Full Length PMP Simulation Test 1

  • PMBOK
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1. Before closing a contract, the project manager should:

Explanation

B - Closing a contact should be done promptly after all contract work and deliverables are achieved.

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About This Quiz
PMP Quizzes & Trivia

Full Length PMP Simulation Test 1 assesses knowledge across core project management processes. It includes questions on inputs for monitoring and controlling work, knowledge areas, executing processes, and initiation details, vital for PMP certification preparation.

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2. A notice sent to a subcontractor about the contract is an example of which kind of communication?

Explanation

B- Anytime you have any communication having to do with the contract, it’s always formal written communication.

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3. If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider?

Explanation

B - Crashing and fast tracking can increase the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.

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4. You are managing a software project. You are partway through the project, and your team has just delivered a preliminary version of part of the software. Your team gives a demonstration to the project sponsor and key stakeholders. Later, the sponsor informs you that there is an important client who will be using the software your team is building, and whose needs are not being met. As a result, you must now make a large and expensive change to accommodate that client. What is the BEST explanation for this?

Explanation

B- Stakeholder analysis means talking to the stakeholders and figuring out their needs, and it’s something that you do when you’re defining the project scope.

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5. If you have an unresolved issue while working on a project, what is the best way to communicate that issue?

Explanation

C - An issue log allows you to communicate, track, and resolve project issues.

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6. You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're planning out the work your team will do, you divide up all of the work into work packages and create a WBS that shows how they fit into categories. For each one of the work packages, you write down details such as initial estimates and information about what account it should be billed against. Where do you store all of that information?

Explanation

C- The WBS Dictionary is the companion document to the WBS. It gives all the details that you know about each work package in the WBS, including estimates and billing information.

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7. A project manager colleague of yours is currently working under contract on a short term project. He has expressed some concerns about finding work after the project ends. The project he is working on is currently ahead of schedule and he expects they will finish a month sooner than initially expected. What advice would be appropriate to provide him?

Explanation

B - It would be appropriate to advise him to continue the work within the project's scope as scheduled. Project managers have a responsibility to act in a truthful and complete manner. Continuing the scheduled work with no hidden slow downs fulfills the responsibility of the project manager to the profession and their client. It is unfortunate that this action will result in your colleague being without a job a month earlier than anticipated but their reputation and the reputation of other project management professionals will be upheld.

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8. The customer has reviewed the deliverables of a project and finds that they are acceptable, and must now communicate that acceptance to the project manager. Which form of communication is appropriate?

Explanation

C- Once your project team is done with the work, it’s time to check the deliverables against the scope statement, WBS, and scope management plan. If your deliverables have everything in those documents, then they should be acceptable to stakeholders. What comes next? Formal acceptance, which means you have written confirmation from the stakeholders that the deliverables match the requirements and the project management plan. Since this communication is a project document, it’s formal written communication.

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9. If you want to have multiple vendors bid on your contract, what is the best way to ensure that all vendors have the same information before bidding?

Explanation

B - A bidder's conference is a good way to ensure all bidders have the same information at the same time and to ensure fairness and equity within the bidding process.

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10. You have just delivered a product to your client for acceptance, when you get a call that some features they were expecting are missing. What's the first thing you should do?

Explanation

D- You can’t do anything about the problem until you understand it. You should meet with the client to get a better understanding of what went wrong and why the product is not meeting their needs.

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11. Midway through a project, a project manager determined that the project was running way behind schedule. If the project manager needs to now shorten the project schedule, without changing the project scope, which of the following schedule compression techniques could be applied?

Explanation

A - Crashing is the technique that can be applied to compress the project schedule without changing the project scope. The other technique is Fast tracking.

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12. A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform earned value analysis. You spend a weekend with him to teach him how to do this. This is an example of:

Explanation

A- Any time you do coaching, mentoring, training, or anything else to help others learn about project management, you’re contributing to the project management body of knowledge.

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13. When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to determine which companies you should request a bid from?

Explanation

D - A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and past experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.

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14. A project manager is reporting the final status of the closed contract to the stakeholders. Which form of communication is appropriate?

Explanation

C- All project reports must be communicated as formal written documents. Not only that, but anything that has to do with a contract DEFINITELY needs to be formal written.

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15. Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway through development, her team found that they had not estimated enough time for some of the technical work they needed to do. She requested that the new work be added to the scope statement and that the time to do the work be added to the schedule. The change control board approved her change. What's her next step?

Explanation

A - When a change has been approved you always need to update the baseline and then implement the change.

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16. The scope baseline consists of:

Explanation

D- The scope baseline is made up of the Project Scope Statement and the WBS and the WBS Dictionary. The WBS Dictionary is considered a supporting document to the WBS, so if the WBS were to change, then the dictionary would, too.

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17. In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep people informed throughout the project?

Explanation

D- The Communications Management Plan defines all of the processes that will be used for communication on the project.

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18. A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform earned value analysis. You spend a weekend with him to teach him how to do this. This is an example of:

Explanation

A- Any time you do coaching, mentoring, training, or anything else to help others learn about project management, you’re contributing to the project management body of knowledge.

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19. Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The project has a 60% chance of making the company $230,000 over the next year. It has a 40% chance of costing the company $150,000. What's the project's EMV?

Explanation

C- $230,000 x 0.70 = $ 138,000 savings, and $150,000 x 0.40 = -$60,000 expenses. Add them together and you get $78,000.

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20. Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?

Explanation

D- Any activity that helps you find, prevent or fix defects in your product is included in the cost of quality.

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21. Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway through development, her team found that they had not estimated enough time for some of the technical work they needed to do. She requested that the new work be added to the scope statement and that the time to do the work be added to the schedule. The change control board approved her change. What's her next step?

Explanation

A - When a change has been approved you always need to update the baseline and then implement the change.

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22. You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just prepared an RFP to send around to electrical contractors. You get a call from your uncle who owns an electrical contracting company. He wants to bid on your project. You know he's done good work before, and it may be a good fit for your company. How do you proceed?

Explanation

B- Any time there’s a conflict of interest, it’s your duty to disclose it to your company. After that, you should always proceed based on your company’s policies.

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23. Which of the following is NOT a type of communication ?

Explanation

D- Noise is something that interferes with communication. It’s not a communication type.

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24. Which of these items are important to address when determining each person's role in the project team?

Explanation

A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: role, authority, responsibility, and competency.

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25. What is a risk owner?

Explanation

D- Every risk should have a risk owner listed in the register. That person is responsible for keeping the response plan up to date and make sure the right actions are taken if the risk does occur.

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26. A team member approaches you with a change that could cut your schedule down by a month. What is the first thing you should do?

Explanation

C- Just because the change will help the project’s timeline doesn’t mean that it will be an overall benefit to the project. It’s important to check how the project will impact the other two constraints as part of your change request.

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27. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

D- The Project Scope Statement builds defines the scope of work for the project. It’s where everyone comes to a common understanding about the work that needs to be accomplished on the project.

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28. At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to?

Explanation

A - The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. At the end of the project, all of the planned values should be earned and the difference should be zero.

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29. Which of the following best describes decomposition?

Explanation

B- Decomposition is the main tool for creating the WBS. It just means breaking the work down into smaller and smaller pieces based on how your company does the work until it is small enough to categorize and organize hierarchically.

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30. What is a risk owner?

Explanation

D- Every risk should have a risk owner listed in the register. That person is responsible for keeping the response plan up to date and make sure the right actions are taken if the risk does occur.

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31. Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?

Explanation

B- A stakeholder is anyone who is affected by the cost, time, or scope of your project. And that includes Unions

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32. In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep people informed throughout the project?

Explanation

D- The Communications Management Plan defines all of the processes that will be used for communication on the project.

