2ax5x Air Force's Maintenance Capabilitie

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2ax5x Air Force

The military is a special part in the smooth running of the government. The air force most of the times is a show of might within and outside the country. The quiz below tests on the Air Force's maintenance capabilities.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 2. 
    What is the percentage of accidents attribute to unsafe acts and physical hazards?
    • A. 

      50

    • B. 

      70

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      98

  • 3. 
    Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?
    • A. 

      Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks

    • B. 

      TOs,, manuals, and CDCs

    • C. 

      Manuals, TOs, and handbooks

    • D. 

      TOs, handbooks, and CDCs

  • 4. 
    What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen?
    • A. 

      Initial

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Supervisor's

    • D. 

      Sustained job safety

  • 5. 
    A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than
    • A. 

      -2.0 percent

    • B. 

      -1.0 percent

    • C. 

      .1 percent

    • D. 

      1.0 percent

  • 6. 
    Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by
    • A. 

      The US Air Force

    • B. 

      Each MAJCOM

    • C. 

      DOD

    • D. 

      EPA

  • 7. 
    Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 8. 
    What affects radiation hazards?
    • A. 

      Strength of emission, time of day and, input power.

    • B. 

      Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

    • C. 

      Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area.

    • D. 

      Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units.

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Spray with cold water.

    • B. 

      Cool with forced air from a blower.

    • C. 

      Cool with high-pressure compressed air.

    • D. 

      Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.

  • 10. 
    The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of
    • A. 

      15 degrees

    • B. 

      45 degrees

    • C. 

      65 degrees

    • D. 

      95 degrees

  • 11. 
    Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?
    • A. 

      Dizziness

    • B. 

      Emotional irritability

    • C. 

      A feeling of emptiness

    • D. 

      Impaired mental concentration

  • 12. 
    When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices?
    • A. 

      Crew chief

    • B. 

      Flight engineer

    • C. 

      Weapons personnel

    • D. 

      Only senior personnel on special orders

  • 13. 
    Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must
    • A. 

      Install shorting plugs and clips.

    • B. 

      Install mechanical safety devices.

    • C. 

      Remove all ammunition and explosives.

    • D. 

      Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF.

  • 14. 
    All composite material-related safety and training must be documented on which AF IMT form?
    • A. 

      55

    • B. 

      457

    • C. 

      623

    • D. 

      1297

  • 15. 
    The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to
    • A. 

      Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly.

    • B. 

      Follow MAJCOM guidelines.

    • C. 

      Identify all possible sources of FOD.

    • D. 

      Educate all personnel.

  • 16. 
    Who is responsible for FOD prevention?
    • A. 

      Logistics and operations group commanders.

    • B. 

      Immediate supervisor.

    • C. 

      Wing commander

    • D. 

      Everyone.

  • 17. 
    When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the
    • A. 

      Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.

    • B. 

      Wing vice commander.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Wing commander.

  • 18. 
    In most units, who is responsible for investing dropped objects?
    • A. 

      The FOD prevention office.

    • B. 

      The operations commander.

    • C. 

      The flight safety officer.

    • D. 

      QA

  • 19. 
    The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
    • A. 

      Red markings.

    • B. 

      Black markings

    • C. 

      Green markings

    • D. 

      Orange markings

  • 20. 
    Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a
    • A. 

      15-foot radius

    • B. 

      20-foot radius

    • C. 

      25-foot radius

    • D. 

      50-foot radius

  • 21. 
    Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?
    • A. 

      Operations.

    • B. 

      The aircrew.

    • C. 

      Supervision.

    • D. 

      The ground crew.

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Tail of the aircraft and at 30 degrees angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • B. 

      Tail of the aircraft and at 30 degrees angle outboard of the engine being started.

    • C. 

      Nose of the aircraft and at 45 degrees angle inboard of the engine being started.

    • D. 

      Nose of the aircraft and at 45 degrees angle outboard of the engine being started.

  • 23. 
    What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?
    • A. 

      AFI 23-106

    • B. 

      AFI 11-218

    • C. 

      TO 00-25-172

    • D. 

      TO 00-25-212

  • 24. 
    During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?
    • A. 

      Supervisor or vehicle operator.

    • B. 

      Supervisor or brake operator.

    • C. 

      Supervisor or wing walkers.

    • D. 

      Supervisor only.

  • 25. 
    What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
    • A. 

      Departmental, intermediate, and field

    • B. 

      Organizational, field, and intermediate

    • C. 

      Organizational, intermediate, and depot

    • D. 

      Departmental, organizational, and depot

  • 26. 
    What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    • A. 

