PMP Sample Exam (200 Questions)

200 Questions

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PMP Sample Exam (200 Questions)

200 randomly chosen PMP exam questions from various resources.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Conflicts distract the team and disrupt the work rhythm. You should always smooth them when they surface.

    • B. 

      A conflict should be handled in a meeting so that the entire team can participate in solution finding.

    • C. 

      Conflict should be addressed early and usually in private, using a direct, collaborative approach.

    • D. 

      You should use your coercive power to quickly resolve conflicts and then focus on goal achievement.

  • 2. 
    What is the purpose of a Project charter?
    • A. 

      To formally authorize a project or a phase and document initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and expectations.

    • B. 

      To document how the project will be planned, executed, monitored/controlled, and closed.

    • C. 

      To link the project, which is going to be planned, executed, and monitored/controlled to the ongoing work of the organization.

    • D. 

      To describe the process of performing the work defined in the project management plan in order to achieve the project’s objectives.

  • 3. 
    The concept of the _________ states that changes related to one requirement— scope, time or cost—will at least influence one other element.3
    • A. 

      Three-point estimation

    • B. 

      Triple constraint

    • C. 

      Three wise men

    • D. 

      Three needs theory

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      The net present value is positive, which makes the project attractive.

    • B. 

      The net present value is positive, which makes the project unattractive.

    • C. 

      The net present value is negative, which makes the project attractive.

    • D. 

      The net present value is negative, which makes the project unattractive.

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      A standardized set of deliverables, like plans, reports, and checklists.

    • B. 

      A set of Tools and techniques that a project manager should master.

    • C. 

      The concept of State of the art applied to project management.

    • D. 

      A specific sequence of work, described in terms of Soft logic.

  • 6. 
    The Communications management plan is a document, which includes descriptions of
    • A. 

      Project level performance reports

    • B. 

      Activity level status reports

    • C. 

      Stakeholder communication requirements

    • D. 

      Responsibility assignments

  • 7. 
    _________ are/is usually not a manifestation of unique organizational cultures and styles.
    • A. 

      Shared visions, values, norms, beliefs, and expectations

    • B. 

      Individual traits and attitudes of co-workers

    • C. 

      View of authority relationships

    • D. 

      Policies, methods, and procedures

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is generally not regarded as an element of active listening:
    • A. 

      Making eye contact

    • B. 

      Paraphrasing

    • C. 

      Interpreting the information

    • D. 

      Interrupting when appropriate

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      The process has high precision but low accuracy. It should be adjusted.

    • B. 

      The process has high precision but low accuracy. It should be improved.

    • C. 

      The process has high accuracy but low precision. It should be adjusted.

    • D. 

      The process has high accuracy but low precision. It should be improved.

  • 10. 
    When should Lessons learned be organized?
    • A. 

      During the project lifecycle and at the end.

    • B. 

      At the end of the project during closing.

    • C. 

      After the end of the project at a project post-mortem meeting.

    • D. 

      Lessons learned can be organized when there is time available.

  • 11. 
    Which of the following documents is not used as input for the Verify scope process?
    • A. 

      The Project management plan, containing the scope baseline consisting of the project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary.

    • B. 

      The Validated deliverables, completed and checked for correctness by the Perform quality control process.

    • C. 

      The Requirements traceability matrix, linking requirements to their origin and tracing them throughout the project lifecycle.

    • D. 

      The RACI matrix, describing accountabilities in case of product rejection.

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Changes are generally not predictable, therefore planning for change management cannot be sensible.

    • B. 

      Planning for change management should be done while the various change control processes are being applied.

    • C. 

      Change management can be planned in a set of management plans or a specific change management plan.

    • D. 

      Changes are a sign of bad planning. One should avoid changes during a project thus eliminating the need to manage them.

  • 13. 
    According to Bruce Tuckmann, which are the stages of team development?
    • A. 

      Honeymoon, rejection, regression, acceptance, re-entry

    • B. 

      Forming, storming, norming, performing

    • C. 

      Tell, sell, consult, join

    • D. 

      Direct, support, coach, delegate

  • 14. 
    What is not a reason for companies to organize Lessons learned?
    • A. 

      Lessons learned databases are an essential element of the organizational process assets.

    • B. 

      Lessons learned should focus on identifying those accountable for errors and failures.

    • C. 

      Lessons learned sessions should bring about recommendations to improve future performance on projects.

    • D. 

      Phase-end lessons learned sessions provide a good team building exercise for project staff members.

  • 15. 
    How does a project management team stay in touch with the work and the attitudes of project team members?
    • A. 

      By observation and communication

    • B. 

      Using closed questions during team meetings

    • C. 

      Through third-party assessments

    • D. 

      Through the team members’ functional managers

  • 16. 
    Which document is developed along the risk management processes from Identify risks through Plan risk responses to Monitor and control risks?
    • A. 

      List of risk triggers

    • B. 

      Risk register

    • C. 

      Risk mitigation

    • D. 

      Decision tree

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      A requested change is always an opportunity to get more money paid by the customer and to secretly solve schedule and quality problems. You should make some reasonable estimates on time, costs, risks etc. and then add a nice margin on top of that to calculate the new price.

    • B. 

      Customer satisfaction is your top priority. The customer gives you an opportunity to increase their satisfaction, which you should use to the maximum benefit. Most project managers have contingencies to cover risks; these can be used to pay the additional costs.

    • C. 

      Before making a decision you should have a look at the customer’s parking lot. If you find there many expensive, new models, it is likely that you can use the requested change to increase the profit from the contract. Otherwise you should reject the request.

    • D. 

      Handle the request according to the integrated change control processes described in your management plans. Then make a decision together with the appropriate change control body, whether the increased customer satisfaction will be worth the extra costs, work, risks etc.

  • 18. 
    A facilitator should…
    • A. 

      …be in full control of the discussion and its outcomes.

    • B. 

      …always take notes by herself.

    • C. 

      …avoid a flip chart Parking lot.

    • D. 

      …give guidance as required without interfering.

  • 19. 
    As the project manager in a software project which is currently being initiated, you want to assess high level risks. What should you do?
    • A. 

      Develop the Project charter and a Risk management plan to start identifying risks based on those and other documents.

    • B. 

      Identify and analyze risk events using qualitative and quantitative techniques.

    • C. 

      Develop contingency plans and fallback plans in case the original plan proves wrong.

    • D. 

      Discuss the risks documented in your Risk register with the project key stakeholders.

  • 20. 
    In most jurisdictions, a legally required order of formal statements establishing a contract is:
    • A. 

      Invitation to treat, offer, PO

    • B. 

      Inquiry, bid, order

    • C. 

      Offer, acceptance

    • D. 

      MoU, LoI, final agreement

  • 21. 
    What should managers consider before conducting a performance-evaluation interview with a project team member?
    • A. 

      Which management fallacies can most easily be delegated to the worker?

    • B. 

      How can discussion of the manager’s leadership style be avoided?

    • C. 

      Has the employee been provided with sufficient instructions and work tools?

    • D. 

      How can dispute related to unsatisfactory performance be avoided?

  • 22. 
    Which statement describes best handling of assumptions during the Initiating processes?
    • A. 

      It is the responsibility of the sales person in charge to identify all risks related to a customer project.

    • B. 

      Managing and organizing assumptions means avoiding risks right from the start of the project.

    • C. 

      Organizational, environmental and external assumptions should be addressed by the project charter.

    • D. 

      Risks are a sign of uncertainty. Avoiding all uncertainties means that a project should have no risks at all.

  • 23. 
    A WBS dictionary is a document which…
    • A. 

      …describes technical terms used for scope management.

    • B. 

      …describes the details for each component in the WBS.

    • C. 

      …translates essential WBS terms for global project teams.

    • D. 

      …helps translating functional into technical requirements.

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Bidder conferences

    • B. 

      Advertising

    • C. 

      Qualified sellers list

    • D. 

      Four-eyes meetings

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      When you break down scope to create a Work breakdown structure (WBS).

    • B. 

      When you assign a human resources to do the work in a Schedule activity.

    • C. 

      When you develop acceptance criteria for work results to be achieved by the team members.

    • D. 

      When you decide upon recognition and awards during Team development

  • 26. 
    At the beginning of Project execution, you notice different opinions between team members relating to project work and deliverables and to the level of overall complexity. What should you do right now?
    • A. 

      Give your team members some time to develop a common understanding of the project scope and product scope. Upcoming interface problems may be resolved later.

    • B. 

      Use the Risk management processes to identify and assess risks caused by misunderstandings and develop a plan with measures in order to respond to them.

    • C. 

      Organize meetings to identify and resolve misunderstandings between team members in order to avoid interface problems, disintegration and costly rework early in the project.

