CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2

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1. What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?

Explanation

When you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach, the most suitable option to hold your tools would be a tool bag. A tool bag is specifically designed to store and carry various tools, making it convenient to transport them. It provides compartments and pockets to organize and protect the tools, ensuring easy access and preventing them from getting lost or damaged. Therefore, a tool bag would be the ideal choice in such a situation.

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About This Quiz
CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2 - Quiz

CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2 quiz assesses knowledge on Air Force maintenance operations. It covers functions of maintenance groups, roles of the Maintenance Operations Center, and specifics... see moreof the Air Force specialty code. Ideal for those preparing for roles in aircraft maintenance and seeking to improve their career development. see less

2. Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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3. Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series

Explanation

The correct answer is 91. AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91.

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4. If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

Explanation

When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of torquing the bolts in a consecutive order from left to right or right to left, you should alternate between bolts in a diagonal pattern. This helps to distribute the load evenly and prevent any uneven tightening or stress on the bolts. Using a staggered sequence ensures that all bolts are tightened uniformly and reduces the risk of damage or failure.

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5. Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

Explanation

Shelf-life refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will remain in good condition and perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time. This is particularly important for perishable items or items that may deteriorate over time. By monitoring and managing the shelf-life of products, organizations can ensure that they are providing high-quality goods to their customers and minimizing waste.

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6. Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

Explanation

Foreign object damage (FOD) refers to any damage caused to an aircraft or its components due to the presence of foreign objects. These objects can include debris, tools, or parts that are not supposed to be in the aircraft's operating environment. The answer "people" suggests that FOD is typically caused by human error, such as leaving tools or debris behind during maintenance or failing to properly secure loose objects. It implies that FOD incidents are often preventable if proper procedures and vigilance are followed by individuals working in and around aircraft.

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7. Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

Explanation

Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases can easily be inhaled and absorbed through the respiratory system. Gases have the ability to quickly enter the bloodstream and reach various organs, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps such as ingestion or skin contact to enter the body, which can delay the onset of toxic reactions.

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8. Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees understand the proper procedures for using protective equipment. Safety and environmental departments may also play a role in training, but ultimately it is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that employees are properly trained. The hospital may provide additional resources and support, but the supervisor is the primary source of training.

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9. What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

Explanation

Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is a gentle yet effective cleaning agent that can remove dirt, oil, and other contaminants from the surface of the respirator. Mild soap is also less likely to cause any damage to the respirator material compared to harsher cleaning agents like alcohol or pine oil. Regular cleaning and sanitizing of respirators with mild soap helps to maintain their effectiveness and prolong their lifespan.

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10. Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization's

Explanation

The reason why Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis is because of the differences in each organization's mission. Different organizations have different objectives and tasks to fulfill, and therefore require specific parts and equipment to support their respective missions. By prioritizing deliveries based on mission requirements, Base Supply ensures that each organization receives the necessary parts in a timely manner to carry out their specific tasks effectively.

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11. What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

Explanation

A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills, knowledge, and competencies that are necessary for career advancement and growth. It provides individuals with the opportunity to expand their understanding of their job and gain the necessary knowledge to excel in their career.

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12. How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?

Explanation

In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, one must have served for 48 months. This indicates that a minimum of 4 years of service is required before being eligible for ALS.

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13. Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?

Explanation

Applying lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle can cause a poor field of view with black spots in a borescope. This is because the pressure can damage or distort the fiber bundle, which is responsible for transmitting the image from the lens to the eyepiece or camera. When the fiber bundle is compromised, it can result in reduced clarity and visibility, leading to black spots in the field of view.

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14. Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

Explanation

A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for completing specific tasks related to maintenance actions. This type of manual is designed to assist technicians in performing their job efficiently and accurately by providing clear instructions and procedures for each task.

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15. On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

Explanation

The purpose of the platform safety lockpins on personnel maintenance platforms is to prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use. This safety measure ensures that the platform remains at a stable height, preventing any potential accidents or injuries that could occur if the platform were to unexpectedly lower while someone is using it.

