The Ultimate Airforce Maintenance & Equipment Quiz

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  • 1/130 Questions

    (007) What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

    • Performance and health.
    • Trending and impacting.
    • Positive and negative.
    • Leading and lagging.
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About This Quiz

Do you anything about Air Force Maintenance? Are you ready to take a quiz? The role of maintenance specialists in the Air Force is crucial. They have to ensure that the components of every aircraft are intact and all the pieces of equipment are maintained all the time. Play our quiz and learn everything there is to know about the Air Force maintenance.

The Ultimate Airforce Maintenance & Equipment Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    (201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7-level course.

    • Weight and Balance.

    • Maintenance Orientation.

    • General Technical Order System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Orientation.
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation training course in a Maintenance Training Flight (MTF). This method involves grouping related topics together in blocks or modules, allowing for a more organized and efficient learning experience. The Maintenance Orientation course provides an overview of maintenance operations, policies, and procedures, making it an ideal fit for the block training method.

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  • 3. 

    (225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs the task?

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Special Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Evaluation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Personnel Evaluation. This assessment involves an over-the-shoulder evaluation of the technician's performance while they are carrying out a task. It is a form of individual assessment conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET). This evaluation is focused on assessing the technician's skills, knowledge, and adherence to standard procedures. It helps in identifying any areas where the technician may require additional training or improvement.

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  • 4. 

    (001) Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?

    • Cross-tells.

    • Self-inspections.

    • Technical orders.

    • National stock numbers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross-tells.
    Explanation
    Cross-tells are used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes. Cross-tells involve comparing data from different sources or systems to identify patterns or discrepancies. By analyzing cross-tell data, organizations can identify areas for improvement, track performance metrics, and ensure compliance with safety standards. This helps in identifying any issues or trends that may require attention or corrective actions to maintain efficient and safe maintenance operations.

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  • 5. 

    (012) Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

    • Electro-environmental specialists.

    • Propulsion specialists.

    • Avionics specialists.

    • Crew Chiefs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electro-environmental specialists.
    Explanation
    Electro-environmental specialists are responsible for maintaining aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components. This involves troubleshooting, repairing, and ensuring the proper functioning of these systems to ensure the safety and efficiency of the aircraft. They have the necessary knowledge and skills to handle and maintain these specific systems, making them the correct choice for this task.

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  • 6. 

    (209) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3.

    • XD2.

    • XD1.

    • XB3.

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3.
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) of XB3. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed during normal operations. It also indicates that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it is not economically feasible to repair or recover the item. Lastly, it indicates that the asset is reparable, meaning it can be restored to a serviceable condition through maintenance or repair processes.

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  • 7. 

    (001) Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

    • Off-equipment

    • On- equipment

    • Preventive

    • Corrective

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance is a type of maintenance that focuses on regularly inspecting and servicing equipment to prevent breakdowns and ensure its readiness and availability when needed. This type of maintenance involves routine tasks such as cleaning, lubricating, and replacing worn-out parts to prevent potential failures and keep the equipment in optimal working condition. By proactively addressing any potential issues, preventive maintenance helps to minimize downtime and maximize the lifespan of the equipment, ultimately ensuring that it is ready and available at the time of need.

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  • 8. 

    (010) Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?

    • 55.

    • 144.

    • 435.

    • 623.

    Correct Answer
    A. 55.
    Explanation
    Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using AF IMT 55. This form is specifically designed for recording and reporting safety incidents, accidents, and near misses in the workplace. It allows for the collection of important data such as the date, time, location, and nature of the incident, as well as any injuries or property damage that occurred. By using AF IMT 55, organizations can effectively track and analyze safety trends, identify areas for improvement, and ensure compliance with safety regulations.

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  • 9. 

    (202) In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSgt.

    • MSgt.

    • SMSgt.

    • CMSgt.

    Correct Answer
    A. MSgt.
    Explanation
    In order to be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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  • 10. 

    (207) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • 12 hours.

    • 13 hours.

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. This means that you can schedule your workers to work continuously for a maximum of 12 hours without needing approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). This policy is likely in place to ensure that workers do not become fatigued or overworked, which could potentially lead to safety hazards or decreased productivity. By limiting the continuous duty time to 12 hours, the organization can prioritize the well-being and effectiveness of its workers.

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  • 11. 

    (207) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • 14 hours.

    • 15 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 18 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hours.
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for maintenance work to be done for a longer duration, the maintenance group commander has the authority to extend the shift up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks are completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 12. 

