HESI Exam: Toughest Questions On Maternity! Trivia Quiz

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HESI Exam: Toughest Questions On Maternity! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Are you preparing for the HESI Exam, these are the Toughest Questions on Maternity! Human reproduction process is a beautiful ordeal the takes nine full months to complete in normal circumstances. Do you know some of the issues one might have when giving birth and how you as a medical practitioner can step in to make the process safer? Take the quiz to find out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Mrs. Puente is visiting the clinic for a prenatal assessment. This is the client's fourth pregnancy. She lost one pregnancy during the ninth week of gestation. One pregnancy resulted in the birth of a stillborn infant at full term, and she has one living child who was born the 35th week of gestation. Which of the following best describes the client?

    • A.

      G5P2111

    • B.

      G4P1111

    • C.

      G4P1211

    • D.

      G5P1112

    Correct Answer
    B. G4P1111
    Explanation
    Gravida represents the total number of pregnancies that the client has had. Para describes the results of the pregnancies. Para is made up of four parts: the number of infants born at term or after 37 weeks; the number of infants born preterm or after 20 weeks but before 37 weeks; the number of spontaneous or therapeutic abortions or pregnancies that ended up prior to 20 weeks; and the number of living children. Mrs. Puente has had 4 pregnancies, meaning she is a gravid four. She gave birth to a stillborn infant at term, gave birth to a preterm infant who is also her living child, lost one pregnancy during the ninth week of gestation. Mrs. Puente is G4P1111, the answer is B.

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  • 2. 

    A client is pregnant with her third child. The medical history of the client indicates previous precipitate labor and birth. Which of the following interventions would NOT be expected during labor of the present pregnancy?

    • A.

      Use of magnesium sulfate

    • B.

      Close monitoring of the fetus for hypoxia

    • C.

      The nurse stays at the bedside constantly or as much as possible

    • D.

      Amnioinfusion will be performed

    Correct Answer
    D. Amnioinfusion will be performed
    Explanation
    Amnioinfusion is the instillation of fluid into the amniotic sac within the uterus to treat oligohydramnios. This is not done to prevent precipitate labor and birth.

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  • 3. 

    The fetal heart is carefully monitored throughout pregnancy and during labor to assess fetal well being. Which of the following represents an appropriate fetal heart rate?

    • A.

      108

    • B.

      127

    • C.

      170

    • D.

      185

    Correct Answer
    B. 127
    Explanation
    The appropriate range of fetal heart rate is 120-160 beats per minute.

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  • 4. 

    A client suspects that she is pregnant and visits the clinic. Of the following changes caused by pregnancy, which is the only positive sign that the client is pregnant?

    • A.

      Enlarge abdomen

    • B.

      Positive pregnancy test

    • C.

      Detection of fetal heartbeat

    • D.

      Uterine contraction

    Correct Answer
    C. Detection of fetal heartbeat
    Explanation
    Positive signs of pregnancy are detected changes that provide objective, conclusive proof of pregnancy. 1. detection of fetal heartbeat 2. fetal movement palpated by a professional 3. visualization of the fetus by sonography The other choices are considered PROBABLE signs of pregnancy.

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  • 5. 

    The physician orders epinephrine 0.1 mg SQ x 1 now. The constitution of epinephrine according to the vial is 1;1000, or 1 g of epinephrine per 1,000 mL of solution. How many solutions should be drawn into the syringe by the nurse?

    • A.

      0.01 mL

    • B.

      0.1 mL

    • C.

      1.0 mL

    • D.

      10 mL

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.1 mL
    Explanation
    1000mg/1000mL = 0.1mg/x mL 1000x=100 x= 100/1000 x=0.1 mL

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  • 6. 

    The nurse is preparing to administer Solu-medrol 40 mg mixed in 150 mL of sodium chloride via intravenous piggyback. The medication is to be administered over 30 minutes. Using the tubing with a drop factor of 15 ggts/mL, what would the LPN calculate the rate to be in drops per minute?

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      150

    Correct Answer
    C. 75
    Explanation
    The LPN would calculate the rate to be 75 drops per minute by using the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes. In this case, the volume is 150 mL, the drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time is 30 minutes. So, (150 mL x 15 gtt/mL) / 30 minutes = 75 gtt/minute.

