Air Force CDC 2r051 Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Air Force policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the

    • Lowest level
    • Highest level
    • Depot facility
    • Contractor facility
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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The 'Air Force CDC 2R051 Volume 1' quiz assesses knowledge on air and space equipment maintenance policies, planning, and readiness metrics. It focuses on preventive maintenance, efficiency in automated systems, and the standardization of unit-level maintenance organizations, enhancing skills crucial for military maintenance personnel.

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  • 2. 

    What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

    • Abort

    • Break

    • Cannibalization

    • Mission capability

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission capability
    Explanation
    Mission capability is the correct answer because it refers to the rate at which an aircraft or space vehicle is able to perform its intended mission. It measures the readiness and effectiveness of the maintenance and support systems in ensuring that the aircraft or space vehicle is operational and can carry out its assigned tasks. By measuring mission capability, maintenance personnel can assess the overall readiness of the fleet and identify any issues that may affect the ability to carry out missions effectively.

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  • 3. 

    What provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment?

    • Maintenance organization

    • Maintenance planning

    • Increased manning

    • Increased funding

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance planning
    Explanation
    Maintenance planning is the correct answer because it involves carefully scheduling and coordinating maintenance activities to ensure the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment. By planning maintenance tasks in advance, organizations can optimize resources, minimize downtime, and reduce costs. This includes developing maintenance schedules, determining the necessary resources, and coordinating with different departments to ensure smooth execution. Maintenance planning helps organizations streamline their operations and improve productivity by ensuring that resources are utilized in the most efficient manner.

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  • 4. 

    The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

    • Preventive maintenance

    • Corrective maintenance

    • Backshop maintenance

    • Depot maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive maintenance
    Explanation
    The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on preventive maintenance because it involves proactive measures to prevent equipment failure and minimize downtime. By conducting regular inspections, servicing, and repairs, potential issues can be identified and addressed before they escalate into major problems. This approach helps to increase the lifespan of equipment, improve reliability, and reduce the need for costly corrective maintenance. Additionally, preventive maintenance can enhance safety, as it ensures that equipment is functioning properly and reduces the risk of accidents or malfunctions.

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  • 5. 

    When a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity, it is accomplished by

    • Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving effeciency

    • Continuously evaluating resources to meet mission changes and contigencies

    • Command channel communictions, documentation, and reporting communications with support commands and agencies

    • Effectively scheduling aircraft, support equipment, facilities, and personnel to meet maintenance requirements and flying schedules

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving effeciency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency. This is because when a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity, it means they are focusing on eliminating tasks that do not contribute to productivity and finding ways to improve efficiency in their operations. This can be achieved through the use of automation and streamlining administrative processes to free up time and resources for more productive tasks.

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  • 6. 

    Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on size, similar wartime mission, and

    • Training

    • Budgetary constraints

    • Geographical location

    • Assigned weapons systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Assigned weapons systems
    Explanation
    Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on assigned weapons systems. This means that the maintenance organizations are structured and organized in a consistent manner to effectively support the specific weapons systems assigned to each unit. This ensures that the necessary resources, training, and expertise are available to properly maintain and repair the assigned weapons systems, regardless of the unit's size, mission, budgetary constraints, or geographical location. By aligning the maintenance organizations with the assigned weapons systems, the units can optimize their maintenance capabilities and readiness.

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  • 7. 

    Which squadron is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

    • Maintenance

    • Aircraft maintenance

    • Maintenance operations

    • Helicopter maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations
    Explanation
    The squadron responsible for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG is the Maintenance Operations squadron. This squadron oversees the coordination, planning, and execution of maintenance activities, ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are available to support aircraft maintenance operations. They work closely with the MXG commander to ensure the smooth functioning of maintenance operations and to address any staff-related issues that may arise.

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  • 8. 

    What is the title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance?

    • Officer-in-Charge (OIC)

    • Chief of Maintenance (COM)

    • C-E Maintenance Officer

    • Deputy Commander for C-E Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief of Maintenance (COM)
    Explanation
    The title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance is Chief of Maintenance (COM). This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing all maintenance activities related to communications-electronics equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that all C-E equipment is properly maintained and operational. The Chief of Maintenance plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and the smooth functioning of C-E systems within an organization.

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  • 9. 

    Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment, whether assigned to a communication unit or not, is referred to as

    • Non-traditional technicians

    • Outsourced technicians

    • Irregular technicians

    • Contract technicians

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-traditional technicians
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "non-traditional technicians." This term refers to any personnel, regardless of their assignment to a communication unit, who are not part of the 2EXXX Air Force specialty code but are still involved in performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment. This suggests that these technicians have a different background or training compared to the traditional technicians in the 2EXXX specialty code.

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  • 10. 

    What kind of communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance unit provides specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units?

    • Special maintenance teams (SMT)

    • Consolidated repair activity (CRA)

    • Deployable elements of fixed units

    • Functionally supported maintenance activity

    Correct Answer
    A. Special maintenance teams (SMT)
    Explanation
    Special maintenance teams (SMT) provide specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units. These teams are specifically trained and equipped to handle complex and specialized maintenance tasks that may be beyond the capabilities of regular O&M units. They are able to provide more advanced and specialized maintenance support, ensuring that communication and electronic systems are properly maintained and functioning at optimal levels.

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  • 11. 

    For what program does the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) hold squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible?

    • Nuclear Surety

    • Weight and Balance

    • Vehicle Management

    • Dedicated Crew Chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Vehicle Management. The maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) holds squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible for Vehicle Management. This means that they are responsible for the proper management and maintenance of all vehicles within the squadron, ensuring they are in good working condition and available for use when needed. This includes tasks such as scheduling regular maintenance, tracking vehicle usage and fuel consumption, and ensuring compliance with safety and regulatory requirements.

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  • 12. 

    Who is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program?

    • Maintenance flight commander

    • Maintenance squadron commander

    • Maintenance group commander

    • Base commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance group commander
    Explanation
    The Maintenance group commander is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program. This individual oversees the maintenance operations of the entire group, which includes multiple squadrons and flight commanders. As the highest-ranking maintenance officer, they have the authority and knowledge to create and implement a program that ensures the proper impoundment of aircraft when necessary. The Maintenance group commander is responsible for setting policies, procedures, and guidelines to ensure the safe and efficient handling of impounded aircraft.

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  • 13. 

    Which commander (CC) does the maintenance group CC coordinate with concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program?

    • Wing

    • Operations group

    • Operations squadron

    • Transportation squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations group
    Explanation
    The maintenance group CC coordinates with the Operations group concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program.

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  • 14. 

    Who is responsible for directing cannibalization (CANN) on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

    • Technician

    • Flight chief

    • Flightline expediter

    • Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Production supervisor
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for directing cannibalization on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center and supply. This role involves overseeing the production process and ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently. The production supervisor works closely with the MOC and supply to coordinate the cannibalization process, ensuring that necessary parts are obtained and utilized effectively.

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  • 15. 

    Who selects qualified personel to perform production inspections and forwards names to maintenance supervision for approval?

    • Squadron commander

    • Production supervisor

    • Section chief

    • Flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight chief
    Explanation
    The Flight chief is responsible for selecting qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards their names to maintenance supervision for approval. This role is typically responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations of the flight and ensuring that all inspections are carried out by competent individuals. The Flight chief works closely with maintenance supervision to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before inspections are conducted.

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  • 16. 

    On what does the section chief perform spot checks for authorized levels?

    • Bench stock

    • Tool storage

    • Repairable parts

    • Cannibalization

    Correct Answer
    A. Bench stock
    Explanation
    The section chief performs spot checks for authorized levels on bench stock. This means that they regularly check the inventory of supplies and materials that are readily available for use in the section. This ensures that the section has enough stock on hand to meet their operational needs and that the levels are within the authorized limits set by the organization. By performing spot checks, the section chief can identify any shortages or excesses in the bench stock and take appropriate actions to maintain the desired levels.

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  • 17. 

    Who manages the Bad Actor Program?

    • Flight chief

    • Section chief

    • Flightline expediter

    • Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Section chief
    Explanation
    The Section chief manages the Bad Actor Program.

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  • 18. 

    Who updates status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assined aircraft?

    • Flight chief

    • Section chief

    • Flightline expediter

    • Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Flightline expediter
    Explanation
    The Flightline expediter is responsible for updating the status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft. They oversee the operations on the flightline and ensure that all necessary actions are taken, including cannibalization, which involves removing parts from one aircraft to be used on another. The Flightline expediter is in a position to track and update the status of these actions, ensuring that the necessary parts are available for maintenance and repairs on the assigned aircraft.

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  • 19. 

    Who reviews aircraft forms before exceptional release?