    • D. 

      Use interviews in private with each individual team member to inform them of your expectations and your requirements in an atmosphere of confidence.

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Develop a Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) which clearly shows the responsibility of each stakeholder for the various project activities and who needs to be consulted and informed.

    • B. 

      Develop an organization diagram, which places each of the stakeholders at an appropriate position inside the project and allows for certain lines of communication while disallowing others.

    • C. 

      Schedule a meeting with these stakeholders to present the project, discuss and establish ground rules, ensure their involvement and identify initial personal and organizational issues.

    • D. 

      Do not talk to these stakeholders too much at this time, instead create Faits accomplis, which will later force the stakeholders to support the project due to a lack of alternatives for them.

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Ask the project stakeholders to build focus groups in order to discuss and remedy conflicting interests.

    • B. 

      Create an exhaustive document describing your point of view and ask stakeholders to review it.

    • C. 

      Let each stakeholder write a statement of work, merge the documents to a project scope statement.

    • D. 

      Use your authorization as the project manager to clearly prioritize the different objectives.

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      Poor risk management by the contractor running the project

    • B. 

      Poor technical ability of the contractor running the project for the customer

    • C. 

      Technical inability and poor risk management by the contractor

    • D. 

      Unclear Scope definition by the customer for whom the project is performed

  • 30. 
    What is typical for Critical chain project management?
    • A. 

      Management of buffers

    • B. 

      Management of total floats and free floats

    • C. 

      Management of leads and lags

    • D. 

      Management of resource over-allocations

  • 31. 
    You are the project manager for the development of a new type of power plant. Your project is making fast progress, and it is getting nearer to the day of product acceptance. Which technique will be most important for product acceptance?
    • A. 

      Inspection

    • B. 

      Quality audit

    • C. 

      Impact analysis

    • D. 

      Team review

  • 32. 
    What are the cost types in modern quality management?
    • A. 

      Costs of good quality – costs of bad quality

    • B. 

      Planning costs – assurance costs – control costs

    • C. 

      Planning costs – doing costs – checking costs – acting costs

    • D. 

      Prevention costs – appraisal costs – failure costs

  • 33. 
    During the execution of a project to build a complex defense system, your team has run into a deep crisis.     The project’s goal and objectives have been challenging right from the start, but now you have discovered that your team members have become increasingly unaware of them. Being busy solving detail problems, they often fail to understand the overall requirements. Then they develop solutions which resolve issues in their area of limited responsibility, while causing new problems at the interfaces with other system components.     Meanwhile, the team members show signs of growing frustration, and time is running away. How can you help your team in this situation?
    • A. 

      Accompany your team members along a sequence of maturity levels from dependence through independence to interdependence.

    • B. 

      Ignore the low-level issues and focus on achieving the overall requirements, details can be sorted out during test and handover.

    • C. 

      If everybody simply does their jobs, then there should be no problem. Make sure that team members are fully aware of their accountability.

    • D. 

      Problems of this dimension have their origin in fundamental personal incompatibilities between team members. You should replace them all.

  • 34. 
    A project has the following Earned value data assessed:   AC:$4,000,000 CV:$-500,000 SPI:1.12 BaC:$9,650,000   What is the Earned value of the project?
    • A. 

      $3,000,000

    • B. 

      $3,500,000

    • C. 

      $4,480,000

    • D. 

      $5,650,000

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Meticulously document the problem and the workaround to create a requested change to the project management plan, which will then be passed to the body responsible for the change control decision.

    • B. 

      The workaround was performed on a technical level only. As long as it does not influence the function of the bridge or the organizational configuration of the project, a change request will not be necessary.

    • C. 

      A formal change request from hind side is not sensible. Create some additional documents describing the workaround and sign them by yourself, you can present them during the next regular CCB meeting.

    • D. 

      It is normal in projects that, during project execution, inconsistencies arise between planning documents and actual implementation. This is no problem as long as the functional status of the product is maintained.

  • 36. 
    You recently took over the assignment for a project. The project charter has been developed. What is an appropriate next step for you?
    • A. 

      Develop the risk register.

    • B. 

      Develop the project milestone schedule.

    • C. 

      Develop management plans.

    • D. 

      Get approval for the project management plan.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      The kick-off meeting is secondary, you are happy if the team members will do their jobs.

    • B. 

      You should insist on the presence of the team members to the appointed date.

    • C. 

      If you force team members’ presence, they would anyway be distracted by their current problems.

    • D. 

      It is probably a good idea to reschedule the meeting to a day, when all team members can attend.

  • 38. 
    A discussion came up during a meeting: To which degree does your project have to be compliant to the processes enumerated in the PMBOK® Guide. What should be the guiding principle to answer this question?
    • A. 

      The processes are meant as rough guidelines to which a team should only adhere if there is enough consensus.

    • B. 

      The more processes the project team follows, the better the project’s performance will be.

    • C. 

      The project manager must follow all 42 processes for project management without alterations.

    • D. 

      The project team must select appropriate processes required to meet the project requirements.

  • 39. 
    Product acceptance criteria should be laid down in which document?
    • A. 

      Project scope statement

    • B. 

      Work breakdown structure

    • C. 

      Resource assignments

    • D. 

      Project scope management plan

  • 40. 
    The Cost baseline is developed during which process?
    • A. 

      Perform integrated change control

    • B. 

      Estimate costs

    • C. 

      Develop schedule

    • D. 

      Determine budget

  • 41. 
    During project execution you found out that work is often not performed at the right time and in the right order. Deliverables are made by one team member that cannot be processed by another one. This already leads to timely rework and bad morale among team members.     Which project management tool is most appropriate to deal with problems like this?
    • A. 

      Organization chart

    • B. 

      RACI matrix

    • C. 

      Communications management plan

    • D. 

      Work authorization system

  • 42. 
    Your management applies the 10 percent solution: It has requested that you reduce the budget for the project which you are currently initiating by 10%. What will this probably mean for your project?
    • A. 

      If the budget is cut by 10%, then the project will have an accompanying degradation of quality by 10%.

    • B. 

      If the project budget is an honest one, then a reduction in budget must be accompanied by a trade-off in either time or performance.

    • C. 

      A 10% reduction in budget will be accompanied by a loss of performance much less than the target reduction in cost.

    • D. 

      Most projects have "padded" estimates, and the budgetary reduction will force out the padding from the project.

  • 43. 
    While applying procurement management processes in your project you have identified the need to gain a more objective understanding of sellers’ capabilities in order to rank proposals and develop a negotiating sequence.     Which technique may help avoid bias and subjective decisions best?
    • A. 

      Bidder conference

    • B. 

      Weighting system

    • C. 

      Oral contract

    • D. 

      Letter of intent

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      …patterns and trends in a row of data points.

    • B. 

      …behavior of data points against control criteria.

    • C. 

      …behavior of data points against specifications.

    • D. 

      …the error margin of a sample versus a whole population.

  • 45. 
    The term Baseline is used in both disciplines Project management and Configuration management. Which statement is not true?
    • A. 

      Baselines in system configurations are often also referred to as Deltas.

    • B. 

      In configuration management, baselines are used to control change.

    • C. 

      Project management baselines are used for performance measurement.

    • D. 

      In project management, baselines help assessing variance and trends.

  • 46. 
    In a project, a Cost incentive contract has been awarded to a contractor with the following parameters:    Target cost:$1,000,000 Target contractor fee:$100,000 Cost benefit sharing ratio:80%/20% Price ceiling:$1,200,000     What is the Point of total assumption (PTA, Breakpoint) of the project?
    • A. 

      $1,000,000

    • B. 

      $1,100,000

    • C. 

      $1,125,000

    • D. 

      $1,200,000

  • 47. 
    The Scope baseline includes____.
    • A. 

      The various management plans of the project

    • B. 

      Schedule baseline and Cost baseline

    • C. 

      Product configuration ID and Statement of work

    • D. 

      WBS dictionary, WBS, Scope statement

  • 48. 
    During Human resource planning you identified that your team members are not sufficiently qualified for their tasks. Which may be an appropriate solution to this problem?
    • A. 

      Reduce level of effort

    • B. 

      Develop a training plan

    • C. 

      Plan quality audits

    • D. 

      Plan quality inspections

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      Technical means for communications can focus on transfer of spoken and written language.

    • B. 

      Communication is preferred which avoids passing over a great deal of additional information.

    • C. 

      A message has little meaning without an understanding of the surrounding context.

    • D. 

      To understand a message, no information on history or personal opinions is needed.

  • 50. 
    Processes of Configuration management do in general not include…
    • A. 

      …identification and documentation of system or item characteristics.

    • B. 

      …controlling changes to these characteristics in an integrative fashion.

    • C. 

