Mhafb CDC 2a071 Vol. 2 Maintenance Training, Supply, And Progra

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Mhafb CDC 2a071 Vol. 2 Maintenance Training, Supply, And Progra - Quiz


Volume 2 URE Questions for 7 level CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B.

      Air Training Command (ATC)

    • C.

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This command is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including both officer and enlisted training. TDs are specialized units within the Air Force that focus on providing specific training programs and courses. As such, they fall under the jurisdiction of the AETC, which oversees all training activities and ensures the readiness of the Air Force through effective training and education programs.

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  • 2. 

    (201) Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TDs) normally do not provide what type of training?

    • A.

      Cross utilization training

    • B.

      Continuation training

    • C.

      Ancillary training

    • D.

      Formal training

    Correct Answer
    C. Ancillary training
    Explanation
    AETC training detachments (TDs) do not provide ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to supplementary or additional training that is not directly related to the primary job or task. AETC TDs primarily focus on formal training, which is the structured and organized training required to develop specific skills and knowledge for a particular job or role. Continuation training is the ongoing training provided to maintain proficiency in a specific skill or task. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple roles or tasks to enhance flexibility and adaptability. Therefore, ancillary training is not provided by AETC TDs.

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  • 3. 

    (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • A.

      Any 7-level course

    • B.

      Weight and Balance

    • C.

      Maintenance Orientation

    • D.

      General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course. This course provides an overview of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and responsibilities. It familiarizes trainees with the maintenance career field and helps them understand the different aspects of maintenance operations. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and delivering them in a sequential manner, allowing trainees to develop a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.

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  • 4. 

    (201) Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within how many months?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      13

    • D.

      14

    Correct Answer
    C. 13
    Explanation
    Each airframe and powerplant (A&P) specialized course must be completed within 13 months. This time frame allows students to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to become certified A&P mechanics. It ensures that the coursework is completed within a reasonable amount of time, allowing students to progress in their careers and enter the workforce as qualified professionals.

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  • 5. 

    (201) Which of the following is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records?

    • A.

      Specialty Training Standard

    • B.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan

    • C.

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Record

    • D.

      AF IMT 623a, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 623, Individual Training Record
    Explanation
    The AF Form 623, Individual Training Record, is used as the cover folder for an individual's training records. This form serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's training and includes information such as completed courses, certifications, and qualifications. It is used to track and document an individual's training progress and is an important tool for both the individual and their supervisors in managing their training and career development.

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  • 6. 

    (201) All of the following can designate critical tasks that apply to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) in a particular work center except

    • A.

      MAJCOMs

    • B.

      Supervisors

    • C.

      Commanders

    • D.

      Unit training managers

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit training managers
    Explanation
    The correct answer is unit training managers. Unit training managers are responsible for managing the training programs within a specific work center, but they do not have the authority to designate critical tasks for a specific AFSC. This responsibility lies with MAJCOMs, supervisors, and commanders who have a broader perspective and authority to determine the critical tasks that apply to a specific AFSC in a particular work center.

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  • 7. 

    (201) Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?

    • A.

      Squadron operations officer

    • B.

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • C.

      Squadron commander (SQ/CC)

    • D.

      Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This means that the MXG/CC has the authority to grant permission for an individual to perform a task that is typically done by someone of a higher rank. The MXG/CC is responsible for overseeing the maintenance operations within the group and has the final say in approving waivers for special certifications.

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  • 8. 

    (201) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • A.

      Chief Master Sergeant

    • B.

      Senior Master Sergeant

    • C.

      Master Sergeant

    • D.

      Technical Sergeant

    Correct Answer
    C. Master Sergeant
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of Master Sergeant. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant and have been approved by the MXG/CC can have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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  • 9. 

    (202) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II. The training phase with the sub-phases mentioned is the Initial Qualification Training phase. This phase includes multiphase training, which covers basic skills and knowledge, followed by MAJCOM mandatory training, which focuses on specific requirements set by the Major Command. The freeflow sub-phase allows trainees to apply their skills in a more independent manner, while the maintenance qualification training sub-phase ensures that trainees are proficient in their specific maintenance tasks.

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  • 10. 

    (202) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • A.

      Maintenance qualification

    • B.

      Maintenance refresher

    • C.

      On-the-job

    • D.

      Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training focuses on enhancing and maintaining the knowledge and skills required for maintenance qualification. It helps individuals stay updated with the latest industry standards and practices, ensuring they are fully qualified and capable of performing their maintenance duties effectively.

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  • 11. 