    (213) Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft commander.

    • Host installation commander.

    • Operations Group Commander.

    • Mission Support Group commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Host installation commander.
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This is because the host installation commander is responsible for the overall security and management of the installation, including the authorization of storage facilities for classified material. The other options, such as the aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander, may have other responsibilities related to the transportation and handling of classified material, but the ultimate authority lies with the host installation commander.

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  • 13. 

    (216) Once a Category 1 deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening point within

    • 8 hours.

    • 16 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    • 32 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    Once a Category 1 deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening point within 24 hours. This means that the report must be submitted within a day of the deficiency being discovered. This is important in order to ensure that the deficiency is promptly addressed and appropriate actions can be taken to rectify the issue. Delaying the submission of the report beyond 24 hours may lead to further complications and potential risks.

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  • 14. 

    (221) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Programs and Resources Flight.

    • Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D).

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D).
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is responsible for notifying Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D). PS&D is responsible for maintaining records and documentation related to maintenance activities, including cannibalization. They need to be notified so that they can update the documentation and ensure that the necessary scheduling and planning adjustments are made to account for the cannibalization of the item. Quality Assurance, Programs and Resources Flight, and Maintenance Management analysis (MMA) are not directly involved in the documentation and scheduling aspects of cannibalization.

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  • 15. 

    (223) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Quality Assurance section.

    • Engine Management section.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is typically located within the Quality Assurance section. This section is responsible for ensuring that maintenance procedures and practices are in compliance with established standards and regulations. The FOD monitor plays a crucial role in preventing foreign object damage to aircraft by monitoring and inspecting the maintenance activities and the surrounding areas for any potential hazards or debris that could cause damage to the aircraft. Therefore, it is logical for the FOD monitor to be located within the Quality Assurance section to ensure effective oversight and control.

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  • 16. 

    (223) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • Bolt.

    • Panel.

    • Safety pin.

    • Explosive munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive munitions.
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or dropped as part of aircrew operations. The program is designed to prevent accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard to personnel or equipment. Bolts, panels, and safety pins, on the other hand, are items that should not be dropped during aircrew operations, as they can cause damage or injury if they fall.

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  • 17. 

    (007) What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

    • Metrics.

    • Reports.

    • Standards.

    • Instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Metrics.
    Explanation
    Metrics provide a measurement of unit performance and capability. Metrics are used to quantify and evaluate various aspects of performance, such as productivity, efficiency, and effectiveness. They provide objective data that can be used to assess the performance of a unit or organization, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions. Reports, standards, and instructions may provide guidance and information, but they do not specifically measure performance and capability like metrics do.

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  • 18. 

    (012) Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

    • Aircraft section.

    • Support section.

    • Weapons section.

    • Armament Support section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Support section.
    Explanation
    The Support section is responsible for the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash-21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment. This section is in charge of ensuring that all necessary equipment is properly maintained and stored to support the overall mission. They play a crucial role in providing the necessary resources and support for the smooth functioning of the organization.

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  • 19. 

    (013) In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

    • AFTO IMT 244s.

    • Driver radios.

    • Sub-pools.

    • Drivers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sub-pools.
    Explanation
    Sub-pools are centrally located to enhance mission performance in relation to aerospace ground equipment. Sub-pools are designated areas where equipment and resources are stored and maintained. By having these sub-pools centrally located, it allows for easy access and efficient distribution of equipment to support aerospace missions. This ensures that the necessary equipment is readily available and can be quickly deployed when needed, ultimately enhancing mission performance.

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  • 20. 

    (201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • Air Training Command (ATC).

    • Air Reserve Command (AFRC).

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This is because AETC is responsible for providing initial and advanced training to all Air Force personnel. TDs are specialized units that focus on specific training programs or courses, and they are under the command and control of AETC. Therefore, AETC is the correct MAJCOM to which TDs are assigned.

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  • 21. 

    (203) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware.

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings.

    • Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.

    • Visibility of technical qualification, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualification, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time access to Distance Learning courseware, access to special certification roster criteria listings, and visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide. However, the correct answer is visibility of technical qualification, certifications, and training statuses of personnel. This means that TBA allows Air Force personnel to see the qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of individuals in order to track their progress and ensure they meet the necessary requirements for their roles.

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  • 22. 

    (205) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer.

    • Group commander.

    • Unit training manager.

    • Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager.
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to gather information about the trainee's career goals, assess their readiness for the course, and ensure that the supervisor is supportive of the trainee's career development. The Unit training manager plays a crucial role in coordinating and facilitating the career development process for trainees.

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  • 23. 

    (210) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • Oil sheen on standing water.

    • Stressed vegetation.

    • Stains on ground.

    • Cloudy water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water.
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can occur naturally due to sediment or minerals in the water. Other options such as oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to be indicators of pollution as they are not typically found in natural environments.

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  • 24. 

    (219) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Engine Management.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This role is responsible for overseeing and managing the quality control and improvement processes within the organization. They ensure that products meet the required standards and specifications, identify areas for improvement, and implement corrective actions. By being part of the Quality Assurance section, the Product Improvement Manager can effectively monitor and enhance the overall quality of the organization's products and services.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    Priority 1 maintenance repair is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions. This means that these aircraft have the highest priority for maintenance repairs, as they are crucial for immediate response and readiness in critical situations.

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  • 26. 

    (012) Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations.

    • Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter.

    • Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief.

    • Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.

    • Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.
    Explanation
    The Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations.

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  • 27. 

    (208) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • Maintenance Squadron (MXS).

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for providing logistics support to the entire base or unit, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. As liaison personnel, their role is to coordinate and communicate between the maintenance squadron and the LRS to ensure efficient and effective supply operations. This includes managing inventory, ordering and receiving supplies, and coordinating repair and maintenance activities. Reporting directly to the LRS commander ensures clear communication and coordination of these logistics functions.

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  • 28. 

    (209) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings of other engineering data?

    • Audio Visual Center.

    • Engineering Data Service Center.

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory.

    • Communication and Information System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center.
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for collecting, organizing, and storing these important documents and information. The Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System do not have the same role or function as the Engineering Data Service Center in terms of being a central repository for engineering data.

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  • 29. 

    (222) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8.

    • 9.

    • 10.

    • 11.

    Correct Answer
    A. 9.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9. An equipment identification designator (EID) code is used to identify tools and equipment. It is a unique code assigned to each item and is typically made up of a combination of letters and numbers. Since the question asks for the number of digits in the EID code, we can assume that only the numerical part of the code is being referred to. Therefore, the correct answer is 9, as it indicates that the EID code consists of 9 digits.

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  • 30. 

    (223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8.

    • 12.

    • 24.

    • 48.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24.
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This time frame allows for prompt reporting and investigation of the incident, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to prevent further FOD incidents and mitigate any potential damage or risks. It also allows for timely communication with the MAJCOM FOD manager, who is responsible for overseeing FOD prevention and management at the major command level.

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  • 31. 

    (224) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

    • AFTTP 3-21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.

    • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • AFI 33-103, Requirements Development and Processing.

    • AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
    Explanation
    AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance documentation and reporting. Therefore, AFI 21-101 is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 32. 

    (225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection.
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection ensures that the task has been completed correctly and meets the required quality standards. It involves checking the work done by the technician to verify its accuracy and adherence to established procedures and guidelines. This assessment helps maintain the overall quality and standardization of maintenance tasks.

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  • 33. 

    (002) Which maintenance capability category is preformed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?

    • Two-level maintenance.

    • Organizational.

    • Intermediate.

    • Depot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intermediate.
    Explanation
    Intermediate maintenance is performed at the backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance. This means that the maintenance tasks are done in a designated maintenance facility rather than directly on the equipment itself. This category of maintenance is typically more complex and requires specialized skills and equipment. Organizational maintenance is performed at the unit level and involves basic maintenance tasks. Two-level maintenance refers to a combination of organizational and intermediate maintenance. Depot maintenance is performed at a higher level and involves major repairs and overhauls.

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  • 34. 

    (004) When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as

    • Wing OIs.

    • Separate group OIs.

    • Support agreements.

    • Air Force instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing OIs.
    Explanation
    When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as wing OIs. This means that the instructions should be consolidated and published at the wing level, rather than creating separate OIs for each individual group. Publishing them as wing OIs ensures consistency and standardization across the groups within the wing, making it easier for personnel to access and follow the instructions. It also allows for better coordination and communication within the wing, as everyone is following the same set of instructions.

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  • 35. 

    (010) Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

    • Accountability and control procedures.

    • Deployments and wing-level taskings.

    • Qualification and upgrade training.

    • Scheduled maintenance actions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualification and upgrade training.
    Explanation
    Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing cross-utilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with qualification and upgrade training. This means that their main responsibility is to ensure that the training requirements for employees in different sections do not hinder or interfere with their qualification and upgrade training. They need to coordinate and schedule the cross-utilization training in a way that allows individuals to still focus on their necessary qualification and upgrade training.

