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Fundamentals of Nursing Test II : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and IllnessMark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. You got 120 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck! CONTENT OUTLINEIllnessInfection and AsepsisBasic concept of Stress and Adaptation


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?

    • A.

      Pupils will constrict

    • B.

      Client will be lethargic

    • C.

      Lungs will bronchodilate

    • D.

      Gastric motility will increase

    Correct Answer
    C. Lungs will bronchodilate
    Explanation
    To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called AUTONOMIC Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict, because you need to wear skirt today and your varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a person FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person to get a picture of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is increased due to higher demand of the body. Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through obstacles during running. The client's gastric motility will DECREASE Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during fighting nor running.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?

    • A.

      The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle

    • B.

      The client will be restless and alert

    • C.

      Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation

    • D.

      There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion

    Correct Answer
    C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
    Explanation
    If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS dominates.

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  • 3. 

    State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Disease

    • C.

      Health

    • D.

      Wellness

    Correct Answer
    A. Illness
    Explanation
    Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.

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  • 4. 

    This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.

    • A.

      Symptom Experience

    • B.

      Assumption of sick role

    • C.

      Medical care contact

    • D.

      Dependent patient role

    Correct Answer
    A. Symptom Experience
    Explanation
    A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person starts to believe something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.

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  • 5. 

      In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.

    • A.

      Symptom Experience

    • B.

      Assumption of sick role

    • C.

      Medical care contact

    • D.

      Dependent patient role

    Correct Answer
    D. Dependent patient role
    Explanation
    In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for help. They have a choice either to accept or reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.

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  • 6. 

    In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.

    • A.

      Symptom Experience

    • B.

      Assumption of sick role

    • C.

      Medical care contact

    • D.

      Dependent patient role

    Correct Answer
    B. Assumption of sick role
    Explanation
    Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role phase of illness.

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  • 7. 

    In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted

    • A.

      Symptom Experience

    • B.

      Assumption of sick role

    • C.

      Medical care contact

    • D.

      Dependent patient role

    Correct Answer
    C. Medical care contact
    Explanation
    At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the probable outcome of this experience.

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  • 8. 

    The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except

    • A.

      One should be held responsible for his condition

    • B.

      One is excused from his societal role

    • C.

      One is obliged to get well as soon as possible

    • D.

      One is obliged to seek competent help

    Correct Answer
    A. One should be held responsible for his condition
    Explanation
    The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to seek competent help.

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  • 9. 

    Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident

    • A.

      Predisposing factor

    • B.

      Etiology

    • C.

      Risk factor

    • D.

      Modifiable Risks

    Correct Answer
    C. Risk factor
    Explanation
    A risk factor refers to conditions or behaviors that increase the likelihood of an individual or group being susceptible to illness or accidents. It indicates a higher probability of developing a certain health condition or experiencing an accident. Risk factors can be modifiable or non-modifiable, meaning they can be changed or not. Identifying and addressing risk factors is crucial in preventing or managing health issues.

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  • 10. 

     Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen

    • A.

      Susceptibility

    • B.

      Immunity

    • C.

      Virulence

    • D.

      Etiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Susceptibility
    Explanation
    Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.

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  • 11. 

    A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease

    • A.

      Syndrome

    • B.

      Symptoms

    • C.

      Signs

    • D.

      Etiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Syndrome
    Explanation
    Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of these symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE SYNDROME.

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  • 12. 

    A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?

    • A.

      Neoplastic

    • B.

      Traumatic

    • C.

      Nosocomial

    • D.

      Iatrogenic

    Correct Answer
    D. Iatrogenic
    Explanation
    Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.

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  • 13. 

    The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as 1. Nosocomial 2. Idiopathic 3. Neoplastic 4. Traumatic 5. Congenital 6. Degenrative

    • A.

      5 and 2

    • B.

      2 and 3

    • C.

      3 and 4

    • D.

      3 and 5

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 and 3
    Explanation
    Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.

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  • 14. 

    Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease

    • A.

      Remission

    • B.

      Emission

    • C.

      Exacerbation

    • D.

      Sub acute

    Correct Answer
    C. Exacerbation
    Explanation
    Exacerbation is the correct answer because it refers to the reactivation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease. This term is commonly used in medical contexts to describe a worsening or flare-up of symptoms, indicating that the disease has become more severe or intense. It is the opposite of remission, which refers to a period of reduced or absent symptoms. Emission and subacute do not accurately describe the reactivation and recurrence of symptoms, making exacerbation the most appropriate choice.

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  • 15. 

    A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation

    • A.

      Chronic

    • B.

      Acute

    • C.

      Sub acute

    • D.

      Sub chronic

    Correct Answer
    A. Chronic
    Explanation
    A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.

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  • 16. 

    Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as

    • A.

      Functional

    • B.

      Occupational

    • C.

      Inorganic

    • D.

      Organic

    Correct Answer
    D. Organic
    Explanation
    As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.