      …documenting and auditing changes and the implementation status.

    • D. 

      …assigning responsibilities for change control and documentation.

  • 51. 
    The ________ is a document which describes how the project management team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy.
    • A. 

      Quality assurance plan

    • B. 

      Quality management plan

    • C. 

      Quality commitment

    • D. 

      Quality audit

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Offers which will differ significantly in solution approach and price.

    • B. 

      Offers which are similar enough to allow a selection based on price.

    • C. 

      Offers which are not primarily written to win against competition.

    • D. 

      General information on a seller’s ability to provide the goods or services.

  • 53. 
    What is important for Quality auditors?
    • A. 

      They must be in-house personnel.

    • B. 

      They must be third-party staff.

    • C. 

      They must be mandated by the auditee.

    • D. 

      They must be properly trained.

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Discounted net revenues from the product over n years minus project costs for internal charges

    • B. 

      Discounted net savings from the product over n years minus project costs for internal charges

    • C. 

      The Economic value added (EVA) to the organization taking into account taxes and capital costs

    • D. 

      The reduction in Total cost of ownership (TCO) of the current product compared with its predecessor product

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      Ensure that they handle all risks to save you from project level risk monitoring and control.

    • B. 

      Make sure that the sub project managers monitor their project work for new and changing risks.

    • C. 

      Make sure that the sub project managers keep track of the identified risks and those on the watch list.

    • D. 

      Make sure that the sub-project managers monitor trigger conditions for contingency plans.

  • 56. 
    What is true for Statistical sampling?
    • A. 

      Statistical sampling can be used to verify for each individual item in a lot, whether it can be accepted or must be rejected.

    • B. 

      Attribute sampling means collection of quantitative data showing the level of conformity for each item of a sample.

    • C. 

      Variables sampling includes collection of quantitative data on the degree of conformity for each item of a sample.

    • D. 

      Statistical sampling is commonly used in Quality assurance to examine if items of a lot conform to quality standards.

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      …the degree of dependence relationships between individuals.

    • B. 

      …the significance of the person versus that of the group.

    • C. 

      …the identification with the gender role of an individual.

    • D. 

      …the tolerance for ambiguity or uncertainty in the workplace.

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Change requests should always be handled in a controlled and integrative fashion.

    • B. 

      Change requests surpassing the formal change control processes can lead to Scope creep.

    • C. 

      Professionally managed, change requests can help improving a project and resolving emerging problems.

    • D. 

      Change requests are always a sign of bad planning and should therefore be avoided.

  • 59. 
    You recently assigned staff members to activities, estimated work and scheduled your project. You then created the following resource histogram for your staff:       What does this diagram tell you?
    • A. 

      The project can probably not be finished as scheduled.

    • B. 

      You may be able to finish the project early by reassigning work.

    • C. 

      You should avoid network logic diagramming for scheduling.

    • D. 

      You may run into problems with dual reporting relationships.

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      It is a node in a WBS, where several branches are brought back together.

    • B. 

      It is a node in a Conditional network diagram, at which it becomes deterministic.

    • C. 

      It is a node in a Decision tree, showing various branches with the same chance.

    • D. 

      It is a node in a Network logic diagram which has multiple predecessors.

  • 61. 
    The members of your project team have been assigned to your project with general availability levels of 50%.     Yesterday, they reported to you that significant variances occurred during project execution. You have noted that the team members have been spending less than 50% of their time working on your project. Your project schedule is about to become heavily delayed, and deadlines are in jeopardy. What should you do?
    • A. 

      Talk to your sponsor and try to get more resources assigned on similar conditions as the existing ones.

    • B. 

      Talk with functional managers. Negotiate clear and written assignments with reliable scheduling priorities.

    • C. 

      Ignore the difficulties, adjust your schedule and negotiate new deadlines according to the slower progress.

    • D. 

      Focus on internal charges. Make sure that your project is not getting charged for more than the actual work.

  • 62. 
    What is the meaning of the acronym CSOW?
    • A. 

      A Statement of work that is part of a Contingency plan; it is commonly linked with Contingency reserves.

    • B. 

      A Statement of work that has been formally agreed upon by both parties and is therefore part of a Contract.

    • C. 

      A Statement of work that is currently valid; this contrasts with the scope baseline, a formerly valid SOW.

    • D. 

      A Statement of work on project level that cumulates statements of work on Cost account level

  • 63. 
    You monitored figures on cost and planned/earned value for each individual project week until the data date at the end of the sixth week. What is the status of this project at this date?  
    • A. 

      The project is ahead of schedule and over budget.

    • B. 

      The project is ahead of schedule and under budget.

    • C. 

      The project is behind schedule and over budget.

    • D. 

      The project is behind schedule and under budget.

  • 64. 
    Crashing describes a technique to speed up a project by…
    • A. 

      …reallocating existing resources or assigning additional resources to the project.

    • B. 

      …overlapping activities which were originally planned to be done in sequence.

    • C. 

      …reducing the number of features of the product in order to reduce development work.

    • D. 

      …reducing the duration estimates for activities to increase the pressure applied to the staff.

  • 65. 
    During Risk identification sessions, you and your team identified more than 150 risks for your project. You are afraid that evaluating each of these risks quantitatively will cost you an enormous amount of time, while not all of them are really relevant and important enough to justify such a measure. What should you do next?
    • A. 

      Identify Risk triggers where possible. Analyze only those risks quantitatively for which no trigger could be found.

    • B. 

      Use Qualitative risk analysis in order to prioritize risks for further action, such as Quantitative risk analysis.

    • C. 

      Assess the probability of each risk qualitatively and further analyze only those risks with high probability.

    • D. 

      Assess the potential impact of each risk qualitatively and further analyze only those risks with high impact.

  • 66. 
    During execution of a project, you observe that the performance of some of your team members is dropping, while others are doing a consistently good job. What should you try first to bring the team as a whole back to performance?
    • A. 

      Organize a team meeting and discuss openly the bad performance of the weak team members. Try to find a joint solution during the meeting.

    • B. 

      Introduce a competitive incentive system with a bonus for the 20% of your team which is performing better than the other 80%.

    • C. 

      Do not interfere, but allow the team some time to organize itself and sort the problem out by low-level conflict management.

    • D. 

      Introduce a system of formal and informal performance appraisals, research causes for bad performance and solicit mutual feedback.

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      …a stretch assignment is going beyond your qualifications right from the start. Whatever your education, knowledge and skills are, you cannot fail personally. Congratulations.

    • B. 

      …key stakeholders must have timely and complete information regarding your qualifications to make decisions regarding your suitability for the assignment.

    • C. 

      …stretch assignments bear an increased risk of failure, and this is rarely outweighed by the learning and development experience expected to come with the assignment.

    • D. 

      …you should avoid the increased hassle coming with the assignment. It will not be enough for you to simply satisfy requirements and achieve objectives. You will have to learn a lot.

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      You write down the ideas of team members and structure them into categories of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats during the session.

    • B. 

      You creatively gather thoughts and ideas without any discussion or frowning. These ideas are only filtered and structured after the end of the brainstorming session.

    • C. 

      Your team members wear hats with different colors, each of which stands for a way of thinking. Each member discusses topics from the viewpoint of their thinking.

    • D. 

      You try to eradicate deviating ideas and concepts of team members during the meeting, so that the entire project team follows your principles.

  • 69. 
    In Configuration management, which of the following is necessary to maintain the integrity of Baselines?
    • A. 

      Analyzing variances by comparing baseline information with actual project data.

    • B. 

      Releasing only approved changes for incorporation into products or services.

    • C. 

      Ensuring that team members adhere to a code of ethical conduct and behavior.

    • D. 

      Ensuring transparency across all project management processes and activities.

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      The project management plan is a subsidiary document of the overall communications management plan.

    • B. 

      The communications management plan describes rules of behavior and respect for communications in cross-cultural teams.

    • C. 

      The communications management plan describes the information delivery needs including format and level of detail.

    • D. 

      The communications management plan focuses on the use of communications technologies by the project management team

  • 71. 
    Which is not a point used for Three-point estimation?
    • A. 

      Optimistic estimate

    • B. 

      Most likely estimate

    • C. 

      Budget estimate

    • D. 

      Pessimistic estimate

  • 72. 
    Which of the following are not common Barriers to project team building?
    • A. 

      Differing outlooks, priorities, and interests

    • B. 

      Role conflicts

    • C. 

      Excessive team member commitment

    • D. 

      Unclear project objectives/outcomes

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      The likeliness that the project will finish exactly at the date marked with ―Deadline‖ is 80%.

    • B. 

      The likeliness that the project team will exceed the date marked with ―Deadline‖ is at 80%.

    • C. 

      If the project team will meet the deadline, project costs will be 80% of the budgeted costs.

