CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s reach?

    • Foreign object damage (FOD) bag.
    • Ziploc bag.
    • Parts bag.
    • Tool bag.
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About This Quiz

CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2 quiz assesses knowledge on Air Force maintenance operations. It covers functions of maintenance groups, roles of the Maintenance Operations Center, and specifics of the Air Force specialty code. Ideal for those preparing for roles in aircraft maintenance and seeking to improve their career development.

CDC Volume 1 Edit Code 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series

    • 91

    • 66

    • 127

    • 161

    Correct Answer
    A. 91
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 91. AFOSH standards are located within Air Force publication series 91.

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  • 3. 

    Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

    • 1574.

    • 1575.

    • 1577–2.

    • 1577–3.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1575.
  • 4. 

    If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

    • Use maximum torque.

    • Torque from left to right.

    • Use a staggered sequence.

    • Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a staggered sequence.
    Explanation
    When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of torquing the bolts in a consecutive order from left to right or right to left, you should alternate between bolts in a diagonal pattern. This helps to distribute the load evenly and prevent any uneven tightening or stress on the bolts. Using a staggered sequence ensures that all bolts are tightened uniformly and reduces the risk of damage or failure.

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  • 5. 

    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • On-the-job training.

    • Task qualification training.

    • Career development course.

    • Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development course.
    Explanation
    A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills, knowledge, and competencies that are necessary for career advancement and growth. It provides individuals with the opportunity to expand their understanding of their job and gain the necessary knowledge to excel in their career.

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  • 6. 

    How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 48
    Explanation
    In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS) in the Air Force, one must have served for 48 months. This indicates that a minimum of 4 years of service is required before being eligible for ALS.

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  • 7. 

    Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

    • People.

    • Animals.

    • Weather.

    • Mechanical failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. People.
    Explanation
    Foreign object damage (FOD) refers to any damage caused to an aircraft or its components due to the presence of foreign objects. These objects can include debris, tools, or parts that are not supposed to be in the aircraft's operating environment. The answer "people" suggests that FOD is typically caused by human error, such as leaving tools or debris behind during maintenance or failing to properly secure loose objects. It implies that FOD incidents are often preventable if proper procedures and vigilance are followed by individuals working in and around aircraft.

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  • 8. 

    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • Aerosols.

    • Liquids.

    • Solids.

    • Gases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gases.
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases can easily be inhaled and absorbed through the respiratory system. Gases have the ability to quickly enter the bloodstream and reach various organs, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps such as ingestion or skin contact to enter the body, which can delay the onset of toxic reactions.

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  • 9. 

    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • Safety.

    • Hospital.

    • Supervisor.

    • Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees understand the proper procedures for using protective equipment. Safety and environmental departments may also play a role in training, but ultimately it is the supervisor's responsibility to ensure that employees are properly trained. The hospital may provide additional resources and support, but the supervisor is the primary source of training.

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  • 10. 

    What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

    • Alcohol.

    • Pine oil.

    • Mild soap.

    • Fleur-de-lis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mild soap.
    Explanation
    Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is a gentle yet effective cleaning agent that can remove dirt, oil, and other contaminants from the surface of the respirator. Mild soap is also less likely to cause any damage to the respirator material compared to harsher cleaning agents like alcohol or pine oil. Regular cleaning and sanitizing of respirators with mild soap helps to maintain their effectiveness and prolong their lifespan.

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  • 11. 

    Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization’s

    • Type of aircraft.

    • Contract.

    • Mission.

    • Location.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission.
    Explanation
    The reason why Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis is because of the differences in each organization's mission. Different organizations have different objectives and tasks to fulfill, and therefore require specific parts and equipment to support their respective missions. By prioritizing deliveries based on mission requirements, Base Supply ensures that each organization receives the necessary parts in a timely manner to carry out their specific tasks effectively.

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  • 12. 

    Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?

    • Supply.

    • Shelf-life.

    • Inspection.

    • Bench stock.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shelf-life.
    Explanation
    Shelf-life refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will remain in good condition and perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time. This is particularly important for perishable items or items that may deteriorate over time. By monitoring and managing the shelf-life of products, organizations can ensure that they are providing high-quality goods to their customers and minimizing waste.

