2AX5X Air Force's Maintenance Capabilitie

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  • 1/116 Questions

    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

    • Logistics and operations group commanders.
    • Immediate supervisor.
    • Wing commander
    • Everyone.
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About This Quiz

The military is a special part in the smooth running of the government. The air force most of the times is a show of might within and outside the country. The quiz below tests on the Air Force's maintenance capabilities.

2AX5X Air Forces Maintenance Capabilitie - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

    • Red markings.

    • Black markings

    • Green markings

    • Orange markings

    Correct Answer
    A. Green markings
    Explanation
    The green markings on the gauge of a fire extinguisher indicate the safe operating range of pressure. This means that when the gauge needle is within the green markings, the pressure is at an optimal level for effective use of the fire extinguisher. It is important to ensure that the pressure is within this range to ensure that the extinguisher will function properly and be able to effectively suppress fires. The red and black markings typically indicate low or high pressure levels, which may render the extinguisher ineffective or even dangerous to use.

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  • 3. 

    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

    • Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • Supervisor or brake operator.

    • Supervisor or wing walkers.

    • Supervisor only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Supervisor only." During an aircraft tow, only the supervisor is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order. This ensures that there is clear communication and coordination between the supervisor and the vehicle operator, brake operator, and wing walkers. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the entire towing operation and has the authority to determine when it is safe to move the aircraft.

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  • 4. 

    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

    • Spray with cold water.

    • Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • Cool with high-pressure compressed air.

    • Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
    Explanation
    The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air. This means that the aircraft should be parked in a location where there is no immediate danger or risk of fire, and the brake assembly should be left to cool down naturally without any external cooling methods. This is the safest approach as it allows the heat to dissipate gradually and reduces the risk of further damage or accidents. Spraying with cold water, cooling with forced air, or using high-pressure compressed air can potentially cause thermal shock or other issues, so they are not recommended.

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  • 5. 

    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?

    • Crew chief

    • Flight engineer

    • Weapons personnel

    • Only senior personnel on special orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons personnel
    Explanation
    Weapons personnel are responsible for removing the safety devices associated with explosive devices when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition. This is because they have the necessary training and expertise to handle and disarm such devices safely. The crew chief and flight engineer may have different responsibilities related to the aircraft and its operation, but they are not specifically trained in handling explosive devices. Only senior personnel on special orders may have the authority to make decisions regarding the use of live ammunition, but they may not have the specialized knowledge required to remove safety devices.

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  • 6. 

    Matter is any substance that has mass and

    • Can be seen.

    • Occupies space.

    • Has constant volume.

    • Cannot be compressed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupies space.
    Explanation
    Matter is defined as any substance that has mass and occupies space. This means that matter takes up physical space and can be measured in terms of its volume. The statement "occupies space" accurately describes the characteristic of matter, as it implies that matter has a physical presence and takes up a certain amount of space in the universe.

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  • 7. 

    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2. This means that only a small percentage of accidents are caused by natural factors such as weather conditions, wildlife, or natural disasters. The majority of accidents are likely caused by human error or other man-made factors.

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  • 8. 

    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen?

    • Initial

    • General

    • Supervisor's

    • Sustained job safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Initial." Initial safety training is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen. This phase of training is typically conducted when individuals first join the Air Force and is designed to provide them with the essential knowledge and skills to ensure their safety and the safety of others in their work environment. It covers basic safety procedures, emergency response protocols, and familiarizes them with the specific hazards and risks associated with their job roles.

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  • 9. 

    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of

    • 15 degrees

    • 45 degrees

    • 65 degrees

    • 95 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 degrees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 45 degrees because the noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest in the direction of the engine's exhaust. As the exhaust gases exit the engine, they create a high-pressure area that generates intense noise. The noise intensity decreases as you move away from the rear of the engine. At an angle of 45 degrees to either side, the noise is still significant but not as intense as directly behind the engine.

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  • 10. 

    The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to

    • Reduce the amount of lift.

    • Prevent aircraft from stalling.

    • Correct minor deviations in flight attitude.

    • Improve augmented lateral control surfaces movement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Correct minor deviations in flight attitude.
    Explanation
    Aircraft trim systems are designed to correct minor deviations in flight attitude. Flight attitude refers to the orientation of the aircraft in relation to the horizon, and deviations can occur due to various factors such as changes in weight distribution or airspeed. The trim system allows pilots to adjust the control surfaces, such as the elevators or ailerons, to maintain the desired flight attitude without constantly applying manual control inputs. By making these small adjustments, the trim system helps to ensure stability and reduce pilot workload during flight.