    • D. 

      The likeliness that the project team will meet the deadline or will finish earlier is at 80%.

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      You reduce your direct cost estimates by reducing the amount of work and the rates allocated to them. This allows a reduction of the overhead costs and a lower price.

    • B. 

      Calculating overheads as a percentage of direct costs is just a model to simplify calculations. A more specific analysis of these costs may lead to a more realistic project price.

    • C. 

      Cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work. These are made by the project team. It is the sales person’s job to make the price.

    • D. 

      You make the sales person aware that a reduction of direct costs may reduce the numbers for overhead cost allocation, but will not influence the actual overheads.

  • 75. 
    While executing a project, you sense a slightly negative attitude in your team. Which type of document do you now need, among others, to better understand and then be able to improve the situation?
    • A. 

      Project charter

    • B. 

      Team performance assessments

    • C. 

      Cost baseline

    • D. 

      Statement of work

  • 76. 
    A Project charter is a document that…
    • A. 

      …describes both the project scope and the product scope at detail level.

    • B. 

      …authorizes the project and the use of organizational resources to meet project requirements.

    • C. 

      …breaks down the project scope over several steps to describe the project on work package level.

    • D. 

      …describes all activities which are necessary to create the project deliverables.

  • 77. 
    You identified a technical risk in your project and assigned a contingency for that. Planning contingency reserves is part of which risk response strategy?
    • A. 

      Active risk mitigation

    • B. 

      Passive risk avoidance

    • C. 

      Passive risk acceptance

    • D. 

      Active risk acceptance

  • 78. 
    Which concept of locating team members can help them best to enhance their performance as a team?
    • A. 

      Co-location

    • B. 

      Cross-functional dispersion

    • C. 

      Virtual e-teams

    • D. 

      Global team dispersion

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      Constructive changes are contract changes which are construed from actions taken by either party, not from a change document.

    • B. 

      Changes in projects under contract are called Constructive changes if they yield benefits for both parties.

    • C. 

      Constructive changes are a frequent cause of disputes and claims of one contract party against the other.

    • D. 

      Field changes should be meticulously documented to avoid an interpretation as constructive change

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      The fiscal budget mechanism which is used by the performing organization may not allow for cost peaks in your project, and you may have to level out expenditures over time.

    • B. 

      You can silently create budget contingencies during low-cost periods and re- use them later during those periods when you have to cover peak levels in project costs.

    • C. 

      You may find another project manager with a project which has a different rhythm of high and low costs. Then, you may be able to move budget during one project’s low cost periods to the other project.

    • D. 

      You are a project manager and work with a lifecycle budget for your project. Fiscal budgets are a matter of the functional organization, and you have generally not to care about them.

  • 81. 
    You are going to take over a new project as the project manager in an enterprise unknown to you. What should you investigate during the chartering process?
    • A. 

      Enterprise environmental factors

    • B. 

      Project management plan

    • C. 

      Project risk register

    • D. 

      Team performance reports

  • 82. 
    A project was budgeted at $1,000,000. The project is meanwhile being executed, and the following current figures have been assessed:   PV:$500,000 EV:$450,000 AC:$550,000   Assuming that the Cost variance was caused by one-time cost drivers, which are no more effective, what Estimate at completion (EaC) can you derive from these figures?
    • A. 

      $900,000

    • B. 

      $1,000,000

    • C. 

      $1,100,000

    • D. 

      $1,222,222

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Payment of an award fee would be linked to the achievement of objective performance criteria.

    • B. 

      Any unresolved dispute over the payment of an award fee would be subject to remedy in court.

    • C. 

      Payment of an award fee would be agreed upon by both the customer and the contractor.

    • D. 

      Payment of an award fee is decided upon by the customer based on the degree of satisfaction.

  • 84. 
    What is least important when it comes to archiving project records?
    • A. 

      A well-designed records management system

    • B. 

      Integration of the archive with business software

    • C. 

      Updated records reflecting final results

    • D. 

      Easy availability of information for future use

  • 85. 
    _______ are not necessarily used to establish the Cost baseline of a project.
    • A. 

      Schedule activity or work package cost estimates

    • B. 

      The Work breakdown structure and WBS dictionary

    • C. 

      The Project schedule and Resource calendars.

    • D. 

      The Risk breakdown structure and the Risk register.

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Request a written statement from the customer detailing the requirements which they believe are not addressed by your plan. Use this statement to update the project plan.

    • B. 

      Arrange meetings with the customer to identify their needs, wants and expectations for the project. Then create a narrative Scope statement from this information to document the agreed upon project scope.

    • C. 

      Request a formal meeting on top executive level to get the misunderstandings sorted out, then arrange a change request, re-plan your project where necessary and go ahead with the project work.

    • D. 

      Do not over-react. Performed according to your plan, the project will produce a convincing product for the customer. As soon as the executives will see it, they will probably change their opinion and accept it.

  • 87. 
    A project was assessed and the following Earned value data have been found:   PV:$750,000 EV:$750,000 AC:$900,000   What is the Burn rate of the project?
    • A. 

      1.20

    • B. 

      1.10

    • C. 

      1.00

    • D. 

      0.83

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      Project deliverables should be identified, described and agreed upon as early in the project as possible.

    • B. 

      Project deliverables may be products, capabilities for services or other kinds of results.

    • C. 

      Once project deliverables have been identified, their description should not be changed any more.

    • D. 

      The acceptance process for deliverables and how rejection will be addressed should be described in the contract.

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Hand all relevant documentation over to the organizational unit responsible for handling the warranty.

    • B. 

      There is no additional work to be done. The contract should describe all processes in sufficient detail.

    • C. 

      Changes on the product can affect warranty clauses. Ensure that these clauses are aligned with the final specifications.

    • D. 

      According to many legislations, you cannot formally close a project before the end of the warranty period.

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      You failed to use an RBS.

    • B. 

      You did the first processes alone.

    • C. 

      You did not identify Triggers.

    • D. 

      You did not calculate EMVs.

  • 91. 
    Which is generally not regarded as one of the three categories of culture that managers should master?
    • A. 

      National culture

    • B. 

      Organizational culture

    • C. 

      Project culture

    • D. 

      Functional culture

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      The project was terminated early. At that time, it was over budget and ahead of schedule.

    • B. 

      The project has produced additional deliverables which were originally not required.

    • C. 

      The project has evidently been finished under budget and behind of schedule.

    • D. 

      The project has evidently been finished over budget and ahead of schedule.

  • 93. 
    Some colleagues told you that they are planning, executing, monitoring and controlling a project by use of milestones only with durations between 1 and 4 weeks. What do you think?
    • A. 

      The approach is erroneous. A milestone is a significant point with zero duration to highlight achievements.

    • B. 

      It is a good approach as long as the milestones reflect fixed or imposed dates during the project lifecycle only.

    • C. 

      It is a good approach if the milestones are used for reviews between consecutive project phases only.

    • D. 

      It is a good approach because it saves from progress measurement on activities and work packages.

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      21 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      42 days

    • D. 

      No statement is possible from the information given.

  • 95. 
    You are just leaving a meeting during which you have been assigned as the manager of a project to build a sub-station that is part of a major electric power distribution system. The decision to run the project has been made before your assignment and without your involvement. Some basic decisions on deliverables, staffing, budgeting and on the completion date have already been made as well. What should you do first?
    • A. 

      Obtain a Project charter which links the project to the strategy and ongoing work of the organization and documents the initial decisions.

    • B. 

      Create a Project schedule for your project which shows all major milestones and deadlines linked with them. Then try to obtain approval for the schedule.

    • C. 

      Start developing a detailed Risk register which includes identified risks with their qualitative and quantitative assessments and a response plan.

    • D. 

      Start the Quality assurance process by developing test procedures for the final deliverable and defining metrics against which the tests will be performed.

  • 96. 
    What is the purpose of the following diagram?
    • A. 

      Describing the influence of extreme weather conditions on progress and on the achievement of project objectives.

    • B. 

      Comparing the relative importance of variables that have a high degree of uncertainty with those that are more stable.

    • C. 

      Evaluating team performance and identifying team members with low productivity and work effectiveness.

    • D. 

      Evaluating the degree to which project work and deliverables conform to the expectations of key stakeholders.

  • 97. 
    • A. 

      Prevention over inspection

    • B. 

      Customer satisfaction

    • C. 

      Management responsibility

    • D. 

      Triple constraint

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      Proclaim a Design freeze.

    • B. 

      Go on with amendments.

    • C. 

      Revise the baseline.

    • D. 

      Create an entirely new configuration.

  • 99. 
    A request, demand or assertion of a contract partner for consideration, compensation or payment under a legally binding contract, such as a disputed change, is often referred to as a
    • A. 