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  • 7. 

    The nurse has initiated the administration of vancomycin via IV piggyback. In which of the following situations should the nurse recognize that the client may be experiencing a fatal reaction to this medication?

    • A.

      The client start coughing

    • B.

      The client complains of pain at the intravenous catheter insertion site

    • C.

      The nurse hears the client snoring from the hall

    • D.

      The nurse notices the client's neck and chest is bright red

    Correct Answer
    D. The nurse notices the client's neck and chest is bright red
    Explanation
    While administering vancomycin the LPN should know to monitor the client carefully for the development of Red Man Syndrome or anaphylactic shock. The common side effects of this medicine are pruritus, flushing and erythema to the head, neck, and upper body.

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  • 8. 

    During a lecture on reproduction, a student nurse asks the instructor what determines the sex of a fetus. Accurate information in response to this question would be:

    • A.

      "The sex of the fetus is not determined until the eighth week of gestation."

    • B.

      "The fertilization of the zygote is the point at which sex is determined."

    • C.

      "Males have one less pair of chromosomes than females."

    • D.

      "Sex is determined by the chromosomes contributed by the ovum."

    Correct Answer
    B. "The fertilization of the zygote is the point at which sex is determined."
    Explanation
    The sex of the fetus is determined at the point that the sperm fertilizes the ovum to form the zygote. Sex is ultimately determined by the chromosome contributed by the sperm.

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  • 9. 

    The nurse identifies substance abuse behaviors exhibited by a pregnant client during an initial prenatal screening. While promoting a therapeutic and accepting environment, the care management by the nurse would be MOST appropriate if focused on which of the following?

    • A.

      Discouraging substance use during pregnancy

    • B.

      Termination of the pregnancy at an early stage

    • C.

      Eliminating substance use during pregnancy

    • D.

      Setting boundaries with the client in regards to substance use

    Correct Answer
    C. Eliminating substance use during pregnancy
    Explanation
    The use of substances during pregnancy can lead to severe fetal or neonatal abnormalities, complications, and death. The primary goal of nursing care should be prevention or elimination of substance use during pregnancy.

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  • 10. 

    A 25-year-old client with diabetes type I visits the clinic to discuss her and her husband's desire to start a family. This diabetic client 

    • A.

      Should be discouraged from becoming pregnant

    • B.

      Has a greater risk of complications during pregnancy

    • C.

      Should be informed about treatment for infertility

    • D.

      Will be able to carry out a completely normal pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    B. Has a greater risk of complications during pregnancy
    Explanation
    Clients with DM are at greater risk of developing maternal and fetal complications during pregnancy.

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  • 11. 

    During the prenatal visit, the client states that she has been experiencing heartburn frequently. The Nurse provides instruction on the cause and prevention of heartburn. When she ask to verbalize understanding of the information, which of the following statements by the client indicates further instruction may be necessary?

    • A.

      "The sphincter that normally prevents stomach contents from going back up into the esophagus is relaxed."

    • B.

      "I should try to avoid drinking fluids while I'm eating."

    • C.

      "Eating six or seven small meals a day may help my symptoms."

    • D.

      "I'll eat enough to ensure that I am full at every meal."

    Correct Answer
    D. "I'll eat enough to ensure that I am full at every meal."
    Explanation
    It suggests that the instruction might need to be reinforced on preventing stomach distention.

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  • 12. 

    A nurse is collecting data from a client who suspects that she is pregnant. The nurse is checking the client for probable signs of pregnancy. 

    • A.

      Ballottement

    • B.

      Chadwick's sign

    • C.

      Uterine enlargement

    • D.

      Braxton Hicks contractions

    • E.

      Outline of fetus via radiography or ultrasound

    • F.

      Fetal heart rate detected by a non electronic device

    • G.

      Hegar's sign

    • H.

