
    • A. 

      Non-hodgkin lymphoma

    • B. 

      Hodgkin's lymphoma

    • C. 

      Mantle cell lymphoma

    • D. 

      Burkitt's lymphoma

  • 61. 
    Histological characteristics of ________ include starry-sky appearance of non-neoplastic macrophages
    • A. 

      Malignant lymphoma

    • B. 

      Hodgkin lymphoma

    • C. 

      Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

    • D. 

      Burkitts lymphoma

  • 62. 
    Common sites of Osteosarcoma
    • A. 

      Femur

    • B. 

      Tibia

    • C. 

      Fibula

    • D. 

      Humerus

  • 63. 
    Colorectal adenocarcinoma mostly occur in?
    • A. 

      Ascending colon

    • B. 

      Descending colon

    • C. 

      Sigmoid colon

    • D. 

      All of them

  • 64. 
    A patient has prostate cancer. In addition to an increase in prostate-specific antigen (PSA), which serum marker might also be elevated
    • A. 

      HCG

    • B. 

      Acid phosphatase

    • C. 

      CEA-125

    • D. 

      Bence jones protein

  • 65. 
    All virus are haploid except ______ which is diploid
  • 66. 
    Virus with reverse transcriptase
  • 67. 
    All RNA virus transcription occur in cytoplasm except?
  • 68. 
    Poliovirus vaccine?
  • 69. 
    Which of the following is associated with Albright syndrome
    • A. 

      Osteitis fibrsa cystica

    • B. 

      Osteomalasia

    • C. 

      Monostotic fibrous dysplasia

    • D. 

      Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

  • 70. 
    ______ is als called rosenthal syndrome
    • A. 

      Hemophila A

    • B. 

      Hemophila B

    • C. 

      Hemophilia C

    • D. 

      Hemophila D

  • 71. 
    Type of arteriosclerosis characterized by calcific deposits in muscular arteries in persons typically older thn age 50
    • A. 

      Monckerberg medial sclerosis

    • B. 

      Artherosclerosis

    • C. 

      Artiolosclerosis (hyperplastic

    • D. 

      Artiolosclerosis Hyaline

  • 72. 
    In Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura 
    • A. 

      Deficiency in plasma enzyme ADAMTS13

    • B. 

      Deficiency in Von Willebran factor metalloprotease

    • C. 

      Two types - one effect children and other effect adult

    • D. 

      Treatment is plasma exchange

  • 73. 
    Which of the following associated with Macrocytic anemia
    • A. 

      Liver disease

    • B. 

      Vit B12 def and folate def

    • C. 

      Iron def

    • D. 

      Thalasemia

    • E. 

      Aplastic anema

  • 74. 
    _______ is also know as mediterranean anemia or cooley anemia
    • A. 

      Alpha thalesemia minor

    • B. 

      Alpha thalesemia major

    • C. 

      Beta thalesemia minor

    • D. 

      Beta thalesemia major

  • 75. 
    _______ is also known as marble bone disease and albers-schonberg disease
    • A. 

      Osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Osteopetrosis

    • C. 

      Osteomalacia

    • D. 

      Achondroplasia

  • 76. 
    All are features of osteopetrosis except
    • A. 

      Multiple fractures

    • B. 

      Anemia

    • C. 

      Blindness , deafness

    • D. 

      Decrease bone density

  • 77. 
    Osteitis deformans also called?
  • 78. 
    All are features of Rickets except
    • A. 

      Craniobates in skull

    • B. 

      Teeth may erupt earlier

    • C. 

      Rachitic rosary

    • D. 

      Harrison groove

  • 79. 
    Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal woman. most likely?
    • A. 

      Osteogenic imperfecta

    • B. 

      Osteopetrosis

    • C. 

      Myasthenia gravis

    • D. 

      Sickle cell anemia

  • 80. 
    RSV treatment, which drug?
  • 81. 
    Primary acidogenic micro-organism in body is?
    • A. 

      Streptococcus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus

    • C. 

      H.Influenza

    • D. 

      Non of the above

  • 82. 
    ELISA test used for ?
    • A. 

      Streptococcus viridans

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C. 

      E.Coli

    • D. 

      Vibro cholera

  • 83. 
    Purine replaced by pyramidine
    • A. 