      Claim

    • B. 

      Trial

    • C. 

      Refinement

    • D. 

      Audit

  • 100. 
    Projects may be authorized by all of the following except____
    • A. 

      The project team.

    • B. 

      a sponsor.

    • C. 

      A PMO.

    • D. 

      a portfolio review board.

  • 101. 
    Which is NOT an example of cost of quality?
    • A. 

      The cost of inspecting your product to be sure that it meets requirements.

    • B. 

      The cost of reviewing documents used to produce your product to be sure that they do not have defects.

    • C. 

      The cost of training your team on techniques that will help them avoid defects.

    • D. 

      The cost of contracting another company to build part of the product.

  • 102. 
    Which of the following is NOT an input of the Administer Procurements process?
    • A. 

      Work Performance Information

    • B. 

      Procurement Management Plan

    • C. 

      Contract

    • D. 

      Procurement Documents

  • 103. 
    You are managing an industrial design project for an important client. Two of your team members have a disagreement on project priorities. One person wants to do certain activities first, while the other feels they should be left until the end of the project. You work with both people to forge a compromise where those activities are neither first nor last, but instead done in the middle of the project. Nobody is particularly unhappy with this solution. Another name for a compromise is a:
    • A. 

      Win-win solution

    • B. 

      Win-lose solution

    • C. 

      Lose-lose solution

    • D. 

      Standoff solution

  • 104. 
    • A. 

      McGregor’s Theory of X and Y

    • B. 

      Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

    • C. 

      McClellands Achievement Theory

    • D. 

      Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory

  • 105. 
    You are managing a design project. You find that bringing all of your team members into a single room to work increases their communication, and helps build a sense of community. This is referred to as a:
    • A. 

      War room

    • B. 

      Virtual team

    • C. 

      Socially active team

    • D. 

      Common area

  • 106. 
    The scope baseline consists of:
    • A. 

      The Scope Management Plan, the Project Scope Statement, and the WBS

    • B. 

      The Scope Management Plan, Requirements Documents, and the WBS.

    • C. 

      The Scope Management Plan, the WBS, and the WBS Dictionary

    • D. 

      The Project Scope Statement, the WBS, and the WBS Dictionary

  • 107. 
    • A. 

      $45,600

    • B. 

      $87,400

    • C. 

      $90,000

    • D. 

      $92,100

  • 108. 
    You need to determine when to release resources from your project. Which part of the staffing management plan will be most useful for this?
    • A. 

      Resource histogram

    • B. 

      Safety procedures

    • C. 

      Recognition and rewards

    • D. 

      Training needs

  • 109. 
    You are managing a project with an EV of $15,000, PV of $12,000 and AC of $11,000. How would you BEST describe this project?
    • A. 

      The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget

    • B. 

      The project is behind schedule and within its budget

    • C. 

      The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget

    • D. 

      The project is behind schedule and over its budget

  • 110. 
    During procurement closure, a procurement audit includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Reviewing the contract terms to ensure that they have all been met

    • B. 

      Identifying successes and failures that should be recognized

    • C. 

      Documenting lessons learned

    • D. 

      Using the payment system to process consideration as per the terms of the contract

  • 111. 
    • A. 

      When managing communications on your project

    • B. 

      When developing the project charter

    • C. 

      When creating the project management plan

    • D. 

      When putting changes through change control

  • 112. 
    • A. 

      Waiting for a task to expire so that it can break down into smaller tasks

    • B. 

      Taking a deliverable and breaking it down into the smaller work packages so that it can be organized and planned

    • C. 

      Categorizing work packages

    • D. 

      Dividing work packages into deliverables that can be planned for.

  • 113. 
    • A. 

      Tell the team member not to use the software, and accept that the project will be late.

    • B. 

      Use the software so that your project comes in on time.

    • C. 

      Purchase the software so that you have a licensed copy.

    • D. 

      Tell the team member that you need to maintain plausible deniability, so she should just do what’s necessary and not tell you about it.

  • 114. 
    Which of the following is NOT a source of information about specific project constraints and assumptions?
    • A. 

      The project scope management plan

    • B. 

      Requirements documentation

    • C. 

      The project scope statement

    • D. 

      The scope baseline

  • 115. 
    Rekha is a project manager on a large construction project. Late in the project, her client demands a big change. She assesses the impact of the change and tells the client how much time and money it will cost. But the client says that he doesn’t have the time or budget to allow the change. What’s the BEST way for Rekha to handle this situation?
    • A. 

      Have her senior managers meet with the client to explain the situation

    • B. 

      Hold a meeting with the client to figure out why he’s asking for the change

    • C. 

      Do nothing; she’s the project manager, so she sets the rules

    • D. 

      Have the client find more money for the budget

  • 116. 
    The project manager for a construction project discovers that the local city council will vote on a zoning change that would open up a new neighborhood to commercial building. She contacts other construction companies in the area that would benefit from the change to ask them to attend the council meeting in order to convince the city council to vote for the change. A “Yes” vote will benefit all of the companies. This is an example of which risk response strategy?
    • A. 

      Mitigate

    • B. 

      Share

    • C. 

      Exploit

    • D. 

      Enhance

  • 117. 
    You are managing an accounting project when a new CFO is hired at your company. He’ll be affected by all accounting projects in your company. What’s the BEST thing for you to do?
    • A. 

      Show him the Project Charter so that he knows that you are in charge of the project.

    • B. 

      Work with him to understand the current requirements and determine if he has new ones to add to the project.

    • C. 

      Keep working on the project and get his feedback when he can review the finished product.

    • D. 

      Add him to the communications plan.

  • 118. 
    What is the main output of the Define Scope process?
    • A. 

      Requirements Documentation

    • B. 

      Scope Definition

    • C. 

      Scope Dictionary

    • D. 

      Project Scope Statement

  • 119. 
    A project manager is negotiating with a contractor. Neither has a good idea of how long the project will take, or how much the materials will cost. Which contract type is MOST appropriate for this project?
    • A. 

      Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

    • B. 

      Time and Materials (T&M)

    • C. 

      Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

    • D. 

      Firm fixed price (FFP)

  • 120. 
    Which of the following is NOT a stakeholder?
    • A. 

      A project team member

    • B. 

      An attorney from your company’s competitor

    • C. 

      A representative from your project team’s union

    • D. 

      The project sponsors

  • 121. 
    Alberto is the project manager of a software implementation project. His company has made an organization- wide decision to move to a new accounting and human resources software package. He has read that some projects to implement the same package have resulted in the loss of personnel data when they tried to import it into the new system. He backs up the data so that it could be restored in the event of such a problem but also buys insurance to cover the cost of keying in the data manually if the implementation doesn’t work. Which response strategies are Alberto using?
    • A. 

      Mitigating and Accepting

    • B. 

      Mitigating and Avoiding

    • C. 

      Mitigating and Transferring

    • D. 

      Mitigating and Sharing

  • 122. 
    Rekha is a project manager on a large construction project. Late in the project, her client demands a big change. She assesses the impact of the change and tells the client how much time and money it will cost. But the client won’t allow any change to the schedule and won’t pay anything more for change. Rekha explains that the proposed change is well outside the documented scope of the original work. The client tells Rekha that he doesn’t care what was in the original scope and that she needs to implement the change with no impact to schedule or budget. What conflict resolution technique is he the client using?
    • A. 

      Confronting

    • B. 

      Withdrawal

    • C. 

      Smoothing

    • D. 

      Forcing

  • 123. 
    Which of the following is NOT a tool of the Define Scope process?
    • A. 

      Facilitated Workshops

    • B. 

      Constrained Optimization

    • C. 

      Alternatives Identification

    • D. 

      Product Analysis

  • 124. 
    • A. 

      The cost of inspecting your product to be sure that it meets requirements.

    • B. 

      The cost of reviewing documents used to produce your product to be sure that they do not have defects.

    • C. 

      The cost of training your team on techniques that will help them avoid defects.

    • D. 

      The cost of contracting another company to build part of the product.

  • 125. 
    Which of the following is NOT an input of the Administer Procurements process?
    • A. 

      Work Performance Information

    • B. 

      Procurement Management Plan

    • C. 

      Contract

    • D. 

      Procurement Documents

  • 126. 
    Which of the following is NOT an example of a deliverable?
    • A. 

      Project Management Plan

    • B. 

      Project Schedule

    • C. 

      Work Breakdown Structure

    • D. 

      Parametric Estimation

  • 127. 
    What are the 5 kinds of power?
    • A. 

      Legitimate, expert, reward, political, and bargaining

    • B. 

      Legitimate, expert, reward, political, and punishment

    • C. 

      Legitimate, expert, reward, economic, and bargaining

    • D. 