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  • 13. 

    Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • General Equipment.

    • General System.

    • Fault Isolation.

    • Job Guide.

    Correct Answer
    A. Job Guide.
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for completing specific tasks related to maintenance actions. This type of manual is designed to assist technicians in performing their job efficiently and accurately by providing clear instructions and procedures for each task.

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  • 14. 

    Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and

    • Contract field teams (CFT).

    • Base jet engine run crews.

    • Oil analysis teams.

    • Slide engineers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract field teams (CFT).
    Explanation
    Depot level support refers to the maintenance and repair services provided at a depot or central facility. This support includes both depot field teams (DFT) and contract field teams (CFT). While depot field teams are typically composed of military personnel who perform maintenance and repair tasks, contract field teams are external contractors hired to provide similar services. Therefore, the correct answer is contract field teams (CFT).

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  • 15. 

    The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

    • 1 inch.

    • 2 inches.

    • 3 inches.

    • 4 inches.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 inch.
    Explanation
    The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch. This means that the micrometer can accurately measure distances up to 1 inch between the spindle and anvil.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?

    • Setting the light source selector switch on high.

    • Operation of the bending section with the brake on.

    • Inserting tools in the working channel with the brake on.

    • Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.
    Explanation
    Applying lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle can cause a poor field of view with black spots in a borescope. This is because the pressure can damage or distort the fiber bundle, which is responsible for transmitting the image from the lens to the eyepiece or camera. When the fiber bundle is compromised, it can result in reduced clarity and visibility, leading to black spots in the field of view.

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  • 17. 

    On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

    • Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

    • Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

    • Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

    • Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the platform safety lockpins on personnel maintenance platforms is to prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use. This safety measure ensures that the platform remains at a stable height, preventing any potential accidents or injuries that could occur if the platform were to unexpectedly lower while someone is using it.

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  • 18. 

    What functions form a maintenance group?

    • Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying

    • Maintenance, operations, quality assurance

    • Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance

    • Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA
    Explanation
    The functions that form a maintenance group include maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance (QA). These functions are essential for ensuring the proper functioning and safety of aircraft. Maintenance operations involve coordinating and managing the maintenance activities, while maintenance itself involves the actual repair and upkeep of the aircraft. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance and inspection of the aircraft's various components and systems. Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities meet the required standards and regulations.

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  • 19. 

    When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?

    • Maintenance.

    • Accessories.

    • Fabrication.

    • Munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance.
    Explanation
    As an engine troop assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron, you would most likely be attached to the Maintenance flight. This is because the Maintenance flight is responsible for the overall maintenance and repair of equipment, including engines. The Accessories flight typically handles accessories and components, the Fabrication flight deals with fabricating parts, and the Munitions flight is responsible for handling and maintaining ammunition.

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  • 20. 

    When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the

    • Ground man.

    • Crew chief.

    • Scanner.

    • Pilot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot.
    Explanation
    When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the pilot. This is because the pilot is responsible for the safe operation of the helicopter and needs to have a clear view of the surrounding area to avoid any potential accidents or hazards. The pilot is in control of the helicopter and can make decisions based on the visibility of personnel on the ground. Therefore, it is important for all personnel to stay within the pilot's line of sight to ensure their safety.

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  • 21. 

    A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • Dilution.

    • Incineration.

    • Land disposal.

    • Biodegradation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution.
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste, making it safer for disposal. By diluting the waste, it can be easier to handle and transport, and it may also be possible to treat or neutralize any harmful substances present in the waste before disposal. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always the most effective or environmentally friendly method of waste disposal, and other methods such as incineration, land disposal, or biodegradation may be more appropriate depending on the nature of the waste.

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  • 22. 

    From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

    • Base system.

    • Weapons system.

    • Inventory system.

    • Geographical system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons system.
    Explanation
    The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This suggests that their main focus is on providing support and logistics for the various weapons systems used by the military or other organizations. They would be responsible for ensuring that the weapons are properly maintained, repaired, and supplied with the necessary equipment and resources. This perspective would prioritize the efficient and effective management of the weapons systems to ensure their readiness and operational capabilities.