      Non-sense mutation

    • B. 

      Missence mutation

    • C. 

      Transition mutation

    • D. 

      Transverse mutation

  • 84. 
    Most common complication of Pericarditis
    • A. 

      Right heart failure

    • B. 

      Left heart failure

    • C. 

      Cardiac temponade

    • D. 

      Pulmonary edema

  • 85. 
    Cardiac patient should be in _______ position
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Upright

    • C. 

      Prone

    • D. 

      Sitting

  • 86. 
    Which muscle involved in Tetanus?
    • A. 

      Temporalis

    • B. 

      Masseter

    • C. 

      Medial pterygoid

    • D. 

      Lateral pterygoid

  • 87. 
    Botulinum toxin MOA
  • 88. 
    Influenza treatment
    • A. 

      Girseofluvin

    • B. 

      Parental Penicillin G

    • C. 

      Inj Ceftriaxone with doxycycline

    • D. 

      Amantadine

  • 89. 
    Rebound tenderness occur in ?
    • A. 

      Acute appendicitis

    • B. 

      Carcinoid tumor

    • C. 

      Chronic appendicitis

    • D. 

      All of them

  • 90. 
    Most common sexually transmitted disease
    • A. 

      C. Trachomatos

    • B. 

      HPV

    • C. 

      HIV

    • D. 

      Syphillis

  • 91. 
    Most common cause of meningitis in children
    • A. 

      N.Meningitis

    • B. 

      Strep pneumonia

    • C. 

      H.Influenza

    • D. 

      Staph aureus

  • 92. 
    Principle organ involved in acute leukemia is?
  • 93. 
    Treatment of leukemia
    • A. 

      Tk inhibitor and chemotherapy

    • B. 

      Radiotherapy

    • C. 

      Chemotherapy

    • D. 

      Interferon

  • 94. 
    Laboratory findings of primary hyperparathyroidism
    • A. 

      Increase calcium

    • B. 

      Increase serum PTH

    • C. 

      Increase serum phosphorus

    • D. 

      Decrease serum phosphorus

  • 95. 
    All of the following associated with amyloidosis except
    • A. 

      Tb

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus 1

    • C. 

      Rheumatic arthritis

    • D. 

      Parkison disease

  • 96. 
    Scleroderma
    • A. 

      Raynauds phenomanon

    • B. 

      GERD

    • C. 

      Tight and mask like facial skin

    • D. 

      Still's disease

  • 97. 
    Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
  • 98. 
    Diseases associated with peptic ulcer are
    • A. 

      NSAID , Aspirin

    • B. 

      Smoking

    • C. 

      Diabetes

    • D. 

      Zollingr-Ellison syndrome

    • E. 

      Primary hyperparathyroidism

    • F. 

      Secondary hyperparathyoidism

    • G. 

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia

  • 99. 
    ______ reduce vasopressin (ADH) secretion 
    • A. 

      Angiotensin II

    • B. 

      Ethanol

    • C. 

      Decrease Blood pressure

    • D. 

      Angiotension I

  • 100. 
    Infectious mononucleosis caused by ?
  • 101. 
    Exopthalmos seen in
    • A. 

      Hyperthyoidism

    • B. 

      Hypothyroidism

    • C. 

      Hyperparathyroidism

    • D. 

      Plummer's disease

  • 102. 
    Disease with granulomatous inflammation
    • A. 

      Tb

    • B. 

      Leprosy ( Mycobacterium leprae )

    • C. 

      Addison disaese

    • D. 

      Cat- scratch disease

    • E. 

      Sarcoidosis

    • F. 

      Syphilis

    • G. 

      Crohns disease

  • 103. 
    Which malabsoption syndrome is caused by a sensitivity to gluten in cereal
    • A. 

      Tropical sprue

    • B. 

      Celiac disaese

    • C. 

      Whipple disease

    • D. 

      Austoimmune enteropathy

  • 104. 
    Which of the following is characterized by the presence of numerous polyps along with skin and bone tumors
    • A. 

      Turcot's syndrome

    • B. 

      Gardner syndrome

    • C. 

      Peutz-jeghers syndrome

    • D. 

      Familial adenomatous polyposos

  • 105. 
    Complications of down syndrome
    • A. 

