7 Level CDC 2AX7X Air Force Volume 1

60 Questions

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7 Level CDC 2AX7X Air Force Volume 1

Practice test for 7 level cdc end of course


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    • A. 

      Off Equipment

    • B. 

      On-equipment

    • C. 

      Preventative

    • D. 

      Corrective

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?
    • A. 

      Cross-tells

    • B. 

      Self-inspections

    • C. 

      Technical Orders

    • D. 

      National stock numbers

  • 3. 
    Who is the office of primary responsibility  (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Wing Vice Commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance group superintendent

  • 4. 
    Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?
    • A. 

      Two level maintenance

    • B. 

      Organizational

    • C. 

      Intermediate

    • D. 

      Depot

  • 5. 
    All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through
    • A. 

      P,S,and D and the Maintenance Group Commander

    • B. 

      P,S, and D and Maintenance Management Analysis

    • C. 

      QA and P,S, and D

    • D. 

      QA and Maintenance Management Analysis

  • 6. 
    What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations?
    • A. 

      Regional Repair Centers

    • B. 

      Centralized Repair Facilities

    • C. 

      Programmed Depot Maintenance

    • D. 

      Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program

  • 7. 
    What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability?
    • A. 

      QA

    • B. 

      Reliability and Mantainability

    • C. 

      Programmed Depot Maintenance

    • D. 

      Intermediate Repair Enhancement

  • 8. 
    Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known?
    • A. 

      1A

    • B. 

      1B

    • C. 

      2A

    • D. 

      2B

  • 9. 
    Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors?
    • A. 

      P,S, and D

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance Supply Liasion

    • D. 

      QA

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)?
    • A. 

      TOs

    • B. 

      Support Agreements

    • C. 

      Air Force Instructions

    • D. 

      Operating Instructions

  • 11. 
    When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as
    • A. 

      Wing OIs

    • B. 

      Separate group OIs

    • C. 

      Support agreements

    • D. 

      Air Force instructions

  • 12. 
    Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment?
    • A. 

      95

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      427

    • D. 

      781 series

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      In units where jet engines, nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another

    • B. 

      As long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance info system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for

    • C. 

      To/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance info systems to retrieve the historical info

    • D. 

      In the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system

  • 14. 
    What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?
    • A. 

      781j

    • B. 

      245

    • C. 

      244

    • D. 

      95

  • 15. 
    Which (IMDS-CDB)  subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?
    • A. 

      C-E Equipment Status

    • B. 

      Job Data Documentation

    • C. 

      Status and Inventory Reporting

    • D. 

      Comprehensive Engine Management System

  • 16. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?
    • A. 

      Operational Events

    • B. 

      Maintenance Events

    • C. 

      Job Data Documentation

    • D. 

      Aircraft Automated Forms 781A,J, K

  • 17. 
    Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?
    • A. 

      P,S,and D

    • B. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis

    • C. 

      Programs and Resources

    • D. 

      Every User

  • 18. 
    Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data?
    • A. 

      Operational Events

    • B. 

      Maintenance Events

    • C. 

      Job Data Documentation

    • D. 

      Aircraft Automated Forms 781A,J, K

  • 19. 
    In addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon system(s), squadron respresentatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least
    • A. 

      A 5 level

    • B. 

      A 7 level

    • C. 

      A senior Airman

    • D. 

      A non-commisioned officer

  • 20. 
    What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?
    • A. 

      Metrics

    • B. 

      Reports

    • C. 

      Standards

    • D. 

      Instructions

  • 21. 
    What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?
    • A. 

      Performance and health

    • B. 

      Trending and impacting

    • C. 

      Positive and negative

    • D. 

      Leading and lagging

  • 22. 
    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance's capability to provide resources to execute the mission?
    • A. 

      Leading

    • B. 

      Lagging

    • C. 

      Trending

    • D. 

      Impacting

  • 23. 
    Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends?
    • A. 

      Leading

    • B. 

      Lagging

    • C. 

      Trending

    • D. 

      Impacting

  • 24. 
    Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 25. 
    Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Wing Vice-commander

    • C. 

      Big Bird

    • D. 

      Deputy Commander

  • 26. 
    Who is personally responsible for managing the FOD and DOP programs?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Wing Vice-Commander

    • C. 

      Colonel Sanders

    • D. 

      MXG Deputy Commander

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, org. structures, compliance, and management philosophy?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Group Commander

    • B. 

      Wing Commander

    • C. 

      Production Superintendent

    • D. 

      Deputy Commander

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group?
    • A. 

      MXG deputy commander

    • B. 

      Wing vice-commander

    • C. 

      MXG superintendent

    • D. 

      MXG commander

  • 29. 
    Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and a/c support equipment procurement and maintenance?
    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Liasion

    • B. 

      Programs and Resources Flight

    • C. 

      MXG superintendent

    • D. 

      MXG deputy commander

  • 30. 
    Who is held legally responsible for their unit's EPA program compliance in accordance with AFI 32-7042, Waste Management?
    • A. 