      Unscheduled

    • B. 

      Preventive

    • C. 

      Corrective

    • D. 

      Protective

  • 27. 
    Objectives of the MDD system include
    • A. 

      Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • B. 

      Calling, storing, retrieving base-level data

    • C. 

      Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

    • D. 

      Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

  • 28. 
    What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system data base?
    • A. 

      Damaged and spare items

    • B. 

      Expired and outdated items

    • C. 

      Recurring and repeat replacement items

    • D. 

      Select serially controlled and time change items

  • 29. 
    What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?
    • A. 

      781A

    • B. 

      781F

    • C. 

      781H

    • D. 

      781J

  • 30. 
    The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder
    • A. 

      Before the first flight of the day

    • B. 

      Before each thruflight inspection

    • C. 

      After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing

    • D. 

      After each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

  • 31. 
    Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO
    • A. 

      781G

    • B. 

      781J

    • C. 

      781M

    • D. 

      781P

  • 32. 
    Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?
    • A. 

      Base supply coordinator

    • B. 

      Critical item liaison

    • C. 

      Equipment liaison

    • D. 

      Item managers

  • 33. 
    The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the
    • A. 

      MAJCOM level

    • B. 

      Wing level

    • C. 

      Base level

    • D. 

      Unit level

  • 34. 
    The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by
    • A. 

      Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty

    • B. 

      Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training

    • C. 

      Helping evaluate the training of new personnel

    • D. 

      Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel training

  • 35. 
    When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program?
    • A. 

      Within 60 days of arrivals

    • B. 

      Upon duty position assignment

    • C. 

      When someone changes duty positions

    • D. 

      30 days after in-processing new personnel

  • 36. 
    The GAS is normally sent out
    • A. 

      90 days after graduation

    • B. 

      6 months after graduation

    • C. 

      Within 10 work days after graduation

    • D. 

      Within 10 calendar days after graduation

  • 37. 
    Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
    • A. 

      CFETP, Part 1

    • B. 

      AFJQS

    • C. 

      Command JQS

    • D. 

      CFETP, Part 2

  • 38. 
    The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global real-time
    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • D. 

      Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

  • 39. 
    Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
    • A. 

      Training

    • B. 

      Aircraft

    • C. 

      Reference

    • D. 

      Operational

  • 40. 
    What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 41. 
    Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
    • A. 

      Trouble

    • B. 

      Remedy

    • C. 

      Section 2

    • D. 

      Probable Cause

  • 42. 
    What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Urgent action

    • C. 

      Routine action

    • D. 

      Immediate action

  • 43. 
    Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
    • A. 

      00-1-01

    • B. 

      00-5-1

    • C. 

      00-20 series

    • D. 

      00-25 series

  • 44. 
    Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
    • A. 

      Waiver

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 45. 
    Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?
    • A. 

      Directory

    • B. 

      Pamphlet

    • C. 

      Instruction

    • D. 

      Supplement

  • 46. 
    Atmoshperic pressure at sea level is
    • A. 

      14.7 pounds per square inch

    • B. 

      17.4 psi

    • C. 

      29.92 psi

    • D. 

      29.29 psi

  • 47. 
    A barometer is designed to measure pressure in
    • A. 

      Pounds per square inch.

    • B. 

      Inches of mercury.

    • C. 

      Milibars of alcohol.

    • D. 

      Ounces of air.

  • 48. 
    The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is
    • A. 

      Lift.

    • B. 

      Drag.

    • C. 

      Thrust.

    • D. 

      Weight.

  • 49. 
    The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of relative wind is
    • A. 

      Lift.

    • B. 

      Drag.

    • C. 

      Thrust.

    • D. 

      Weight.

  • 50. 
    The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is
    • A. 

      Lift.

    • B. 

      Drag.

    • C. 

      Gravity.

    • D. 

      Weight.

  • 51. 
    The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called
    • A. 

      Bending.

    • B. 

      Tension.

    • C. 

      Torsion.

    • D. 

      Shear.

  • 52. 
    What is the design that uses any combination of logerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames in the construction of the fuelage called?
    • A. 

      Fuselage

    • B. 

      Longerons

    • C. 

      Moncoque

    • D. 

      Semi-monocoque

  • 53. 
    The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure are called
    • A. 

      Longerons.

    • B. 

      Bulkheads.

    • C. 

      Stringers.

    • D. 

      Frames.

  • 54. 
    The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is
    • A. 

      Steel.

    • B. 

      Titanium.

    • C. 

      Magnesium.

    • D. 

      Aluminum alloy.