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  • 11. 

    Atoms are made up of

    • Molecules, protons, neutrons.

    • Protons, molecules, electrons.

    • Molecules, neutrons, electrons.

    • Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
    Explanation
    Atoms are composed of three main subatomic particles: protons, neutrons, and electrons. Protons have a positive charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom. Neutrons have no charge and are also located in the nucleus. Electrons have a negative charge and orbit around the nucleus in various energy levels. This combination of protons, neutrons, and electrons determines the overall properties and behavior of an atom. Therefore, the correct answer is protons, neutrons, and electrons.

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  • 12. 

    In its natural state oxygen is

    • Tasteless, colorless, and odorless.

    • Tasteless, volumeless, and odorless.

    • Tasteless, colorless, and weightless.

    • Volumeless, weightless, and colorless.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tasteless, colorless, and odorless.
    Explanation
    Oxygen is tasteless because it does not have a discernible flavor. It is colorless because it does not absorb or emit visible light. It is odorless because it does not have a distinct smell.

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  • 13. 

    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

    • Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • TOs,, manuals, and CDCs

    • Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

    • TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Manuals, TOs, and handbooks. When performing maintenance procedures, technicians use manuals, technical orders (TOs), and handbooks as directives to guide them through the process. These resources provide detailed instructions, procedures, and guidelines on how to properly maintain and repair equipment. By following these directives, technicians ensure that maintenance procedures are carried out correctly and efficiently.

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  • 14. 

    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must

    • Install shorting plugs and clips.

    • Install mechanical safety devices.

    • Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove all ammunition and explosives.
    Explanation
    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar, it is necessary to remove all ammunition and explosives. This is crucial to ensure the safety of the hangar and prevent any accidental detonation or explosion. By removing the ammunition and explosives, the risk of any potential accidents or damage is minimized, making it a necessary precautionary measure.

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  • 15. 

    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that the TBA (presumably a software or platform) allows Air Force personnel to see and track their own technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses in real-time. It provides a way for individuals to monitor and manage their professional development and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.

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  • 16. 

    What is the percentage of accidents attribute to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

    • 50

    • 70

    • 90

    • 98

    Correct Answer
    A. 98
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 98. This suggests that a large majority, or nearly all, accidents are attributed to unsafe acts and physical hazards. This high percentage indicates that a significant portion of accidents can be prevented by addressing and mitigating these unsafe acts and physical hazards.

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  • 17. 

    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

    • The US Air Force

    • Each MAJCOM

    • DOD

    • EPA

    Correct Answer
    A. EPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is EPA. EPA stands for the Environmental Protection Agency, which is responsible for creating and enforcing regulations related to hazardous waste management in the United States. The EPA sets guidelines and standards for the proper handling, storage, treatment, and disposal of hazardous waste to protect human health and the environment. They work closely with other government agencies and organizations to ensure compliance with these rules and promote safe waste management practices.

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  • 18. 

    What affects radiation hazards?

    • Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units.

    Correct Answer
    A. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
    Explanation
    The factors that affect radiation hazards are the strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather. The strength of emission refers to the intensity or power of the radiation source. The higher the strength of emission, the greater the potential for radiation hazards. The time of exposure is the duration of time that individuals are exposed to the radiation source. Longer exposure times increase the risk of radiation hazards. Weather conditions can also affect radiation hazards as certain weather patterns can influence the dispersion and concentration of radiation in the environment.

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  • 19. 

    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Unscheduled

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    • Protective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance refers to the proactive measures taken to prevent equipment failure or breakdowns. It involves regular inspections, cleaning, lubrication, and replacement of parts to ensure that equipment is in optimal condition and ready for use when needed. By conducting preventive maintenance, potential issues can be identified and addressed before they become major problems, reducing the chances of unexpected downtime and improving overall equipment reliability and availability.

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  • 20. 

    The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is that it

    • Wastes oxygen.

    • Is unusable below 10,000 feet.

    • Is usable only above 20,000 feet.

    • Delivers oxygen at varying pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wastes oxygen.
    Explanation
    A continuous-flow oxygen regulator wastes oxygen because it continuously delivers oxygen at a constant rate, regardless of whether the user is inhaling or not. This means that oxygen is being released even when it is not being used, resulting in wastage.

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  • 21. 

    A liquid fire extinguisher agent douses a fire by

    • Releasing a fine mist vapor.

    • Excluding oxygen from the area.

    • Assist in extinguishing the fire.