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  • 23. 

    Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

    • Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • Daily Document Register (D04).

    • Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily Document Register (D04).
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register keeps a record of all documents processed, allowing organizations to track and review the documents for any necessary follow-up or analysis. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 24. 

    When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

    • Before signing for the account

    • Within 10 days of signing for the account

    • Within 15 days of signing for the account.

    • Within 30 days of signing for the account.

    Correct Answer
    A. Before signing for the account
    Explanation
    New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are knowledgeable and competent in handling the equipment. This training will help them understand the proper procedures, protocols, and safety measures associated with the equipment, reducing the risk of damage or misuse. By receiving training beforehand, custodians will be better prepared to fulfill their responsibilities and effectively manage the equipment they are accountable for.

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  • 25. 

    In which type of technical order (TO) would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • Index.

    • Preliminary.

    • Methods and Procedure.

    • Operational and Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Index.
    Explanation
    In an Index type of technical order (TO), you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The Index TO serves as a reference guide that provides a comprehensive list of all the TOs available for a particular type of equipment. It helps users easily locate and access the specific TOs they need for maintenance, operation, or other purposes. The Index TO typically includes information such as the TO number, title, and brief description of each TO, allowing users to quickly identify and select the appropriate TO for their requirements.

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  • 26. 

    What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?

    • Safety.

    • Urgent action.

    • Routine action.

    • Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent action.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urgent action." This is because the question is referring to the specific visual markings on the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO). The alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs, along with the red diagonals bordering the first page, indicate that the TCTO falls under the category of "Urgent action."

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  • 27. 

    The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is

    • Availability of engines and their parts

    • Availability of storage and analysis computers.

    • Accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

    • Accurate and timely data at the highest level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accurate and timely data at the lowest level.
    Explanation
    The comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) requires accurate and timely data at the lowest level in order to function effectively. This means that the system relies on receiving precise and up-to-date information from the individual components and sensors within the engine. Without this data, the CEMS would not be able to accurately monitor and control the engine's performance. Therefore, the availability of accurate and timely data at the lowest level is crucial for the CEMS to work efficiently.

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  • 28. 

    If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?

    • Steel-rule.

    • Micrometer.

    • Dial-indicator.

    • Thickness gauge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thickness gauge.
    Explanation
    A thickness gauge is used to measure the clearance between two surfaces. It is specifically designed to measure the thickness or gap between two objects or surfaces. This type of gauge is commonly used in various industries such as manufacturing, construction, and engineering to ensure proper fit and clearance between components. It provides accurate and precise measurements, making it the most suitable option for this task.

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  • 29. 

    What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?

    • Water displacement no. 40 (WD–40®).

    • Dry cleaning solvent.

    • Turbo-super-carb.

    • Trychlorethlene.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry cleaning solvent.
    Explanation
    Dry cleaning solvent is the correct answer for cleaning measuring tools. This is because dry cleaning solvent is specifically designed to remove grease, oil, and other contaminants from delicate surfaces without leaving any residue. Measuring tools often come into contact with various substances during use, and using a dry cleaning solvent ensures that they are thoroughly cleaned and ready for accurate measurements.

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  • 30. 

    When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?

    • Because the oil can be reused.

    • To prevent false contaminant indications.

    • So a reliable Oil Analysis Program sample can be obtained.

    • The oil is recycled and must be kept clean.

    Correct Answer
    A. To prevent false contaminant indications.
    Explanation
    Using a clean container when disassembling the oil filter is important to prevent false contaminant indications. If the container is not clean, it may introduce additional contaminants into the oil sample, leading to inaccurate analysis results. By using a clean container, the oil sample can be obtained without any interference from external contaminants, ensuring reliable and accurate analysis for detecting any actual contaminants present in the oil.

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  • 31. 

    What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?

    • Engine oil.

    • Dry nitrogen.

    • A leak detector

    • A soap-water solution.