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33. Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just finished defining the scope for the project and is creating the WBS. He goes to his organizational process asset library and finds a WBS from a past project to use as a jumping off point. Which of the following describes the asset that Tom is using?

Explanation

D- Tom is using a Template. As your company completes projects, the documents created along the way are stored in an Organizational Process Asset library.

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34. You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just prepared an RFP to send around to electrical contractors. You get a call from your uncle who owns an electrical contracting company. He wants to bid on your project. You know he's done good work before, and it may be a good fit for your company. How do you proceed?

Explanation

B- Any time there’s a conflict of interest, it’s your duty to disclose it to your company. After that, you should always proceed based on your company’s policies.

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35. Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to reward her. She knows that you don't have enough money in the budget to give her a bonus, so she approaches you and requests an extra day off, even though she is out of vacation days. She asks if she can take one of her sick days, even though the company doesn't allow that. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

D- You must always follow your company’s policy—it’s your ethical duty as a project manager. You should find some other way to reward her that is not against your company’s rules.

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36. Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of a project are:

Explanation

B - The CPI and SPI are two efficiency indicators in the project to reflect the cost and schedule performance of the project.

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37. Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The project has a 60% chance of making the company $230,000 over the next year. It has a 40% chance of costing the company $150,000. What's the project's EMV?

Explanation

C- $230,000 x 0.70 = $ 138,000 savings, and $150,000 x 0.40 = -$60,000 expenses. Add them together and you get $78,000.

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38. At which stage, in a typical project, do stake holders have maximum influence?

Explanation

D - Stakeholders typically have the most influence during the initial stages of a project.

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39. You are meeting with your team, early in the project, and would like to address all the strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats the project is facing. What tool should be used?

Explanation

A - A SWOT Analysis chart would be the best choice. SWOT is an acronym for strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats.

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40. Organizations strongly influence the project framework. Which of the following are recognized types of organizations?

Explanation

A - Both projectized and functional are formally recognized terms for organizations.

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41. Which of the following is an Output of Develop Project Management Plan?

Explanation

The output of the Develop Project Management Plan process is the Project Management Plan. This plan is a comprehensive document that outlines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. It includes various subsidiary plans such as the scope management plan, schedule management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, etc. The Project Management Plan serves as a roadmap for the project team and provides guidance on how to successfully complete the project. It is a crucial document that helps in ensuring that the project is delivered on time, within budget, and meets the desired objectives.

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42. You have recently been assigned to be the project manager for a project that is already underway (the previous project manager has been moved to a different project). As you begin to learn about the project, you realize that a project charter was never established. What should you do?

Explanation

C - Even if done late, a project charter can help establish the legitimacy of a project and should be completed as soon as possible.

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43. You are the project manager for a software development project. When you need to get staff from the manager of the QA department, he suggests a few test engineers with performance problems for your team. Which is the BEST response to this situation?

Explanation

B- You need to figure out the root cause of the problem if you are going to find a lasting solution to it.

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44. The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your project plan.

Explanation

B- When you work with a union then the union contract can have an impact on your project. That means you need to consider the union itself a stakeholder, and when you do your planning you need to make sure any union rules and agreements are considered as constraints.

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45. What is the main output of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

D- The Project Scope Statement builds defines the scope of work for the project. It’s where everyone comes to a common understanding about the work that needs to be accomplished on the project.

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46. A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout your project is called a _______________.

Explanation

C- The Resource Histogram is a bar chart that shows your staffing needs over time.

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47. You are the project manager for a software development project. When you need to get staff from the manager of the QA department, he suggests a few test engineers with performance problems for your team. Which is the BEST response to this situation?

Explanation

B- You need to figure out the root cause of the problem if you are going to find a lasting solution to it.

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48. The scope baseline consists of:

Explanation

D- The scope baseline is made up of the Project Scope Statement and the WBS and the WBS Dictionary. The WBS Dictionary is considered a supporting document to the WBS, so if the WBS were to change, then the dictionary would, too.

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49. Which process group corresponds to the "do" part of the plan-do-checkact cycle?

Explanation

D - The "Executing" process group corresponds with the "do" portion of the PDCA cycle.

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50. Which of the following describes the Executing process group?

Explanation

The Executing process group is responsible for putting project plans into action. This involves coordinating and managing resources, implementing project activities, and ensuring that the project is progressing according to the plan. It is during this phase that project team members perform their assigned tasks, and project deliverables are produced. The other options mentioned, such as project performance measurements, developing project plans, and publishing project plans, are activities that may occur in other process groups but are not specific to the Executing process group.

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51. Which of the following is an Output of  Develop Project Charter?

Explanation

The output of Develop Project Charter is the Project Charter itself. The Project Charter is a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It outlines the project objectives, scope, stakeholders, and high-level requirements. It serves as a reference point throughout the project and provides a foundation for project planning and decision-making.

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52. What is the purpose of the project charter?

Explanation

The purpose of the project charter is to recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to it. The project charter serves as a formal document that authorizes the project and outlines its objectives, scope, deliverables, and stakeholders. It also identifies the project team, project manager, and project sponsor. By committing organizational resources to the project, the charter ensures that the necessary support, funding, and authority are provided to successfully execute the project.

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53. You are a project manager for a software project. Your team buys a component for a web page but they run into defects when they use it. Those defects slow your progress down considerably. Fixing the bugs in the component will double your development schedule and building your own component will take even longer. You work with your team to evaluate the cost and impact of all of your options and recommend hiring developers at the company that built the component to help you address problems in it. That will cost more but it will reduce your delay by a month. What is your next step?

Explanation

B- Once you’ve figured out the impact of the change to your schedule, budget, and scope, the next step is to take the change request to the Change Control Board.

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54. You are working on a construction project. You, your team, and your senior manager all feel that the work is complete. However, one of your important clients disagrees, and feels that one deliverable is not acceptable. What is the BEST way to handle this conflict?

Explanation

A- When there’s a dispute between a buyer and a seller, that’s called a claim. Most contracts have some language that explains exactly how claims should be resolved—and since it’s in the contract, it’s legally binding, and both the buyer and seller need to follow it.

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55. You are assigned to prepare the Procurement Management Plan for a project that involves setting up an org-wide Supply chain management system. You are looking for a guideline on what type of contracts you can use and what type of contract forms are to be used for this project. Which source will help you obtain this?

Explanation

C - Organizational process assets provide existing formal and informal procurement-related policies, procedures, guidelines, and management systems that are considered in developing the procurement management plan and selecting the contract type to be used.

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56. You are the project manager responsible for building a 100,000 sq ft. data center. One of the schedule activities in your plan is to install the Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units, however in order to start the installation of the units the raised floor in the data center must be completely installed first. This is an example of what type of precedence relationship?

Explanation

D - The successor activity, in this case the installation of the CRAC units, can't be started until the raised floor in the data center is finished (i.e., the units need to sit on the floor), therefore this is an example of a finish to start relationship.

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57. All of the following statements are true of the project Closing processes except for which one?

Explanation

The statement "Risk is greatest in the project Closing processes" is not true because the project Closing processes involve finalizing all activities and deliverables, conducting a project review, and obtaining formal acceptance from the customer. By this point, most of the risks should have been identified and mitigated throughout the project lifecycle, reducing the overall risk during the closing phase.

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58. Ongoing operations and a project both have Initiating Processes, but only a project has __________.

Explanation

B - A project is a finite effort; the Initiating Process Group starts the cycle, and the closing Process Group ends the cycle.

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59. You have been asked to establish a project charter for your new project. According to PMBOK, who normally has the responsibility to authorize the charter?

Explanation

B - The project initiator or sponsor external to the project authorizes the project charter. However, a project manager should be involved in the process as early as possible.