    • Dispersing a large amount of liquid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excluding oxygen from the area.
    Explanation
    A liquid fire extinguisher agent douses a fire by excluding oxygen from the area. Oxygen is necessary for combustion to occur, so by removing or reducing the presence of oxygen, the fire is deprived of the element it needs to sustain itself. This effectively suffocates the fire and helps to extinguish it.

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  • 22. 

    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

    • Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.

    • Wing vice commander.

    • Group commander.

    • Wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent. This means that these individuals have the authority to clear a red X and can take the necessary steps to resolve the issue of a lost tool.

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  • 23. 

    In most units, who is responsible for investing dropped objects?

    • The FOD prevention office.

    • The operations commander.

    • The flight safety officer.

    • QA

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    QA, or Quality Assurance, is responsible for investing dropped objects in most units. Quality Assurance is a department or team within an organization that is responsible for ensuring that products or services meet specific quality standards. In the context of dropped objects, QA would investigate the incident, identify the root cause, and implement measures to prevent similar incidents in the future. This role is crucial in maintaining safety and preventing accidents in the workplace.

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  • 24. 

    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

    • Operations.

    • The aircrew.

    • Supervision.

    • The ground crew.

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircrew.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the aircrew. The preflight check is a crucial part of ensuring the safety and readiness of an aircraft before flight. It involves a thorough inspection of the aircraft's systems, controls, and overall condition. As the individuals who will be operating the aircraft, the aircrew is responsible for conducting this check to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that could affect the flight. This helps to ensure that the aircraft is in proper working order and ready for takeoff.

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  • 25. 

    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

    • 781G

    • 781J

    • 781M

    • 781P

    Correct Answer
    A. 781J
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781J. The AFTO 781J is a form used by the United States Air Force to record engine over-temperature conditions. This form is specifically designed for documenting engine-related information and maintenance activities. It allows technicians to track and analyze engine performance, identify potential issues, and take appropriate corrective actions. By using the AFTO 781J, the Air Force can ensure the safety and reliability of its aircraft engines.

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  • 26. 

    The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is

    • Steel.

    • Titanium.

    • Magnesium.

    • Aluminum alloy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aluminum alloy.
    Explanation
    The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is aluminum alloy. Aluminum alloys are preferred due to their lightweight yet strong properties, making them ideal for aircraft structures. They offer a good strength-to-weight ratio, corrosion resistance, and ease of fabrication. Additionally, aluminum alloys can withstand high temperatures and have good fatigue resistance, ensuring the durability and safety of the fuselage.

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  • 27. 

    What is electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor called?

    • Chemical swap.

    • Crossfeed field.

    • Electromotive force.

    • Transferring magnetic field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromotive force.
    Explanation
    Electromotive force refers to the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through a conductor. It is responsible for the movement of electrons in an electrical circuit, driving the flow of electric current. The term "electromotive force" is often used interchangeably with "voltage" and is measured in volts. It is a fundamental concept in electrical engineering and plays a crucial role in understanding and analyzing electrical circuits and systems.

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  • 28. 

    If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage would be

    • 2.

    • 4.

    • 6.

    • 18.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
    Explanation
    When a voltage of 24 volts is applied to a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage can be calculated using Ohm's Law, which states that current (amperage) is equal to voltage divided by resistance. So, in this case, the amperage would be 24 volts divided by 6 ohms, which equals 4 amps.

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  • 29. 

    The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cellulose tape that is

    • Brown and orange.

    • Blue and yellow.

    • Green and white.

    • Black and red.

    Correct Answer
    A. Green and white.
    Explanation
    The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by green and white cellulose tape. This color scheme is used to easily differentiate the oxygen tubing from other types of tubing in the aircraft. The green and white tape helps maintenance personnel and pilots quickly identify and locate the oxygen system components, ensuring that they are properly maintained and serviced.

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  • 30. 

    What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?

    • Sump and drain.

    • Pump and drain.

    • Pressure relief valve.

    • Fuel-level control valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sump and drain.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sump and drain. The sump is typically located at the lowest point in a fuel tank and is designed to collect any sediment or water that may have accumulated. The drain is used to remove this collected material from the tank. This helps to prevent any contaminants from being pumped into the fuel system, ensuring that only clean fuel is used in the engine.

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  • 31. 

    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

    • Dizziness

    • Emotional irritability

    • A feeling of emptiness

    • Impaired mental concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. A feeling of emptiness
    Explanation
    A feeling of emptiness is not a sign of noise fatigue because noise fatigue primarily manifests as physical and mental symptoms. Dizziness, emotional irritability, and impaired mental concentration are commonly associated with noise fatigue due to prolonged exposure to loud and excessive noise. However, a feeling of emptiness is not typically linked to noise fatigue and may be indicative of other factors or conditions.

