International Financial Management- Quiz III

Licensing refers to the practice of granting permission to another party to use a firm's intellectual property, such as copyrights, patents, trademarks, or trade names, in exchange for certain benefits, usually in the form of fees or royalties. This allows the licensee to legally use the technology or intellectual property while the licensor retains ownership. Therefore, the statement "Licensing is the process by which a firm provides its technology in exchange for fees or some other specified benefits" is true.

Under the gold standard, each currency could be exchanged for a specific amount of gold at a fixed rate. This meant that the exchange rate between two currencies was determined by their convertibility rates per ounce of gold. Therefore, the statement is true as it accurately describes how the gold standard worked.

Currency devaluation refers to the deliberate lowering of the value of a country's currency relative to other currencies. This makes the country's exports cheaper for foreign buyers, increasing their competitiveness and potentially boosting exports. On the other hand, currency revaluation is the opposite, where the value of a country's currency is increased. This makes the country's exports more expensive for foreign buyers, potentially reducing their competitiveness and increasing foreign competition. Therefore, the statement that currency devaluation can boost a country's exports while currency revaluation can increase foreign competition is true.

The commonly accepted goal of the MNC is to maximize shareholder wealth. This means that the primary objective of a multinational corporation is to generate the highest possible return for its shareholders. This is typically achieved by making strategic decisions that increase the value of the company's stock, such as increasing profits, expanding market share, or making wise investment choices. By focusing on maximizing shareholder wealth, the MNC aims to attract and retain investors, ensuring the long-term success and sustainability of the company.

The most traded pair on the Forex is EUR/USD because it represents the two largest economies in the world, the Eurozone and the United States. This pair is highly liquid and has tight spreads, making it attractive to traders. Additionally, the Euro and the US Dollar are widely accepted and used in international trade and finance, further contributing to the popularity of this pair.

Futures contracts are typically sold on an exchange, meaning that they are traded through a centralized marketplace where buyers and sellers come together. On the other hand, forward contracts are typically offered by commercial banks, meaning that they are customized agreements between two parties that are not traded on an exchange.

The correct answer is Mexico because the currency of Mexico is the Peso.

Futures contracts are typically sold on an exchange, whereas forward contracts are typically offered by commercial banks. This is because futures contracts are standardized and traded on organized exchanges, allowing for liquidity and transparency. On the other hand, forward contracts are customized agreements between two parties, often tailored to their specific needs, and are not traded on exchanges but rather offered by banks or other financial institutions.

The statement is false because the forward rate is not used for immediate exchange of currencies. The forward rate is actually the exchange rate that is agreed upon now, but the actual exchange of currencies takes place at a future date. It is used for transactions that are planned to happen in the future, such as hedging against currency fluctuations or for future investments.

The economic interdependence of nations has grown over time. This is because globalization and advancements in technology have made it easier for countries to trade with one another, leading to increased economic integration. As a result, countries are more reliant on each other for goods, services, and investments, creating a greater level of interdependence. This trend is evident in the increasing volume of international trade, the growth of multinational corporations, and the interconnectedness of financial markets.

SDRs, or Special Drawing Rights, are international reserve assets created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). They are used as a supplementary foreign exchange reserve and serve as a unit of account between different currencies. SDRs are not a specific currency like the US dollar or a currency limited to Europe, but rather a global reserve asset that can be used by member countries to supplement their official reserves.

The opening exchange rate quotations in the UK are based on the prevailing prices in locations where the foreign exchange markets have been open. This means that the exchange rates are determined by the prices at which currencies are being traded in other countries that have already opened their foreign exchange markets. These prices reflect the current supply and demand dynamics in the global foreign exchange market and serve as a starting point for the UK market when it opens.

If Country A's inflation rate exceeds Country B's inflation rate, it means that the prices of goods and services in Country A are increasing at a faster rate than in Country B. This will lead to a decrease in the purchasing power of Country A's currency compared to Country B's currency. As a result, Country A's currency will weaken in relation to Country B's currency. In other words, it will take more units of Country A's currency to purchase the same amount of goods and services as before, making it less valuable.

The strike price is not known as the premium price. The strike price refers to the predetermined price at which the underlying asset can be bought or sold, while the premium price is the cost of purchasing an options contract. These two terms have different meanings and are not interchangeable. Therefore, the statement is false.