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16. Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and

Explanation

Depot level support refers to the maintenance and repair services provided at a depot or central facility. This support includes both depot field teams (DFT) and contract field teams (CFT). While depot field teams are typically composed of military personnel who perform maintenance and repair tasks, contract field teams are external contractors hired to provide similar services. Therefore, the correct answer is contract field teams (CFT).

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17. The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

Explanation

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch. This means that the micrometer can accurately measure distances up to 1 inch between the spindle and anvil.

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18. When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the

Explanation

When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot. This is because the pilot is responsible for the safe operation of the helicopter and needs to have a clear view of the surrounding area to avoid any potential accidents or hazards. The pilot is in control of the helicopter and can make decisions based on the visibility of personnel on the ground. Therefore, it is important for all personnel to stay within the pilot's line of sight to ensure their safety.

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19. When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

Explanation

New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are knowledgeable and competent in handling the equipment. This training will help them understand the proper procedures, protocols, and safety measures associated with the equipment, reducing the risk of damage or misuse. By receiving training beforehand, custodians will be better prepared to fulfill their responsibilities and effectively manage the equipment they are accountable for.

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20. A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

Explanation

Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste, making it safer for disposal. By diluting the waste, it can be easier to handle and transport, and it may also be possible to treat or neutralize any harmful substances present in the waste before disposal. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always the most effective or environmentally friendly method of waste disposal, and other methods such as incineration, land disposal, or biodegradation may be more appropriate depending on the nature of the waste.

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21. From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

Explanation

The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This suggests that their main focus is on providing support and logistics for the various weapons systems used by the military or other organizations. They would be responsible for ensuring that the weapons are properly maintained, repaired, and supplied with the necessary equipment and resources. This perspective would prioritize the efficient and effective management of the weapons systems to ensure their readiness and operational capabilities.

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22. Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register keeps a record of all documents processed, allowing organizations to track and review the documents for any necessary follow-up or analysis. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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23. What functions form a maintenance group?

Explanation

The functions that form a maintenance group include maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance (QA). These functions are essential for ensuring the proper functioning and safety of aircraft. Maintenance operations involve coordinating and managing the maintenance activities, while maintenance itself involves the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance and inspection of the aircraft's various components and systems. Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities meet the required standards and regulations.

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24. When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?

Explanation

As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, you would most likely be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the Maintenance flight is responsible for the overall maintenance and repair of equipment, including engines. The Accessories flight typically handles accessories and components, the Fabrication flight deals with fabricating parts, and the Munitions flight is responsible for handling and maintaining ammunition.

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25. In which type of technical order (TO) would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

Explanation

In an Index type of technical order (TO), you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The Index TO serves as a reference guide that provides a comprehensive list of all the TOs available for a particular type of equipment. It helps users easily locate and access the specific TOs they need for maintenance, operation, or other purposes. The Index TO typically includes information such as the TO number, title, and brief description of each TO, allowing users to quickly identify and select the appropriate TO for their requirements.

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26. What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urgent action." This is because the question is referring to the specific visual markings on the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO). The alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs, along with the red diagonals bordering the first page, indicate that the TCTO falls under the category of "Urgent action."

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27. When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?

Explanation

Using a clean container when disassembling the oil filter is important to prevent false contaminant indications. If the container is not clean, it may introduce additional contaminants into the oil sample, leading to inaccurate analysis results. By using a clean container, the oil sample can be obtained without any interference from external contaminants, ensuring reliable and accurate analysis for detecting any actual contaminants present in the oil.

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28. What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?

Explanation

To check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container, a soap-water solution should be used. This solution is commonly used in leak testing as it helps to identify any leaks by creating visible bubbles when applied to the surface. By applying the soap-water solution to the container, any areas where pressure is escaping will be revealed by the formation of bubbles. This method is effective in detecting leaks and allows for timely repairs to be made, ensuring the container's integrity and preventing any potential damage during shipping.