    (202) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This suggests that the MTF regularly updates the MXG/CC on the current status of training activities within the maintenance group. This frequent communication ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training progress.

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  • 12. 

    (202) An individual comes due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated.  Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    An individual who is due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated is allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that if the individual returns within 30 days after the original due date, they can still complete the recertification without being decertified.

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  • 13. 

    (202) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Group commander

    • C.

      Unit training manager

    • D.

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). They are in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit, and conducting this interview ensures that the trainee and their supervisor are aligned on the goals and expectations of the CDC. This interview allows for open communication and clarification of any questions or concerns before the trainee begins their career development course.

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  • 14. 

    (202) Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan, your next step is to

    • A.

      Evaluate training

    • B.

      Select training strategies

    • C.

      Determine training needs

    • D.

      Determine training capabilities

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine training needs
    Explanation
    After completing the master task list for the master training plan, the next step is to determine training needs. This involves assessing the skills and knowledge gaps of the individuals or team that will be receiving the training. By identifying these needs, the training can be tailored to address specific areas for improvement and ensure that the training is effective in meeting the desired objectives. This step is crucial in designing a targeted and relevant training program.

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  • 15. 

    (203) In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks, the logistics composite model (LCOM) allows what percentage of overhead manning?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The logistics composite model (LCOM) allows for 10% of overhead manning in order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks. This means that a certain percentage of personnel is allocated to handle tasks and requirements that are not directly related to maintenance, but are still necessary for the overall logistics operations. This allows for flexibility and the ability to address unforeseen needs and tasks that may arise.

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  • 16. 

    (203) Which element of a logistics complosite model (LCOM) study considers weather modeling conditions?

    • A.

      Support facilities

    • B.

      Support equipment

    • C.

      Operations requirements

    • D.

      Maintenance requirements

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations requirements
    Explanation
    The element of a logistics composite model (LCOM) study that considers weather modeling conditions is operations requirements. This element takes into account the impact of weather conditions on the logistics operations, such as transportation, storage, and distribution. It helps in determining the necessary resources and strategies to effectively manage and adapt to different weather conditions, ensuring smooth and efficient logistics operations.

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  • 17. 

    (203) Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study?

    • A.

      Spare parts

    • B.

      Maintenance people

    • C.

      Training deployments

    • D.

      Aerospace ground equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Training deployments
    Explanation
    In a logistics composite model (LCOM) manpower study, the factor that is not modeled is training deployments. LCOM studies typically focus on factors such as spare parts, maintenance people, and aerospace ground equipment, which are all important components in logistics planning. However, training deployments, which involve the deployment of personnel for training purposes, are not typically included in LCOM studies.

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  • 18. 

    (203) Manpower authorizations are

    • A.

      Funded

    • B.

      Unfunded

    • C.

      Unvalidated

    • D.

      Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated or provided with financial resources. This implies that there is a budget or funding available to support these authorizations, allowing for the necessary personnel to be hired or assigned to the designated tasks or positions.

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  • 19. 

    (203) A unit manpower document (UDM) does not

    • A.

      Show the AF specialty code (AFSC) required for a particular position

    • B.

      Provide detailed information about each manpower requirement

    • C.

      Show the name of person assigned to a particular position

    • D.

      Show the required grade for a particular position

    Correct Answer
    C. Show the name of person assigned to a particular position
    Explanation
    A unit manpower document (UDM) does not show the name of the person assigned to a particular position because it is a document that provides an overview of the manpower requirements and positions within a unit, rather than specific information about individuals. The UDM is used to identify the number and types of positions needed within the unit, as well as the required grade and AF specialty code (AFSC) for each position. However, it does not include personal information about the individuals who are assigned to those positions.

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  • 20. 

    (203) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held monthly. This frequency allows for regular updates and discussions on any staffing concerns or needs within the group. Holding the meeting monthly ensures that any changes or adjustments can be addressed in a timely manner, allowing for efficient management of the MXG's manpower resources.

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  • 21. 

    (203) Which maintenance group (MXG) office acts as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals?

    • A.

      Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)

    • B.

      Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center (MOC)

    • D.

      Programs and Resources Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance data system analysis (MDSA)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Data System Analysis (MDSA) office acts as the Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR) for maintenance analysis referrals. This means that they are responsible for analyzing and evaluating maintenance data to identify trends, issues, and potential improvements. They are the main point of contact for any maintenance analysis-related inquiries or issues, and they play a crucial role in ensuring the efficiency and effectiveness of the maintenance operations.

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  • 22. 

    (204) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • A.

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B.

      Maintenance supply support

    • C.

      Maintenance operations center

    • D.

      Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance tasks. They also address any issues or challenges that may arise in the supply chain, working towards efficient and effective maintenance support.

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  • 23. 

    (204) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • A.

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • B.

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C.

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • D.

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The duty of collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. This role primarily involves tasks such as monitoring the status of back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list. The collection and disposal of precious metal bearing assets would typically fall under the purview of a different role or department within the organization.

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  • 24. 

    (204) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This ensures that the necessary supplies and resources are readily available for the mission and can be properly accounted for in the base's inventory system.

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  • 25. 

    (204) How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs)

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Biennially

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Operating commands are required to review permanent readiness spares packages (RSPs) on an annual basis. This means that the review of these packages needs to be conducted once every year. This ensures that the RSPs are up to date and ready for use whenever needed. Regular reviews help identify any deficiencies or changes that may have occurred in the RSPs, allowing for necessary updates or adjustments to be made. By conducting annual reviews, operating commands can maintain the effectiveness and reliability of their permanent readiness spares packages.

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  • 26. 

    (205) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?

    • A.

      XF3

    • B.

      XD2

    • C.

      XD1

    • D.

      XB3

    Correct Answer
    D. XB3
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed on a bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) of XB3. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is not repairable or recoverable, and must be replaced when it becomes unserviceable.

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  • 27. 

    (205) Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    C. 90
    Explanation
    Shop stock should not exceed 90 days of usage in order to maintain an efficient inventory management system. This ensures that the shop has enough stock to meet customer demand without excessive inventory holding costs or the risk of stock becoming obsolete or expired. Keeping the stock level within this limit allows the shop to minimize storage space requirements and optimize cash flow by avoiding tying up too much capital in excess inventory.

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  • 28. 

    (205) Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      II

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date, as long as they are still serviceable. This means that if the item is still in good condition and can continue to be used safely, it can be re-marked with a new expiration date. This allows for the extension of the shelf life of the item, ensuring that it can still be used effectively.

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  • 29. 

    (205) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • A.

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B.

      Stressed vegetation

    • C.

      Stains on ground

    • D.

      Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediments, minerals, or algae blooms. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator as it can also occur naturally. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be direct signs of pollution, indicating the presence of contaminants in the environment.

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  • 30. 

    (205) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • A.

      Operations officer

    • B.

      Section supervisor

    • C.

      Squadron commander

    • D.

      Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    B. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This is because the section supervisor is directly responsible for the safety and well-being of the personnel under their supervision. They are in the best position to assess the specific hazards present in their workcenter and develop a training plan to address them. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and provide guidance, but the section supervisor is the one directly responsible for developing the training plan.

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  • 31. 

    (205) In the Maintenance Group (MXG), who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance?

    • A.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Commander

    • B.

      MXG Vice Commander

    • C.

      MXG Superintendent

    • D.

      MXG Commander

    Correct Answer
    D. MXG Commander
    Explanation
    The MXG Commander is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts, and other items as required by technical guidance in the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role is responsible for overseeing all maintenance operations and ensuring that the necessary procedures and controls are in place to support the local manufacture of tools and parts as needed. The MXG Commander is the highest-ranking officer in the MXG and has the authority to make decisions and set policies for the group.

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  • 32. 

    (205) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

    • A.

      MXG Commander

    • B.

      MXG Superintendent

    • C.

      MXG Vice Commander

    • D.

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). They oversee the operations and maintenance activities of the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet the manufacturing needs of the local area. This includes coordinating with other units and departments within the MXG to ensure efficient and effective manufacturing processes. The MXS Operations Officer/MX SUPT plays a crucial role in ensuring that the MXG can meet local manufacture requirements.

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  • 33. 

    (206) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • A.

      Section supervisor

    • B.

      Squadron Commander

    • C.

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D.

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining the equipment within the squadron. They are accountable for ensuring that all equipment is properly accounted for and in working order. The Squadron Commander has the authority to appoint someone who is capable and responsible for this role.

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  • 34. 

    (206) An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • A.

      I

    • B.

      III

    • C.

      IIB

    • D.

      IIA

    Correct Answer
    C. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive IIB specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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  • 35. 

    (206) Which of the following is not covered in the Precious Metals Recovery Program?

    • A.

      Silver

    • B.

      Copper

    • C.

      Iridium

    • D.

      Rhodium

    Correct Answer
    B. Copper
    Explanation
    The Precious Metals Recovery Program covers the recovery of precious metals such as silver, iridium, and rhodium. However, copper is not included in this program.

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  • 36. 