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  • 17. 

    It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.

    • A.

      Epidemiology

    • B.

      Ecology

    • C.

      Statistics

    • D.

      Geography

    Correct Answer
    B. Ecology
    Explanation
    Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.

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  • 18. 

      This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.

    • A.

      Epidemiology

    • B.

      Ecology

    • C.

      Statistics

    • D.

      Geography

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidemiology
    Explanation
    Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.

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  • 19. 

    Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.

    • A.

      Functional

    • B.

      Occupational

    • C.

      Inorganic

    • D.

      Organic

    Correct Answer
    C. Inorganic
    Explanation
    As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.

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  • 20. 

    In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?  

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Tertiary
    Explanation
    Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.

    The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.

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  • 21. 

    In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the person's susceptibility to illness.

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  • 22. 

    Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary
    Explanation
    Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.

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  • 23. 

    PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the workes in a hazardous environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.

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  • 24. 

      BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    BCG in community health nursing is considered a primary prevention measure. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. In the case of BCG, it is a vaccine administered to prevent tuberculosis (TB) in individuals who have not been infected with the bacteria that causes TB. By vaccinating individuals before they are exposed to TB, BCG helps to reduce the risk of developing the disease and its complications.

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  • 25. 

    A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Secondary
    Explanation
    This recommendation for regular pap smears every 3 years after establishing normal pap smears for 3 consecutive years belongs to the level of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on detecting and treating a disease in its early stages, before it progresses and causes significant harm. In this case, regular pap smears are used to detect abnormal cervical cells early on, allowing for timely intervention and reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer. This is an example of secondary prevention as it aims to prevent the progression of a disease that has already started.

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  • 26. 

    Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Tertiary
    Explanation
    Self-monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is considered a form of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and minimizing the impact of an existing disease or condition to prevent complications and improve quality of life. In the case of diabetes, self-monitoring of blood glucose levels helps individuals with diabetes to effectively manage their condition, prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia, and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as cardiovascular disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage. By regularly monitoring their blood glucose levels, diabetic clients can take appropriate actions to maintain their health and prevent further complications.

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  • 27. 

    Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?

    • A.

      Newspaper

    • B.

      School bulletins

    • C.

      Community bill boards

    • D.

      Radio and Television

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio and Television
    Explanation
    An actual board question, The best way to disseminate information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than publising posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to disseminate is through the internet.

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  • 28. 

    Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?

    • A.

      Newman

    • B.

      Neuman

    • C.

      Watson

    • D.

      Rogers

    Correct Answer
    B. Neuman
    Explanation
    The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman's. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just used that to help you remember her theory of health.

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  • 29. 

    The following are concept of health: 1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not  merely an absence of disease or infirmity. 2. Health is the ability to maintain balance 3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu 4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual

    • A.

      1,2,3

    • B.

      1,3,4

    • C.

      2,3,4

    • D.

      1,2,3,4

    Correct Answer
    D. 1,2,3,4
    Explanation
    All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the definition by WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman's Theory.

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  • 30. 

    The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is

    • A.

      Bernard

    • B.

      Selye

    • C.

      Cannon

    • D.

      Rogers

    Correct Answer
    C. Cannon
    Explanation
    Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as Wellness that is influenced by individual's culture.

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  • 31. 

    Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?

    • A.

      Genetics

    • B.

      Age

    • C.

      Environment

    • D.

      Lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    D. Lifestyle
    Explanation
    Excessive alcohol intake is considered a lifestyle risk factor because it is a behavior that individuals choose to engage in. It is not determined by genetics, age, or environment, but rather by personal choices and habits. Lifestyle risk factors are typically modifiable, meaning that individuals have the ability to change or modify their behaviors to reduce their risk. In the case of excessive alcohol intake, individuals can choose to drink in moderation or abstain from alcohol altogether, thereby reducing their risk of associated health problems.

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  • 32. 

    Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?

    • A.

      Genetics

    • B.

      Age

    • C.

      Environment

    • D.

      Lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    B. Age
    Explanation
    Age is the correct answer because osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like osteoarthritis are more common in older individuals. As a person ages, their bones become less dense and more fragile, increasing the risk of osteoporosis. Similarly, the wear and tear on joints over time can lead to osteoarthritis. While genetics, environment, and lifestyle can also contribute to these conditions, age is the primary risk factor.

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  • 33. 

    Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE

    • A.

      Surgical Asepsis

    • B.

      Medical Asepsis

    • C.

      Sepsis

    • D.

      Asepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical Asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.

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  • 34. 

    This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another

    • A.

      Host

    • B.

      Agent

    • C.

      Environment

    • D.

      Carrier

    Correct Answer
    D. Carrier
    Explanation
    A carrier is a person or animal who does not show any signs of illness but carries a pathogen within their body. This means that they can transfer the pathogen to another individual, potentially causing them to become sick. Carriers play a significant role in the spread of infectious diseases, as they can unknowingly transmit the pathogen to others. It is important to identify carriers and take necessary precautions to prevent the transmission of the pathogen to susceptible individuals.