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29. The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is

Explanation

The comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) requires accurate and timely data at the lowest level in order to function effectively. This means that the system relies on receiving precise and up-to-date information from the individual components and sensors within the engine. Without this data, the CEMS would not be able to accurately monitor and control the engine's performance. Therefore, the availability of accurate and timely data at the lowest level is crucial for the CEMS to work efficiently.

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30. If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?

Explanation

A thickness gauge is used to measure the clearance between two surfaces. It is specifically designed to measure the thickness or gap between two objects or surfaces. This type of gauge is commonly used in various industries such as manufacturing, construction, and engineering to ensure proper fit and clearance between components. It provides accurate and precise measurements, making it the most suitable option for this task.

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31. What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?

Explanation

Dry cleaning solvent is the correct answer for cleaning measuring tools. This is because dry cleaning solvent is specifically designed to remove grease, oil, and other contaminants from delicate surfaces without leaving any residue. Measuring tools often come into contact with various substances during use, and using a dry cleaning solvent ensures that they are thoroughly cleaned and ready for accurate measurements.

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32. During flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

Explanation

During flight-line and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents, while carbon dioxide is a byproduct of combustion. However, carbon monoxide is the most concerning substance due to its toxic nature. It is a colorless and odorless gas that can be produced by engines and machinery. Inhalation of carbon monoxide can lead to severe health effects and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to take precautions and ensure proper ventilation in these environments to minimize the risk of carbon monoxide exposure.

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33. Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

Explanation

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of both the public and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can result in the release of hazardous materials and potential harm to individuals and the surrounding ecosystem. Proper security measures, such as fencing, locks, and surveillance systems, are necessary to prevent unauthorized access and mitigate the risk of accidents or intentional misuse of hazardous waste.

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34. Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

Explanation

Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, compression, and impact. Heavy objects can cause severe injuries if they are dropped on the feet or if the feet are crushed under their weight. Safety-toed boots have reinforced toe caps that can withstand such impacts and prevent injuries. Goggles, back brace, and leather gloves are not specifically designed to protect the feet and may not provide adequate protection in such situations.

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35. Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as

Explanation

Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as castellated nuts. Castellated nuts have slots or holes on the top, allowing the cotter pin to be inserted through them. Once the cotter pin is inserted, it prevents the nut from loosening or rotating, providing additional safety and security. This is why cotter pins are commonly used with castellated nuts to ensure that they stay in place and do not come loose.

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36. You should wear eye protection when you work

Explanation

When working with tools that may cause flying particles, it is important to wear eye protection. This is because these particles can pose a risk to your eyes and can cause injuries or damage. Wearing eye protection can help to prevent any potential harm and ensure that your eyes are protected while working with such tools.

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37. What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

Explanation

The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. This means that it identifies the specific job within the career field. Each AFSC has a unique combination of numbers and letters that represents a specific job within the Air Force. In this case, the fifth position of 3A652 indicates the specific AFSC for a particular job within the career field.

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38. When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you're inspecting?

Explanation

The distal tip light guides of a borescope are responsible for illuminating the interior of the area being inspected. These light guides transmit light from the control unit to the distal tip of the borescope, allowing for better visibility and inspection of the area. The control unit and bending section lever are not directly involved in illuminating the interior, while the light guide tube serves as a pathway for the light to travel through.

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39. Do not use self-locking nuts on

Explanation

Self-locking nuts should not be used on engine joints because they can cause excessive stress and damage to the joint. Engine joints require a certain level of flexibility and movement to accommodate the vibrations and thermal expansion that occur during engine operation. Self-locking nuts, which are designed to prevent loosening, can restrict this movement and lead to premature failure of the joint. Therefore, it is important to use alternative fastening methods that allow for the necessary flexibility and movement in engine joints.

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40. Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250F?