The forward market is especially well-suited to offer hedging protection against transactions risk exposure. This is because transactions risk refers to the potential loss that can occur due to fluctuations in exchange rates between the time a transaction is initiated and when it is settled. By entering into a forward contract, which allows for the purchase or sale of a currency at a predetermined rate in the future, businesses can protect themselves from adverse movements in exchange rates and ensure a fixed rate for their transactions. Therefore, the forward market is an effective tool for managing transactions risk exposure.

Cross-hedging involves finding two currencies that have a strong positive correlation, meaning their values tend to move in the same direction. By matching payables of one currency to the receivables of the other currency, a company can offset potential losses due to currency fluctuations. This can be done by using the forward market to either sell forward the currencies that will be received or buy forward the currencies that will be received. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.

To close a position, you need to buy or sell an equal amount of the open order, thereby reducing the open position to zero. This means that if you have bought a certain quantity of an asset, you need to sell the same quantity to close the position. Similarly, if you have sold a certain quantity, you need to buy the same quantity to close the position. By doing so, the open position is completely eliminated, and you are no longer exposed to the market fluctuations of that particular asset.

A floating exchange rate is an exchange rate that is determined by the supply and demand of a currency in the foreign exchange market. Unlike a fixed exchange rate, which is set by central banks or governments, a floating exchange rate is flexible and can fluctuate based on market forces. This means that the value of a currency can rise or fall depending on factors such as economic conditions, interest rates, and investor sentiment. The supply and demand for a currency in the market determine its exchange rate relative to other currencies.

Producing more automobiles in the U.S. would reduce the economic exposure of the Japanese car manufacturer because it would decrease its reliance on exporting cars priced in yen. By increasing production in the U.S. and pricing those cars in dollars, the manufacturer would be less affected by fluctuations in the exchange rate between the yen and the dollar. This would help to mitigate the decline in demand for cars when the yen is strong and provide stability for the manufacturer's revenue.

A pip is a term used in finance to represent the smallest unit of change in the price of a currency pair. It is equal to 0.01 for exchange rates expressed to two decimal places or 0.0001 for exchange rates expressed to four decimal places. Pips are important in forex trading as they determine the profit or loss on a trade.

A weakening of the U.S. dollar with respect to the British pound would make U.S. goods cheaper for British consumers, which would likely increase U.S. exports to Britain. Additionally, it would make British goods more expensive for U.S. consumers, which would likely reduce U.S. imports from Britain. Therefore, the statement is false.

The statement suggests that the exchange rates of smaller countries are stable because the market for their currency is very liquid. However, this statement is false. The stability of exchange rates is not solely determined by the liquidity of the market for a currency. Various factors such as economic conditions, government policies, and market speculation can affect the stability of exchange rates. Therefore, it cannot be generalized that smaller countries have stable exchange rates based solely on the liquidity of their currency market.

The open interest (OI) is the total number of outstanding options contracts that have not been closed or exercised. In this scenario, Mr. A initially bought 10 call options from Mr. B, creating an open interest of 10. Later, Mr. A sold these options to Mr. C, which means the open interest remains unchanged at 10.

The traded volume refers to the total number of options contracts that have been bought or sold during a specific period. In this case, Mr. A bought 10 options from Mr. B and sold them to Mr. C, resulting in a traded volume of 20 options.

According to the theory of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP), the exchange rate between two currencies should adjust to reflect the difference in inflation rates between the two countries. In this case, since the inflation rate in Canada is higher than the inflation rate in the U.S., the Canadian dollar (CAD) should depreciate. The given answer of depreciate; 0.1938% indicates that the Canadian dollar should decrease in value by 0.1938%.

Eurobonds are not certificates representing bundles of stock. Eurobonds are actually debt securities issued in a currency different from the currency of the country where they are issued. They are typically issued by corporations, governments, or international organizations and are used to raise capital from investors. Unlike stocks, which represent ownership in a company, Eurobonds represent a loan made by the investor to the issuer. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

When the Dutch market closed, the share price of the firm was 15 Euros. As the U.S. market opens and the Euro is worth $1.10, the price of the ADR should be converted to dollars. Therefore, the price of the ADR should be 15 Euros multiplied by $1.10, which equals $16.5.