    (206) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The PMIC code A indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metals. This code is used to indicate that the item is made of non-precious materials and does not include any precious metals in its composition. This can be useful information for procurement and inventory management purposes, as it helps to identify items that do not require special handling or storage due to the absence of precious metals.

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  • 37. 

    (206) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicate that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      G

    • D.

      P

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold and silver or platinum and palladium. By using this code, it becomes easier for suppliers and manufacturers to track and manage the inventory of items that contain multiple precious metals.

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  • 38. 

    (207) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    B. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document serves as a record of all documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and reference. The other options listed, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24), and Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23), do not specifically provide information on all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 39. 

    (207) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and list all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps track the supply of back-ordered parts and prioritize them based on their urgency of need.

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  • 40. 

    (207) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • A.

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B.

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C.

      M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D.

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    C. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
    Explanation
    The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report allows management to track and monitor the supply support for both issued items and items kept in stock. It provides information on the effectiveness of the organization's supply chain and helps identify any issues or areas that need improvement.

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  • 41. 

    (208) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • A.

      Flight Service Center (FSC)

    • B.

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)

    • C.

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO)

    • D.

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO)
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. The ELO ensures that these assets are properly accounted for and maintained. The Flight Service Center (FSC) is not specifically mentioned in relation to SPRAM assets, so it is not the correct answer. The Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO) is responsible for managing equipment, but it is not specifically mentioned in relation to SPRAM assets. The Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) is responsible for disposing of excess and surplus equipment, so it is also not the correct answer. Therefore, the correct answer is the Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

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  • 42. 

    (208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    D. A
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares is A.

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  • 43. 

    (208) What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isloation spares?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    The special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares is F. This flag code indicates that the spare part is specifically designated for fault isolation purposes and is authorized for use in maintenance activities.

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  • 44. 

    (208) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Flight commander/Chief

    • B.

      Maintenance Group commander

    • C.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • D.

      Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual has the expertise and knowledge to ensure that all necessary checks and calibrations are performed on the supply assets to maintain their functionality and readiness for operations. They have the responsibility to review the list and make any necessary recommendations or adjustments to ensure compliance with regulations and standards.

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  • 45. 

    (208) Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibrations, or operational flight programming?

    • A.

      Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    • B.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • C.

      Maintenance Group commander

    • D.

      Flight commander/Chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Group commander
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Group commander is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibrations, or operational flight programming. This is because the Maintenance Group commander is responsible for overseeing the overall maintenance operations and may not be directly involved in the specific tasks of functional check, calibrations, or operational flight programming. The other options listed, such as the Operations Officer/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT), Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector, and Flight commander/Chief, are more likely to be involved in the review chain for these specific tasks.

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  • 46. 

    (208) Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?

    • A.

      Aircraft commander

    • B.

      Host installation commander

    • C.

      Operations Group commander

    • D.

      Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the overall safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes ensuring that the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on the aircraft. As the person in charge of the aircraft, the aircraft commander has the authority to make decisions regarding security measures and can determine if the provided security is sufficient or if additional measures need to be taken.

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  • 47. 

    (208) Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?

    • A.

      Nearest military installation

    • B.

      Local law enforcement

    • C.

      Aircraft commander

    • D.

      Local fire chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft commander
    Explanation
    The aircraft commander is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing. As the person in charge of the aircraft, the commander is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the aircraft and its contents. This includes classified equipment, which must be protected from unauthorized access or tampering. The aircraft commander has the authority and responsibility to take appropriate measures to secure the equipment until further instructions or assistance can be obtained.

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  • 48. 

    (208) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • A.

      1 hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, they must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every 3 hours. This is necessary to ensure the safety and security of the aircraft and to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks help to identify and address any potential threats or issues in a timely manner, reducing the risk of incidents or accidents. By conducting security checks every 3 hours, the aircraft owner or user can maintain a high level of vigilance and ensure the protection of their aircraft.

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  • 49. 

    (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    Priority 3 is appropriate for supply delivery for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing. This means that the supplies needed for the primary mission should be delivered within a reasonable timeframe, but not with the highest urgency. This allows for efficient allocation of resources and ensures that critical supplies are prioritized appropriately.

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  • 50. 

    (209) What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 5
    Explanation
    The appropriate supply delivery priority for bench stock requirements is 5. This means that the supplies should be delivered within 24 hours. This is important for bench stock requirements as they are typically used for immediate needs and should be readily available. A delivery priority of 5 ensures that the supplies are replenished quickly and efficiently to meet the demands of the bench stock.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 27, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 04, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    F15 Ais Training
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