Explanation

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250F because they are not designed to withstand high temperatures. The nonmetallic material used in these nuts can melt or degrade at high temperatures, compromising their ability to securely fasten and lock in place. This can lead to loosening or failure of the nuts, posing a safety risk in high-temperature environments. Therefore, it is important to use alternative nuts, such as metallic self-locking nuts, that are specifically designed to withstand higher temperatures.

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41. What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

Explanation

The two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of the system. This classification helps in identifying and prioritizing maintenance activities based on the likelihood and consequences of potential failures, as well as addressing the functional failures that have already occurred.

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42. In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

Explanation

The correct answer is "On condition." In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, on condition maintenance tasks involve scheduled inspections to detect potential failure conditions. This means that the maintenance is performed only when there are signs or indications that a failure is likely to occur. This approach allows for more efficient and cost-effective maintenance by focusing resources on equipment that actually needs attention, rather than performing maintenance tasks based on a fixed schedule.

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43. Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?

Explanation

Engines that have been inactive for over 180 days need to have a preservation run and fuel system preservation accomplished. This means that the engine should be run for a specific period of time to prevent any damage or deterioration, and the fuel system should be properly preserved to ensure its functionality when the engine is needed again. This process helps to maintain the engine's performance and prevent any potential issues that may arise from long periods of inactivity.

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44. The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by

Explanation

The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to detect any degradation in the performance of turbine engines at an early stage, as well as identify any potential failures. This allows for timely intervention and preventive measures to be taken, preventing or limiting damage to the engines. Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports, tracking serially controlled components and modules, and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions may be part of the program, but the main objective is early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

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45. When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start

Explanation

When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it typically starts on the surface of the metal. This is because the surface of the metal is exposed to the external environment, which may contain corrosive agents such as moisture, oxygen, or acids. These corrosive agents react with the metal surface, leading to the formation of corrosion products. Over time, the corrosion may penetrate deeper into the metal, but it usually initiates on the surface.

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46. Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by

Explanation

Depot maintenance plays a crucial role in supporting base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs that are beyond their capability. This means that when base-level technicians encounter complex or specialized issues that they are unable to handle, depot maintenance steps in to offer their expertise and perform the necessary repairs. This ensures that the technicians are supported and that the equipment or systems are properly maintained and repaired.

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47. How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

Explanation

The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

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48. Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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49. What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

Explanation

Once you obtain the 7-skill level, your title will be Craftsman. This suggests that reaching the 7-skill level indicates a high level of expertise and proficiency in a particular craft or skill. The title Craftsman implies that you have mastered your craft and are capable of producing high-quality work.

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50. What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?

Explanation

The correct answer is direct and lateral. This means that the rigid borescope allows for both direct viewing and lateral viewing. Direct viewing refers to looking straight ahead, while lateral viewing allows for viewing at an angle. Having both options available with the rigid borescope provides flexibility and the ability to inspect different areas and angles effectively.

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51. What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?

Explanation

A fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch is given a numerical value of 6.

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52. Who originates technical orders?

Explanation

The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. They have the expertise and knowledge about the equipment they produce, and therefore, they are the ones who create the instructions and guidelines for its maintenance and operation. The manufacturer's technical orders provide detailed information on how to properly use and maintain the equipment, ensuring its optimal performance and longevity.

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53. Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?

Explanation

Before removing a shipping container lid, it is important to release all pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person removing the lid and to prevent any potential hazards or accidents. Failure to release the pressure before removing the lid can result in the lid forcefully popping off, causing injury or damage. Therefore, it is crucial to follow this warning and release all pressure before removing the lid.

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54. What feature is common to all dial indicators?

Explanation

All dial indicators have the ability to amplify movement greatly. This means that even a small movement or change can be easily detected and measured using a dial indicator. This feature is important in various applications where precision and accuracy are required, such as in engineering, manufacturing, and quality control. By amplifying the movement, dial indicators allow for precise measurements and adjustments to be made, ensuring that the desired specifications are met.

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55. If the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, what will the digital display show?

Explanation

When the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, the digital display will show "OL". This stands for "Overload" and indicates that the input signal is beyond the maximum limit that the meter can measure accurately. It is a warning to the user that the measurement is not within the meter's capabilities.