      Flight commanders

    • B. 

      Squadron commanders

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations officers

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commanders

  • 31. 
    Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents?
    • A. 

      MXS

    • B. 

      MOF

    • C. 

      AMXS

    • D. 

      MOS

  • 32. 
    Worker safety and health info must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      244

    • C. 

      435

    • D. 

      623

  • 33. 
    Section non-commisioned O-I-C are responsible for developing CUT requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with
    • A. 

      Accountability and control procedures

    • B. 

      Deployments and wing-level taskings

    • C. 

      Qualification and upgrade training

    • D. 

      Scheduled maintenance actions

  • 34. 
    Section non-commisioned O-I-C must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing
    • A. 

      Accountability and control procedures

    • B. 

      Qualification and upgrade training

    • C. 

      Maintenance and flying schedules

    • D. 

      Proper maintenance techniques

  • 35. 
    When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?
    • A. 

      Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operation Center

    • C. 

      Group manning manager

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 36. 
    How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      8

  • 37. 
    Which maintenance operations squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?
    • A. 

      MOC

    • B. 

      MTF

    • C. 

      MOF

    • D. 

      Programs and Resources

  • 38. 
    The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of which (IMDS-CDB) subsystem?
    • A. 

      Location

    • B. 

      Operational Events

    • C. 

      Maintenance Events

    • D. 

      Status and Inventory Reporting

  • 39. 
    Which section is the wing focal pint for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?
    • A. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit Specialist Section

    • B. 

      Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D. 

      Engine Management

  • 40. 
    Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?
    • A. 

      P,S, and D

    • B. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • D. 

      Production Superintendent

  • 41. 
    The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections?
    • A. 

      Education and Training; Development and Instruction

    • B. 

      Training Management; Development and Instruction

    • C. 

      Training Development; Instruction Management

    • D. 

      Training Detachment; Training Management

  • 42. 
    What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?
    • A. 

      Transient Alert

    • B. 

      Maintenance Flight

    • C. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Squadron

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit?
    • A. 

      Weapons

    • B. 

      Debrief

    • C. 

      Aircraft

    • D. 

      Supply

  • 44. 
    What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Landing status codes

    • B. 

      Fault Isolation manuals

    • C. 

      System capability codes

    • D. 

      Fault Reporting manuals

  • 45. 
    Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?
    • A. 

      Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief

    • C. 

      Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent

    • D. 

      Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent

  • 46. 
    The Aircraft section is split into two seperate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit's number of mission assigned aircraft is more than
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      20

  • 47. 
    Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?
    • A. 

      Avionics

    • B. 

      Aircrafts

    • C. 

      Specialist

    • D. 

      Communication-Navigation

  • 48. 
    Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?
    • A. 

      Electro-environmental specialists

    • B. 

      Propulsion specialists

    • C. 

      Avionics specialists

    • D. 

      Crew chiefs

  • 49. 
    Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?
    • A. 

      Load Crew chief

    • B. 

      Flight-line expediter

    • C. 

      Weapons expediter

    • D. 

      Dedicated crew chief

  • 50. 
    Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Aircraft section

    • B. 

      Support section

    • C. 

      Weapons section

    • D. 

      Armament Support section

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Fabrication

    • B. 

      Armament

    • C. 

      Propulsion

    • D. 

      Egress

  • 52. 
    Commanders have the option of establishing two sepearate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed
    • A. 

      600

    • B. 

      670

    • C. 

      700

    • D. 

      760

  • 53. 
    In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?
    • A. 

      AFTO IMT 244s

    • B. 

      Driver radios

    • C. 

      Sub-pools

    • D. 

      Drivers

  • 54. 
    Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation?
    • A. 

      Guidance and Control Systems

    • B. 

      Comm-Nav

    • C. 

      Avionics Intermediate

    • D. 

      Sensors

  • 55. 
    Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?
    • A. 

      Guidance and Control Systems

    • B. 

      Comm-Nav

    • C. 

      Avionics Intermediate

    • D. 

      Sensors

  • 56. 
    Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?
    • A. 

      Low Observable

    • B. 

      Metals Technology

    • C. 

      Non-Destructive Inspection

    • D. 

      Aircraft Structural Maintenance

  • 57. 
    If a Refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the maintenance flight or the
    • A. 

      Fabrication Flight

    • B. 

      Accessories Flight

    • C. 

      Aircraft Inspection Flight

    • D. 

      Two-level Maintenance Flight

  • 58. 
    Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?
    • A. 

      Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance

    • B. 

      Engine Equipment Maintenance

    • C. 

      Module/Accessory Repair

    • D. 

      Small Gas Turbine Engine

  • 59. 
    The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE) Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through the
    • A. 

      Geographically separated units

    • B. 

      Air Force Primary Standards Labratory

    • C. 

      Rapid Assistance Support for Calibration

    • D. 

      Precision Measurement Equipment Labratory

  • 60. 
    Which Munitions Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?
    • A. 

      Production

    • B. 

      Material

    • C. 

      Systems

    • D. 

      Support