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60. If you are working on a project where there is no definite project detailed scope, but similar projects have been completed in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use?

Explanation

A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous such projects that were similar in nature.

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61. When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to determine which companies you should request a bid from?

Explanation

D - A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and past experience, so that procurements are directed only to likely sellers who can work on the project.

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62. You have just returned from the weekly change control board meeting where you presented the requested changes to the employee move project. You had five change requests approved, however one rejected request. These are outputs of what process?

Explanation

D - Approved and rejected change requests are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

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63. Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?

Explanation

D- Any activity that helps you find, prevent or fix defects in your product is included in the cost of quality.

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64. You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out various approaches to technical work. There's a 20% chance that a component you are going to license will be difficult to integrate and cost $3,000 in rework and delays. There's also a 40% chance that the component will save $10,000 in time and effort that would have been used to build the component from scratch. What's the EMV for these two possibilities?

Explanation

C- The expected monetary value (or EMV) of the problems integrating the component is the probability (20%) times the cost ($3,000), but don’t forget that since it’s a risk, that number should be negative.
So its EMV is 20% x $3,000 = -$600.
The savings from not having to build the component from scratch is an opportunity. It has an EMV of
40% x $10,000 = $4,000.
Add them up and you get
-$600 + $4,000 = $3,400.

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65. If you are working on a project where there is no definite project detailed scope, but similar projects have been completed in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use?

Explanation

A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous such projects that were similar in nature.

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66. Which of the following best describes decomposition?

Explanation

B- Decomposition is the main tool for creating the WBS. It just means breaking the work down into smaller and smaller pieces based on how your company does the work until it is small enough to categorize and organize hierarchically.

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67. You have been assigned a project where you are responsible for building a condo complex in a resort town. The project is expected to take 2 years to complete. During your work breakdown structure meeting you have decomposed many deliverables into work packages and schedule activities, however there are some work packages that will be occurring a year from now, so you have elected not to decompose those deliverables and work packages at this time. This is an example of what tool and/or technique?

Explanation

C - The correct answer is rolling wave planning. Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration and is used when the project management team does not have enough information for a phase or deliverable that will occur quite a long way into the future.

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68. There are two activities on your schedule, which are: 1) Install server in lab 2) Move server into the data center. However, the second task can't start until the server has run in the lab for 5 days without failure. This is an example of what?

Explanation

D - A Lag is a modification of a logical relationship that directs a delay in a successor activity. In this case, there is a 5 day delay before the server can be moved into the data center.

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69. Which of the following statements is true regarding Close Project?

Explanation

The correct answer is that Close Project occurs at the end of a project phase and at the end of the project. This means that Close Project is performed both when a specific phase of the project is completed and when the entire project is finished. It is an important process in project management as it involves finalizing all activities, completing documentation, and obtaining formal acceptance of the project deliverables. By closing the project at the end of each phase and at the end of the project, the project manager ensures that all necessary tasks are completed and the project is formally closed.

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70. Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors influencing a project's success?

Explanation

D - All the three listed factors are enterprise environmental factors that influence a project's success. Enterprise environmental factors may enhance or constrain project management options.

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71. A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout your project is called a _______________.

Explanation

C- The Resource Histogram is a bar chart that shows your staffing needs over time.

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72. Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?

Explanation

C- It’s not enough that the Project Manager approves of the Project Management Plan; it needs to be approved by all of the stakeholders in the project.

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73. Which is the BEST definition of quality?

Explanation

C- Quality management is all about making sure that the product you are building conforms to your customer’s requirements.

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74. You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're planning out the work your team will do, you divide up all of the work into work packages and create a WBS that shows how they fit into categories. For each one of the work packages, you write down details such as initial estimates and information about what account it should be billed against. Where do you store all of that information?

Explanation

C- The WBS Dictionary is the companion document to the WBS. It gives all the details that you know about each work package in the WBS, including estimates and billing information.

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75. You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are considering two bids from companies on your qualified sellers list. Your project is on a tight budget, and you have been instructed by senior management to consider the cost over any other criteria. You used the company that submitted the lower bid on a previous project, and you were not happy with their work. The company that submitted the higher bid has a reputation for treating their clients well, flying project managers first class, and giving them accommodations in five-star hotels. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- There are a few really important ethical issues in this question. Your senior management was clear about the rules: go with the lowest bidder. And that’s what you should do. But on top of that, you shouldn’t choose your sellers based on perks that you’ll get—that’s called a bribe. And you should always refuse bribes.

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76. If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider?

Explanation

B - Crashing and fast tracking can increase the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.

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77. Two of your project team members approach you with a conflict that they are having with each other over the technical approach to their work. One of the two people is very aggressive, and tries to get you to make a decision quickly. The other team member is quiet, and seems less willing to talk about the issue. The conflict is starting to cause delays, and you need to reach a decision quickly. What's the BEST approach to solving this conflict?

Explanation

C- The best way to resolve any problem is to confront the issue—because “confronting” means figuring out the source of the problem and then resolving the root cause of the conflict.

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78. Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just finished defining the scope for the project and is creating the WBS. He goes to his organizational process asset library and finds a WBS from a past project to use as a jumping off point. Which of the following describes the asset that Tom is using?

Explanation

D- Tom is using a Template. As your company completes projects, the documents created along the way are stored in an Organizational Process Asset library.

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79. A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed through the course of her project. She figures out the number of people that will be needed in each role over time and displays that information in a chart as part of her staffing management plan. What is that chart called?

Explanation

D- A resource histogram is just a way to visualize the number of people in each role that you will need on your project as time goes on.

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80. The correct sequence of processes in the Risk management area is:

Explanation

D - The correct sequence is: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis and Plan Risk Responses. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes methods for identifying risks for further action such as Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis and Plan Risk Responses.

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81. You are the project manager for a large petroleum company and are in the process of writing the project charter for your sponsor. You have used the following as inputs except:

Explanation

C - The WBS is not an input to the creation of the project charter.

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82. You are 8 months into a project and you have been given a new resource due to an employee resigning. After a couple weeks on the job, the new resource indicates it isn't clear to him what exactly he should be accomplishing. While this is disturbing to you as the PM, you decide to give him a document that contains detailed descriptions of work packages. What document did you give him?

Explanation

C - The WBS dictionary can include contract information, quality requirements and technical references. All the other documents would help the individual, but not give him an exact idea of what he needs to accomplish.

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83. An organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity arising from a risk with positive impact is realized. This organization should:

Explanation

A - Three strategies to deal with risks with potentially positive impacts on project objectives are to exploit, share or enhance the opportunity.

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84. Your project team has completed the project work. All of the following must be done before the project can be closed EXCEPT:

Explanation

A- Before you can close your project, there are a few things you need to do. Remember the acceptance criteria in the scope statement? Well, those criteria need to be met. And you need to get formal written acceptance from the customer. And every work item in the WBS needs to be completed.

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85. You are initiating project that has a virtual team. Half of your team members will be located in another country, where they are working for a subcontractor. The subcontractor's team members speak a different dialect of English than your team does. After a conference call to review the project charter, two of your team members make jokes about the way your subcontractor's team members speak. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- Sexism, racism, or other discrimination should never be tolerated, no matter what the circumstances.

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86. You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out various approaches to technical work. There's a 20% chance that a component you are going to license will be difficult to integrate and cost $3,000 in rework and delays. There's also a 40% chance that the component will save $10,000 in time and effort that would have been used to build the component from scratch. What's the EMV for these two possibilities?

Explanation

C- The expected monetary value (or EMV) of the problems integrating the component is the probability (20%) times the cost ($3,000), but don’t forget that since it’s a risk, that number should be negative.
So its EMV is 20% x $3,000 = -$600.
The savings from not having to build the component from scratch is an opportunity. It has an EMV of
40% x $10,000 = $4,000.
Add them up and you get
-$600 + $4,000 = $3,400.