      Osteosarcoma

    • B. 

      Congenital heart disease

    • C. 

      Fabry disease

    • D. 

      Lymphoblastic leukemia

  • 106. 
    DiGeorge syndrome characteristics include
  • 107. 
    Chvostek's sign and trousseau's sign seen in ?
  • 108. 
    Immunodeficiency disorder feature incompetent or abset T cells and B cells
    • A. 

      SCID

    • B. 

      Wiskott-aldrich

    • C. 

      Ataxia-telangiectasia

    • D. 

      Hyperimmunoglobin E syndrome

  • 109. 
    X-linked agammaglobulinemia is caused by mutations in a?
    • A. 

      Glucosyltransferase

    • B. 

      Catalaze

    • C. 

      Tyrosine kinase

    • D. 

      Hirunidase

  • 110. 
    The greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection is?
    • A. 

      Hep C

    • B. 

      Hep B

    • C. 

      HIV

    • D. 

      TB

  • 111. 
    Bactericidal agent work best during which of the following phase of bacterial growth?
    • A. 

      Lag phase

    • B. 

      Log phase

    • C. 

      Stationary phase

    • D. 

      Death phase

  • 112. 
    Ashoff body found in
    • A. 

      Rheumatoid fever

    • B. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • C. 

      SLE

    • D. 

      Goiter

  • 113. 
    Initial and most common sign of heart failure
    • A. 

      Fatigue and weakness

    • B. 

      Extertional dyspnea and proximal noctural dysnea

    • C. 

      Swelling of your abdomen (ascites)

    • D. 

      Reduced ability to exercise

    • E. 

      Sudden weight gain from fluid retention

  • 114. 
    Cause of secondary pulmonary hypertension
    • A. 

      Renal disease

    • B. 

      Heart disease

    • C. 

      COPD

    • D. 

      Addisons disease

    • E. 

      Brain abcess

  • 115. 
    Cherry red discoloration of skin, mucosa and tissue
    • A. 

      Ashtma

    • B. 

      Chronic brochitis

    • C. 

      COPD

    • D. 

      CO2 poisoning

    • E. 

      Barets esophagus

  • 116. 
    Lung collapse in
    • A. 

      Ashtma

    • B. 

      Emphysema

    • C. 

      Chronic bronchitis

    • D. 

      Atelectasis

    • E. 

      Co2 poisoning

  • 117. 
    Non-ceseating granuloma-schaumann and asteriod bodies in?
    • A. 

      Silicosis

    • B. 

      TB

    • C. 

      Sarcoidosis

    • D. 

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

  • 118. 
    Honeycomb lung in?
    • A. 

      Pneumonia

    • B. 

      TB

    • C. 

      Sarcoidosis

    • D. 

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

    • E. 

      Pulmonary effusion

  • 119. 
    Complication of Impetigo
    • A. 

      Addison's disease

    • B. 

      Glemerulonephritis

    • C. 

      Gastritis

    • D. 

      Albinism

    • E. 

      Peptic ulcer

  • 120. 
    All DNA virus transcription occur in nucleus except which virus
    • A. 

      Reovirus

    • B. 

      Retrovirus

    • C. 

      Poxvirus

    • D. 

      Rotavirus

  • 121. 
    Antibody for SLE
    • A. 

      Anti DNA

    • B. 

      Anti RNA

    • C. 

      Anti Sm

    • D. 

      Anti Ra

  • 122. 
    Diagnosis of HSV-1 with?
    • A. 

      Ferguson reaction

    • B. 

      Prussian blue reaction

    • C. 

      Tzank preparation

    • D. 

      Jones criteria

  • 123. 
    Most common compenent in renal stones
    • A. 

      Calcium phosphate

    • B. 

      Proteins

    • C. 

      Serum phosphate

    • D. 

      Calcium oxalate

    • E. 

      Lipids

  • 124. 
    Croup caused by
    • A. 

      HSV

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      Parainfluenza

    • D. 

      Streptoccouss pneumonia

    • E. 

      Measles

  • 125. 
    Viruses can cross the placenta
    • A. 

      HSV

    • B. 

      Hep C

    • C. 

      HIV

    • D. 

      CMV

    • E. 

      Salmonella

    • F. 