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  • 36. 

    (011) Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    • Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Production Superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
    Explanation
    The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for maintaining standardized aircraft jacket files and attending pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings. They are in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as documenting all relevant information. This section plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance tasks are properly organized and executed, and that all necessary documentation is accurately maintained.

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  • 37. 

    (210) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.

    • DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.

    • DD Form 1577-1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.

    • DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
  • 38. 

    (211) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more previous metals?

    • A.

    • C.

    • G.

    • P.

    Correct Answer
    A. C.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals.

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  • 39. 

    (214) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • Customer.

    • Maintenance Supply support.

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer.
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who is in need of the parts, decides how urgent the delivery should be based on their specific requirements and timeline. They have the authority to prioritize their needs and communicate them to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain process.

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  • 40. 

    (012) What agency's basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?

    • Transient Alert.

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit.

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft Maintenance Unit.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aircraft Maintenance Unit. The basic mission of the Aircraft Maintenance Unit is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations. Transient Alert is responsible for supporting transient aircraft, Maintenance Flight is responsible for general maintenance tasks, and Maintenance Operations Squadron oversees the overall maintenance operations. However, it is the Aircraft Maintenance Unit that specifically focuses on the launch, recovery, and daily flying operations of aircraft.

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  • 41. 

    (214) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA.

    • AR or BR.

    • AA or AM.

    • BM or CM.

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR.
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. These UJCs indicate a high priority for the supply request, suggesting that the repair is urgent and needs to be addressed promptly.

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  • 42. 

    (005) What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?

    • 781J.

    • 245.

    • 244.

    • 95.

    Correct Answer
    A. 95.
    Explanation
    AFTO IMT 95 is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels.

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  • 43. 

    (006) Which integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components fro time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?

    • C-E Equipment Status.

    • Job Data Documentation.

    • Status and Inventory Reporting.

    • Comprehensive Engine Management System.

    Correct Answer
    A. Comprehensive Engine Management System.
    Explanation
    The Comprehensive Engine Management System subsystem in the integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections. It also establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components. This subsystem is specifically designed to manage and monitor the maintenance of engines and their associated components, ensuring that necessary inspections and time-changes are conducted and recorded accurately.

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  • 44. 

    (205) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC every month on the current status of training within the maintenance group. This regular briefing ensures that the MXG/CC is kept informed and can make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the training progress.

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  • 45. 

    (205) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15.

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.
    Explanation
    If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete the recertification after they have returned from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation. If they fail to complete the recertification within this 30-day period, they will be decertified.

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  • 46. 

    (208) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 15.

    • 30.

    • 45.

    • 60.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30.
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account. This allows for timely replenishment of essential supplies and ensures that the mission can continue without interruption. Transferring the assets after 30 days strikes a balance between ensuring that the kit is readily available for immediate use and preventing unnecessary delays in restocking the kit.

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  • 47. 

    (006) In addition to being familiar with the unit's assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least

    • A 5-level.

    • A 7-level.

    • A Senior Airman.

    • A non-commissioned officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A 5-level.
    Explanation
    Squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least a 5-level. This means that they must have completed the necessary training and have the required experience to be considered competent in their assigned weapon system(s). Being a 5-level indicates that they have achieved a certain level of proficiency and knowledge in their field. It is essential for these representatives to have this level of expertise in order to effectively contribute to the Data Integrity Team and ensure the accuracy and reliability of data within the squadron.

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  • 48. 

    (010) When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?

    • Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Group manning manager.

    • Squadron commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center.
    Explanation
    When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, they must inform the Maintenance Operations Center of specialist non-availability at the beginning of each shift. The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including tracking the availability of specialists. By informing them of any non-availability, the superintendent ensures that the center can adjust the workload and allocate resources effectively. This helps to maintain the efficiency and productivity of the maintenance squadron.

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  • 49. 

    (013) Which Fabrication Flight section's processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tolls they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?

    • Low Observable.

    • Metals Technology.

    • Non-Destructive Inspection.

    • Aircraft Structural Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Metals Technology.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Metals Technology. Metals Technology is responsible for manufacturing parts and tools that must meet the high standards required for aerospace-grade equipment. This section's processes are tightly controlled to ensure that the fabricated parts and tools meet these stringent standards.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 02, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Masterlint
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