      Goodle's sign

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ballottement
    B. Chadwick's sign
    C. Uterine enlargement
    D. Braxton Hicks contractions
    G. Hegar's sign
    H. Goodle's sign
    Explanation
    Ballottement or rebound of the fetus against the examiner's fingers on palpation; Chadwick's sign or the bluish coloration of the mucous membrane of the cervix, Uterine enlargement, Goodle's sign or the softening of the cervix; Braxton Hicks contraction, and Hegar's sign the softening and thinning of the lower uterine segment are ALL PROBABLE SIGNS OF PREGNANCY.

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  • 13. 

    A nurse is monitoring a pregnant client with gestational hypertension who is at risk for preeclampsia. The nurse checks the client for which classic signs of preeclampsia?

    • A.

      Proteinuria

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Low grade fever

    • D.

      Generalized edema

    • E.

      Increase pulse rate

    • F.

      Increase respiratory rate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Proteinuria
    B. Hypertension
    D. Generalized edema
    Explanation
    The three classic signs of preeclampsia are hypertension, generalized Edna, and proteinuria.

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  • 14. 

    A nurse is monitoring for the Physiological Maternal Changes relating to pregnancy for a primigravida patient. What are the normal changes that happen during pregnancy?

    • A.

      Circulating blood volume increases

    • B.

      Sodium and water retention may occur, which can lead to weight gain

    • C.

      Shortness of breath may be experienced

    • D.

      Breast size atrophies

    • E.

      There is a decrease in vaginal secretions

    • F.

      Frequency of urination occurs during second trimester

    • G.

      Chloasma occurs

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Circulating blood volume increases
    B. Sodium and water retention may occur, which can lead to weight gain
    C. Shortness of breath may be experienced
    G. Chloasma occurs
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, there are several normal physiological changes that occur in a woman's body. These include an increase in circulating blood volume, which is necessary to support the growing fetus. Sodium and water retention may also occur, leading to weight gain. Shortness of breath is a common symptom due to the growing uterus putting pressure on the diaphragm. Chloasma, also known as the "mask of pregnancy," is a condition where dark patches appear on the face. These changes are considered normal and expected during pregnancy.

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  • 15. 

    The nurse knows that there are psychological maternal changes that occur during pregnancy in a primigravida patient. Select all the normal psychological maternal changes that happen throughout pregnancy.  

    • A.

      Ambivalence

    • B.

      Breast tenderness

    • C.

      Emotional lability

    • D.

      Body image changes

    • E.

      Bonding or relationship with the fetus

    • F.

      Nausea and vomiting

    • G.

      Syncope

    • H.

      Urinary frequency

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ambivalence
    C. Emotional lability
    D. Body image changes
    E. Bonding or relationship with the fetus
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, it is normal for a primigravida patient to experience psychological maternal changes such as ambivalence, emotional lability, body image changes, and bonding or relationship with the fetus. Ambivalence refers to having mixed feelings about the pregnancy, while emotional lability refers to experiencing mood swings. Body image changes occur as the body undergoes physical changes during pregnancy, and bonding or relationship with the fetus refers to the emotional connection a mother develops with her unborn baby.

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  • 16. 

     A primigravida patient who is 12 weeks pregnant visits a health promotion program in the community pertaining to pregnancy care. A group of nursing students is educating the public about measures to prevent the discomfort of pregnancy. The primigravida patient asks one of the students about measures on how to prevent heartburn she is experiencing throughout the day. Select all the necessary measures to prevent the primigravida patient's complaint.

    • A.

      Eating small, frequent meals and avoiding fatty and spicy food

    • B.

      Eating high fiber foods and increase drinking fluids

    • C.

      Drinking milk between milk

    • D.

      Arranging frequent rest periods throughout the day

    • E.

      Sitting upright for 30 minutes after a meal

    • F.

      Engaging in regular exercise

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Eating small, frequent meals and avoiding fatty and spicy food
    C. Drinking milk between milk
    E. Sitting upright for 30 minutes after a meal
    Explanation
    Heartburn is a common discomfort during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and pressure on the stomach. Eating small, frequent meals helps to prevent heartburn by reducing the amount of food in the stomach at one time. Avoiding fatty and spicy foods also helps to prevent heartburn as these types of foods can trigger acid reflux. Drinking milk between meals can provide relief from heartburn as milk has a soothing effect on the stomach. Sitting upright for 30 minutes after a meal helps to prevent heartburn by allowing gravity to keep stomach acid down.