      Rubella

  • 126. 
    Subacute endocarditis caused by
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumonia

    • B. 

      Streptococcus Viridans

    • C. 

      Streptococcus mutans

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

  • 127. 
    Most common cause of gastroentritis in children
    • A. 

      Poxvirus

    • B. 

      Reovirus

    • C. 

      Retrovirus

    • D. 

      Rotavirus

    • E. 

      Arbovirus

  • 128. 
    Common cause of acute pancreatitis
    • A. 

      Smoking

    • B. 

      Alcoholism

    • C. 

      Gallstone

    • D. 

      Hormones deficiency

    • E. 

      All of these

  • 129. 
    Rheumatoid arthritis in children
    • A. 

      Pott's disease

    • B. 

      Still's disease

    • C. 

      SCID

    • D. 

      Caisson's disease

    • E. 

      Raynaud phenomanon

  • 130. 
    Increase melanin?
    • A. 

      Albinism

    • B. 

      Vitiligo

    • C. 

      Addisons disease

    • D. 

      Cushing disease

    • E. 

      Celiac disease

  • 131. 
    Caseous necrosis occur in?
    • A. 

      Brain abcess

    • B. 

      Myocardial infarction

    • C. 

      Pancreatitis

    • D. 

      TB

    • E. 

      Dengue fever

  • 132. 
    Major opsins are 
    • A. 

      IgG

    • B. 

      IgM

    • C. 

      IgA

    • D. 

      C5a

    • E. 

      C3a

    • F. 

      C3b

  • 133. 
    Most abundant immunoglobin and can cross the placenta
    • A. 

      IgA

    • B. 

      IgM

    • C. 

      IgG

    • D. 

      IgE

    • E. 

      All of them

  • 134. 
    Charocot-Leyden crystals occur in
    • A. 

      Asthmna

    • B. 

      Chronic bronchitis

    • C. 

      Emphysema

    • D. 

      Anthracosis

    • E. 

      Byssinosis

  • 135. 
    TB involving vertebral body
    • A. 

      Celiac disease

    • B. 

      Caisons disease

    • C. 

      Pott's disease

    • D. 

      Crohn's disease

    • E. 

      Cushing disease

  • 136. 
    All bacterial capsules are polysachride except _________ which is protein containing D-glutamate
    • A. 

      Bacillus cereus

    • B. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • C. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

    • E. 

      Streptococcus bovis

  • 137. 
    Food poisoning ( ingestion of reheated grains and rice ) caused by
    • A. 

      Bacillus cereus

    • B. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • C. 

      Streptococcus bovis

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

    • E. 

      Enterococci

  • 138. 
    Major virulence facors of staphylococcus aureus are?
    • A. 

      Protein M

    • B. 

      Protein A

    • C. 

      B-lactamase

    • D. 

      Erythrogenic toxin

    • E. 

      TSST

    • F. 

      Enterotoxin

    • G. 

      Exofoliatin

  • 139. 
    IgA protease degrades IgA from
    • A. 

      Strep pneumonia

    • B. 

      Strep pyogens

    • C. 

      Staph aureus

    • D. 

      H.influenzae

    • E. 

      Clostridium species

    • F. 

      Neisseria species

  • 140. 
    Gas gangrene caused by
    • A. 

      Clostridium difficile

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • C. 

      Corynebacterium diphtheriae

    • D. 

      Listeria monocytogenes

    • E. 

      Actinomyces israelii

  • 141. 
    Which of the following Gram positive bacteria contain endotoxin
    • A. 

      Clostridium speicius

    • B. 

      Conrynebacterium diphtheria

    • C. 

      Listeria

    • D. 

      Actinomyces

    • E. 

      Bacillus species

  • 142. 
    Acute conjuctivitis ( Pink eye ) caused by
    • A. 

      Haemophilus influenza

    • B. 

      Haemophilus aegyptius

    • C. 

      Peudomonas aeruginosa

    • D. 

      Bordetella pertussis

    • E. 

      Yersinia pestis

  • 143. 
    Difference between staphylococcus and streptococcus?
    • A. 

      Coagulase enzyme

    • B. 

      Oxidase enzyme

    • C. 

      Catalase enzyme

    • D. 

      Maltose fermenter

    • E. 