  • 55. 
    The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is
    • A. 

      Cantilever.

    • B. 

      Monocoque.

    • C. 

      External braced.

    • D. 

      Semi-monocoque.

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Stabilator.

    • B. 

      Elevator.

    • C. 

      Rudder.

    • D. 

      Fin.

  • 57. 
    Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion-resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of
    • A. 

      120,000 to 140,000 psi.

    • B. 

      150,000 to 170,000 psi.

    • C. 

      180,000 to 200,000 psi.

    • D. 

      210,000 to 230,000 psi.

  • 58. 
    The main difference between inspection plates and panels is
    • A. 

      Size.

    • B. 

      Material.

    • C. 

      Location.

    • D. 

      Installation.

  • 59. 
    A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is called
    • A. 

      Crazing.

    • B. 

      Casting.

    • C. 

      Fretting.

    • D. 

      Pitting.

  • 60. 
    What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called?
    • A. 

      Buttlines.

    • B. 

      Waterlines.

    • C. 

      Buttock stations.

    • D. 

      Fuselage stations.

  • 61. 
    Movement about the vertical axis is called
    • A. 

      Roll.

    • B. 

      Yaw.

    • C. 

      Crab.

    • D. 

      Pitch.

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Rudder.

    • B. 

      Aileron.

    • C. 

      Elevator.

    • D. 

      Wing flaps.

  • 63. 
    Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer?
    • A. 

      Flap.

    • B. 

      Spoiler.

    • C. 

      Rudder.

    • D. 

      Elevator.

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Up, left aileron trailing edge is up.

    • B. 

      Up, left aileron trailing edge is down.

    • C. 

      Down, left aileron trailing edge is up.

    • D. 

      Down, left aileron trailing edge is down.

  • 65. 
    The purpose of the wing flaps is to
    • A. 

      Increase lift and drag.

    • B. 

      Decrease lift and drag.

    • C. 

      Increase lift and decrease drag.

    • D. 

      Decrease lift and increase drag.

  • 66. 
    The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to
    • A. 

      Reduce the amount of lift.

    • B. 

      Prevent aircraft from stalling.

    • C. 

      Correct minor deviations in flight attitude.

    • D. 

      Improve augmented lateral control surfaces movement.

  • 67. 
    Matter is any substance that has mass and
    • A. 

      Can be seen.

    • B. 

      Occupies space.

    • C. 

      Has constant volume.

    • D. 

      Cannot be compressed.

  • 68. 
    Atoms are made up of
    • A. 

      Molecules, protons, neutrons.

    • B. 

      Protons, molecules, electrons.

    • C. 

      Molecules, neutrons, electrons.

    • D. 

      Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

  • 69. 
    Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except
    • A. 

      Heat.

    • B. 

      Cold.

    • C. 

      Chemical action.

    • D. 

      Changing magnetic field.

  • 70. 
    What is electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor called?
    • A. 

      Chemical swap.

    • B. 

      Crossfeed field.

    • C. 

      Electromotive force.

    • D. 

      Transferring magnetic field.

  • 71. 
    If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage would be
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      6.

    • D. 

      18.

  • 72. 
    In its natural state oxygen is
    • A. 

      Tasteless, colorless, and odorless.

    • B. 

      Tasteless, volumeless, and odorless.

    • C. 

      Tasteless, colorless, and weightless.

    • D. 

      Volumeless, weightless, and colorless.

  • 73. 
    What gaseous oxygen (GOX) system valve type prevents a complete loss of oxygen?
    • A. 

      Filler.

    • B. 

      Check.

    • C. 

      Shutoff.

    • D. 

      Pressure-reducing.

  • 74. 
    The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cellulose tape that is
    • A. 

      Brown and orange.

    • B. 

      Blue and yellow.

    • C. 

      Green and white.

    • D. 

      Black and red.

  • 75. 
    The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is that it
    • A. 

      Wastes oxygen.

    • B. 

      Is unusable below 10,000 feet.

    • C. 

      Is usable only above 20,000 feet.

    • D. 

      Delivers oxygen at varying pressure.

  • 76. 
    What does the molecule sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel?
    • A. 

      16 man-minutes of oxygen.

    • B. 

      93 percent oxygen-enriched gas.

    • C. 

      97 percent nitrogen-enriched gas.

    • D. 

      100 percent oxygen-enriched gas.

  • 77. 
    Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of
    • A. 

      600 to 1.

    • B. 

      680 to 1.

    • C. 

      800 to 1.

    • D. 

      860 to 1.

  • 78. 
    Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system's combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the
    • A. 