All of the options mentioned in the question - investor monitoring, stock options, and hostile takeover threat - are forms of corporate control that can help reduce agency problems for a multinational corporation (MNC). Investor monitoring involves shareholders actively monitoring and overseeing the actions of management to ensure their interests are protected. Stock options provide incentives for managers to align their interests with those of shareholders. Hostile takeover threats create a disciplinary mechanism where underperforming managers can be replaced by more efficient ones. Therefore, all of these options are effective in reducing agency problems for an MNC.

The product cycle theory suggests that firms seek to penetrate new markets over time. This theory states that a product goes through different stages in its life cycle, starting with introduction in the domestic market, followed by growth, maturity, and eventually decline. As the product matures and saturates the domestic market, firms look to expand into new markets to continue their growth. This theory emphasizes the importance of international expansion for firms to maintain their competitiveness and maximize their profits. Therefore, the correct answer is Product cycle theory.

An increase in UK interest rates relative to India's interest rates is likely to reduce the UK demand for Rupees and increase the supply of Rupees for sale. When UK interest rates increase, it becomes more attractive for investors to hold UK currency, leading to a decrease in demand for Rupees. Additionally, the higher interest rates in the UK may incentivize investors to sell Rupees and buy UK currency, increasing the supply of Rupees for sale.

Acquisition of a foreign subsidiary is not a way in which agency problems can be reduced through corporate control. Agency problems arise when there is a conflict of interest between the shareholders (principals) and the management (agents) of a company. The other options listed - threat of hostile takeover, executive compensation, and monitoring by large shareholders - are all mechanisms that can help align the interests of management with those of shareholders and reduce agency problems. However, acquiring a foreign subsidiary does not directly address the issue of agency problems within the company.

An increase in the current account deficit means that the country is importing more goods and services than it is exporting. This leads to an increase in the demand for foreign currency to pay for these imports. As a result, the value of the home currency decreases relative to foreign currencies. Therefore, an increase in the current account deficit will place upward pressure on the home currency value.

The value of the Peruvian Sol in Canadian dollars can be calculated by dividing the value of the Peruvian Sol in pounds by the value of the Canadian dollar in pounds. In this case, the value of the Peruvian Sol in pounds is £0.16 and the value of the Canadian dollar in pounds is £0.51. Dividing £0.16 by £0.51 gives approximately 0.3137 Canadian dollars.

During the period from 1944 to 1971, the exchange rate between any two currencies was fixed within narrow boundaries. This means that the value of one currency in terms of another currency was set and maintained within a specific range. Central banks would intervene in the foreign exchange market to ensure that the exchange rate stayed within these boundaries. This fixed exchange rate system was known as the Bretton Woods system, which aimed to promote stability in international trade and finance. However, this system eventually collapsed in 1971 due to various economic factors.

If the interest rate is lower in the U.S. than in the United Kingdom and the forward rate of the British pound is the same as its spot rate, U.S. investors could possibly benefit from covered interest arbitrage. Covered interest arbitrage involves borrowing funds in a country with a lower interest rate, converting them into the currency of a country with a higher interest rate, and then investing them in that country to earn the higher interest rate. In this case, U.S. investors could borrow funds at a lower interest rate in the U.S., convert them into British pounds, and invest them in the U.K. to earn a higher interest rate.

When an Indian firm borrows money from the US, it incurs a cost of borrowing based on the interest rate difference between the two countries and the exchange rate movement. In this case, the interest rate in the US is 6%, while in India it is 9%. Additionally, the dollar is appreciating at a rate of 3%. To calculate the cost of borrowing, we need to add the interest rate difference (9% - 6% = 3%) to the dollar appreciation rate (3%). Therefore, the total cost of borrowing would be 6% (US interest rate) + 3% (interest rate difference) + 3% (dollar appreciation rate) = 12%. However, since the question asks for the cost of borrowing in India, we subtract the dollar appreciation rate (3%) from the total cost of borrowing, resulting in 12% - 3% = 9%. Therefore, the correct answer is 9.18%.

When the spread is low, it means that there is a small difference between the bid and ask prices of a security. This indicates that there is a high level of liquidity in the market, as there are many buyers and sellers actively trading the security. Therefore, the correct answer is "Low liquidity" because when the spread is low, it implies high liquidity, not low liquidity.

An increase in US exports to foreign markets leads to an increase in the amount of dollars in the foreign exchange. This is because when US exports increase, foreign buyers need to purchase more US dollars in order to pay for those exports. As a result, the demand for US dollars increases, causing the value of the US dollar to also increase.