      Legitimate, expert, reward, referent, and punishment

  • 128. 
    Which of the following is NOT part of the Close Project or Phase process?
    • A. 

      Making sure that all exit criteria have been met

    • B. 

      Obtaining formal acceptance of all deliverables from all stakeholders

    • C. 

      Moving the project’s deliverables to the next phase or into production

    • D. 

      Writing down lessons learned

  • 129. 
    Which of the following tools is used to document the lessons that were learned when the contract was administered?
    • A. 

      Quality audit

    • B. 

      Buyer-conducted performance review

    • C. 

      Contract review

    • D. 

      Procurement audit

  • 130. 
    The project charter is typically approved by the project sponsor, although some charters can be approved by key stakeholders instead. Which of the following BEST describes the role of the project sponsor on the project?
    • A. 

      The sponsor manages the project

    • B. 

      The sponsor provides funding for the project

    • C. 

      The sponsor verifies that all of the work was completed

    • D. 

      The sponsor negotiates all contracts

  • 131. 
    • A. 

      The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget

    • B. 

      The project is behind schedule and within its budget

    • C. 

      The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget

    • D. 

      The project is behind schedule and over its budget

  • 132. 
    Joe is an excellent programmer. He was promoted to a role of Project Manager because he understands technology better than anyone else in the company. Unfortunately, he is having trouble doing the project management job and his projects are failing. What is this an example of?
    • A. 

      Gold plating

    • B. 

      Halo effect

    • C. 

      Pre-assignment

    • D. 

      Ground rules

  • 133. 
    You are a project manager on a large military contract that involves seven subcontractors and a total of 1,253 team members, 752 stakeholders and sponsors, and 14 project managers (including you). You need to get a handle on the communications channels, because otherwise your project will devolve into chaos. How many potential channels of communication are there on this project?
    • A. 

      2019

    • B. 

      91

    • C. 

      2,037,171

    • D. 

      No way to determine

  • 134. 
    • A. 

      Triggers

    • B. 

      The watchlist

    • C. 

      Risk Management Plan

    • D. 

      Qualitative analysis documents

  • 135. 
    As you complete each deliverable for your project, you check that it is correct along with your stakeholders and sponsors. Which process are you performing?
    • A. 

      Define Scope

    • B. 

      Define Activities

    • C. 

      Verify Scope

    • D. 

      Control Scope

  • 136. 
    • A. 

      Report the person to PMI

    • B. 

      Report the person to his manager

    • C. 

      Ask him to tell the truth to his manager

    • D. 

      Do nothing because you were told this in confidence

  • 137. 
    Which of the following is NOT included in a cost of quality calculation?
    • A. 

      Team members’ time spent finding and repairing defects

    • B. 

      Quality managers’ time spent writing quality standards

    • C. 

      Project managers’ time spent creating the project management plan

    • D. 

      Team members’ time spent reviewing specifications, plans and other documents

  • 138. 
    You’re holding a PMP study group so that you and your coworkers can work together to study for the exam. One person recently took and passed the exam, and has offered to give you all of the questions he can remember. How should you respond?
    • A. 

      Accept the questions, but to be fair to everyone in the study group you should make sure everyone gets a copy

    • B. 

      Refuse the offer, but encourage other study group members to make up their own minds

    • C. 

      Refuse the offer, and report the person to your manager

    • D. 

      Refuse the offer, and report the person to PMI

  • 139. 
    A company uses a management technique that employs quality assurance techniques to continuously improve all processes. This is called:
    • A. 

      Just In Time Management

    • B. 

      Kaizen

    • C. 

      Ishikawa Diagrams

    • D. 

      Inspection

  • 140. 
    A change has occurred on your project. You’ve documented the change, filled out a change request, and submitted that request to the change control board (CCB). What’s the NEXT thing that must happen on the project?
    • A. 

      A senior manager decides whether or not to make the change and informs the project management team of the decision.

    • B. 

      The project manager informs the CCB whether or not to approve the change.

    • C. 

      Stakeholders on the CCB use expert judgment to evaluate the requested change for approval.

    • D. 

      The project manager meets with the team to analyze the impact of the change on the project’s time, scope and cost.

  • 141. 
    You are developing the project scope statement for a new project. Which of the following is NOT part of creating a project scope statement?
    • A. 

      Verify Scope

    • B. 

      Using the Project Charter

    • C. 

      Alternatives Identification

    • D. 

      Obtaining Plan Approval

  • 142. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Project Management Plan?
    • A. 

      Collection of subsidiary plans

    • B. 

      Formal, written communication

    • C. 

      A bar chart that shows the order of tasks and their resource assignments

    • D. 

      Must be approved by project sponsor

  • 143. 
    Dave is the project manager for a construction project that is building a gazebo. When the project first started, he met with the stakeholders to define the scope. The sponsors mentioned that the gazebo is a really important part of their daughter’s wedding ceremony that was planned for 7 months from then. In fact, they said that if the gazebo couldn’t be completed in 7 months, it wouldn’t be worth it for them to even start the project. Dave wrote down the 7-month deadline to put in his Project Scope Statement. In which section of the document did the deadline appear?
    • A. 

      Project Deliverables

    • B. 

      Project Objectives

    • C. 

      Project Constraints

    • D. 

      Project Assumptions

  • 144. 
    • A. 

      Contributing to the project management body of knowledge

    • B. 

      Fraternizing, and should be discouraged

    • C. 

      Unpaid overtime

    • D. 

      Giving access to proprietary information, and should be reported to PMI

  • 145. 
    You’ve been hired by a large consulting firm to lead an accounting project. You determine the needs of the project and divide the work up into work packages so that you can show how all of it fits into categories. What are you creating?
    • A. 

      A WBS

    • B. 

      A schedule

    • C. 

      A Project Scope Statement

    • D. 

      A contract

  • 146. 
    • A. 

      You work with the quality department to implement a change to the way your team does their work

    • B. 

      You document recommended corrective actions and submit them to the change control board

    • C. 

      You add the results of the audit to the lessons learned

    • D. 

      You meet with the manager of the quality assurance department to figure out the root cause of the problem

  • 147. 
    You are a project manager for a software project. Your team buys a component for a web page but they run into defects when they use it. Those defects slow your progress down considerably. Fixing the bugs in the component will double your development schedule and building your own component will take even longer. You work with your team to evaluate the cost and impact of all of your options and recommend hiring developers at the company that built the component to help you address problems in it. That will cost more but it will reduce your delay by a month. What is your next step?
    • A. 

      Fix the component

    • B. 

      Write up the change request and take it to the change control board

    • C. 

      Start Plan Procurements so you can get the contract ready for the vendor.

    • D. 

      Change the Scope Baseline to include your recommendation

  • 148. 
    The scope baseline consists of:
    • A. 

      The Scope Management Plan, the Project Scope Statement, and the WBS

    • B. 

      The Scope Management Plan, Requirements Documents, and the WBS.

    • C. 

      The Scope Management Plan, the WBS, and the WBS Dictionary

    • D. 

      The Project Scope Statement, the WBS, and the WBS Dictionary

  • 149. 
    Which of the following is NOT an output of the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process?
    • A. 

      Change requests

    • B. 

      Deliverables

    • C. 

      Updates to the project management plan

    • D. 

      Organizational process asset updates

  • 150. 
    • A. 

      Scope Management Plan

    • B. 

      WBS

    • C. 

      WBS Dictionary

    • D. 

      Project Scope Statement

  • 151. 
    You are managing a project with AC = $25,100, ETC = $45,600, VAC = -$2,600, BAC = $90,000 and EAC = $92,100. Your sponsor asks you to forecast how much money you expect to spend on the remainder of the project. Which is the BEST estimate to use for this forecast?
    • A. 

      $45,600

    • B. 

      $87,400

    • C. 

      $90,000

    • D. 

      $92,100

  • 152. 
    Which is the BEST description of project scope?
    • A. 

      All of the features and deliverables your project will deliver

    • B. 

      All of the products your project will make

    • C. 

      All of the people involved in your project

    • D. 

      All of the work you will do to build the product

  • 153. 
    A new project management software tool has come onto the market. You spend the weekend taking an online tutorial to learn about it. This is an example of:
    • A. 

      Lessons learned

    • B. 

      Not paying for copyrighted software

    • C. 

      Contributing to the project management body of knowledge

    • D. 

      Enhancing personal professional competence

  • 154. 
    • A. 

      Theory X

    • B. 

      Theory Y

    • C. 

      Cost cutter

    • D. 

      Effective

  • 155. 
    • A. 

      The reward and recognition plan

    • B. 

      The staffing management plan

    • C. 

      The human resource management plan

    • D. 

