Microbiology Testing Trivia Questions

25 Questions | Total Attempts: 46

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
Microbiology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is a gram-negative diplococcus?
    • A. 

      Strep. pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Neisseria meningitidis

    • C. 

      Staph aureus

    • D. 

      H. influenzae

  • 2. 
    The likely causative organism of nonbullous impetigo in a 6-year-old include:
    • A. 

      H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Group A strep and S. aureus

    • C. 

      M. catarrhalis and select viruses

    • D. 

      P. aeruginosa and select fungi

  • 3. 
    The spectrumof antimicrobial activity of mupirocin (Bactroban) includes:
    • A. 

      Primarily gram-negative organisms

    • B. 

      Select gram-positive organisms

    • C. 

      Pseudomonas species and anaerobic organisms

    • D. 

      Only organisms that do not produce beta-lactamase

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is an oral antimicrobial option for the treatment of a commonly acquired MRSA cutaneous lesion?
    • A. 

      Amoxicillin

    • B. 

      Dicloxacillin

    • C. 

      Cephalexin

    • D. 

      Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

  • 5. 
    A Tzanck smear that is positive for giant multinucleated cells was taken from a lesion caused by:
    • A. 

      Herpes virus

    • B. 

      S. aureus

    • C. 

      Streptococci

    • D. 

      Allergic reaction

  • 6. 
    The most common causative organisms in cellulitis are:
    • A. 

      E. coli and H. influenzae

    • B. 

      Bacteroides species and other anaerobes

    • C. 

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci and S. aureus

    • D. 

      Pathogenic viruses

  • 7. 
    A man presents with otitis externa. The likely causative pathogens include all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Fungal agents

    • B. 

      P. aeruginosa

    • C. 

      S. aureus

    • D. 

      M. catarrhalis

  • 8. 
    The likely causative organism in AOM include:
    • A. 

      Certain gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

    • B. 

      Gram-negative bacteria and pathogenic viruses

    • C. 

      Rhinovirus and S. aureus

    • D. 

      Predominantly beta-lactamase-producing organisms

  • 9. 
    Characteristics of M. catarrhalis include:
    • A. 

      High rate of beta-lactamase production

    • B. 

      Antimicrobial resistance resulting from altered protein-binding sites

    • C. 

      Often being found in middle ear exudate in recurrent otitis media

    • D. 

      Gram-positive organisms

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of H. influenzae?
    • A. 

      Newer macrolides are ineffective against the organism

    • B. 

      Its antimicrobial resistance results from altered protein-binding sites within the wall of the bacteria

    • C. 

      Some isolates exhibit antimicrobial resistance via production of beta-lactamase

    • D. 

      This is a gram-positive organism

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of S. pneumoniae?
    • A. 

      Mechanism of antimicrobial resistance primarily through the production of beta-lactamase

    • B. 

      Mechanism of antimicrobial resistance primarily through altered protein-binding sites held within the microbe's cell.

    • C. 

      Organisms most commonly isolated from mucoid middle ear effusion

    • D. 

      Gram-negative organisms

  • 12. 
    Clindamycin is most effective against which of the following organisms?
    • A. 

      S. pneumonia

    • B. 

      H. influenzae

    • C. 

      M. catarrhalis

    • D. 

      Adenovirus

  • 13. 
    With regard to pharyngitis caused by group C streptococci, the NP considers that:
    • A. 

      Potential complications include glomerulonephritis

    • B. 

      Appropriate antimicrobial therapy helps to facilitate more rapid resolution of symptoms

    • C. 

      Infection with these organisms carries a significant risk of subsequent rheumatic fever

    • D. 

      Acute infectious hepatitis can occur if not treated with an appropriate antimicrobial.

  • 14. 
    Incubation period for S. pyogenes is usually:
    • A. 

      1-3 days

    • B. 

      3-5 days

    • C. 

      6-9 days

    • D. 

      10-13 days

  • 15. 
    The most common causative organism in ABRS is:
    • A. 

      M. pneumoniae

    • B. 

      S. pneumoniae

    • C. 

      M. catarrhalis

    • D. 

      H. influenzae

  • 16. 
    Which of the following pathogens is often implicated in a COPD exacerbation caused by bacterial respiratory tract infection?
    • A. 

      Legionella species

    • B. 

      Strep. pyogenes

    • C. 

      H. influenzae

    • D. 

      Staph aureus

  • 17. 
    An organism often associated with COPD exacerbation in a person with advanced disease and repeated exacerbations is:
    • A. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • B. 

      Chlamydophila pneumoniae

    • C. 

      Strep pneumoniae

    • D. 

      H. influenzae

  • 18. 
    The mechanism of resistance of DRSP is through the cell's
    • A. 

      Beta-lactamase production

    • B. 

      Hypertrophy of cell membrane

    • C. 

      Alteration in protein-binding sites

    • D. 

      Failure of DNA gyrase reversal

  • 19. 
    The primary mechanism of antimicrobial resistance of H. influenzae is through the organism's
    • A. 

      Beta-lactamase production

    • B. 

      Hypertrophy of cell membrane

    • C. 

      Alteration in protein-binding sites

    • D. 

      Failure of DNA gyrase reversal

  • 20. 
    Which of the following WBC forms is an ominous finding in the presence of severe bacterial infection?
    • A. 

      Neutrophil

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Basophil

    • D. 

      Metamyelocyte

  • 21. 
    The most sensitive and specific test for H. pylori infection from the following list is:
    • A. 

      Stool Gram stain, looking for the offending organism

    • B. 

      Serological testing for antigen related to the infection

    • C. 

      Organism-specific stool antigen testing

    • D. 

      Fecal DNA testing

  • 22. 
    A 36-year-old afebrile woman with no health problems presents with dysuria and frequency of urination. Her urinalysis findings include results positive for nitrites and leukocyte esterase. You evaluate these results and consider that she likely has:
    • A. 

      Purulent vulvovaginitis

    • B. 

      A gram-negative UTI

    • C. 

      Cystitis caused by Staph saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Urethral syndrome

  • 23. 
    The most likely causative organism in community-acquired UTI is:
    • A. 

      Klebsiella species

    • B. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • C. 

      E. coli

    • D. 

      Staph saprophyticus

  • 24. 
    The notation of alkaline urine in a patient with a UTI may point to infection caused by:
    • A. 

      Klebsiella species

    • B. 

      P. mirabilis

    • C. 

      E.coli

    • D. 

      S. Saprophyticus

  • 25. 
    Which of the following organisms is not gram-negative?
    • A. 

      E. coli

    • B. 

      K. pneumoniae

    • C. 

      P. mirabilis

    • D. 

      S. saprophyticus