The bid-ask percentage spread is calculated by taking the difference between the ask rate and the bid rate, dividing it by the ask rate, and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, the ask rate is £0.26 and the bid rate is £0.25. The difference between them is £0.01. Dividing £0.01 by £0.26 and multiplying by 100 gives us approximately 3.85%. Therefore, the correct answer is about 3.85%.

Locational arbitrage is a strategy where a trader takes advantage of price differences between different locations. In this case, if one bank's bid price for a currency is greater than another bank's ask price for the currency, it means that the trader can buy the currency at a lower price from one bank and immediately sell it at a higher price to another bank, making a profit from the price difference. This scenario creates an opportunity for locational arbitrage to be feasible.

When speculating on exchange rate movements, the speculator will actually borrow the currency that is expected to depreciate and invest in the country whose currency is expected to appreciate. This is because by borrowing the currency that is expected to depreciate, the speculator can repay the loan with a lower amount of that currency in the future. At the same time, by investing in the country whose currency is expected to appreciate, the speculator can earn a profit when they convert the invested currency back into their own currency. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

Export factoring is the most closely resembling term to forfeiting. Both export factoring and forfeiting are methods used by companies to manage their receivables in international trade. They involve selling the receivables to a third party, known as a factor, in exchange for immediate cash. This helps companies improve their cash flow and manage the risk of non-payment from foreign buyers. While counter-trade, netting, and re-invoicing are also methods used in international trade, they do not closely resemble forfeiting in terms of their purpose and process.

The international Fisher effect (IFE) suggests that a home currency will depreciate if the current home interest rate exceeds the current foreign interest rate. This is because higher interest rates in the home country attract foreign investors, leading to an increase in demand for the foreign currency and a decrease in demand for the home currency. As a result, the home currency depreciates relative to the foreign currency.

Listing in a foreign stock market is not considered a form of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). FDI refers to the investment made by a company or individual from one country into another country, with the purpose of establishing a lasting interest in the foreign country's economy. Greenfield investment involves establishing a new business or facility in a foreign country, while brownfield investment refers to the acquisition or redevelopment of an existing business. M&A (mergers and acquisitions) involve the consolidation of two companies. However, listing in a foreign stock market does not involve direct investment into a foreign country's economy, but rather allows a company to raise capital by selling shares to foreign investors.

A firm will likely benefit most from diversifying if the correlations between country economies are low and the variability of country economy levels is high. When the correlations between country economies are low, it means that the economies are not strongly influenced by each other. This reduces the risk of a downturn in one country negatively impacting the firm's overall performance. Additionally, when the variability of country economy levels is high, it provides opportunities for the firm to capitalize on the growth potential in different countries and mitigate the risk of relying too heavily on a single market.

MCX does not facilitate interbank transactions globally. MCX is a commodity exchange based in India and primarily deals with trading in commodities such as gold, silver, crude oil, etc. It is not involved in facilitating interbank transactions between different banks on a global scale. On the other hand, Bloomberg, Reuters, and Bridge are well-known platforms that provide financial information, news, and facilitate interbank transactions globally.

The local (domestic) earnings of the MNC are not a determinant of translation exposure. Translation exposure refers to the risk that a company's financial statements will be affected by changes in exchange rates when they are translated into a different currency. The local earnings of the MNC, which are already in the domestic currency, do not need to be translated and therefore do not contribute to translation exposure.

The size of a unit for Yen future currency trading in India is ¥100,000. This means that each contract for Yen future currency trading is based on an amount of ¥100,000.

In the context of trading or investing, "long" refers to buying a security or asset with the expectation that its value will increase over time, while "short" refers to selling a security or asset that the trader does not own, with the anticipation that its value will decrease. Therefore, the correct answer is "Long, short."

The correct answer is "Option premium". Option premium refers to the price that an investor pays to purchase an option contract. It is the cost of buying the right to exercise the option at a later date. This premium is determined by various factors such as the underlying asset's price, volatility, time to expiration, and interest rates.

When a company adopts the poly-centric approach, it means that it focuses on each individual market and tailors its products and marketing strategies to meet the specific needs and preferences of each market. This approach recognizes that consumer behavior and preferences can vary significantly across different countries and regions. By adopting a poly-centric approach, the company aims to build strong local market presence and establish deep connections with local customers, which can lead to higher customer satisfaction and increased sales. This approach also allows the company to benefit from local market knowledge and expertise, which can help in adapting to local regulations and cultural nuances.