Mhafb CDC 2a071 Vol. 2 Maintenance Training, Supply, And Progra

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)
    • Air Training Command (ATC)
    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC)
    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance training, focusing on training detachments, training methods, and record-keeping. It is designed for individuals preparing for roles in Air Force maintenance, enhancing both foundational and specialized skills.

Mhafb CDC 2a071 Vol. 2 Maintenance Training, Supply, And Progra - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • Chief Master Sergeant

    • Senior Master Sergeant

    • Master Sergeant

    • Technical Sergeant

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Sergeant
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of Master Sergeant. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant and have been approved by the MXG/CC can have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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  • 3. 

    (214) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. The question asks how many digits make up this code. The correct answer is 9. This means that the EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 4. 

    (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course

    • Weight and Balance

    • Maintenance Orientation

    • General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course. This course provides an overview of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and responsibilities. It familiarizes trainees with the maintenance career field and helps them understand the different aspects of maintenance operations. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a sequential manner, allowing trainees to develop a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.

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  • 5. 

    (202) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commander

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). They are in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit, and conducting this interview ensures that the trainee and their supervisor are aligned on the goals and expectations of the CDC. This interview allows for open communication and clarification of any questions or concerns before the trainee begins their career development course.

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  • 6. 

    (206) Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

    • Silver

    • Copper

    • Iridium

    • Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Copper
    Explanation
    The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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  • 7. 

    (208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. The ELO ensures that these assets are properly accounted for and maintained. The Flight Service Center (FSC) is not specifically mentioned in relation to SPRAM assets, so it is not the correct answer. The Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) is responsible for managing equipment, but it is not specifically mentioned in relation to SPRAM assets. The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) is responsible for disposing of excess and surplus equipment, so it is also not the correct answer. Therefore, the correct answer is the Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

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  • 8. 

    (209) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • IA or JA

    • AR or BR

    • AA or AM

    • BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 9. 

    (212) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This section is responsible for ensuring that products meet the required standards and specifications. The Product Improvement Manager plays a crucial role in identifying areas for improvement in products and processes, conducting quality audits, and implementing corrective actions to enhance product quality and customer satisfaction.

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  • 10. 

    (212) Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?

    • Telephone

    • Signed letter

    • Organizational e-mail

    • Defense Message System

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations because it lacks proper documentation and may not provide a clear record of the communication. Signed letters, organizational emails, and the Defense Message System are all approved methods that provide written documentation and ensure accountability.

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  • 11. 

    (213) During "Red Ball" maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to

    • Verify time change parts

    • Check supply delivery priorities

    • Reduce the time needed to research parts

    • Provide contact information for key personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce the time needed to research parts
    Explanation
    During "Red Ball" maintenance, having a quick reference list (QRL) available helps expediters reduce the time needed to research parts. This means that they can quickly find the information they need without having to spend a lot of time searching for it. By having a QRL, expediters can easily access the necessary information about parts, such as their specifications, availability, and sources, allowing them to make faster decisions and take appropriate actions. This ultimately improves efficiency and productivity in the maintenance process.

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  • 12. 

    (217) After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?

    • Annually

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Biennially

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    CDDAR Team members must receive additional academic and hands-on training annually. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest techniques and procedures for recovering crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. Regular training helps them maintain their skills and knowledge, allowing them to effectively respond to emergency situations and carry out their duties efficiently.

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  • 13. 

    (201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • Specialty Training Standard

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and qualifications. It is used to track and document an individual's training progress and is an important tool for both the individual and their supervisors in managing their training and career development.

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  • 14. 

    (205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) of XB3. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is not repairable or recoverable, and must be replaced when it becomes unserviceable.

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  • 15. 

    (212) An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?

    • Urgent

    • Routine

    • Standard

    • Emergency

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as an Urgent technical order (TO) change priority because it involves addressing potential safety hazards or environmental concerns. Urgent TO change priorities are typically assigned to changes that require immediate action to prevent accidents, injuries, or damage to the environment. In this case, identifying a replacement for hazardous materials or ozone depleting substances is crucial to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent further harm to the ozone layer.

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  • 16. 

    (213) When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?

    • Compass rose

    • Hot cargo pad

    • Radiographic inspection

    • Radar operational testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass rose
    Explanation
    During the calibration of navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during a compass rose operation. A compass rose is a navigational aid that consists of a circular pattern marked with degrees or cardinal directions. It is used to calibrate and check the accuracy of a compass by comparing its readings with the known magnetic headings indicated on the compass rose. By attaching an external power unit and towing the aircraft, the compass can be tested under different conditions and ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 17. 

    (216) What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?

    • Take-off to landing

    • Taxi-out to taxi-in for final park

    • Engine start to engine shut off

    • Crew-show until aircraft released to maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine start to engine shut off
    Explanation
    The time-frame used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object is from engine start to engine shut off. This means that any item that falls off the aircraft during this period must be reported.

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  • 18. 