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87. Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and Schedule Management Plan in your Project Management Plan. Is this the appropriate place for those items?

Explanation

D - These are subsidiary plans and should be included in the Project Management Plan.

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88. You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your team members into a single room to work increases their communication, and helps build a sense of community. This is referred to as a:

Explanation

A- Co-location means that you have all of your team located in the same room. When you do this, you can increase communication and help them build a sense of community.

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89. Which of these items are important to address when determining each person's role in the project team?

Explanation

A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: role, authority, responsibility, and competency.

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90. Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

B- Constrained Optimization doesn’t have anything to do with Define Scope—it’s a kind of benefit selection method.

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91. When a project is performed under contract, the contractual provisions will generally be considered as _____________ for the project.

Explanation

A - When a project is performed under contract, the contractual provisions are generally considered as constraints for the project.

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92. Which of the following is NOT found in a project charter?

Explanation

C- The procedure for managing changes to a contract is found in the Contract Management Plan.
The other three answers are all things you typically find in a project charter.

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93. Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?

Explanation

A- The records management system is one of the tools that you use in the Close Procurements process. It’s what you use to store your contracts and any related documents, so that future project managers can refer to them in future projects.

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94. You're managing a construction project to install several hundred air conditioner panels in a new office building. Every floor has identical panels. The customer, a construction contracting company, has provided specifications for the installations. The team is using a process to install and verify each panel. As the team completes each panel, your team's quality control inspector measures it and adds the data point to a control chart. You examine the control chart, and discover that the process is out of control and you need to take close look at it immediately. Which of the following BEST describes what you found on the control chart?

Explanation

A- A control chart is a really valuable tool for visualizing how a process is doing over time. By taking one measurement after another and plotting them on a line chart, you can get a lot of great information about the process.

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95. As an external vendor, you are managing a complex software project that has been contracted on Time & Material (T&M). One of your team- members reports a break-through in automating some of the testing activities. This will potentially result in cost savings to the project as well as the project getting completed ahead of schedule by a month. Which of the following actions would you take?

Explanation

C - A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to discuss how the savings could be best utilized, whether there can be any cost sharing etc - but they would need to done following the appropriate procedure.

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96. A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is designing appears too gaudy and decides to change it to a mellowed down color scheme. The independent testing team flags this as a defect and there is a heated discussion between the team member and the testing team. What is your view?

Explanation

B - The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process.

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97. In a cause and effect diagram, which of these is not a potential cause?

Explanation

B - The potential causes of a specific effect fall into these categories: time, machine, method, material, energy, measurement, personnel, and environment.

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98. As a project manager, you are performing various project performance measurements to assess the magnitude of variation. You then attempt to determine the cause and decide whether corrective action is required. This would be known as:

Explanation

B - This is known as Variance Analysis. As project manager, you would then attempt to determine the cause of the Variance, relative to the scope baseline and then decide on whether corrective action is required.

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99. Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8 stakeholders in the project. He is worried that he might end up with an unmanageable number of communication channels. In your view, how many communication channels does Randy have to plan for?

Explanation

D - The correct response is 28. The formula to identify the number of communication channels is n X (n-1) / 2 where n is the number of stakeholders. Hence in this case, it works out to 8 X (8-1) / 2 = 8 X 7 / 2 = 56 / 2 = 28.

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100. Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations technique?

Explanation

D - Analogous, parametric, and three- point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project.

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101. Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment?

Explanation

B - Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.

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102. Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and Schedule Management Plan in your Project Management Plan. Is this the appropriate place for those items?

Explanation

D - These are subsidiary plans and should be included in the Project Management Plan.

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103. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?

Explanation

B- Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is all about figuring out prioritizing each risk, and figuring out its probability and impact. It’s an important part of risk planning. But it’s not about coming up with
specific numbers!

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104. Which of the following is not accurate about the initial phase of a project?

Explanation

B - The reason why this response is NOT accurate is because: at the initial stage of a project, the cost is typically not at its highest.

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105. You the project manager responsible for building a 100,000 sq ft. data center. One of the schedule activities in your plan is to install the Computer Room Air Conditioning (CRAC) units, however in order to start the installation of the units the raised floor in the data center must be completely installed first, so the units have something to be bolted on to. This is an example of what type of dependency?

Explanation

D - This is an example of a mandatory dependency, since the units will be bolted to the raised floor. A required dependency is not PMBOK term.

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106. A project manager is just finishing a project that has not gone well. Apart from cost overruns and schedule overruns, there have been a lot of quality defects and the project required a lot of senior management intervention to finally reach completion. The project manager should now:

Explanation

D - A project manager has a professional responsibility to conduct lessons learned sessions for all projects with key internal and external stakeholders, particularly if the project yielded less than desirable results.

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107. Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity is:

Explanation

D - Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or supplies required to perform each activity.

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108. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:

Explanation

D - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is quicker than Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis which is sometimes not required by the project.

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109. You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are considering two bids from companies on your qualified sellers list. Your project is on a tight budget, and you have been instructed by senior management to consider the cost over any other criteria. You used the company that submitted the lower bid on a previous project, and you were not happy with their work. The company that submitted the higher bid has a reputation for treating their clients well, flying project managers first class, and giving them accommodations in five-star hotels. What is the BEST way to handle this situation?

Explanation

A- There are a few really important ethical issues in this question. Your senior management was clear about the rules: go with the lowest bidder. And that’s what you should do. But on top of that, you shouldn’t choose your sellers based on perks that you’ll get—that’s called a bribe. And you should always refuse bribes.

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110. Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to reward her. She knows that you don't have enough money in the budget to give her a bonus, so she approaches you and requests an extra day off, even though she is out of vacation days. She asks if she can take one of her sick days, even though the company doesn't allow that. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

D- You must always follow your company’s policy—it’s your ethical duty as a project manager. You should find some other way to reward her that is not against your company’s rules.

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111. When you look at a control chart that measures defects in the product produced by your project, you find that seven values are showing up below the mean on the chart. What should you do?

Explanation

A- Seven values on one side of the mean in a control chart indicate a problem with the process that is being measured.

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112. Which is the BEST definition of quality?

Explanation

C- Quality management is all about making sure that the product you are building conforms to your customer’s requirements.

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113. The Risk Register is a component of the project management plan. It contains details of all identified risks and current status. It is a document containing the results of:

Explanation

D - The Risk Register contains the results of the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, and Plan Risk Responses. It details all identified risks, including description, category, cause, probability of occurring, impact(s) on objectives, proposed responses, owners, and current status.

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114. Deliverables can be described as?

Explanation

The answer is the verifiable results of products or services that must be produced to consider the project complete. Deliverables refer to the tangible or intangible outputs that are produced as a result of a project. These can include products, services, reports, or any other outcomes that can be measured and evaluated. These deliverables are essential in determining the success and completion of a project.

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115. A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts anonymously. What risk identification tool or technique is being performed?

Explanation

B- The Delphi technique is a way to get opinions and ideas from experts. This is a technique that uses a facilitator who uses questionnaires to ask experts about important project risks.

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116. Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8 stakeholders in the project. He is worried that he might end up with an unmanageable number of communication channels. In your view, how many communication channels does Randy have to plan for?

Explanation

D - The correct response is 28. The formula to identify the number of communication channels is n X (n-1) / 2 where n is the number of stakeholders. Hence in this case, it works out to 8 X (8-1) / 2 = 8 X 7 / 2 = 56 / 2 = 28.

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117. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists?

Explanation

B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios on one checklist.

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118. Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment?

Explanation

B - Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.