      Novobiocin

  • 144. 
    What aspect of Staph is responsible for food poisoning
    • A. 

      Protein A

    • B. 

      B-Lactamase

    • C. 

      Enterotoxin

    • D. 

      TSST

    • E. 

      Exfoliatin

  • 145. 
    Which of the following  has janeway lesion
    • A. 

      Myocarditis

    • B. 

      Scarlet fever

    • C. 

      Toxic shock syndrome

    • D. 

      Subacute endocarditis

    • E. 

      Infective endocarditis

  • 146. 
    Which toxin produces scarlet fever?
    • A. 

      M protein

    • B. 

      Streptokinase

    • C. 

      Erythrogenic toxin

    • D. 

      Streptolysin O and S

    • E. 

      Hyaluronidase

  • 147. 
    Which produces these toxins: protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF)?
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Bacillus cereus

    • C. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • D. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • E. 

      Clostridium difficle

  • 148. 
    Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis
    • A. 

      Rickettsia rickettsi

    • B. 

      Rickettsia prowazekii

    • C. 

      Coxiella burnetii

    • D. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

    • E. 

      Syphilus

  • 149. 
    Blindness result from
    • A. 

      Rickettsia rickettsii

    • B. 

      Rickettsia pwowazekii

    • C. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

    • D. 

      Coxiella burnetti

    • E. 

      Treponema pellidum

  • 150. 
    Smallest bacterium is
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium leprae

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium Tb

    • C. 

      Mycobaterium penumonia

    • D. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

    • E. 

      Coxiella burnetti

  • 151. 
    Legionnaires pneumophila is mainly found in ?
    • A. 

      Soil

    • B. 

      Animal bite

    • C. 

      Feces

    • D. 

      Air conditioner environment

    • E. 

      Swimmers

  • 152. 
    Q fever casued by
    • A. 

      Coxiella burnetii

    • B. 

      Borrelia burgdorferi

    • C. 

      Mycobacterium leprae

    • D. 

      Rickettsia rickettsii

    • E. 

      Rickettsia prowazekki

  • 153. 
    Rockey mountain fever and Typhus caused by
    • A. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

    • B. 

      Rickettsia

    • C. 

      Coxiella burnetii

    • D. 

      Borrelia burgdorferi

    • E. 

      Trepenoma pellidum

  • 154. 
    Smallest RNA virus is
    • A. 

      Reovirus

    • B. 

      Hepevirus

    • C. 

      Calcivirus

    • D. 

      Picarnovirus

  • 155. 
    All are Enteroviruses except
    • A. 

      Poliovirus

    • B. 

      Echovirus

    • C. 

      Rhinovirus

    • D. 

      Coxsackievirus A

    • E. 

      Coxsackievirus B

  • 156. 
    Togavirus
    • A. 

      RNA enveloped virus

    • B. 

      Can cause Dengue fever

    • C. 

      Can cause Rubella

    • D. 

      Can cause Hep C virus

    • E. 

      RNA nonenveloped virus

  • 157. 
    HIV (AIDS) caused by
    • A. 

      Orthomyxovirus

    • B. 

      Retrovirus

    • C. 

      Paramyxovirus

    • D. 

      Togavirus

    • E. 

      Rhabdovirus

  • 158. 
    Smallest DNA virus
    • A. 

      Parvovirus

    • B. 

      Picarnovirus

    • C. 

      Papillomavirus

    • D. 

      Adenovirus

    • E. 

      Polyomavirus

  • 159. 
    Which virus doesn't have latent phase?
    • A. 

      Rhinovirus

    • B. 

      HSV

    • C. 

      EBV

    • D. 

      CMV

    • E. 

      Poiliovirus

  • 160. 
    Diseases associated with HPV
    • A. 

      Warts

    • B. 

      Progressive multifocal lymphedenopathy

    • C. 

      Condyloma acuminatum

    • D. 

      Verruca vulgaris

    • E. 

      Cervical cancer

    • F. 

      Associated with HIV

  • 161. 
    ______ is the only virus that gets its cell wall from Host Nuclear Membrane
    • A. 

      Hepadnavirus

    • B. 

      Herpes virus

    • C. 

      Parvovirus

    • D. 

      Papillomavirus

    • E. 