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  • 17. 

    A 36 weeks gestation pregnant woman is complaining of urinary urgency and frequency. The nurse explained that the enlarging fetus is pressing the bladder which causes frequent urination. This is normally occurring during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy. The nurse advises the patient to do the following measures to prevent urinary frequency. Select all the necessary measures that the nurse can provide to the patient. 

    • A.

      Drink 2 quarts of fluid during the day

    • B.

      Engaging in a regular exercise

    • C.

      Performing Kegel exercises

    • D.

      Soaking in a warm sitz bath

    • E.

      Limiting fluid intake during the evening

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Drink 2 quarts of fluid during the day
    C. Performing Kegel exercises
    E. Limiting fluid intake during the evening
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, the enlarging fetus can press on the bladder, causing urinary urgency and frequency. This is particularly common during the first and third trimesters. To prevent urinary frequency, the nurse can advise the patient to drink 2 quarts of fluid during the day to stay hydrated, perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles and control bladder function, and limit fluid intake during the evening to reduce nighttime urination. These measures can help manage the symptoms and improve the patient's comfort during pregnancy.

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  • 18. 

    Reddish purple stretch marks that usually occur on the abdomen, breasts, thighs, and upper arm. As a nurse, you would document this correctly in the client's chart by using what medical terminology?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Striae gravidarum, striae gravidarum
    Explanation
    The correct medical terminology to document reddish purple stretch marks that occur on the abdomen, breasts, thighs, and upper arm is "striate gravidarum." This term specifically refers to stretch marks that develop during pregnancy. By using this medical terminology, the nurse accurately describes the condition in the client's chart.

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  • 19. 

    The OB/GYN physician requires different laboratory tests for the primigravida woman who is on her 20 weeks' gestation. As a nurse, you would expect that the physician will order what types of laboratory testing for the pregnant woman?

    • A.

      Blood type and Rh factor

    • B.

      Pap's smear

    • C.

      HIV/AIDS

    • D.

      Urinalysis

    • E.

      Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

    • F.

      Sickle Cell

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Blood type and Rh factor
    B. Pap's smear
    C. HIV/AIDS
    D. Urinalysis
    E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
    F. Sickle Cell
    Explanation
    The OB/GYN physician will order blood type and Rh factor testing to determine the woman's blood type and Rh factor. This information is important for determining if the woman is at risk for developing Rh incompatibility with her baby. Pap's smear testing is done to screen for cervical cancer. HIV/AIDS testing is important to identify any potential infections that could affect the woman and her baby. Urinalysis is done to check for any urinary tract infections or other abnormalities. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are measured to assess the woman's iron levels and overall blood health. Sickle Cell testing is done to determine if the woman carries the sickle cell trait, which could be passed on to her baby.

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  • 20. 

    The nurse is educating a primigravida patient who is 12 weeks pregnant about the danger signs of pregnancy. The information provided is clearly understood by the expectant mother if the client states the following danger signs of pregnancy:

    • A.

      Gush of vaginal discharge

    • B.

      Vaginal bleeding

    • C.

      Persistent vomiting

    • D.

      Constipation

    • E.

      Urinary frequency

    • F.

      Epigastric or abdominal pain

    • G.

      Fetal heart rate of 120

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Gush of vaginal discharge
    B. Vaginal bleeding
    C. Persistent vomiting
    F. Epigastric or abdominal pain
    Explanation
    The client demonstrates understanding of the danger signs of pregnancy by stating the following symptoms: gush of vaginal discharge, vaginal bleeding, persistent vomiting, and epigastric or abdominal pain. These symptoms can indicate potential complications such as infection, placental problems, or preeclampsia. Constipation and urinary frequency are not typically considered danger signs of pregnancy. Fetal heart rate of 120 is within the normal range and not a danger sign.

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  • 21. 

    What is the recommended drug for the prevention of maternal-fetal HIV transmission; it is usually administered orally beginning after 14 weeks' gestation, intravenously during labor, and in the form of syrup to the neonate after birth for 6 weeks?