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  • 32. 

    The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of relative wind is

    • Lift.

    • Drag.

    • Thrust.

    • Weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lift.
    Explanation
    When an object moves through the air, it experiences a force called lift. Lift is a force that acts perpendicular to the direction of the relative wind. It is responsible for keeping an object, such as an airplane, in the air. Drag is a force that opposes the motion of the object through the air. Thrust is the force that propels an object forward. Weight is the force exerted on an object due to gravity. Therefore, the force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of relative wind is lift.

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  • 33. 

    The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person's blood vessels to

    • Shrink.

    • Rupture.

    • Contract.

    • Collapse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rupture.
    Explanation
    At extremely high altitudes, the atmospheric pressure decreases significantly. This decrease in pressure can have adverse effects on the human body, including the blood vessels. When exposed to low atmospheric pressure, the blood vessels may not be able to withstand the pressure difference and can rupture, leading to internal bleeding. This can be dangerous and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, the correct answer is "rupture."

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  • 34. 

    A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguisher agent in orde to

    • Convert the liquid to a gas upon discharge.

    • Expel the agent from the bottle.

    • Assist in extinguishing the fire.

    • Stabilize the temperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Expel the agent from the bottle.
    Explanation
    A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguisher agent in order to expel the agent from the bottle. When the fire extinguisher is discharged, the nitrogen gas pressurizes the liquid agent, forcing it out of the bottle and onto the fire. This helps to effectively extinguish the fire by covering it with the agent and depriving it of oxygen. The nitrogen charge creates the necessary pressure to expel the agent quickly and efficiently.

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  • 35. 

    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

    • Training

    • Aircraft

    • Reference

    • Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference
    Explanation
    The reference TO library does not need to maintain publication currency because it contains information that is not time-sensitive. Reference materials typically consist of manuals, handbooks, and other resources that provide general information and guidelines, rather than specific operational procedures or training materials. Unlike training, aircraft, and operational TO libraries, which require regular updates to reflect the latest regulations, procedures, and equipment changes, the reference TO library can remain unchanged for longer periods.

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  • 36. 

    What is the design that uses any combination of logerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames in the construction of the fuelage called?

    • Fuselage

    • Longerons

    • Moncoque

    • Semi-monocoque

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-monocoque
    Explanation
    A semi-monocoque design is a type of construction for the fuselage that combines elements such as longerons, stringers, bulkheads, and frames. In this design, the skin of the fuselage carries a significant portion of the structural load, unlike a monocoque design where the skin carries all the load. The use of longerons, stringers, bulkheads, and frames in a semi-monocoque design helps to distribute the load and provide additional strength and rigidity to the fuselage structure.

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  • 37. 

    "The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space" is the definition of

    • Engine bleed air.

    • Air conditioning.

    • Pressurization.

    • Air control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air conditioning.
    Explanation
    Air conditioning is the correct answer because it involves the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space. Engine bleed air refers to the air taken from the compressor section of an aircraft engine for various purposes. Pressurization refers to the process of maintaining a higher air pressure inside an enclosed space compared to the surrounding environment. Air control is a vague term that could refer to various aspects of managing air flow or quality, but it does not specifically encompass all three elements mentioned in the question.

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  • 38. 

    Atmoshperic pressure at sea level is

    • 14.7 pounds per square inch

    • 17.4 psi

    • 29.92 psi

    • 29.29 psi

    Correct Answer
    A. 14.7 pounds per square inch
    Explanation
    Atmospheric pressure at sea level is commonly measured as 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). This is the average pressure exerted by the weight of the Earth's atmosphere on a unit area at sea level. It is a standard reference point for measuring atmospheric pressure and is often used in various applications such as weather forecasting, aviation, and diving.

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  • 39. 

    A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is called

    • Crazing.

    • Casting.

    • Fretting.

    • Pitting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crazing.
    Explanation
    Crazing refers to the network of ultrafine cracks that develop on or below the surface of transparent plastics. This phenomenon is commonly observed in materials like acrylic or polycarbonate when subjected to stress or exposure to certain chemicals. Crazing can weaken the structural integrity of the plastic and affect its transparency. Casting, fretting, and pitting are unrelated terms and do not describe the specific phenomenon of crack formation in transparent plastics.

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  • 40. 