      Adenovirus

  • 162. 
    What are the virulence factors of Neisseria meningitis?
    • A. 

      Endotoxin (LOS)

    • B. 

      Endotoxin (LPS)

    • C. 

      Fimbriae

    • D. 

      Enterotoxin

    • E. 

      Protein A

  • 163. 
    Aflatoxin are hepatocarcinogenic toxins produced by
    • A. 

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • B. 

      Blastomyces Dermatitidis

    • C. 

      Trichophyton

    • D. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    • E. 

      Aspergillus fumigatus

  • 164. 
    Infection caused by bird/bat droppings
    • A. 

      Coccidioides immits

    • B. 

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • C. 

      Blastomyces dermatitidis

    • D. 

      Aspergillus flavus

    • E. 

      Trichophyton

  • 165. 
    Organism that causes athletes foot (tinea pedis)
    • A. 

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • B. 

      Blastomyces dematitidis

    • C. 

      Coccidioides immites

    • D. 

      Trichophyton

    • E. 

      Aspergillus flavum

    • F. 

      Aspergillus flavum

    • G. 

      Aspergillus flavum

  • 166. 
    Which fungus causes cerebral/brain infarct?
    • A. 

      Aspergillus fumigatus

    • B. 

      Candida albicans

    • C. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans

    • D. 

      Mucormycosis

    • E. 

      Trichophyton

  • 167. 
    Which one can be seen as an intracellular organism and yeast cells located within host macrophages ?
    • A. 

      Blastomyce dermatitidis

    • B. 

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • C. 

      Trichophyton

    • D. 

      Aspergillus

    • E. 

      Mucormycosis

  • 168. 
    Which pathogen causes granulomatous lesion in lung resembling TB, similar symptoms?
    • A. 

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • B. 

      Blastomyce dermatitidis

    • C. 

      Aspergillus

    • D. 

      Trychophyton

    • E. 

      Coccidioides immites

  • 169. 
    Cutanous fungal infections are
    • A. 

      Trichophyton

    • B. 

      Epidermophyton

    • C. 

      Microsporum

    • D. 

      Coccidioides immitis

    • E. 

      Blastomyce dermatitidis

  • 170. 
    Most common cause of fungal meningitis?
    • A. 

      Mucormycosis

    • B. 

      Cryptococcus

    • C. 

      Aspergillosis

    • D. 

      Blastomyce dermitidis

    • E. 

      Trichophyton

  • 171. 
    All are dimorphic fungus except
    • A. 

      Histoplasma capsulatum

    • B. 

      Blastomyces dermatitidis

    • C. 

      Coccidioides immitis

    • D. 

      Candidas Albicans

  • 172. 
    Drug of choice for Dermatophytosis
    • A. 

      Itraconazole

    • B. 

      Ketoconazole

    • C. 

      Amphotericin B

    • D. 

      Fluconazole

    • E. 

      Griseofulvin

  • 173. 
    Which of the following protozoan common in USA
    • A. 

      Entamoeba histolytica

    • B. 

      Giardia lamblia

    • C. 

      Cryptosporidium parvum

    • D. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • E. 

      Toxoplasma gonidi

  • 174. 
    Malaria is caused by
    • A. 

      Toxoplasma gonidi

    • B. 

      Plasmodium vivax

    • C. 

      Plasmodium ovale

    • D. 

      Plasmodium malaria

    • E. 

      Pneumocystis jiroveci

  • 175. 
    Most common worm in US
    • A. 

      Taenia solium

    • B. 

      Taenia saginata

    • C. 

      Enterobius vermicularis

    • D. 

      Trichinella spiralis

  • 176. 
    _______ is also known as colony stimulating factor (CSF)
    • A. 

      IL - 1

    • B. 

      IL-3

    • C. 

      IL-6

    • D. 

      IL-10

    • E. 

      IL-12

  • 177. 
    Chemotaxis caused by
    • A. 

      IL - 1

    • B. 

      IL-5

    • C. 

      IL-8

    • D. 

      IL-12

    • E. 

      TNF-a

  • 178. 
    Hageman factor (factor XII  ) is necessory in the production of
    • A. 

      Bradykinin

    • B. 

      Serotinin

    • C. 

      Histamine

    • D. 