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56. Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by

Explanation

The correct answer is the fiber optics. Fiber optics is a technology that uses thin strands of glass or plastic to transmit light signals. In a borescope, these fiber optics are used to transmit light from a source to the tip of the scope, allowing for illumination of the area being viewed. This enables the user to see inside small, narrow spaces that would otherwise be difficult to access.

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57. In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to

Explanation

Deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to higher headquarters in the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents. This is because higher headquarters have the authority and responsibility to assess and address the trend on a broader scale. They can analyze the data from multiple sources, coordinate with different units or departments, and implement corrective actions or preventive measures to mitigate the risk of accidents. Job control, wing commander, and logistics commander may have specific roles and responsibilities within their respective areas, but higher headquarters have the overall oversight and coordination in such cases.

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58. Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the operations and maintenance activities of the fleet, ensuring that all aircraft are properly maintained and ready for flight. They coordinate with various departments and personnel to ensure smooth operations and minimize any disruptions or delays.

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59. What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?

Explanation

The introduction section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the various codes and symbols used throughout the IPB, helping users understand and interpret the information presented in the document. It serves as a key reference point for understanding the IPB and its contents.

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60. You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by

Explanation

The correct answer is the color-code bands placed around the tubing or hoses. This is because color-code bands are commonly used in aviation to identify different systems or components. These bands are usually placed on the tubing or hoses to indicate the specific type of fluid or gas being transferred, allowing for easy identification and maintenance.

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61. When can you consider a depreserved engine ready for service?

Explanation

After depreservation, a ground check run of the engine must be performed before considering it ready for service. This is because the ground check run allows for a comprehensive assessment of the engine's performance and functionality. It ensures that all systems are operating correctly and any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed before the engine is put into service. Motoring the engine, changing filters, and inspecting for signs of corrosion are important steps in the depreservation process, but they are not sufficient on their own to determine if the engine is ready for service.

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62. Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?

Explanation

Propulsion and nondestructive inspection technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program. These technicians are responsible for monitoring and inspecting the propulsion systems of the engines, as well as conducting nondestructive inspections to identify any potential issues or faults. By providing the maintenance activity data, they contribute to the ET&D program's efforts in analyzing and diagnosing engine performance and identifying any necessary maintenance or repairs.

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63. When a centralized repair facility (CRF) ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?

Explanation

CRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a centralized repair facility (CRF) ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit. This includes ensuring that all necessary paperwork, such as shipping documents and maintenance records, are properly filled out and included with the shipment. The CRF personnel play a crucial role in ensuring that the replacement asset is properly documented and can be easily tracked and accounted for by the deployed unit.

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64. You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following Air Force technical order (AFTO) Forms

Explanation

The correct answer is 95 because it is the only option that is related to recording the removal and replacement of engine accessories. The other options (25, 44, and 349) do not specifically mention engine accessories or recording procedures. Therefore, 95 is the most appropriate choice for this task.

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65. Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

Explanation

The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as one of the objectives of the program.

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66. The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in  

Explanation

The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in ten-thousandths of an inch. The vernier scale is a secondary scale that is used in conjunction with the main scale on the micrometer. It allows for more precise measurements to be taken by providing additional graduations. In this case, the vernier scale on the micrometer is divided into ten equal parts, each representing one-thousandth of an inch. Therefore, by reading the alignment of the vernier scale with the main scale, measurements can be determined to the nearest ten-thousandth of an inch.

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67. If you are temporary duty (TDY) and both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

Explanation

If both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available while on temporary duty (TDY), the form that would be used to order an engine part is AF IMT 2005.

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68. When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

Explanation

When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its assigned shelf-life period. It cannot be extended or used after the expiration date. Therefore, the correct answer is "has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life."

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69. To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

Explanation

To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. This implies that the commander has the authority to select and assign individuals to the role of equipment custodian. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have other responsibilities and roles within the organization, but it is the commander who has the ultimate decision-making power in this matter.