    • Flight chief

    • Flightline expediter

    • Dedicated crew chief

    • Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Flightline expediter
    Explanation
    The flightline expediter is responsible for reviewing aircraft forms before exceptional release. They ensure that all necessary documentation and forms are completed accurately and in compliance with regulations before allowing the aircraft to be released for exceptional circumstances. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and readiness of the aircraft before it can be used for its intended purpose.

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  • 20. 

    Who is responsible for on-aircraft -21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function?

    • Flight chief

    • Flightline expediter

    • Dedicated crew chief

    • Production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Dedicated crew chief
    Explanation
    The dedicated crew chief is responsible for on-aircraft -21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function. This means that if there is no specific person or role assigned to handle the inventories, the dedicated crew chief takes on this responsibility. They are in charge of ensuring that the equipment inventories are properly managed and accounted for, ensuring the smooth operation of the aircraft.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

    • Systems monitor

    • Database manager

    • Database designer

    • Database administrator

    Correct Answer
    A. Database manager
    Explanation
    The database manager is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the database, ensuring its integrity, security, and performance. They have the expertise and knowledge to troubleshoot and resolve any issues that may arise with the database, including resolving problems that functional users are unable to handle.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following provides information and communication services to military and governement organizations in an assigned region of the United States?

    • Database management (DBM)

    • Base Network Control Center (BNCC)

    • Defence Enterprise Computing Center (DECC)

    • Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Defence Enterprise Computing Center (DECC)
    Explanation
    The Defence Enterprise Computing Center (DECC) provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the United States. It is responsible for managing and maintaining the computing infrastructure and networks necessary for these organizations to carry out their operations effectively. The DECC ensures the security and reliability of the systems and networks it manages, allowing for efficient communication and information sharing among military and government personnel.

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  • 23. 

    The two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) are the

    • Functional analysis and database administrator

    • Database administrator and Field Assistance Service (FAS)

    • Systems progam office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS)

    • Interactive Customer Service Facility and database administrator

    Correct Answer
    A. Systems progam office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS). This is because the question asks for the two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG), and the Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS) are mentioned as two separate options. Therefore, they are the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    Who is the initial point of contact (POC) at 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level?

    • Host database manager (DBM)

    • System program office (SPO)

    • Database administrator (DBA)

    • Field Assistance Service (FAS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Field Assistance Service (FAS)
    Explanation
    The Field Assistance Service (FAS) is the initial point of contact at 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level. FAS provides on-site technical assistance and support to resolve complex database issues that cannot be resolved by the base level personnel. They have the expertise and resources to troubleshoot and fix database problems, ensuring the smooth functioning of the IMDS system.

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  • 25. 

    The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center is operated by 

    • 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG)

    • Field Assistance Service (FAS)

    • Databse manager (DBM)

    • Northrop Grumman

    Correct Answer
    A. Northrop Grumman
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Northrop Grumman because the question is asking about the operator of the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center. Northrop Grumman is a defense contractor that operates the REMIS Management Center, which is responsible for managing and maintaining the system. The other options mentioned, such as the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG), Field Assistance Service (FAS), and Database Manager (DBM), are not the operators of the REMIS Management Center.

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  • 26. 

    The local area network (LAN) component that provides services to the users on the network is known as the

    • Server

    • Protocols

    • Workstation

    • Server network

    Correct Answer
    A. Server
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "server". In a local area network (LAN), a server is a computer or device that provides services to other devices or users on the network. It manages network resources, such as files, printers, and internet access, and allows users to share and access these resources. The server acts as a central hub, facilitating communication and data exchange between different devices and users within the LAN.

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  • 27. 

    Operating rules used local area network (LAN) applications are known as

    • Protocols

    • Networking

    • Topologies

    • Data language

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocols
    Explanation
    Protocols are the operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications. They define the standards and procedures that devices on a network must follow in order to communicate effectively. Protocols ensure that data is transmitted and received correctly, and they govern how devices establish connections, handle errors, and manage data flow. By adhering to protocols, LAN applications can achieve reliable and efficient communication between devices.

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  • 28. 

    Which software is required to access Integrated Maintenance Data System grphical user interface (IMDS GUI)?

    • Photo editor

    • Image reader

    • Media player

    • Internet browser

    Correct Answer
    A. Internet browser
    Explanation
    To access the Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI), an internet browser is required. This is because the IMDS GUI is a web-based application that can be accessed through a browser. Other software like photo editors, image readers, and media players are not necessary for accessing the IMDS GUI as it does not involve editing photos, reading images, or playing media files.