      The project’s budget

  • 156. 
    A company is about to begin work on a large construction project to build four new buildings for a bank that wants to open new branches. The sponsor is writing a project charter. She recalls that a previous project the company performed for another bank ran over budget because the team had underestimated the effort required to install the reinforced walls in the vault. The previous project manager had documented the details of the lessons learned from this project. Where should the sponsor look for these lessons learned?
    • A. 

      The project records management system

    • B. 

      The company’s organizational process assets

    • C. 

      The project’s work performance information

    • D. 

      The project’s performance reports

  • 157. 
    Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?
    • A. 

      Cost

    • B. 

      Resources

    • C. 

      Procurements

    • D. 

      Scope

  • 158. 
    A notice sent to a sub-contractor about the contract is an example of which kind of communication?
    • A. 

      Informal Verbal

    • B. 

      Formal Written

    • C. 

      Formal Verbal

    • D. 

      Informal Written

  • 159. 
    • A. 

      Reviewing the contract terms to ensure that they have all been met

    • B. 

      Identifying successes and failures that should be recognized

    • C. 

      Documenting lessons learned

    • D. 

      Using the payment system to process consideration as per the terms of the contract

  • 160. 
    ________ is typically not referred to as a buffer type in Critical Chain project management.
    • A. 

      Resource buffer

    • B. 

      Free buffer

    • C. 

      Feeding buffer

    • D. 

      Project buffer

  • 161. 
    A company has to make a choice between two projects, because the available resources in money and kind are not sufficient to run both at the same time. Each project would take 9 months and would cost $250,000.
    1. The first project is a process optimization which would result in a cost reduction of $120,000 per year. This benefit would be achieved immediately after the end of the project.  
    2. The second project would be the development of a new product which could produce the following net profits after the end of the project:
    1. year:       $ 15,000 2. year: $ 125,000 3. year: $ 220,000 Assumed is a discount rate of 5% per year. Looking at the present values of the benefits of these projects in the first 3 years, what is true?
    • A. 

      Both projects are equally attractive.

    • B. 

      The first project is more attractive by app. 7%.

    • C. 

      The second project is more attractive by app. 5%.

    • D. 

      The first project is more attractive by app. 3%.

  • 162. 
    A production process has been defined as part of an industrial equipment manufacturing project. The process is intended to produce steel bolts with a length of 20 cm. The control limits are 19.955cm and 20.045cm. The measurements made at the end of the process yielded the following results: 20.033cm, 19.982cm, 19,995cm, 20.006cm, 19.970cm, 19.968cm, 19.963cm, 19.958cm, 19.962cm, 19.979cm, 19.959cm. What should be done?
    • A. 

      The process is under control. It should not be adjusted.

    • B. 

      A special cause should be investigated, the process should be adjusted.

    • C. 

      The control limits should be adjusted.

    • D. 

      The measuring equipment should be recalibrated.

  • 163. 
    Your project management team includes two external consultants each from a different company. You found that repeated conflicts between the two consultants already slow down project progress and jeopardize achievement of objectives. Which stage of team development can be difficult to overcome in such a situation?
    • A. 

      Storming from Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing

    • B. 

      Panic from Enthusiasm, Panic, Hope, Solution

    • C. 

      Kickoff from Assignment, Kickoff, Training, Communicating

    • D. 

      Frustration from Direction, Frustration, Cooperation, Collaboration

  • 164. 
    During a project Earned Value Analysis is performed and gives the following numbers: EV: 523,000; PV: 623,000; AC: 643,000. Which results are correct?
    • A. 

      CV: +120,000; SV: +100,000

    • B. 

      CV: +100,000; SV: +120,000

    • C. 

      CV: -100,000; SV: -120,000

    • D. 

      CV: -120,000; SV: -100,000

  • 165. 
    A project manager spent some days to create a multi-page document which he called Project charter. The document should have been issued by the project sponsor. The sponsor found the document outsized and asked for a condensed document.  Which of the following is not normally an element of the Project charter?
    • A. 

      The authority level of the project manager

    • B. 

      Detailed control account and work package descriptions

    • C. 

      The business need that the project was undertaken to address

    • D. 

      High-level risks

  • 166. 
    A document called ____________ is created by decomposing the project scope into smaller, more manageable elements.
    • A. 

      Scope Statement

    • B. 

      Network Logic Diagram

    • C. 

      Work Breakdown Structure

    • D. 

      Requested Change

  • 167. 
    Which of the following tools is used to create a Risk Management Plan?
    • A. 

      Risk planning meetings

    • B. 

      Documentation reviews

    • C. 

      Data precision rankings

    • D. 

      Diagramming techniques

  • 168. 
    In order to speed up a project, you made a decision to fast-track a phase currently performed with five team members and another one which was planned to begin in four weeks time with another five team members. Which of the following activities should you do first?
    • A. 

      Make sure that all exit criteria of the consecutive phase have been met to ensure the flow of communications in a team situation which is more complex by a factor of 2.

    • B. 

      Make sure that all entry criteria of the previous phase have been met by planning and performing a phase gate meeting to assess technical aptness.

    • C. 

      Make sure that all exit criteria of the previous phase have been met by planning and performing a phase gate meeting to assess technical performance.

    • D. 

      Restructure your team and delegate tasks in order to ensure the flow of communications in a team with the number of communication channels increased by a factor of 4.5.

  • 169. 
    A project manager has been asked to support an internal project request by developing a business case. What kind of information is the person expected to provide in the document?
    • A. 

      The detailed information from a business standpoint to determine whether bidding for the customer project will be successful.

    • B. 

      The detailed information from a project management standpoint to determine whether the project will be successful.

    • C. 

      The detailed information from a technical standpoint to determine whether the project will be successful.

    • D. 

      The necessary information from a business standpoint to determine whether the project is worth the investment.

  • 170. 
    • A. 

      The project has been cancelled while it was executed. At that time the project was behind schedule and on budget.

    • B. 

      The project's deliverables have all been finished. The project came in behind schedule but on budget.

    • C. 

      The project's deliverables have all been finished. The project came in ahead of schedule but on budget.

    • D. 

      The project's deliverables have all been finished. The project came in on schedule but over budget.

  • 171. 
    Which should be included in a Requirements management plan?
    • A. 

      The document should trace requirements to project scope / WBS deliverables.

    • B. 

      It should describe how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported.

    • C. 

      It should trace high-level requirements to more detailed requirements.

    • D. 

      It should trace requirements to business needs, opportunities, goals, and objectives.

  • 172. 
    In a traditionally drawn decision tree, a circle represents ___________.    
    • A. 

      A chance to which no Expected Monetary Value can be assigned so that a likely pay-off can not be shown.

    • B. 

      A decision to which no Expected Monetary Value can be assigned so that a likely pay-off can not be shown.

    • C. 

      A chance to which an Expected Monetary Value may be assigned to calculate the most likely pay-off.

    • D. 

      A decision to which an Expected Monetary Value may be assigned to calculate the most likely pay-off.

  • 173. 
    A project management team has subcontracted work to a service company. Which of the following tools is the best choice to assure that this company will be able to meet the quality requirements of the project?
    • A. 

      Quality audit

    • B. 

      Deliverable inspection

    • C. 

      Fixed price contract

    • D. 

      Service level agreement

  • 174. 
    • A. 

      Peer review

    • B. 

      SWOT analysis

    • C. 

      Delphi technique

    • D. 

      Monetary value calculation

  • 175. 
    • A. 

      $1,300,000

    • B. 

      $1,500,000

    • C. 

      $80,000

    • D. 

      $1,125,000

  • 176. 
    During execution of a project which is performed for a customer on a T&M (Time and Material) contract base, a new project manager is taking over the assignment.  He discovers that two members assigned to the project have charged time without performing any work for the project customer. Upon further investigation, he determines that this occurred because there have been no other project assignments open for these employees. The customer is unaware of these facts. What should the project manager do?
    • A. 

      Try to find some productive work for these staff members in the project and leave them on the team.

    • B. 

      The best thing is to do nothing. The customer will not realize the problem anyway.

    • C. 

      Try to find a responsible person for the over-assignment who can be made accountable.

    • D. 

      Take the two people off the team immediately and arrange for the refund of the excess charges to the customer.

  • 177. 
    • A. 

      Activity B has a free float of 10 d.

    • B. 

      Activity B has a total float of 10 d.

    • C. 

      Activity A has a free float of 10 d.

    • D. 

      Activity A has a total float of 10 d.

  • 178. 
    • A. 

      Technical training for all team members

    • B. 

      Daily phone conferences and detailed reporting

    • C. 

      A team meeting at a location convenient to all team members

    • D. 

      Collocation of team members at a suitable place

  • 179. 
    • A. 