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70. Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

Explanation

Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for tracking and managing the waste, as it helps determine the length of time the waste has been stored and when it should be properly disposed of. It also helps ensure compliance with regulations regarding the maximum storage time for hazardous waste.

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71. What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?

Explanation

Tapered pins are used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential. The taper shape of the pin allows for a tight fit, preventing any movement or clearance between the joint components. This tight fit ensures that the joint can effectively transmit shear loads without any slippage or movement, making it suitable for applications where stability and load-bearing capacity are crucial.

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72. Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?

Explanation

The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor must review the form and determine if it meets the necessary requirements before it is submitted.

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73. What color is a serviceable humidity indicator on a shipping container?

Explanation

A serviceable humidity indicator on a shipping container is usually colored blue. This color is commonly used to indicate the humidity level inside the container. Blue humidity indicators are designed to change color when exposed to moisture, helping to monitor and control the humidity levels during shipping and storage.

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74. To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with

Explanation

To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, it is necessary to flush the system with fuel. This is because fuel is the appropriate substance to clean and prime the fuel system, ensuring that it is ready for use. Oil, PD-680 (a type of cleaning solvent), and calibration fluid are not suitable for this purpose.

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75. Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?

Explanation

The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) is a document that lists the equipment authorization inventory data. This means that it includes information about the authorized equipment that a custodian is responsible for. The CA/CRL helps to keep track of the equipment and ensure that it is properly accounted for. It is important to reflect this information on the CA/CRL to maintain accurate records and ensure accountability for the equipment.

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76. Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system?

Explanation

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77. To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the

Explanation

To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, one should look at the top half on the right panel of the container.

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78. How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?

Explanation

Participating units should accelerate engines, modules, and accessories 2 years ahead.

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79. Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?

Explanation

The correct answer is 33K6 series. The 33K6 series technical order covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches.

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80. What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?

Explanation

The maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is 32.

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81. If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)

Explanation

The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question is asking for the reference manual that provides detailed information about codes and entries on the Air Force IMT Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request. The manual that contains this information is AFMAN 23-110.

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82. When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then

Explanation

When receiving an engine in your shop, it is important to check the compressor inlet. This step is crucial to ensure that there are no obstructions or damages to the compressor inlet, which could affect the engine's performance. By checking the compressor inlet, you can identify any potential issues and address them before proceeding with further inspections or repairs.

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83. What is used to seal male flared-type fuel drain fittings on an engine being prepared for air shipment?

Explanation

Caps are used to seal male flared-type fuel drain fittings on an engine being prepared for air shipment. This is because caps provide a secure and tight seal, preventing any fuel leakage during transportation. Plugs may not be suitable for this purpose as they may not fit properly or provide a secure seal. Plastic wrap and barrier paper are not typically used for sealing fuel drain fittings as they may not provide sufficient protection against fuel leakage.

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84. Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?

Explanation

Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for war fighters. This means that they offer repair and maintenance services for the equipment and machinery used by military personnel in combat situations. CRFs ensure that war fighters have access to fully functioning and reliable equipment, enabling them to carry out their missions effectively and safely.

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85. What drives the creation of a centralized rotable pool (CRP)?

Explanation

A centralized rotable pool (CRP) is created to address customer wait time and transportation constraints. By having a centralized pool of rotable parts, customers can receive the necessary parts more quickly, reducing their wait time. Additionally, transportation constraints can be managed more efficiently by having a centralized location for storing and distributing the parts. The other options, such as the number of available spare engines, equipment cost and repair time, and the number of assigned maintenance personnel, do not directly drive the creation of a CRP.

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86. Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

Explanation

The correct answer is 1574. This is because the question is asking for the form that is attached to serviceable items when they are received from supply and ready to use. Therefore, the correct answer is the option that mentions a specific form, which is DD Form 1574.

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87. What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?

Explanation

The Repair Cycle Support System is a system that aims to establish a firm control over repair cycle assets. It ensures that these assets are either repaired at the base level or sent to a repair facility as quickly as possible. This system helps to streamline the repair process and ensure efficient management of repair cycle assets.