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  • 29. 

    Which one of the following must the database manager (DBM) obtain from the base network control center (BNCC) to gain terminal access to Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • IMDS password

    • Security clearance

    • Server address setting

    • Remote identification (ID)

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote identification (ID)
    Explanation
    The database manager (DBM) needs to obtain the remote identification (ID) from the base network control center (BNCC) in order to gain terminal access to the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). This ID is necessary to establish a secure connection and authenticate the DBM's identity before granting access to the system. Without the remote ID, the DBM would not be able to establish a connection and access the IMDS.

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  • 30. 

    The transaction interface package (TIP) provides

    • Access to multiple mainframes

    • Users with a fast-file control system

    • For background scheduling of transations

    • Users with the capability to access application programs

    Correct Answer
    A. Users with a fast-file control system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "users with a fast-file control system." The transaction interface package (TIP) provides users with a fast-file control system, which allows them to efficiently manage and control their files. This system enables users to perform background scheduling of transactions and access application programs seamlessly. With TIP, users can easily interact with multiple mainframes and efficiently handle their file operations.

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  • 31. 

    DEMAND processing is a

    • Mode that directs the activity of the operating system

    • Mode in which several runs are grouped before processing

    • Method for maintaining historical data for load, change, inquiry, and deletion

    • Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS)
    Explanation
    DEMAND processing is a manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS). This means that the user has the freedom to access and use different automated information systems as per their requirements, without any limitations or restrictions. It allows users to have flexibility and independence in choosing the system that best suits their needs, ensuring efficient and effective processing of tasks.

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  • 32. 

    Which best describes on-line processing?

    • Programs are printed at Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC)

    • Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe

    • Prgrams are processed by the console operator

    • Equipment must remain on at all times

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe
    Explanation
    On-line processing refers to a method of data processing where the equipment is directly controlled by the mainframe. This means that the mainframe has direct access and control over the equipment, allowing it to perform tasks and process data in real-time. This type of processing is often used in situations where immediate responses or quick data processing is required. It is different from batch processing where programs are printed and processed separately.

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  • 33. 

    What indicator tells you that a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing?

    • A line on the monitor screen says, "PSURPB COMPLETE"

    • The start of entry (SOE) character appears

    • The monitor gives a beep to notify you

    • You recieve an E-mail notification

    Correct Answer
    A. The start of entry (SOE) character appears
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The start of entry (SOE) character appears". This is because the SOE character is typically used to indicate the beginning of a new entry or record in a batch processing system. Therefore, when the SOE character appears, it signifies that the processing for the PSURPB program has been completed.

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  • 34. 

    Online processing may be called

    • Batch processing

    • Real-time processing

    • Pseudo remote processing

    • Remote job entry terminal processing

    Correct Answer
    A. Real-time processing
    Explanation
    Real-time processing refers to a method of data processing where transactions are processed immediately as they occur, without any delay. This means that data is processed in real-time, providing instant results and allowing for immediate actions or decisions to be made. Unlike batch processing, which involves processing data in batches at a later time, real-time processing ensures that data is processed as soon as it is received. Therefore, the given correct answer for this question is real-time processing.

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  • 35. 

    What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?

    • Running the NFS0A0 program

    • Creating the data file in demand mode

    • Uploading required data before using a pseudo file

    • Manually inputting data into a personal computer (PC) file then upload to pseudo file

    Correct Answer
    A. Running the NFS0A0 program
    Explanation
    The NFS0A0 program is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing because it is specifically designed for this purpose. The program automates the process of creating a data file, making it quick and efficient. Other options mentioned, such as creating the data file in demand mode or manually inputting data, may require more time and effort. Uploading required data before using a pseudo file is not the easiest method as it involves an additional step of uploading data.

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  • 36. 

    In what mode do you run pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB)?

    • None

    • DEMAND

    • Windows

    • Transaction interface package (TIP)

    Correct Answer
    A. DEMAND
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DEMAND. In PSURPB (pseudo remote processor for batch), the DEMAND mode is used. This mode allows the processing of batch jobs on a remote system. It enables the system to automatically transfer and execute batch jobs on the remote system based on demand or when the system resources are available. This mode helps in optimizing the utilization of system resources and improving overall efficiency in batch processing.

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  • 37. 

    Which application program file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in transaction interface package (TIP)?

    • FS$$0000*00

    • 0FS0*DBRUN$

    • 0FS0*DBALIB$

    • 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP

    Correct Answer
    A. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP. This file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in the transaction interface package (TIP).