    (217) The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is

    • 14 hours

    • 16 hours

    • 18 hours

    • 20 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours
    Explanation
    A maintenance recovery team member may be worked for a maximum total initial duty time of 16 hours before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest. This means that they can work for up to 16 hours, including home station duty, travel time, and duty at the recovery site upon arrival, before they are required to take a break of 8 hours to rest.

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  • 19. 

    (203) Which element of a logistics complosite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • Support facilities

    • Support equipment

    • Operations requirements

    • Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This element takes into account the impact of weather conditions on the logistics operations, such as transportation, storage, and distribution. It helps in determining the necessary resources and strategies to effectively manage and adapt to different weather conditions, ensuring smooth and efficient logistics operations.

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  • 20. 

    (204) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. This role primarily involves tasks such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list. The collection and disposal of precious metal bearing assets would typically fall under the purview of a different role or department within the organization.

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  • 21. 

    (205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediments, minerals, or algae blooms. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator as it can also occur naturally. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct signs of pollution, indicating the presence of contaminants in the environment.

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  • 22. 

    (208) Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • Nearest military installation

    • Local law enforcement

    • Aircraft commander

    • Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the person in charge of the aircraft, the commander is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes classified equipment, which must be protected from unauthorized access or tampering. The aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to take appropriate measures to secure the equipment until further instructions or assistance can be obtained.

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  • 23. 

    (211) Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publications?

    • Manuals

    • Instructions

    • Policy Directives

    • Technical Orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Orders
    Explanation
    Technical Orders are a type of AF publication that provides detailed instructions for the installation, operation, and maintenance of equipment. These orders are typically issued by the technical experts and are specific to a particular piece of equipment or system. Units cannot make local modifications to Technical Orders as they are standardized instructions that need to be followed precisely to ensure safety and proper functioning of the equipment. On the other hand, Manuals, Instructions, and Policy Directives can be modified or adapted by units to meet their specific needs or circumstances.

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  • 24. 

    (213) Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?

    • MXG Commander

    • MXG Superintedent

    • MXG Vice Commander

    • MXS Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. MXG Commander
    Explanation
    The MXG Commander appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer.

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  • 25. 

    (215) Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 9

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for 6 months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors. This duration allows them to gain sufficient experience and knowledge about the unit's operations and processes. It ensures that they have a comprehensive understanding of the unit's quality standards and can effectively evaluate and inspect the unit's performance. A shorter assignment period may not provide enough exposure and familiarity with the unit's operations, while a longer period may delay the selection process and hinder the efficiency of QA inspections.

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  • 26. 

    (215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection

    • Personnel Evaluation

    • Management Inspection

    • Quality Verification Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to ensure that the task was completed correctly and meets the required standards. This inspection is done to verify the quality of the work performed and to identify any potential issues or errors that may have been overlooked. It helps in maintaining the overall quality and effectiveness of maintenance operations.

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  • 27. 

    (213) How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?

    • Safe

    • Shielded

    • Unshielded

    • Unacceptable

    Correct Answer
    A. Unshielded
    Explanation
    Radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory are classified as unshielded. This means that there is no protective shielding in place during the inspection process. This classification suggests that there may be potential safety risks associated with these inspections, as there is no barrier to protect individuals from radiation exposure. It is important to ensure proper safety measures are in place when conducting unshielded radiographic inspections to minimize the risk of harm.

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  • 28. 

    (213) Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Coucil on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)

    • US Army

    • US Air Force

    • Federal Aviation Administration

    • National Transportation Safety Board

    Correct Answer
    A. National Transportation Safety Board
    Explanation
    The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA). The JCAA is an organization that focuses on addressing issues related to aging aircraft in order to ensure safety and reliability. The US Army, US Air Force, and Federal Aviation Administration are all members of the JCAA, as they are directly involved in aviation and aircraft maintenance. However, the NTSB is an independent federal agency that investigates accidents and incidents in various modes of transportation, including aviation. While their work is related to aviation safety, they are not a member of the JCAA.

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  • 29. 

    (215) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?

    • Wing Inspector General

    • MAJCOM Inspector General

    • Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD)

    • Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to the QA OIC/SUPT and is accountable for overseeing the MSEP activities within the organization. They work closely with the QA OIC/SUPT to ensure that maintenance standards and evaluations are carried out effectively and in accordance with the required standards.

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  • 30. 

    (201) Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

    • 11

    • 12

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to become certified A&P mechanics. It ensures that the coursework is completed within a reasonable amount of time, allowing students to progress in their careers and enter the workforce as qualified professionals.

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  • 31. 

    (203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

    • Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    A. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UDM) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position because it is a document that provides an overview of the manpower requirements and positions within a unit, rather than specific information about individuals. The UDM is used to identify the number and types of positions needed within the unit, as well as the required grade and AF specialty code (AFSC) for each position. However, it does not include personal information about the individuals who are assigned to those positions.

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  • 32. 

    (202) An individual comes due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated.  Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    An individual who is due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated is allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that if the individual returns within 30 days after the original due date, they can still complete the recertification without being decertified.

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  • 33. 

    (203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning in order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that a certain percentage of personnel is allocated to handle tasks and requirements that are not directly related to maintenance, but are still necessary for the overall logistics operations. This allows for flexibility and the ability to address unforeseen needs and tasks that may arise.