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  • 35. 

    Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.

    • A.

      Carrier

    • B.

      Contact

    • C.

      Agent

    • D.

      Host

    Correct Answer
    B. Contact
    Explanation
    The term "contact" refers to a person or animal who is known or believed to have been exposed to a disease. This can include individuals who have had direct or indirect contact with an infected person or animal. It is important to identify and monitor contacts in order to prevent the spread of the disease and provide appropriate medical interventions if necessary.

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  • 36. 

    A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.

    • A.

      Sterilization

    • B.

      Disinfectant

    • C.

      Antiseptic

    • D.

      Autoclave

    Correct Answer
    B. Disinfectant
    Explanation
    Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their spores.

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  • 37. 

    This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores

    • A.

      Sterilization

    • B.

      Auto claving

    • C.

      Disinfection

    • D.

      Medical asepsis

    Correct Answer
    C. Disinfection
    Explanation
    Both A and B are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of removing pathogens but not their spores.

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  • 38. 

    The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms

    • A.

      Incubation period

    • B.

      Prodromal period

    • C.

      Illness period

    • D.

      Convalescent period

    Correct Answer
    C. Illness period
    Explanation
    In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no sign and symptom appear because the pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it's gradual disappearance.

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  • 39. 

    A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?

    • A.

      Incubation period

    • B.

      Prodromal period

    • C.

      Illness period

    • D.

      Convalescent period

    Correct Answer
    B. Prodromal period
    Explanation
    To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik's Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.

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  • 40. 

    A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?

    • A.

      Incubation period

    • B.

      Prodromal period

    • C.

      Illness period

    • D.

      Convalescent period

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation period
    Explanation
    Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours. Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the incubation period.

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  • 41. 

    Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases

    • A.

      Etiologic/Infectious agent

    • B.

      Portal of Entry

    • C.

      Susceptible host

    • D.

      Mode of transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Mode of transmission
    Explanation
    Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain? 1. Susceptible host 2. Portal of entry 3. Portal of exit 4. Etiologic agent 5. Reservoir 6. Mode of transmission  

    • A.

      1,2,3,4,5,6

    • B.

      5,4,2,3,6,1

    • C.

      4,5,3,6,2,1

    • D.

      6,5,4,3,2,1

    Correct Answer
    C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
    Explanation
    Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily arrange the chain of infection.

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  • 43. 

    Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via

    • A.

      Direct contact transmission

    • B.

      Vehicle borne transmission

    • C.

      Air borne transmission

    • D.

      Vector borne transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Vector borne transmission
    Explanation
    Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.

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  • 44. 

    The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except

    • A.

      Pathogenicity

    • B.

      Virulence

    • C.

      Invasiveness

    • D.

      Non Specificity

    Correct Answer
    D. Non Specificity
    Explanation
    To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient, could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.

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  • 45. 

    Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by

    • A.

      Urinary catheterization

    • B.

      Spread from patient to patient

    • C.

      Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver

    • D.

      Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses

    Correct Answer
    C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
    Explanation
    The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross contamination and nosocomial infection. D refers to Nosocomial infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the major cause of this incident. B best fits Cross Contamination, It is the spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.

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  • 46. 

    Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.

    • A.

      Droplet transmission

    • B.

      Airborne transmission

    • C.

      Vehicle transmission

    • D.

      Vector borne transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Droplet transmission
    Explanation
    Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs, or laughs, projecting droplets that can travel up to a distance of 3 feet. This type of transmission is known as droplet transmission. It involves the direct transmission of infectious respiratory droplets from an infected individual to a susceptible person who is in close proximity. These droplets can contain the infectious agent and can be inhaled or come into contact with the mucous membranes of the nose, mouth, or eyes of the susceptible person, leading to infection.

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  • 47. 

    Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection

    • A.

      Skin

    • B.

      WBC

    • C.

      Leukocytes

    • D.

      Immunization

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin
    Explanation
    Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against infection.

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  • 48. 

    All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except

    • A.

      Creed

    • B.

      Immunization

    • C.

      Current medication being taken

    • D.

      Color of the skin

    Correct Answer
    A. Creed
    Explanation
    Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.

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  • 49. 

    Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an

    • A.

      Natural active immunity

    • B.

      Natural passive immunity

    • C.

      Artificial active immunity

    • D.

      Artificial passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    C. Artificial active immunity
    Explanation
    TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made immunoglobulin.

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  • 50. 

    Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides

    • A.

      Natural active immunity

    • B.

      Natural passive immunity

    • C.

      Artificial active immunity

    • D.

      Artificial passive immunity

    Correct Answer
    D. Artificial passive immunity
    Explanation
    In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to immediately supress the invasion.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
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