    Correct Answer(s)
    Zidovudine, zidovudine
    Explanation
    Zidovudine is the recommended drug for the prevention of maternal-fetal HIV transmission. It is usually administered orally beginning after 14 weeks' gestation to the pregnant mother, intravenously during labor, and in the form of syrup to the neonate after birth for 6 weeks. Zidovudine, also known as AZT, is an antiretroviral medication that helps reduce the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child. By taking zidovudine during pregnancy, labor, and postpartum, the viral load in the mother's blood is suppressed, reducing the chances of transmission to the fetus or newborn.

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  • 22. 

    A nurse is collecting data during the admission assessment of a client who is pregnant with twins. The client also has a 5-year-old child. The nurse would document which gravida and para status on this client?

    • A.

      G1P1

    • B.

      G2P1

    • C.

      G2P2

    • D.

      G3P2

    Correct Answer
    B. G2P1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is G2P1. Gravida refers to the number of pregnancies the client has had, including the current one. Para refers to the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (20 weeks or more) regardless of the outcome (live birth or stillbirth). In this case, the client is pregnant with twins, so it counts as one pregnancy (G1). The client also has a 5-year-old child, which counts as one para (P1). Therefore, the correct documentation would be G2P1.

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  • 23. 

    This is a dark streak down the midline of the abdomen that may appear as the uterus is enlarging. The nursing student correctly describes this to the pregnant woman as?

    Correct Answer
    Linea nigra, linea nigra
    Explanation
    The nursing student correctly describes the dark streak down the midline of the abdomen as "linea nigra." This is a common occurrence during pregnancy as the uterus enlarges. The term "linea nigra" refers to the dark line that appears on the abdomen, running from the pubic bone to the belly button or even higher. This is caused by an increase in hormones during pregnancy, which stimulates the production of melanin in the skin. The nursing student is providing accurate information to the pregnant woman about this common phenomenon.

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  • 24. 

    A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to list the functions of the amniotic fluid. The student responds correctly by stating that which of the following are functions of amniotic fluid?

    • A.

      Allows for fetal movement

    • B.

      Is a measure of kidney function

    • C.

      Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus

    • D.

      Maintains the body temperature of the fetus

    • E.

      Prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus

    • F.

      Provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Allows for fetal movement
    B. Is a measure of kidney function
    C. Surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus
    D. Maintains the body temperature of the fetus
    Explanation
    The functions of amniotic fluid include allowing for fetal movement, surrounding, cushioning, and protecting the fetus, maintaining the body temperature of the fetus, and serving as a measure of kidney function. It also prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus and provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and the fetus.

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  • 25. 

    During a prenatal visit, the nurse checks the fetal heart rate of a client in the third trimester of pregnancy. The nurse determines that the FHR is normal if which of the following heart rates is noted?

    • A.

      80 beats per minute

    • B.

      100 beats per minute

    • C.

      150 beats per minute

    • D.

      180 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    C. 150 beats per minute
    Explanation
    During the third trimester of pregnancy, a normal fetal heart rate (FHR) is typically around 120-160 beats per minute. Therefore, 150 beats per minute falls within the normal range and is considered a normal FHR for a client in the third trimester of pregnancy.

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  • 26. 

    During a prenatal visit, the nurse checks the fetal heart rate of a client in the third trimester of pregnancy. The nurse determines that the FHR is normal if which of the following heart rates is noted?

    • A.

      80 beats per minute

    • B.

      100 beats per minute

    • C.

      150 beats per minute

    • D.

      180 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    C. 150 beats per minute
    Explanation
    During the third trimester of pregnancy, a normal fetal heart rate (FHR) ranges between 120 and 160 beats per minute. Therefore, a heart rate of 150 beats per minute is considered normal. FHR below 120 or above 160 may indicate fetal distress or other complications.

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  • 27. 

    A client at 36 weeks’ gestation is schedule for a routine ultrasound prior to an amniocentesis. After teaching the client about the purpose for the ultrasound, which of the following client statements would indicate to the nurse in charge that the client needs further instruction?

    • A.

      The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta

    • B.

      The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord

    • C.

      The test will determine where to insert the needle

    • D.