    Correct Answer
    A. A soap-water solution.
    Explanation
    To check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container, a soap-water solution should be used. This solution is commonly used in leak testing as it helps to identify any leaks by creating visible bubbles when applied to the surface. By applying the soap-water solution to the container, any areas where pressure is escaping will be revealed by the formation of bubbles. This method is effective in detecting leaks and allows for timely repairs to be made, ensuring the container's integrity and preventing any potential damage during shipping.

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  • 32. 

    Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

    • Goggles.

    • Back brace.

    • Leather gloves.

    • Safety-toed boots.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety-toed boots.
    Explanation
    Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, compression, and impact. Heavy objects can cause severe injuries if they are dropped on the feet or if the feet are crushed under their weight. Safety-toed boots have reinforced toe caps that can withstand such impacts and prevent injuries. Goggles, back brace, and leather gloves are not specifically designed to protect the feet and may not provide adequate protection in such situations.

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  • 33. 

    During flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

    • Acetone.

    • Toluene.

    • Carbon dioxide.

    • Carbon monoxide.

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon monoxide.
    Explanation
    During flight-line and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals is possible. Acetone and toluene are commonly used solvents, while carbon dioxide is a byproduct of combustion. However, carbon monoxide is the most concerning substance due to its toxic nature. It is a colorless and odorless gas that can be produced by engines and machinery. Inhalation of carbon monoxide can lead to severe health effects and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to take precautions and ensure proper ventilation in these environments to minimize the risk of carbon monoxide exposure.

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  • 34. 

    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • Explosions.

    • Unauthorized entry.

    • Overflow of materials.

    • Mixing of unlike materials.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of both the public and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can result in the release of hazardous materials and potential harm to individuals and the surrounding ecosystem. Proper security measures, such as fencing, locks, and surveillance systems, are necessary to prevent unauthorized access and mitigate the risk of accidents or intentional misuse of hazardous waste.

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  • 35. 

    You should wear eye protection when you work

    • With tools that may cause flying particles.

    • Where there is a fire hazard.

    • Around any type of fluid.

    • On any type of job.

    Correct Answer
    A. With tools that may cause flying particles.
    Explanation
    When working with tools that may cause flying particles, it is important to wear eye protection. This is because these particles can pose a risk to your eyes and can cause injuries or damage. Wearing eye protection can help to prevent any potential harm and ensure that your eyes are protected while working with such tools.

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  • 36. 

    Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as

    • Checknuts.

    • Castellated nuts.

    • Self-locking nuts.

    • Internal wrenching bolts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Castellated nuts.
    Explanation
    Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as castellated nuts. Castellated nuts have slots or holes on the top, allowing the cotter pin to be inserted through them. Once the cotter pin is inserted, it prevents the nut from loosening or rotating, providing additional safety and security. This is why cotter pins are commonly used with castellated nuts to ensure that they stay in place and do not come loose.

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  • 37. 

    What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?

    • Career field subdivision.

    • Specific AFSC.

    • Career field.

    • Skill level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific AFSC.
    Explanation
    The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represents the specific AFSC. This means that it identifies the specific job within the career field. Each AFSC has a unique combination of numbers and letters that represents a specific job within the Air Force. In this case, the fifth position of 3A652 indicates the specific AFSC for a particular job within the career field.

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  • 38. 

    What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

    • Evident and hidden.

    • Potential and evident.

    • Hidden and functional.

    • Potential and functional.

    Correct Answer
    A. Potential and functional.
    Explanation
    The two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of the system. This classification helps in identifying and prioritizing maintenance activities based on the likelihood and consequences of potential failures, as well as addressing the functional failures that have already occurred.

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  • 39. 

    In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

    • Hard time.

    • Lubrication.

    • On condition.

    • Failure finding.

    Correct Answer
    A. On condition.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "On condition." In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, on condition maintenance tasks involve scheduled inspections to detect potential failure conditions. This means that the maintenance is performed only when there are signs or indications that a failure is likely to occur. This approach allows for more efficient and cost-effective maintenance by focusing resources on equipment that actually needs attention, rather than performing maintenance tasks based on a fixed schedule.

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  • 40. 