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  • 38. 

    Which application program file contains the element used to troubleshoot the database?

    • FS$$0000*00

    • 0FS0*DBALIB$

    • 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL

    • 0FS00000*PABTAG054-AP

    Correct Answer
    A. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL. This file contains the element that is used to troubleshoot the database.

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  • 39. 

    Which support program file controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS)?

    • TIP FILE 611

    • IRU processor

    • VALTAB

    • SUPUR processor

    Correct Answer
    A. VALTAB
    Explanation
    VALTAB is the support program file that controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS). This file contains the validation table which is responsible for validating and controlling the input and output of the online programs. It ensures that the data entered into the system is accurate and meets the required criteria. Therefore, VALTAB plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and functionality of the AIS.

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  • 40. 

    Which support program file ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?

    • TIP File 611

    • 0FS0*DBRUN$

    • VALTAB

    • SUPUR processor

    Correct Answer
    A. TIP File 611
    Explanation
    TIP File 611 ensures that the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database.

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  • 41. 

    The basic keyin console mode allows

    • A user to use unsolicited keyins

    • A user to use all basic console keyins

    • A user to request the status on a user's run

    • Database managers (DBM) to operate in full screen mode?

    Correct Answer
    A. A user to request the status on a user's run
    Explanation
    The basic keyin console mode allows a user to request the status on a user's run. This means that the user can use the basic keyin console mode to check the current status or progress of their own running process or program. It provides a way for the user to get updates on their own tasks or operations.

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  • 42. 

    What console mode command displays a list of active runs?

    • T,B

    • T D

    • @@RUN,A

    • @@TM

    Correct Answer
    A. T D
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "T D". The "T D" command in console mode displays a list of active runs.

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  • 43. 

    What executive control language (ECL) command will provide you with the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address?

    • @CAT

    • @RUN

    • @DATA

    • @WHOAMI

    Correct Answer
    A. @WHOAMI
    Explanation
    The @WHOAMI command in executive control language (ECL) is used to display the current user's FTP address. It provides the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address that is associated with the user.

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  • 44. 

    What do you call the filename you created on your personal computer (PC) when you do a file transfer?

    • PC file

    • User file

    • Local file

    • Remote file

    Correct Answer
    A. Local file
    Explanation
    When you perform a file transfer on your personal computer (PC), the filename that you create is referred to as a "local file". This term is used to indicate that the file is stored and accessed on your own computer, as opposed to being located on a remote server or network.

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  • 45. 

    A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called

    • An element

    • A program

    • A granule

    • A file

    Correct Answer
    A. A program
    Explanation
    A program is a collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions. It is a set of coded instructions that tell a computer how to perform a specific task or solve a particular problem. Programs can be written in various programming languages and can range from simple scripts to complex software applications. They are essential for the functioning of computers and other electronic devices.

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  • 46. 

    What executive control language (ECL) command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the system an option is to follow?

    • Splat (*)

    • Comma (,)

    • Semicolon (;)

    • Master Space (@)

    Correct Answer
    A. Comma (,)
    Explanation
    The comma (,) is used in ECL command syntax to indicate to the system that an option is to follow. This symbol is commonly used in programming languages to separate different elements or parameters within a statement. In this case, the comma serves as a delimiter to distinguish between different options or arguments in the ECL command.

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  • 47. 

    A /WRITE-KEY, when used, is presented

    • After the filename and before the @

    • Before the filename and after the period

    • After the filename and before the period

    • Before the element name and after the comma

    Correct Answer
    A. After the filename and before the period
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "after the filename and before the period". This means that when using a /WRITE-KEY, it should be placed after the filename and before the period. The /WRITE-KEY is a command or parameter used in certain programming or scripting languages to specify a key or identifier for writing data. By placing it in this specific position, it ensures that the key is properly associated with the filename and can be used for the intended purpose.

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  • 48. 

    What should be used when constructing an axecutive control language (ECL) file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?

    • Cycle

    • /VERSION

    • Qualifier

    • Master Space (@)

    Correct Answer
    A. /VERSION
    Explanation
    When constructing an ECL file, the "/VERSION" should be used to differentiate between two elements with identical names. This allows for the identification and distinction of different versions of the elements.

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  • 49. 

    What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command?

    • 25 characters

    • 45 characters

    • 48 characters

    • 50 characters

    Correct Answer
    A. 48 characters
    Explanation
    The maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command is 48 characters.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 25, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Jhomsey

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