      The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid

    Correct Answer
    B. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord
    Explanation
    Before amniocentesis, routine ultrasound is valuable in locating the placenta, locating a pool of amniotic fluid, and showing the physician where to insert the needle. Color Doppler imaging ultrasonography identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord. A routine ultrasound does not accomplish this.

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  • 28. 

    The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and 1 week gestation. After explaining self-care measures for common discomforts of pregnancy, the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions when she says:

    • A.

      “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before arising”

    • B.

      “If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse my nipples with soap and water”

    • C.

      “If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear nylon underwear”

    • D.

      “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the area”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before arising”
    Explanation
    Eating dry crackers before arising can assist in decreasing the common discomfort of nausea and vomiting. Avoiding strong food odors and eating a high-protein snack before bedtime can also help.

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  • 29. 

    A pregnant patient asks the nurse Kate if she can take castor oil for her constipation. How should the nurse respond?

    • A.

      “Yes, it produces no adverse effect.”

    • B.

      “No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions.”

    • C.

      “No, it can promote sodium retention.”

    • D.

      “No, it can lead to increased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “No, it can initiate premature uterine contractions.”
    Explanation
    Castor oil can initiate premature uterine contractions in pregnant women. It also can produce other adverse effects, but it does not promote sodium retention. Castor oils is not known to increase absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, although laxatives, in general, may decrease absorption if intestinal motility is increased.

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  • 30. 

    A patient in her 14th week of pregnancy has presented with abdominal cramping and vaginal bleeding for the past 8 hours. She has passed several cloth. What is the primary nursing diagnosis for this patient

    • A.

      Knowledge deficit

    • B.

      Fluid volume deficit

    • C.

      Anticipatory grieving

    • D.

      Pain

    Correct Answer
    B. Fluid volume deficit
    Explanation
    Fluid Volume deficit  due to the potential blood loss is a potential problem but the pain is imminent.

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  • 31. 

    The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time?

    • A.

      Between 10 and 12 weeks’ gestation

    • B.

      Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation

    • C.

      Between 21 and 23 weeks’ gestation

    • D.

      Between 24 and 26 weeks’ gestation

    Correct Answer
    B. Between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation
    Explanation
    A pregnant woman usually can detect fetal movement (quickening) between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation. Before 16 weeks, the fetus is not developed enough for the woman to detect movement. After 20 weeks, the fetus continues to gain weight steadily, the lungs start to produce surfactant, the brain is grossly formed, and myelination of the spinal cord begins.

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  • 32. 

    A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We know several friends in our age group and all of them have their own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following would be the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?

    • A.

      Fear related to the unknown

    • B.

      Pain related to numerous procedures.

    • C.

      Ineffective family coping related to infertility.

    • D.

      Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.

    Correct Answer
    D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
    Explanation
    Based on the partner’s statement, the couple is verbalizing feelings of inadequacy and negative feelings about themselves and their capabilities. Thus, the nursing diagnosis of self-esteem disturbance is most appropriate. Fear, pain, and ineffective family coping also may be present but as secondary nursing diagnoses.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?

    • A.

      Dysuria

    • B.

      Frequency

    • C.

      Incontinence

    • D.

      Burning urination

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency
    Explanation
    Pressure and irritation of the bladder by the growing uterus during the first trimester is responsible for causing urinary frequency. Dysuria, incontinence, and burning are symptoms associated with urinary tract infections.

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  • 34. 

    Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following?

    • A.

      Increased plasma HCG levels

    • B.

      Decreased intestinal motility

    • C.

      Decrease gastric acidity

    • D.

      Elevated estrogen levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Decrease gastric acidity
    Explanation
    During the second trimester, the reduction in gastric acidity in conjunction with pressure from the growing uterus and smooth muscle relaxation can cause heartburn and flatulence. HCG levels increase in the first, not the second, trimester. Decrease intestinal motility would most likely be the cause of constipation and bloating. Estrogen levels decrease in the second trimester.

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  • 35. 

    On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?

    • A.

      Breast, areola, and nipples

    • B.

      Chest, neck, arms, and legs

    • C.

      Abdomen, breast, and thighs

    • D.

      Cheeks, forehead, and nose

    Correct Answer
    D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
    Explanation
    Chloasma, also called the mask of pregnancy, is an irregular hyperpigmented area found on the face. It is not seen on the breasts, areola, nipples, chest, neck, arms, legs, abdomen, or thighs.