      Cytokines

    • E. 

      Prostaglandin

  • 179. 
    Regeneration does not occur in?
    • A. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Bone

    • D. 

      Cardiac muscle

    • E. 

      Neurons

    • F. 

      Cartilages

  • 180. 
    Graft-Versus-Host reaction mostly occur in ?
    • A. 

      Blood transfusion

    • B. 

      Tissue graft

    • C. 

      Organ transplant

    • D. 

      Bone marrow transplant

    • E. 

      All of them

  • 181. 
    Type 1 hypersensitivity 
    • A. 

      Atopic allergy

    • B. 

      Hemolytic anemia

    • C. 

      Anaphylaxis

    • D. 

      Serum sickness

    • E. 

      Angioedema

    • F. 

      RA

    • G. 

      SLE

    • H. 

      Contact dematitis

  • 182. 
    Trisomy 21
    • A. 

      Down syndrome

    • B. 

      Edward syndrome

    • C. 

      Patau syndrome

    • D. 

      Turner syndrome

    • E. 

      Klinefelter syndrom

  • 183. 
    XXY
    • A. 

      Down syndrome

    • B. 

      Edward syndrome

    • C. 

      Patau syndrome

    • D. 

      Klinefelter syndrome

    • E. 

      Turner syndrome

  • 184. 
    Most common fatal genetic disease in white children
    • A. 

      Cystic fibrosis

    • B. 

      Von Hoppel-Lindau disease

    • C. 

      Marfan's syndrome

    • D. 

      Tay-Sachs disease

    • E. 

      Niemann-Pick disease

  • 185. 
    Which type of WBC shows the lowest in blood?
    • A. 

      Neutrophills

    • B. 

      Basophills

    • C. 

      Lymphocytes

    • D. 

      Monocytes

    • E. 

      Eosinophills

  • 186. 
    Which of the following are associated with hypopigmentation
    • A. 

      Albinism

    • B. 

      Vitiligo

    • C. 

      Freckle

    • D. 

      Lengtigo

    • E. 

      Pigmented nevi

  • 187. 
    Large pulmonary embolus that obstruct the bifurcation of the pulmonary artery
    • A. 

      Paradoxical emboli

    • B. 

      Agonal

    • C. 

      Mural

    • D. 

      Saddle emboli

  • 188. 
    The predominant cell in acute inflammatory response & in abscesses?
    • A. 

      Monocytes

    • B. 

      Macrophages

    • C. 

      PMNs

    • D. 

      Basophills

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes

  • 189. 
    What's a small molecule that can't elicit immune response on its own?
    • A. 

      Immunogens

    • B. 

      Superantigen

    • C. 

      Epitope

    • D. 

      Adjuvant

    • E. 

      Hapten

  • 190. 
    ______ valves is most often affected in IV drug users
    • A. 

      Mitral

    • B. 

      Tricuspid

    • C. 

      Aortic

    • D. 

      Pulmonary

  • 191. 
    Having Bence Jones protein in urine indicates
    • A. 

      Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

    • B. 

      Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

    • C. 

      Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

    • D. 

      Multiple myeloma

    • E. 

      Niemann-Pick

  • 192. 
    Organism that exhibit dimorphism and grow on sabouraud's medium
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Parasite

    • C. 

      Virus

    • D. 

      Fungi

    • E. 

      Protozoa

  • 193. 
    Epidermophyton and Microsporum cause dermatophytosis- treatment?
    • A. 

      Amantadine

    • B. 

      Aspirin

    • C. 

      Griseofluvin

    • D. 

      Doxycyline

    • E. 

      Ribavarin

  • 194. 
    Weil Felix test is used for?
    • A. 

      Rickettsia

    • B. 

      Coxiella burnetii

    • C. 

      C. perfringens

    • D. 

      Clostridium & bacillus

    • E. 

      Toxoplasma gondii

  • 195. 
    Over-treating with antibiotics(Clindamycin), C. difficile, would show?
    • A. 

      Blindness

    • B. 

      Diarrhea

    • C. 

      Pseudomembranous Colitis

    • D. 

      Meningitis

    • E. 

      Q fever

  • 196. 
    What is the most common bacteria vaccine given in the US?
    • A. 

      DTP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis)

    • B. 