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  • 34. 

    (204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance tasks. They also address any issues or challenges that may arise in the supply chain, working towards efficient and effective maintenance support.

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  • 35. 

    (205) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • Operations officer

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron commander

    • Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This is because the section supervisor is directly responsible for the safety and well-being of the personnel under their supervision. They are in the best position to assess the specific hazards present in their workcenter and develop a training plan to address them. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and provide guidance, but the section supervisor is the one directly responsible for developing the training plan.

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  • 36. 

    (206) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicate that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier for suppliers and manufacturers to track and manage the inventory of items that contain multiple precious metals.

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  • 37. 

    (208) Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?

    • Aircraft commander

    • Host installation commander

    • Operations Group commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the overall safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes ensuring that the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on the aircraft. As the person in charge of the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority to make decisions regarding security measures and can determine if the provided security is sufficient or if additional measures need to be taken.

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  • 38. 

    (209) When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?

    • Security classification

    • Date received

    • Status

    • Noun

    Correct Answer
    A. Security classification
    Explanation
    When items are placed in an aircraft's tail number bin (TNB), the security classification is not normally needed. The security classification refers to the level of sensitivity or confidentiality of the items, and it is not typically relevant or necessary information when storing items in the TNB. The other entries, such as date received, status, and noun, may be important for tracking and managing the items in the TNB.

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  • 39. 

    (211) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • Establishing technical order distribution account (TODO) sub-accounts as required

    • Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • Resolving TO availability problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODO) sub-accounts as required
    Explanation
    The duty of establishing technical order distribution account (TODO) sub-accounts as required is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty. The MXG/CC is responsible for establishing and managing the TODO accounts, while the TODO office is responsible for assisting units in establishing additional accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems.

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  • 40. 

    (214) Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?

    • Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • Flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) commander (CC)

    • Flight or aircraft maintenance unit (AMU) chief

    • Squadron commander (CC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT). This means that without a waiver, an individual must hold the position of Operations Officer or maintenance superintendent before they can clear a red X for a lost tool that has not been found.

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  • 41. 

    (217) Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group's (MXG's) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instructons?

    • Fabrication Flight

    • Accessories Flight

    • Maintenance Flight

    • Aerospace Ground Equipment Flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Flight
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Flight is responsible for the maintenance group's Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instructions. This means that the Maintenance Flight is in charge of overseeing and managing the CDDAR program, ensuring that all necessary instructions and procedures are in place for the recovery of crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. The other flights mentioned, such as the Fabrication Flight, Accessories Flight, and Aerospace Ground Equipment Flight, may have their own specific responsibilities within the maintenance group, but the Maintenance Flight is specifically responsible for the CDDAR program.

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  • 42. 

    (217) How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    The Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program must conduct a CDDAR exercise annually. This means that the exercise should be conducted once every year. This ensures that the team is regularly practicing and refining their skills in recovering crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft. Conducting the exercise annually also allows for any necessary updates or changes to be made to the program based on lessons learned from previous exercises.

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  • 43. 

    (202) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This suggests that the MTF regularly updates the MXG/CC on the current status of training activities within the maintenance group. This frequent communication ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training progress.

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  • 44. 

    (203) Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

    • Spare parts

    • Maintenance people

    • Training deployments

    • Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Training deployments
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. LCOM studies typically focus on factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment, which are all important components in logistics planning. However, training deployments, which involve the deployment of personnel for training purposes, are not typically included in LCOM studies.

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  • 45. 

    (206) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The PMIC code A indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals. This code is used to indicate that the item is made of non-precious materials and does not include any precious metals in its composition. This can be useful information for procurement and inventory management purposes, as it helps to identify items that do not require special handling or storage due to the absence of precious metals.

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  • 46. 

    (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Priority 3 is appropriate for supply delivery for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing. This means that the supplies needed for the primary mission should be delivered within a reasonable timeframe, but not with the highest urgency. This allows for efficient allocation of resources and ensures that critical supplies are prioritized appropriately.

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  • 47. 

    (215) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment?

    • Minor

    • Major

    • Category I

    • Category II

    Correct Answer
    A. Major
    Explanation
    A major assessment finding in the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) refers to a condition that poses a significant risk to personnel safety or equipment integrity. It indicates a severe issue that needs immediate attention and corrective action to prevent any potential harm or damage.

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  • 48. 

    (216) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notofy the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This ensures that any potential damage caused by foreign objects on the wing is reported promptly and can be addressed in a timely manner. Prompt notification allows for appropriate actions to be taken to prevent further damage and maintain the safety and efficiency of the aircraft.

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  • 49. 

    (216) What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit?

    • $10,000

    • $20,000

    • $30,000

    • $40,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $20,000
    Explanation
    In order for a foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit, the dollar amount of damage must exceed $20,000. This means that any FOD incident that results in damage below $20,000 will not be considered when calculating the FOD rate.

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  • Oct 27, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 04, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    F15 Ais Training
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