    A barometer is designed to measure pressure in

    • Pounds per square inch.

    • Inches of mercury.

    • Milibars of alcohol.

    • Ounces of air.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inches of mercury.
    Explanation
    A barometer is designed to measure pressure, and the most commonly used unit for measuring pressure is inches of mercury. In a barometer, the pressure is measured by the height of a column of mercury in a tube. The higher the column of mercury, the greater the atmospheric pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is inches of mercury.

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  • 41. 

    The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called

    • Bending.

    • Tension.

    • Torsion.

    • Shear.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shear.
    Explanation
    Shear stress is the stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer. Bending refers to the deformation of a material due to an applied bending moment. Tension is the stress that occurs when a material is being pulled apart. Torsion is the stress that occurs when a material is being twisted. Therefore, shear is the correct answer as it specifically relates to the resistance of sliding between adjacent layers of material.

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  • 42. 

    Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion-resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of

    • 120,000 to 140,000 psi.

    • 150,000 to 170,000 psi.

    • 180,000 to 200,000 psi.

    • 210,000 to 230,000 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 180,000 to 200,000 psi.
    Explanation
    Engine mounts are subjected to high forces and vibrations generated by the engine. Therefore, they need to be made of a strong and durable material that can withstand these forces. The correct answer of 180,000 to 200,000 psi indicates that the engine mounts are made of corrosion-resistant steel with a high tensile strength. This allows them to effectively absorb and dampen the vibrations and forces produced by the engine, ensuring stability and longevity of the engine mount system.

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  • 43. 

    Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except

    • Heat.

    • Cold.

    • Chemical action.

    • Changing magnetic field.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cold.
    Explanation
    Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by various forces, such as heat, chemical action, and changing magnetic fields. However, cold does not have enough energy to overcome the binding forces that hold electrons in their orbits. Therefore, cold is the only force mentioned that cannot release electrons from their outer orbit.

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  • 44. 

    What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting?

    • Screwdriver.

    • Center punch.

    • Rawhide mallet.

    • Ball peen hammer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rawhide mallet.
    Explanation
    A rawhide mallet is used to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting. The rawhide material of the mallet provides a soft striking surface that won't damage or deform the clamp or ducting during installation. By using the rawhide mallet, the installer can gently tap the clamp into place, ensuring that it is aligned correctly and tightly sealed for optimal performance.

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  • 45. 

    A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of

    • Soft, malleable plastic.

    • Rubber or nylon material.

    • Hardened, pre-formed plastic.

    • Lightweight, pre-formed aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rubber or nylon material.
    Explanation
    A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of rubber or nylon material. Rubber and nylon are both soft and malleable materials that can easily be shaped and molded to fit the specific contours of the cavity. This flexibility allows the bladder-type tank to maximize the use of available space within the fuselage, ensuring efficient storage of liquids or gases.

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  • 46. 

    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

    • Directory

    • Pamphlet

    • Instruction

    • Supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. Pamphlet
    Explanation
    A pamphlet is a type of nondirective publication that can cite forms and provide guidance on completing them. However, it lacks the authority to enforce what is on the form. A pamphlet is typically used to provide information or educate readers on a particular topic, but it does not have the power to enforce compliance or dictate actions. Therefore, it is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 47. 

    What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called?

    • Buttlines.

    • Waterlines.

    • Buttock stations.

    • Fuselage stations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Waterlines.
    Explanation
    The reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft are called waterlines. Waterlines are used to measure the height or depth of different parts of the aircraft's structure relative to the waterline. This is important for various purposes, such as determining the aircraft's stability and balance, as well as for designing and constructing the aircraft's hull or fuselage.

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  • 48. 

    What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation?

    • Soap.

    • Water.

    • Grease.

    • Silicone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Water.
    Explanation
    Water can be used as a lubricant on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation. Water acts as a temporary lubricant and helps in reducing friction between the clamp sleeve and the surface it is being installed on. It allows for easier sliding and maneuvering of the sleeve, making the installation process smoother. Additionally, water is readily available and does not leave behind any residue or affect the performance of the clamp sleeve.

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  • 49. 

    Objectives of the MDD system include

    • Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • Calling, storing, retrieving base-level data

    • Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
    Explanation
    The objectives of the MDD system include collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data. This means that the system is designed to gather data, store it in a database, and allow users to access and retrieve the data when needed. This functionality is important for maintaining and managing a large amount of data efficiently and effectively. By collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data, the MDD system can support various processes and operations that rely on accurate and up-to-date information.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 30, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Bigdawg
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