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119. Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Explanation

B- The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle is a way of making small improvements and testing their impact before you make a change to the process as a whole. It comes from W. Edwards Deming’s work in process improvement, which popularized the cycle that was originally invented by Walter Shewhart in the 1930s.

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120. Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?

Explanation

A- The records management system is one of the tools that you use in the Close Procurements process. It’s what you use to store your contracts and any related documents, so that future project managers can refer to them in future projects.

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121. You are managing a project with a total budget of $450,000. According to the schedule, your team should have completed 45% of the work by now. But at the latest status meeting, the team only reported that 40% of the work has actually been completed. The team has spent $165,000 so far on the project. How would you BEST describe this project?

Explanation

B- If you want to evaluate how the project is doing with respect to the schedule and budget, you need to calculate CPI and SPI.
The first step is to write down the information you have so far:
BAC = $450,000
planned % complete = 45%
actual % complete = 40%
AC = $165,000.
Now you can calculate PV = BAC x planned % complete
PV= $450,000 x 45% = $202,500.
And you can calculate EV = BAC x actual % complete
EV= $450,000 x 40% = $180,000.
Now you have the information you need to calculate CPI and SPI.
CPI = EV / AC = $180,000 / $165,000 = 1.09, which is above 1.0—so your project is within its budget. And you can calculate SPI = EV / PV = $180,000 / $202,500 = .89, which is below 1.0 - so your project is behind schedule.

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122. You have been hired by a contractor, who wants you to manage a construction project for one of their clients. The project team has been working for six weeks. You need to determine whether the team is ahead of or behind schedule. Which of the following tools and techniques is the BEST one for you to consult?

Explanation

A- Performance measurement is what you’re doing when you look at the work that the team is performing in order to determine whether the project is ahead or behind schedule.

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123. Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:

Explanation

C - Since the quantitative risk analysis is a more in-depth process, it should only be performed on prioritized risks to minimize impact to the overall project schedule.

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124. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists?

Explanation

B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios on one checklist.

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125. Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?

Explanation

C- It’s not enough that the Project Manager approves of the Project Management Plan; it needs to be approved by all of the stakeholders in the project.

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126. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?

Explanation

C- Cost Aggregation is used to build your budget, but it is not a tool for cost estimation. Bottom-up,
Parametric, and Analogous estimation techniques are used for both cost and time estimates.

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127. The Manage Project Team process is part of what process group?

Explanation

B - The Manage Project Team process is part of the Executing process group.

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128. You are attempting to estimate the resources required to put the server racks together in the new data center you are building. It has occurred to you that you may be able to compress the schedule if you look at using power tools vs. hand tools to build the racks and use individuals who have worked on this brand of rack in the past. This is an example of what type of resource estimating tool?

Explanation

C - In this scenario you are looking for alternative ways to compress the schedule by using experienced resources and power tools instead of hand tools. This is an example of alternative analysis.

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129. Your company is going to introduce a new service called Phone Home. This service will allow you to speak the name of the person you want to call into your cellular phone. To call home, you would simply speak the word home into the phone, and it will dial that number for you. Your company is taking advantage of the progress that has been made recently with voice recognition software. Initial projections show that market demand is very high for this product. This project came about as a result of which of the following?  

Explanation

This project came about as a result of a technological advance. The introduction of voice recognition software has allowed the company to develop a new service called Phone Home, which allows users to speak the name of the person they want to call into their cellular phone. This technological advance has made it possible for the company to meet the market demand for a product with such capabilities.

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130. A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed through the course of her project. She figures out the number of people that will be needed in each role over time and displays that information in a chart as part of her staffing management plan. What is that chart called?

Explanation

D- A resource histogram is just a way to visualize the number of people in each role that you will need on your project as time goes on.

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131. Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?

Explanation

B- Constrained Optimization doesn’t have anything to do with Define Scope—it’s a kind of benefit selection method.

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132. A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?

Explanation

B-Time and Materials (T&M) contracts are used in labor contracts. In a T&M contract, the seller pays a rate for each of the people working on the team plus their material costs.

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133. You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your company. He'll be affected by all accounting projects in your company. What's the BEST thing for you to do?

Explanation

B- Since the CFO is affected by your project, that means he’s a stakeholder. The best thing you can do in this situation is get the new stakeholder’s opinion incorporated in the project up front.

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134. You are managing a project with an EV of $15,000, PV of $12,000, and AC of $11,000. How would you BEST describe this project?

Explanation

A- This is a calculation question that’s asking you to use SPI and CPI to evaluate your project.
Luckily, it’s easy to do that!
First calculate SPI = EV / PV
SPI = $15,000 / $12,000 = 1.25—so your project is ahead of schedule.
Then calculate CPI = EV / AC = $15,000 / $11,000 = 1.36—so your project is within its budget.

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135. You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently provides deliverables late. The subcontractor approaches you and asks you to continue accepting late deliverables in exchange for a decrease in project costs. This offer is an example of:

Explanation

D - In this scenario both parties are giving up something, this is an example of compromise.

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136. You and your team have diligently been working on a project over the past 2 years and yesterday you met with the Operations area to turn over the production system to the Operations team. You came back from the meeting with signed formal documentation indicating the project was completed to specifications and the deliverables have been officially turned over to production for ongoing maintenance. This is an example of what?

Explanation

D - Project closure documents consist of formal documentation and the official turnover to Operations.

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137. As a PMP, one of your responsibilities is to ensure integrity on the project. When your personal interests are put above the interests of the project or when you use your influence to cause others to make decisions in your favor without regard for the project outcome, this is considered:

Explanation

Conflict of interest refers to a situation where a person's personal interests or biases interfere with their ability to make impartial decisions in the best interest of the project. It involves using one's influence or position to prioritize personal gain over the project's success. This can lead to biased decision-making, compromised integrity, and potential harm to the project's outcome. As a PMP, it is crucial to identify and address any conflicts of interest to ensure the project's integrity and success.

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138. You are managing a construction project. During your risk identification interviews you learn that there has been a string of construction site thefts over the past few months in the area where your will be building your project. The team agrees that it's unlikely that people will be able to steal from your site. Even if thieves could get around your security, it's even more unlikely that your project will lose a significant amount of material if a theft does occur. You decide to monitor the risk from time to time to be sure that it continues to have a low probability and impact. Where do you record the risk so that you don't lose track of it?

Explanation

B- A watchlist is where you keep risks that don’t have a high enough probability or impact to make it into the risk register but still need to be monitored.

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139. What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their mitigation plans to support the project schedule?

Explanation

A - The risk register helps a project manager identify risks and countermeasures that might impact schedule.

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140. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?

Explanation

C- Cost Aggregation is used to build your budget, but it is not a tool for cost estimation. Bottom-up,
Parametric, and Analogous estimation techniques are used for both cost and time estimates.

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141. You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your company. He'll be affected by all accounting projects in your company. What's the BEST thing for you to do?

Explanation

B- Since the CFO is affected by your project, that means he’s a stakeholder. The best thing you can do in this situation is get the new stakeholder’s opinion incorporated in the project up front.

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142. A project manager is faced with two team members who have conflicting opinions. One team member explains her side of the conflict. The other team member responds by saying, "I know you'll never really listen to my side, so let's just go with her opinion and get back to work." This is an example of:

Explanation

A- Withdrawal happens when someone gives up and walks away from the problem, usually because they’re frustrated or disgusted. If you see a team member doing this, it’s a warning sign that something’s wrong.

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143. You are managing a software project. During a walkthrough of newly implemented functionality, your team shows you a new feature that they have added to help make the workflow in the product easier for your client. The client didn't ask for the feature, but it does look like it will make the product easier to use. The team developed it on their own time because they wanted to make the client happy. You know this change would never have made it through change control. What is this an example of?