    The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by

    • Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

    • Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

    • Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

    • Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to detect any degradation in the performance of turbine engines at an early stage, as well as identify any potential failures. This allows for timely intervention and preventive measures to be taken, preventing or limiting damage to the engines. Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports, tracking serially controlled components and modules, and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions may be part of the program, but the main objective is early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

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  • 41. 

    Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by

    • Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO).

    • Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

    • Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

    • Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.
    Explanation
    Depot maintenance plays a crucial role in supporting base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs that are beyond their capability. This means that when base-level technicians encounter complex or specialized issues that they are unable to handle, depot maintenance steps in to offer their expertise and perform the necessary repairs. This ensures that the technicians are supported and that the equipment or systems are properly maintained and repaired.

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  • 42. 

    When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you’re inspecting?

    • Control unit.

    • Light guide tube.

    • Distal tip light guides.

    • Bending section lever.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distal tip light guides.
    Explanation
    The distal tip light guides of a borescope are responsible for illuminating the interior of the area being inspected. These light guides transmit light from the control unit to the distal tip of the borescope, allowing for better visibility and inspection of the area. The control unit and bending section lever are not directly involved in illuminating the interior, while the light guide tube serves as a pathway for the light to travel through.

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  • 43. 

    Do not use self-locking nuts on

    • Areas near engine inspection points.

    • Engine accessories.

    • Control pulleys.

    • Engine joints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine joints.
    Explanation
    Self-locking nuts should not be used on engine joints because they can cause excessive stress and damage to the joint. Engine joints require a certain level of flexibility and movement to accommodate the vibrations and thermal expansion that occur during engine operation. Self-locking nuts, which are designed to prevent loosening, can restrict this movement and lead to premature failure of the joint. Therefore, it is important to use alternative fastening methods that allow for the necessary flexibility and movement in engine joints.

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  • 44. 

    Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250ï‚°F?

    • Plain nuts.

    • Wing nuts.

    • Metallic self-locking nuts.

    • Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.
    Explanation
    Nonmetallic self-locking nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250ï‚°F because they are not designed to withstand high temperatures. The nonmetallic material used in these nuts can melt or degrade at high temperatures, compromising their ability to securely fasten and lock in place. This can lead to loosening or failure of the nuts, posing a safety risk in high-temperature environments. Therefore, it is important to use alternative nuts, such as metallic self-locking nuts, that are specifically designed to withstand higher temperatures.

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  • 45. 

    Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?

    • Motor the engine to circulate the oil.

    • Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.

    • Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.

    • Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preservation run and fuel system preservation.
    Explanation
    Engines that have been inactive for over 180 days need to have a preservation run and fuel system preservation accomplished. This means that the engine should be run for a specific period of time to prevent any damage or deterioration, and the fuel system should be properly preserved to ensure its functionality when the engine is needed again. This process helps to maintain the engine's performance and prevent any potential issues that may arise from long periods of inactivity.

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  • 46. 

    When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start

    • Deep within the metal.

    • On the surface of the metal.

    • Throughout the metal all at once.

    • Just under the surface of the metal.

    Correct Answer
    A. On the surface of the metal.
    Explanation
    When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it typically starts on the surface of the metal. This is because the surface of the metal is exposed to the external environment, which may contain corrosive agents such as moisture, oxygen, or acids. These corrosive agents react with the metal surface, leading to the formation of corrosion products. Over time, the corrosion may penetrate deeper into the metal, but it usually initiates on the surface.

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  • 47. 

    What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

    • Craftsman.

    • Apprentice.

    • Journeyman.

    • Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Craftsman.
    Explanation
    Once you obtain the 7-skill level, your title will be Craftsman. This suggests that reaching the 7-skill level indicates a high level of expertise and proficiency in a particular craft or skill. The title Craftsman implies that you have mastered your craft and are capable of producing high-quality work.

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  • 48. 

    How far does a propeller’s axis of rotation extend?

    • 20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • 15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • 5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
    Explanation
    The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

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  • 49. 

    Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

    • 00-5-1

    • 00-5-2

    • 00-20-1

    • 00-20-2

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1

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  • Oct 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 28, 2012
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    Iloveproprofs
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