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88. Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

Explanation

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

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89. When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?

Explanation

When lock wiring, the proper stiffness can be achieved by twisting the wire 8 to 10 times per inch. This is the recommended range for producing the desired level of stiffness in the lock wiring process.

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90. To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the

Explanation

To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the filler valve on the front end of the container. This is because the filler valve is the component responsible for controlling the flow of air in and out of the container. By removing the filler valve on the front end, the air pressure inside the container can be equalized with the external pressure, allowing for safe and efficient release of air.

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91. Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?

Explanation

Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the correct answer because it is a program that integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. This program helps in analyzing the performance and condition of the engine, identifying any potential issues or maintenance needs, and making informed decisions regarding engine management and maintenance. It allows for proactive monitoring and management of engine health, ensuring optimal performance and longevity.

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92. A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to

Explanation

The primary objective of the engine reporting system is to maintain accurate and timely engine inventories. This means that the system is designed to keep track of the number of engines available, their condition, and their location. By maintaining accurate and timely inventories, the system can ensure that the right engines are available when needed and that any discrepancies or issues with the engines are promptly addressed. The other options, such as scheduling engine replacement times or tracking parts replacement, may be important aspects of engine management but are not the primary objective of the reporting system.

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93. The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the

Explanation

The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the category and the aircraft mission type in the TO. This means that the first section of the TO number provides information about the specific category or type of aircraft mission that the TO pertains to. This helps users quickly identify the relevance of the TO to their specific needs or requirements. It allows for efficient organization and retrieval of TOs based on the category and mission type.

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94. What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

Explanation

Immediate action is the correct answer because it is the TCTO category that is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. Immediate action indicates that the situation requires immediate attention and corrective action to prevent any potential harm or danger.

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95. How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. This means that there are 4 pins securing the adapters to the shipping container support.

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96. What type of bolt should be used where shearing stress occurs?

Explanation

A clevis bolt should be used where shearing stress occurs. A clevis bolt is designed with a loop on one end and a threaded bolt on the other end. The loop allows for the attachment of a pin or other fastening device, providing a secure connection. Clevis bolts are commonly used in applications where there is a need to transmit forces in a shear direction, such as in suspension systems or linkages. The design of the clevis bolt allows it to withstand the shearing stress and provide a reliable and durable connection.

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97. Which part of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, may the AFTO Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Continuation Sheet), be used for?

Explanation

The AFTO Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record (Continuation Sheet), may be used for recording additional information that cannot fit on the AFTO Form 244. This allows for the continuation of the record and ensures that all necessary information is documented.

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98. How many range settings can be used when measuring voltage with the Fluke 8025A?

Explanation

The Fluke 8025A has four range settings that can be used when measuring voltage.

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99. Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag?

Explanation

TO 00-20-2 is the correct answer because it is the Technical Order that provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag. AFMAN 23-110 provides guidance on the management of records, while AFI 91-301 provides guidance on safety programs. TO 00-5-1 provides guidance on maintenance documentation, but it does not specifically address the AFTO Form 350 tag.

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100. What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?

Explanation

The purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs is to determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field. These programs are designed to identify any issues or problems with the engine and its components while it is in operation. By determining distress modes, the programs can help prevent any further damage or failures, allowing for timely maintenance and repairs to be conducted. This helps ensure the overall reliability and performance of the engine and reduces the risk of unscheduled removal or downtime.

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What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
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Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
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Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air...
To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is...
How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines,...
Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque...
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If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the...
When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the...
What is used to seal male flared-type fuel drain fittings on an engine...
Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
What drives the creation of a centralized rotable pool (CRP)?
Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each...
What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair...
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires...
When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the...
To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module,...
Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and...
A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the
What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to...
How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
What type of bolt should be used where shearing stress occurs?
Which part of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244,...
How many range settings can be used when measuring voltage with the...
Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to...
What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
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