      Fill position.

    • B. 

      Vent position.

    • C. 

      Normal position.

    • D. 

      Buildup position.

  • 79. 
    On an aircraft liquid oxygen (LOX) system, the handle on a manually operated buildup and vent valve is designed to prevent
    • A. 

      Slow pressure buildup.

    • B. 

      Rapid venting of system pressure.

    • C. 

      LOX system pressure loss during maintenance.

    • D. 

      The filler access door from closing in the vent position.

  • 80. 
    Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section?
    • A. 

      Intake.

    • B. 

      Turbine.

    • C. 

      Exhaust.

    • D. 

      Compressor.

  • 81. 
    Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the
    • A. 

      Ambient pressure and ambient temperature.

    • B. 

      Engine throttle setting and ambient altitude.

    • C. 

      Ambient pressure and engine throttle setting.

    • D. 

      Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature.

  • 82. 
    What is the purpose of the engine bleed (EBA) check valves?
    • A. 

      Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air.

    • B. 

      Maintain balanced airflow from each engine.

    • C. 

      Provide a primary source for compressed bleed air.

    • D. 

      Reduce bleed air pressure when the pressure is to high.

  • 83. 
    What engine bleed air (EBA) component prevents loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown?
    • A. 

      Check valve.

    • B. 

      Shutoff valve

    • C. 

      Isolation valve.

    • D. 

      Crossover valve.

  • 84. 
    The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air conditioning is usually made of
    • A. 

      Titanium.

    • B. 

      Aluminum.

    • C. 

      Stainless steel.

    • D. 

      Aluminum/nickel alloy.

  • 85. 
    What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting?
    • A. 

      Screwdriver.

    • B. 

      Center punch.

    • C. 

      Rawhide mallet.

    • D. 

      Ball peen hammer.

  • 86. 
    What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket?
    • A. 

      Clamp flange.

    • B. 

      Bolted flange.

    • C. 

      Beaded flange.

    • D. 

      Compressible flange.

  • 87. 
    What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation?
    • A. 

      Soap.

    • B. 

      Water.

    • C. 

      Grease.

    • D. 

      Silicone.

  • 88. 
    The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of
    • A. 

      Fiber and fiberglass.

    • B. 

      Fiberglass and neoprene, or rubber.

    • C. 

      A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh.

    • D. 

      A soft aluminum, and fiber reinforced rubber or plastic.

  • 89. 
    Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for
    • A. 

      Ram air ducting.

    • B. 

      A long run of ducting.

    • C. 

      A short run of ducting

    • D. 

      Answer option 4

  • 90. 
    What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes?
    • A. 

      Thermal compensators.

    • B. 

      Expansion bellows.

    • C. 

      Puckered flaps.

    • D. 

      Vent holes.

  • 91. 
    What is defined as "a depression in the duct wall, where the surface of the material isn't cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material?"
    • A. 

      Minor dent.

    • B. 

      Major dent.

    • C. 

      Scratch.

    • D. 

      Gouge.

  • 92. 
    "The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space" is the definition of
    • A. 

      Engine bleed air.

    • B. 

      Air conditioning.

    • C. 

      Pressurization.

    • D. 

      Air control.

  • 93. 
    What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)?
    • A. 

      Primary heat exchanger.

    • B. 

      Air cycle machine.

    • C. 

      Water separator.

    • D. 

      Air cooler.

  • 94. 
    What aircraft air conditioning system component controls the flow of ram air through the primary heat exchangers?
    • A. 

      Air cycle machine.

    • B. 

      Refrigeration bypass valve.

    • C. 

      Movable inlet and exit doors.

    • D. 

      Primary ram air controller assemblies.

  • 95. 
    The rapid cooling of bleed air causes
    • A. 

      The air pressure to increase.

    • B. 

      Moisture to condense in the form of fog.

    • C. 

      Ice to form in secondary heat exchanger.

    • D. 

      A loss of pressure as it exits the air cycle machine compressor.

  • 96. 
    As bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased. With the increase in pressure, there is also an increase in temperature. Which component removes most of the increase in temperature?
    • A. 

      Primary heat exchanger.

    • B. 

      Secondary heat exchanger.

    • C. 

      Air cycle machine bypass valve.

    • D. 

      Air cycle machine expansion turbine.

  • 97. 
    The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person's blood vessels to
    • A. 

      Shrink.

    • B. 

      Rupture.

    • C. 

      Contract.

    • D. 

      Collapse.

  • 98. 
    What controls the action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, singlr differential pressurization system?
    • A. 