      Live attenuated ( TB )

    • C. 

      DTB ( diphtheria, tetanus, botulism)

    • D. 

      Typhoid

    • E. 

      Mumps, measles

  • 197. 
    All of the following are associated with primary hemostasis except
    • A. 

      Thrombocytopenia

    • B. 

      DIC

    • C. 

      ITP

    • D. 

      TTP

    • E. 

      Hemophilia

  • 198. 
    All are High radiosensitive cells except
    • A. 

      Lymphocytes

    • B. 

      Nerve cells

    • C. 

      Reproductive cells ( gonads )

    • D. 

      Epithelial cells of GI tract

    • E. 

      Bone marrow blood-forming cells

  • 199. 
    Most common tumor in women
    • A. 

      Leiomyoma

    • B. 

      Nueroblastoma

    • C. 

      Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • D. 

      Teratoma

    • E. 

      Prostate cancer

  • 200. 
    Most common skin cancer in US
    • A. 

      Squamous Cell Carcinoma

    • B. 

      Basal Cell Carcinoma

    • C. 

      Melagnant Melanoma

    • D. 

      Lentigo Meligna

    • E. 

      Pigmented Nevi

  • 201. 
    Metastatic tumor within supraclavicular (Virshow) nodes most likely indicates a primary cancer in which site?
    • A. 

      Lung

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Gall bladder

    • D. 

      Kidney

    • E. 

      Stomach

  • 202. 
    Methotextrate most effective during which phase cell cycle?
    • A. 

      Go Phase

    • B. 

      G1 Phase

    • C. 

      S Phase

    • D. 

      M phase

  • 203. 
    After metabolic acidosis,(too much acid due to compromised function of the kidney) which abnormality mostly likely occurs? 
    • A. 

      Hypercalcemia

    • B. 

      Hypocalcemia

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • D. 

      Hypokalemia

  • 204. 
    Which of the following is related to GI malegnancy?
    • A. 

      Vilous adenoma

    • B. 

      SCID

    • C. 

      Multiple myeloma

    • D. 

      Pleomorphic adenoma

    • E. 

      Cystic fibrosis

  • 205. 
    Which leukemia is common in kids? 
    • A. 

      Acute Lymphocytic Leuk (ALL)

    • B. 

      Chronic Lymphocytic Leuk (CLL)

    • C. 

      Acute Myelogenic Leuk (AML)

    • D. 

      Acute Myelogenic Leuk (CML)

  • 206. 
    Disease can be treated successfully with tetracycline
    • A. 

      Rockey mountain spotted fever

    • B. 

      Q fever

    • C. 

      Syphillis

    • D. 

      Scarlet fever

    • E. 

      Septic shock

  • 207. 
    Which organ most likely to undergo red infarction
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Lung

    • C. 

      Speen

    • D. 

      Kidney

    • E. 

      Colon

  • 208. 
    Actinomycosis which of the following are true?
    • A. 

      Gram postive

    • B. 

      Sulfur granules

    • C. 

      Endogenous

    • D. 

      Affects cervicofacial region.4

    • E. 

      Gram negative

    • F. 

      Exogenous

  • 209. 
    Togavirus aka “3 day measles” characterized by truncal rash?
    • A. 

      Rubella

    • B. 

      Influenza virus

    • C. 

      Flavivirus

    • D. 

      Measles

    • E. 

      Herpes virus

  • 210. 
    First sign of rheumatoid arthritis seen where?
    • A. 

      Synovium

    • B. 

      Tendon

    • C. 

      Ligament

    • D. 

      Bone

    • E. 

      Cartilage

  • 211. 
    What displays single gene mutation
    • A. 

      Sickle cell anemia

    • B. 

      Heard disease

    • C. 

      Multiple scelrosis

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Cleft palate

  • 212. 
    Punched out lesions on x-ray
    • A. 

      Multiple myeloma

    • B. 

      Multiple Sclerosis

    • C. 

      Leomyoma

    • D. 

      Cystic fibrosis

    • E. 

      Paget's disease

  • 213. 
    Alzeimer disease
    • A. 

      Most common form of dementia

    • B. 

      Amyloid plaque

    • C. 

      Neurofib tangles

    • D. 

      Necrosis

    • E. 

      Heart failure