      A statement of work describing the needs of the project in sufficient detail to enable vendors to make suitable proposals

    • B. 

      A statement of work specifying attributes and metrics of the requested deliverables in detail to allow vendors submission of bids

    • C. 

      The approved project scope statement, the WBS which should be broken down to Work Package level and the WBS dictionary

    • D. 

      The risk management plan and the reports from those risk management reviews which have been made so far

  • 180. 
    Which of the following becomes increasingly important in a virtual team environment?
    • A. 

      Requirements engineering

    • B. 

      Communication planning

    • C. 

      Formal procurements closure

    • D. 

      Network diagramming

  • 181. 
    You are assigned as the project manager to a project which is executed for a customer under FP contract. Your customer informed you this morning that they insist on certain "refinements" of the project scope.  You agree that the requested actions make really sense to the project, but believe that they constitute a major change increasing the project scope. What should you do next?
    • A. 

      Accept the request of the customer. Diligently document the additional costs and working hours spent by yourself and the team on the implementation of the change and invoice these to the customer at appropriate rates.

    • B. 

      Perform Earned Value Analysis to assess the current status of the project and get all the numbers you need to communicate the case to the Change Control Board which then will have to make the best decision regarding the customer request.

    • C. 

      Check the contract, the project charter, the scope statement and other documents related to the project and the contract. Implement ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) procedures if the conflict cannot be resolved otherwise.

    • D. 

      Talk to the project sales department and find a joint solution with them how to best reject the request considering the commercial and strategic value of the customer to the organization you are working for.

  • 182. 
    • A. 

      The contractor‘s indirect costs will increase and the customer‘s payment for them will increase, too.

    • B. 

      The contractor‘s indirect costs will increase but the customer‘s payment for them will not increase.

    • C. 

      The contractor‘s indirect costs will not increase but the customer‘s payment for them will.

    • D. 

      Both the contractor's indirect costs and the customer‘s payment for them will not increase.

  • 183. 
    • A. 

      Normal process variation is attributable to random causes and sometimes also called "white noise".

    • B. 

      Special causes are easier to predict and handle than random causes (also called common causes).

    • C. 

      Special causes are unusual events which are difficult to foresee and often produce outliers.

    • D. 

      A process can be optimized to limit the bandwidth of variations due to random causes.

  • 184. 
    • A. 

      Projects should never be executed without a valid, updated and working project management plan.

    • B. 

      The consistency of the project management plan is secondary because it is only the results that matter.

    • C. 

      A great deal of effort is required to develop and update a project plan, but the benefits include less pressure on all stakeholders and a resulting product that will satisfy the requirements.

    • D. 

      Poor planning and insufficient updating of project management plans are common reasons for cost and time overruns.

  • 185. 
    You want to perform active risk acceptance. What should you do?
    • A. 

      Create contingency reserves in resources, money and time.

    • B. 

      Develop a plan to minimize impact in case that an identified risk occurs.

    • C. 

      Develop a plan to minimize the probability of occurrence for identified risks.

    • D. 

      Make additional resources available to speed up the project.

  • 186. 
    • A. 

      App. 4.2 days

    • B. 

      App. 5.2 days

    • C. 

      App. 6.2 days

    • D. 

      You can not derive the path standard deviation from the information given.

  • 187. 
    When do bidder conferences normally take place?
    • A. 

      After the contract has been awarded to keep alternatives open.

    • B. 

      After submittal of bid or proposal, but before contract award.

    • C. 

      Prior to the submittal of a bid or proposal by the bidder.

    • D. 

      After technical meetings with bidders to discuss contract requirements.

  • 188. 
    What is defined by control limits?
    • A. 

      A measuring instrument solely used to describe process capability. The process is found capable if the ±3 Sigma range is exceeded by not more than 0.3% of a tested sample lot.

    • B. 

      The limits of the six Sigma area on either side of a control chart to plot measured values; data found outside the area are out of specification and can lead to rejection of an entire batch.

    • C. 

      The area consisting of typically three standard deviations on either side of a mean value of a control chart to plot measured values found in statistical quality control

    • D. 

      The area consisting of typically three standard deviations on either side of a mean value of a control chart to plot measured values found in quality assurance

  • 189. 
    The Scope baseline consists of what?
    • A. 

      Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary

    • B. 

      Cost baseline, Quality baseline and Schedule baseline

    • C. 

      Configuration management plan and Configuration identification document

    • D. 

      Procurement statement of work and Project scope statement

  • 190. 
    Activity 1 has a duration of 20 days, Activity 2 of 10 days, Activity 3 of 5 days and Activity 4 of 6 days. What is the minimum total duration between the Milestones A and B?
    • A. 

      36 days

    • B. 

      37 days

    • C. 

      39 days

    • D. 

      42 days

  • 191. 
    Which tool and technique is used in the processes Create WBS and Define activities?
    • A. 

      Nominal group technique

    • B. 

      Human resource assignment

    • C. 

      Brainstorming

    • D. 

      Decomposition

  • 192. 
    Which of the following statement(s) regarding whistle-blowing is/are not true?
    1. It is a term used to define an employee’s decision to disclose information on unethical, immoral or illegal actions at work to an authority figure.
    2. An employee should always discuss the matter with people external to the company before following the "chain of command" and discuss it with the immediate superior.
    3. The consequences of whistle-blowing are often extreme and include possible being branded as having bad judgment, firing, civil action and imprisonment.
    4. Carefully considered whistle-blowing can lead to the end of unethical business practices.
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      B, c

    • D. 

      C, d

  • 193. 
    Which of the following statements is not true?
    • A. 

      Attribute sampling is the process of assessing whether results conform to specifications or not.

    • B. 

      Prevention means keeping errors out of the process by applying actions before the process starts changing its input.

    • C. 

      Variables sampling means that the result is classified into one of the 3 categories: "acceptable" - "acceptable after rework" - "rejected".

    • D. 

      Inspection is often mainly done to keep errors out of the hands of the customer instead of as a means of process control.

  • 194. 
    Which statement describes best why you should document assumptions?
    • A. 

      Assumptions might prove to be wrong. Knowing which assumptions were incorrect allows baseline adjustments in case of project crisis.

    • B. 

      Assumption analysis is a valuable tool and technique to explore the validity of assumptions during risk identification.

    • C. 

      Assumptions limit the project management team's options for decision making because they can not be controlled by the team.

    • D. 

      In case of schedule or budget overruns, the documentation of assumptions supports a clear assignment of responsibility.

  • 195. 
    Which is normally not regarded as an element of Cost of quality?
    • A. 

      Prevention costs

    • B. 

      Maintenance cost

    • C. 

      Appraisal costs

    • D. 

      Failure costs

  • 196. 
    • A. 

      As you are not responsible for lifecycle costing, you don't have to worry about operation profits. Focus on project costs from initiation through handover.

    • B. 

      Ensure maximum profits by buying the best and cheapest items, components and modules - potentially from a big number of different suppliers - and integrating them.

    • C. 

      Create a realistic plan broken down to a sufficient level of detail. Perform all risk management processes. Ensure real-time communications with all stakeholders.

    • D. 

      Try to get a second project manager assigned to share decision making and accountability to shareholders with the person.

  • 197. 
    A project is handled by departments of an organization and expedited by a project coordinator. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
    • A. 

      The performing organization is a weak matrix.

    • B. 

      The performing organization is doing "management by projects".

    • C. 

      The performing organization is a strong matrix.

    • D. 

      The performing organization is projectized.

  • 198. 
    You are project manager in a global project with a team consisting of people from various countries. What can you try to prevent misunderstandings due to cross-cultural differences?
    • A. 

      Use all communication methods available that are suitable for the team and follow up in writing when communicating verbally. Remember that cultural and individual diversity may help project teams solving unforeseen problems during the course of the project.

    • B. 

      When you are about to form a team for your project, keep in mind that some cultures are developed, others are more primitive. Some have values, some not. You should consequently avoid choosing members from countries with cultures that are not similar to your own.

    • C. 

      Cultural dilemmas can prevent any project from being successful. They should therefore be smoothed or suppressed so as to make sure that they cannot disrupt project work. Your effort should concentrate on communication that can help reach that goal.

    • D. 

      As norms regarding communication habits differ significantly across various cultures, communicating between people from different countries should only be done using language. The nonverbal dimension simply bears too many risks.

  • 199. 
    Which statement on conflicts is true?
    • A. 

      Conflict resolution should focus on people, not issues.

    • B. 

      Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives.

    • C. 

      Conflict should always be handled in private and not in the team.

    • D. 

      Too much openness is a common cause of conflict.

  • 200. 
    • A. 

      Report performance

    • B. 

      Verify scope

    • C. 

      Perform integrated change control

    • D. 

      Monitor and control risks