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  • 36. 

    A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?

    • A.

      The large size of the newborn

    • B.

      Pressure on the pelvic brim

    • C.

      Relaxation of the pelvic joints

    • D.

      Excessive weight gain

    Correct Answer
    C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, hormonal changes cause relaxation of the pelvic joints, resulting in the typical “waddling” gait. Changes in posture are related to the growing fetus. Pressure on the surrounding muscles causing discomfort is due to the growing uterus. Weight gain has no effect on gait.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?

    • A.

      12 to 22 lbs

    • B.

      15 to 25 lbs

    • C.

      25 to 30 lbs

    • D.

      25 to 40 lbs

    Correct Answer
    C. 25 to 30 lbs
    Explanation
    The average amount of weight gained during pregnancy is 25 to 35 lb. This weight gain consists of the following: fetus – 7.5 lb; placenta and membrane – 1.5 lb; amniotic fluid – 2 lb; uterus – 2.5 lb; breasts – 3 lb; and increased blood volume – 2 to 4 lb; extravascular fluid and fat – 4 to 9 lb. A gain of 12 to 22 lb is insufficient, whereas a weight gain of 15 to 25 lb is marginal. A weight gain of 25 to 40 lb is considered excessive.

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  • 38. 

    When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?

    • A.

      Thrombophlebitis

    • B.

      Pregnancy induced hypertension

    • C.

      Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus

    • D.

      The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus

    Correct Answer
    C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
    Explanation
    The pressure of the growing uterus on blood vessels results in an increased risk for venous stasis in the lower extremities. Subsequently, edema and varicose vein formation may occur. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of the veins due to thrombus formation. Pregnancy-induced hypertension is not associated with these symptoms. Gravity plays only a minor role in these symptoms.

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  • 39. 

    Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following?

    • A.

      Diagnostic signs

    • B.

      Presumptive signs

    • C.

      Probable signs

    • D.

      Positive signs

    Correct Answer
    C. Probable signs
    Explanation
    Cervical softening (Goodell sign) and uterine soufflé are two probable signs of pregnancy.Probable signs are objective findings that strongly suggest pregnancy. Other probable signs include Hegar sign, which is softening of the lower uterine segment; Piskacek sign, which is enlargement and softening of the uterus; serum laboratory tests; changes in skin pigmentation; and ultrasonic evidence of a gestational sac. Presumptive signs are subjective signs and include amenorrhea; nausea and vomiting; urinary frequency; breast tenderness and changes; excessive fatigue; uterine enlargement; and quickening.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

    • A.

      Hegar sign

    • B.

      Nausea and vomiting

    • C.

      Skin pigmentation changes

    • D.

      Positive serum pregnancy test

    Correct Answer
    B. Nausea and vomiting
    Explanation
    resumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective signs. Of the signs listed, only nausea and vomiting are presumptive signs. Hegar sign, skin pigmentation changes, and a positive serum pregnancy test are considered probably signs, which are strongly suggestive of pregnancy.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester?

    • A.

      Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

    • B.

      Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness

    • C.

      Anxiety, passivity, extroversion

    • D.

      Ambivalence, fear, fantasies

    Correct Answer
    D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
    Explanation
    During the first trimester, common emotional reactions include ambivalence, fear, fantasies, or anxiety. The second trimester is a period of well- being accompanied by the increased need to learn about fetal growth and development. Common emotional reactions during this trimester include narcissism, passivity, or introversion. At times the woman may seem egocentric and self-centered. During the third trimester, the woman typically feels awkward, clumsy, and unattractive, often becoming more introverted or reflective of her own childhood.

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  • 42. 

    During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition?

    • A.

      Post partum phase

    • B.

      First trimester

    • C.

      Second trimester

    • D.

      Third trimester

    Correct Answer
    B. First trimester
    Explanation
    First-trimester classes commonly focus on such issues as early physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality during pregnancy, and nutrition. Some early classes may include pregnant couples. Second and third-trimester classes may focus on preparation for birth, parenting, and newborn care.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?

    • A.