      A jet pump.

    • B. 

      Filtering cabin air.

    • C. 

      The unpressurized range.

    • D. 

      Regulating control chamber pressure.

  • 99. 
    What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator?
    • A. 

      A diaphragm, fulcrum, and aneroid.

    • B. 

      A rocker arm, diaphragm, and fulcrum.

    • C. 

      An aneroid, spring, and metering valve.

    • D. 

      A spring, metering valve, and rocker arm.

  • 100. 
    What are the components of the differential section of the cabin pressure regulator?
    • A. 

      A spring, metering valve, aneroid.

    • B. 

      An aneroid, rocker arm, and fulcrum.

    • C. 

      A rocker arm, fulcrum, and diaphragm.

    • D. 

      A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve.

  • 101. 
    What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight?
    • A. 

      The outflow valves.

    • B. 

      A manual controller.

    • C. 

      The cabin altitude selector.

    • D. 

      A positive pressure relief valve.

  • 102. 
    What is the purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system?
    • A. 

      Control the venting of cabin pressure.

    • B. 

      Control the reference chamber pressure.

    • C. 

      Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time.

    • D. 

      Ensure that the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open.

  • 103. 
    In the variable isobaric pressurization system, the manual control valve is used as an alternate when the
    • A. 

      Safety valve fails.

    • B. 

      Outflow valve fails.

    • C. 

      Pneumatic relay fails.

    • D. 

      Cabin pressure controller fails.

  • 104. 
    The normal connection for the thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with
    • A. 

      Each other only.

    • B. 

      The power source and with the warning light.

    • C. 

      Each other and in parallel with the power source.

    • D. 

      The warning light and parallel to each other.

  • 105. 
    The fire detector, frequently used in fire warning systems, that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called
    • A. 

      An electroconductive sensor.

    • B. 

      An Iron Fireman switch.

    • C. 

      A photoconductive cell.

    • D. 

      A FENWAL switch.

  • 106. 
    The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of
    • A. 

      10 Hz.

    • B. 

      100 Hz.

    • C. 

      200 Hz.

    • D. 

      400 Hz.

  • 107. 
    A liquid fire extinguisher agent douses a fire by
    • A. 

      Releasing a fine mist vapor.

    • B. 

      Excluding oxygen from the area.

    • C. 

      Assist in extinguishing the fire.

    • D. 

      Dispersing a large amount of liquid.

  • 108. 
    A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguisher agent in orde to
    • A. 

      Convert the liquid to a gas upon discharge.

    • B. 

      Expel the agent from the bottle.

    • C. 

      Assist in extinguishing the fire.

    • D. 

      Stabilize the temperature.

  • 109. 
    What liquid-agent fire extinguisher container component holds in both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge?
    • A. 

      Squib.

    • B. 

      Frangible disc.

    • C. 

      Bonnet assembly.

    • D. 

      Rubber O-ring packing.

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      Break cleanly into small pieces.

    • B. 

      Allow undisturbed fluid flow through the system.

    • C. 

      Enable the pieces to pass easily through the strainer.

    • D. 

      Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer.

  • 111. 
    What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?
    • A. 

      Sump and drain.

    • B. 

      Pump and drain.

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve.

    • D. 

      Fuel-level control valve.

  • 112. 
    A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of
    • A. 

      Soft, malleable plastic.

    • B. 

      Rubber or nylon material.

    • C. 

      Hardened, pre-formed plastic.

    • D. 

      Lightweight, pre-formed aluminum.

  • 113. 
    Wing tanks are
    • A. 

      Bladder-type tanks that conform to the vacant cavity within the wing.

    • B. 

      Lightweight, aluminum tanks inserted into empty wing cavities.

    • C. 

      Sealed-off parts of the wing structure.

    • D. 

      Soft, malleable plastic tanks.

  • 114. 
    A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used
    • A. 

      For boost, transfer, or air refueling operations.

    • B. 

      In any area requiring a pump with no moving parts.

    • C. 

      To scavenge the remaining fuel in low areas of a fuel tank.

    • D. 

      When the output volume of the pump must be in direct proportion to its speed.

  • 115. 
    What type of fuel pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing?
    • A. 

      Jet

    • B. 

      Ejector

    • C. 

      Top-mounted centrifugal pump with variable-speed hydraulic drive.

    • D. 

      Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series wound motor.

  • 116. 
    What kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions?
    • A. 

      Rotary-vane.

    • B. 

      Top-mounted.

    • C. 

      Dual-impeller.

    • D. 

      In-line ejector.