Explanation

A- Gold plating is when you or your team add more work to the project that was not requested by the sponsor or client. It is always a bad idea to gold plate a project because the impact is sometimes not immediately known.

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144. As part of the Define Scope process, a project manager documented the specific project assumptions associated with the project scope in the project scope statement. While reviewing this document, an experienced project manager pointed out that the project manager should also document:

Explanation

C - It is important to list out the potential impact of assumptions if they prove to be false. The assumptions listed out in project scope are typically more numerous and detailed than the assumptions listed in the project charter.

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145. You work at a software company that authors Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for chemical companies. Prior to releasing the MSDS to the company you have created a list of items to be reviewed to see that they appear on the document such as: chemical name, CAS#, protection required, what to do an emergency, etc. This is an example of what type of tool?

Explanation

A - The scenario describes a checklist that someone would use to review the document prior to it being released. Creating checklists is a tool in the Plan Quality process.

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146. At the close of your project, you measure the customer satisfaction and find that some customer needs were not fully met. Your supervisor asks you what steps you took on your project to improve customer satisfaction. Which subsidiary plan would you consult to determine this information?

Explanation

A- Customer satisfaction is an important part of modern quality management. Remember, customer satisfaction is about making sure that the people who are paying for the end product are happy with what they get.

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147. One way the Close Project or Phase process differs from Close Procurement is:

Explanation

C- When you’re performing the Close Procurements process, you’re closing out work done by a seller for a contract. To do that, you do a few things: you verify that all of the work and deliverables are acceptable, you finalize any open claims, and in case of early termination, you follow the termination clause in the contract.
On the other hand, when you’re performing the Close Project or Phase process, you’re finalizing all of the various activities that you do across all of the process groups, and you’re also verifying that the work and deliverables are complete.

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148. Fill in the blank: A _______ is a document established by consensus and approved by a recognized body that provides, for common and repeated use, rules, guidelines or characteristics for activities or their results, aimed at the achievement of the optimum degree of order in a given context.

Explanation

B- Standards ensure reproducible results or products, within a specific set of parameters. Examples of standards are USB 2.0 and the octane rating of gasoline.

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149. Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific project assumptions associated with the project?

Explanation

B - The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false. The assumptions listed in the detailed project scope statement are typically more numerous and detailed than the project assumptions listed in the project charter.

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150. On obtaining the project charter, the project manager of a project immediately put together the project team to execute the project. Is this correct?

Explanation

D - No, the project team is not acquired immediately after signing of the project charter. Acquisition of a project team starts with HR planning in the Planning process group, followed by the Acquisition of the team in the Execution phase. The other answers are wrong because the Acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase. It is also not the responsibility of the Project Sponsor to provide the team for execution.

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151. Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?

Explanation

B- Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is all about figuring out prioritizing each risk, and figuring out its probability and impact. It’s an important part of risk planning. But it’s not about coming up with
specific numbers!

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152. A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which of the following techniques should she consider?

Explanation

D - Advertising is a good avenue to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications in order to achieve this.

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153. Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Explanation

B- The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle is a way of making small improvements and testing their impact before you make a change to the process as a whole. It comes from W. Edwards Deming’s work in process improvement, which popularized the cycle that was originally invented by Walter Shewhart in the 1930s.

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154. A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which of the following techniques should she consider?

Explanation

D - Advertising is a good avenue to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications in order to achieve this.

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155. You are managing a software project. You are partway through the project, and your team has just delivered a preliminary version of part of the software. You are holding a weekly status meeting, when one of the team members points out that an important stakeholder is running into a problem with one of the features of the current software. The team member feels that there is a risk that the stakeholder will ask for a change in that feature, even though that change would be out of scope of the current release—and if the stakeholder requests that change, there is a high probability that the change control board would approve the change. What is the BEST action to take next?

Explanation

C- Your risk register is one of the most important project management tools that you have—that’s why you review it and go over your risks at every meeting.

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156. While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of the Earned Value (EV) to the Actual Costs (AC) and obtained a value of 1.2. The project manager decided that this was an unfavorable condition to the project and decided to take corrective action. What is your view?

Explanation

C - The project manager is not correct. CPI = Cost Performance Index, and is the ratio of EV to AC. A value greater than 1 is a favorable condition for the project. The project manager has incorrectly interpreted the situation.

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157. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:

Explanation

D - Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is quicker than Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis which is sometimes not required by the project.

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158. Customer satisfaction should be measured at the end of the project to maintain long-term relationships. Which of the following is NOT always an aspect of customer satisfaction?

Explanation

B- Customers can be satisfied even when a project is not profitable—customer satisfaction isn’t always about money.

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159. A company is about to begin work on a large construction project to build four new buildings for a bank that wants to open new branches. The sponsor is writing a project charter. She recalls that a previous project the company performed for another bank ran over budget because the team had underestimated the effort required to install the reinforced walls in the vault. The previous project manager had documented the details of the lessons learned from this project. Where should the sponsor look for these lessons learned?

Explanation

B- Lessons learned from past projects are always part of a company’s organizational process.

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160. While identifying risks for a new construction project, you discover that a chemical you are using on your building cannot be applied in rainy conditions. You also learn that your project will be ready for the chemical application around the time when most of the rainfall happens in this part of the country. Since the project can't be delayed until after the rainy season and you need to make sure the building gets the chemical coating, you decide that your team will just have to allow enough time in the schedule for non worked rain days. This is an example of which strategy?

Explanation

C- This is an example of accepting a risk. The team can’t do anything about the weather, so the project manager has accepted the fact that they could end up being delayed by it.

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161. Tom is the project manager on a construction project. Midway through his project, he realizes that there's a problem with the lumber they've been using in a few rooms and they're going to have to tear down some of the work they've done and rebuild. One of his team members suggests that the defect isn't bad enough to cause all of that re-work. Tom says that he's worked on a project that made this same mistake before and they ended up having to redo the work when inspectors looked at the house. He convinces the team member that it's probably better to fix it now than later. What kind of power is he using to make the decision?

Explanation

B- Tom is using expert power. Since he’s been through this problem before, his team is more likely to accept his authority.

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162. Which quality control technique or tool should be used when trying to determine the cause of a major defect?

Explanation

D - A fishbone diagram, also called a cause and effect diagram, helps identify potential causes of an issue or problem.

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163. During a work breakdown structure meeting you have decomposed the deliverables into work packages and created your WBS dictionary. However, you now want to decompose the work packages to assist you in estimating, executing and control the project. These decomposed work packages are called?

Explanation

B - Activities represent the effort needed to complete a work package and are an output of the Define Activities process.

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164. Which of the following is an Input to Monitor and Control Project Work?

Explanation

Organisational Process Assets are an input to Monitor and Control Project Work. These assets include the policies, procedures, and knowledge base of an organization that can be used to guide and support project management activities. They provide valuable information and resources that help in monitoring and controlling project work, ensuring that it aligns with the organization's standards and processes. By utilizing these assets, project managers can effectively monitor and control the project's progress, identify any deviations or issues, and take appropriate corrective actions to ensure project success.

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165. Which conflict resolution technique is most effective?

Explanation

D- Confronting means figuring out the cause of the problem and fixing it. That’s the best way to be
sure that the right decision is made.

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166. Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations technique?

Explanation

D - Analogous, parametric, and three- point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project.

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167. Tom is a project manager on an industrial design project. He is always watching when his team members come into the office, when they take their breaks, and when they leave. He periodically walks around the office to be sure that everyone is doing work when they are at their desks and he insists that he make every project decision, even minor ones. What kind of manager is he?

Explanation

A- Tom is a Theory X manager. He believes that employees need to be watched all of the time and that all of his team members are selfish and unmotivated.