      The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion

    • B.

      The test was performed too early or too late in the pregnancy

    • C.

      The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature

    • D.

      A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending

    Correct Answer
    A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion
    Explanation
    A false-positive reaction can occur if the pregnancy test is performed less than 10 days after an abortion. Performing the tests too early or too late in the pregnancy, storing the urine sample too long at room temperature, or having a spontaneous or missed abortion impending can all produce false-negative results.

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  • 44. 

    FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following?

    • A.

      5 weeks gestation

    • B.

      10 weeks gestation

    • C.

      13 weeks gestation

    • D.

      20 weeks gestation

    Correct Answer
    D. 20 weeks gestation
    Explanation
    The FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope at about 20 weeks gestation. FHR usually is auscultated at the midline suprapubic region with Doppler ultrasound transducer at 10 to 12 weeks gestation. FHR, cannot be heard any earlier than 10 weeks’ gestation.

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  • 45. 

    A client LMP began on July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following?

    • A.

      January 2

    • B.

      March 28

    • C.

      April 12

    • D.

      October 12

    Correct Answer
    C. April 12
    Explanation
    To determine the EDD when the date of the client’s LMP is known use Nagele rule. To the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year (if applicable) to arrive at the EDD as follows: 5 + 7 = 12 (July) minus 3 = 4 (April). Therefore, the client’s EDD is April 12.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?

    • A.

      Uterus in the pelvis

    • B.

      Uterus at the xiphoid process

    • C.

      Uterus in the abdomen

    • D.

      Uterus in the umbilicus

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterus in the pelvis
    Explanation
    When the LMP is unknown, the gestational age of the fetus is estimated by uterine size or position (fundal height). The presence of the uterus in the pelvis indicates less than 12 weeks’ gestation. At approximately 12 to 14 weeks, the fundus is out of the pelvis above the symphysis pubis. The fundus is at the level of the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks’ gestation and reaches the xiphoid at term or 40 weeks.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the nurse consider as significant?

    • A.

      Hematocrit 33.5%

    • B.

      Rubella titer less than 1:8

    • C.

      White blood cells 8,000/mm3

    • D.

      One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL

    Correct Answer
    B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
    Explanation
    A rubella titer should be 1:8 or greater. Thurs, a finding of a titer less than 1:8 is significant, indicating that the client may not possess immunity to rubella. A hematocrit of 33.5% a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm3, and a 1 hour glucose challenge test of 110 g/dl are with normal parameters.

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  • 48. 

    The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is?    

    • A.

      Estrogen

    • B.

      Progesterone

    • C.

      Follicle stimulating hormone

    • D.

      Leutenizing hormone

    Correct Answer
    C. Follicle stimulating hormone
    Explanation
    Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle. FSH stimulates the growth and maturation of follicles in the ovaries, which contain the eggs. As the follicles develop, they produce estrogen, which further supports the growth of the ovum. Once the ovum is fully developed, it is released from the ovary in a process called ovulation, which is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH). Progesterone plays a role in preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy after ovulation. However, FSH is specifically responsible for the development of the ovum.

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  • 49. 

    During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur? 

    • A.

      Ischemic phase

    • B.

      Mentrual phase

    • C.

      Proliferative phase

    • D.

      Secretory phase

    Correct Answer
    D. Secretory phase
    Explanation
    The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle is the ideal time for implantation of a fertilized egg to occur. This phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by the thickening of the uterine lining in preparation for pregnancy. During this phase, the endometrium becomes highly vascularized and glandular, providing an optimal environment for the fertilized egg to implant and develop. If implantation does not occur, the endometrium will shed during the subsequent menstrual phase.

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  • 50. 

    Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the following phase? 

    • A.

      Proliferative phase

    • B.

      Mentrual phase

    • C.

      Proliferative phase

    • D.

      Secretory phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Proliferative phase
    Explanation
    The length of the menstrual cycle can vary due to variations in the number of days in the proliferative phase. The proliferative phase is the phase of the menstrual cycle during which the lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for potential implantation of a fertilized egg. The length of this phase can vary from person to person, which in turn can affect the overall length of the menstrual cycle.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 05, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Sherryon.gordon
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