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168. A change has occurred on your project. You've documented the change, filled out a change request, and submitted that request to the change control board (CCB). What's the NEXT thing that must happen on the project?

Explanation

C- A change control board (or CCB) is a group of people that approves or rejects changes. It usually includes the sponsor, which makes sense because the sponsor is the one funding the project.

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169. You are managing a construction project. During your risk identification interviews you learn that there has been a string of construction site thefts over the past few months in the area where your will be building your project. The team agrees that it's unlikely that people will be able to steal from your site. Even if thieves could get around your security, it's even more unlikely that your project will lose a significant amount of material if a theft does occur. You decide to monitor the risk from time to time to be sure that it continues to have a low probability and impact. Where do you record the risk so that you don't lose track of it?

Explanation

B- A watchlist is where you keep risks that don’t have a high enough probability or impact to make it into the risk register but still need to be monitored.

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170. A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts anonymously. What risk identification tool or technique is being performed?

Explanation

B- The Delphi technique is a way to get opinions and ideas from experts. This is a technique that uses a facilitator who uses questionnaires to ask experts about important project risks.

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171. A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?

Explanation

B-Time and Materials (T&M) contracts are used in labor contracts. In a T&M contract, the seller pays a rate for each of the people working on the team plus their material costs.

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172. Accepted deliverables are an input to the Close Project or Phase process. These deliverables would have been accepted through which of the following processes?

Explanation

A - Accepted Deliverables are those that have been accepted through the Verify Scope process.

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173. You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your team members into a single room to work increases their communication, and helps build a sense of community. This is referred to as a:

Explanation

A- Co-location means that you have all of your team located in the same room. When you do this, you can increase communication and help them build a sense of community.

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174. A senior manager is presenting to your client's board of directors about your project. As part of distributing information, you must deliver status updates and other project materials to him via overnight mail. If the materials do not arrive tomorrow, your company will miss a major contract deadline and you will lose future business from this important client. The deadline cannot be negotiated. The team worked right up to the last minute in order to give you the files. Due to a traffic jam, you are running late and the overnight delivery company will close in five minutes. You can only make it if you drive over the speed limit. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

B- The PMP Code of Professional Conduct states that you must follow every law, no matter how trivial, and no matter how serious the consequences are.

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175. If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you determine the level of detail to be included in the plan?

Explanation

D - The level of detail required in a Project Management Plan would vary by project and would include only the details necessary for the project.

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176. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project Management Plan?

Explanation

C- The Project Management Plan is not a bar chart (or a Gantt chart). It’s the collection of all of the planning documents you create through all of the knowledge areas within the five process groups.

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177. Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of resources need to complete schedule activities. From a broader point of view, it is also concerned with the effect of project decisions on using, maintaining and supporting the product, service or result of the project. This is referred to as:

Explanation

A - This is referred to as Life Cycle costing. It refers to the broader view of project cost management and considers the effect of project decisions on the cost of using, maintaining, and supporting the product, service or result. It goes beyond just the costing of the project.

Submit
178. Which of the following is NOT an input of the Close Project or Phase process?

Explanation

B- The project management methodology describes the process (or lifecycle) that you use to manage your project. It really doesn’t have anything to do with closing a project or phase.

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179. Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of the project charter?

Explanation

A- The project charter does several important things: it lays out the project requirements, describes
an initial summary milestone schedule, documents the business case, and identifies initial risks, assumptions, and constraints. But the most important thing that a project charter does is that it identifies the project manager, and assigns him or her the authority necessary to get the job done.

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180. You are developing the project scope statement for a new project. Which of the following is NOT part of creating a project scope statement?

Explanation

A- Verify Scope is the Monitoring & Controlling process for the Scope Management knowledge area. It doesn’t have anything to do with planning out the scope of the project—you do it as you complete
each project phase to make sure that your team has completed all of the project work.

Submit
181. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project Management Plan?

Explanation

C- The Project Management Plan is not a bar chart (or a Gantt chart). It’s the collection of all of the planning documents you create through all of the knowledge areas within the five process groups.

Submit
182. Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?

Explanation

B- Risk Urgency Assessment is a tool of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. Identify Risks is all about finding risks. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is about ranking them based on what your team thinks their impact and probability will be for your project.

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183. A new CEO has come into your company and promptly shut down your project because it no longer met the business needs of the company. While not pleased with the decision, you document the level and completeness of the project to date. What activity or process is this part of?

Explanation

A - Documenting the completeness of the project to date in case of premature termination of a project is an activity under the Close Project or Phase process.

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184. When is the BEST time to have project kickoff meetings?

Explanation

C- If your project is broken up into phases, you should have a kickoff meeting at the start of each phase.

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185. As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impacts better. Which tool should be used?

Explanation

A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables (one on each axis). A relationship can then often be determine between the two variables based on how closely they fit a geometric model.

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186. As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impacts better. Which tool should be used?

Explanation

A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables (one on each axis). A relationship can then often be determine between the two variables based on how closely they fit a geometric model.

Submit
187. You are managing a construction project to install new door frames in an office building. You planned on spending $12,500 on the project, but your costs are higher than expected, and now you're afraid that your project is spending too much money. What number tells you the difference between the amount of money you planned on spending and what you've actually spent so far on the project?

Explanation

C- The cost variance (CV) is the difference between the amount of money you planned on spending and the total that you’ve spent so far.

Submit
188. A project manager is working in a country where it is customary to pay the police for private protection services, and those costs have increased the AC. This has affected his earned value calculations. When he reviews the budget with his company's management, his supervisor tells him that in another country, those costs would be considered a bribe, and questions whether they should be added to the budget. What is the BEST way for the project manager to proceed?

Explanation

B- Some questions on the exam might ask you about how to operate in another country. In this case,
the question is about whether or not something is a bribe. Clearly, if it’s a bribe, you can’t pay it. But is it? If a payment to a government official (or anyone else) is customary, then it’s not a bribe. You
should go ahead and pay the police—as long as it’s acceptable and legal in that country.

Submit
189. Which enterprise environmental factor defines how work is assigned to people?

Explanation

D- The work authorization system is a part of your company’s Enterprise Environmental Factors, and it’s generally part of any change control system.

Submit
190. You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children's software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project Planning process are you working on?

Explanation

The correct answer is Human Resource Planning. In this process, the project manager is assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. This involves determining what resources, including human resources, are needed for the project and how they will be allocated. The project manager is also considering the skills and expertise required for the project and identifying any gaps in the current team that may need to be filled through hiring or acquiring staff.

Submit
191. If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you determine the level of detail to be included in the plan?

Explanation

D - The level of detail required in a Project Management Plan would vary by project and would include only the details necessary for the project.

Submit
192. All of the following are inputs into the Directing and Managing Project Execution EXCEPT?

Explanation

The Risk Register is not an input into the Directing and Managing Project Execution process. The Risk Register is a tool used during the planning and monitoring phases of a project to identify, assess, and track project risks. However, during the execution phase, the focus is on carrying out the project activities according to the project plan and managing any changes or issues that arise. Therefore, the Risk Register is not directly used in the execution process.

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193. A company that designs and manufactures a series of new bicycles each year may manage the effort more efficiently how?

Explanation

A - A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually.

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194. If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and thus reduce the cost of quality control for your project, which technique should be used?

Explanation

C - Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product, while saving money for the project.

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195. What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their mitigation plans to support the project schedule?

Explanation

A - The risk register helps a project manager identify risks and countermeasures that might impact schedule.

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196. The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your project plan.

Explanation

B- When you work with a union then the union contract can have an impact on your project. That means you need to consider the union itself a stakeholder, and when you do your planning you need to make sure any union rules and agreements are considered as constraints.

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197. You are analyzing the risk in a project and decide to do Sensitivity analysis to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. You look at a tool to help compare the relative importance of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable. One such tool is:

Explanation

D - A tornado diagram is useful for comparing the relative importance of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty to those that are more stable.

Submit
198. During procurement closure, a procurement audit includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

D- Until the customer accepts the final product, your project isn’t done! Once you’ve closed out a procurement, it’s important to conduct a procurement audit.

Submit
199. Your client has terminated your project before it is complete. Which of the following is true?

Explanation

B- Even if a project is shut down before the work is completed, you still need to document the lessons learned and add them to the organizational process assets.

Submit
200. You are managing a construction project that is currently being initiated. You met with the sponsors, and have started to work on identifying stakeholders. You've documented several key stakeholders and identified their needs. Before you can finish initiating the project, your company guidelines require that you make a rough order of magnitude estimate of both time and cost, so that the sponsor can allocate the final budget.   What's the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate?

Explanation

B- A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate is an estimate that is very rough. According to the PMBOK® Guide, you should expect a ROM estimate to be anywhere from half (-50%) to one and a half times (+50%) the actual result. That means that if your ROM estimate for a project is six months, then you should expect the actual project to be anywhere from three months to nine months.

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Before closing a contract, the project manager should:
A notice sent to a subcontractor about the contract is an example of...
If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the...
You are managing a software project. You are partway through the...
If you have an unresolved issue while working on a project, what is...
You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're...
A project manager colleague of yours is currently working under...
The customer has reviewed the deliverables of a project and finds that...
If you want to have multiple vendors bid on your contract, what is the...
You have just delivered a product to your client for acceptance, when...
Midway through a project, a project manager determined that the...
A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform...
When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to...
A project manager is reporting the final status of the closed contract...
Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway...
The scope baseline consists of:
In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep...
A junior project manager at your company does not know how to perform...
Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The...
Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?
Brandi is a project manager on a software project. About halfway...
You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just...
Which of the following is NOT a type of communication ?
Which of these items are important to address when determining each...
What is a risk owner?
A team member approaches you with a change that could cut your...
What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to?
Which of the following best describes decomposition?
What is a risk owner?
Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?
In which plan do you define the processes that will be used to keep...
Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just...
You are a project manager on a construction project. You have just...
Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to...
Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule...
Paul is a project manager for an industrial design project. The...
At which stage, in a typical project, do stake holders have maximum...
You are meeting with your team, early in the project, and would like...
Organizations strongly influence the project framework. Which of the...
Which of the following is an Output of Develop Project Management...
You have recently been assigned to be the project manager for a...
You are the project manager for a software development project. When...
The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your...
What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout...
You are the project manager for a software development project. When...
The scope baseline consists of:
Which process group corresponds to the "do" part of the...
Which of the following describes the Executing process group?
Which of the following is an Output of  Develop Project Charter?
What is the purpose of the project charter?
You are a project manager for a software project. Your team buys a...
You are working on a construction project. You, your team, and your...
You are assigned to prepare the Procurement Management Plan for a...
You are the project manager responsible for building a 100,000 sq ft....
All of the following statements are true of the project Closing...
Ongoing operations and a project both have Initiating Processes, but...
You have been asked to establish a project charter for your new...
If you are working on a project where there is no definite project...
When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to...
You have just returned from the weekly change control board meeting...
Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?
You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out...
If you are working on a project where there is no definite project...
Which of the following best describes decomposition?
You have been assigned a project where you are responsible for...
There are two activities on your schedule, which are: 1) Install...
Which of the following statements is true regarding Close Project?
Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors...
A bar chart shows the number and type of resources you need throughout...
Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?
Which is the BEST definition of quality?
You are the project manager on a construction project. As you're...
You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are...
If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the...
Two of your project team members approach you with a conflict that...
Tom is the project manager of an accounting project. He has just...
A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed...
The correct sequence of processes in the Risk management area is:
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You are 8 months into a project and you have been given a new resource...
An organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity arising from a...
Your project team has completed the project work. All of the following...
You are initiating project that has a virtual team. Half of your team...
You're the project manager on a software project that is planning out...
Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and...
You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your...
Which of these items are important to address when determining each...
Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?
When a project is performed under contract, the contractual provisions...
Which of the following is NOT found in a project charter?
Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?
You're managing a construction project to install several hundred air...
As an external vendor, you are managing a complex software project...
A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is...
In a cause and effect diagram, which of these is not a potential...
As a project manager, you are performing various project performance...
Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8...
Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations...
Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in...
Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Plan and...
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform...
Which of the following is not accurate about the initial phase of a...
You the project manager responsible for building a 100,000 sq ft. data...
A project manager is just finishing a project that has not gone well....
Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment or...
In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:
You are currently performing the Conduct Procurements process. You are...
Your top team member has performed extremely well, and you want to...
When you look at a control chart that measures defects in the product...
Which is the BEST definition of quality?
The Risk Register is a component of the project management plan. It...
Deliverables can be described as?
A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts...
Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are 8...
Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on...
Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in...
Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
Which of the following BEST describes the records management system?
You are managing a project with a total budget of $450,000. According...
You have been hired by a contractor, who wants you to manage a...
Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:
Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on...
Which of the following is NOT true of obtaining project plan approval?
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?
The Manage Project Team process is part of what process group?
You are attempting to estimate the resources required to put the...
Your company is going to introduce a new service called Phone Home....
A project manager is planning the staffing levels that will be needed...
Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?
A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good...
You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your...
You are managing a project with an EV of $15,000, PV of $12,000, and...
You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project...
You and your team have diligently been working on a project over the...
As a PMP, one of your responsibilities is to ensure integrity on the...
You are managing a construction project. During your risk...
What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their...
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Estimate Costs?
You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your...
A project manager is faced with two team members who have conflicting...
You are managing a software project. During a walkthrough of newly...
As part of the Define Scope process, a project manager documented the...
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At the close of your project, you measure the customer satisfaction...
One way the Close Project or Phase process differs from Close...
Fill in the blank: A _______ is a document established by consensus...
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On obtaining the project charter, the project manager of a project...
Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique of Perform...
A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which...
Which of the following best describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which...
You are managing a software project. You are partway through the...
While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of...
In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is:
Customer satisfaction should be measured at the end of the project to...
A company is about to begin work on a large construction project to...
While identifying risks for a new construction project, you discover...
Tom is the project manager on a construction project. Midway through...
Which quality control technique or tool should be used when trying to...
During a work breakdown structure meeting you have decomposed the...
Which of the following is an Input to Monitor and Control Project...
Which conflict resolution technique is most effective?
Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations...
Tom is a project manager on an industrial design project. He is always...
A change has occurred on your project. You've documented the change,...
You are managing a construction project. During your risk...
A project manager uses a facilitator to gather opinions from experts...
A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good...
Accepted deliverables are an input to the Close Project or Phase...
You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your...
A senior manager is presenting to your client's board of directors...
If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you...
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project...
Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of...
Which of the following is NOT an input of the Close Project or Phase...
Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of the project...
You are developing the project scope statement for a new project....
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project...
Which of the following is NOT a tool in Identify Risks?
A new CEO has come into your company and promptly shut down your...
When is the BEST time to have project kickoff meetings?
As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between...
As project manager, you would like to show the relationship between...
You are managing a construction project to install new door frames in...
A project manager is working in a country where it is customary to pay...
Which enterprise environmental factor defines how work is assigned to...
You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company...
If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you...
All of the following are inputs into the Directing and Managing...
A company that designs and manufactures a series of new bicycles each...
If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and thus...
What tool should you use to help identify project risks and their...
The terms of union contracts are considered ______________ in your...
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Your client has terminated your project before it is complete. Which...
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