CT Registry Preparation Quiz

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CT Registry Preparation Quiz - Quiz

Anatomy is the branch of biology concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts. Anatomy is a branch of natural science which deals with the structural organization of living things. Here is an Anatomy quiz to get ready for the CT registry.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Clinical indications for musculoskeletal CT include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Evaulation of trauma

    • B.

      Detection of metastatic disease

    • C.

      Determining the extent of ishemic bone

    • D.

      Evaluation of metabolic disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Determining the extent of ishemic bone
    Explanation
    Musculoskeletal CT is commonly used for evaluating trauma, detecting metastatic disease, and evaluating metabolic disease. However, it is not typically used for determining the extent of ischemic bone. Ischemic bone refers to a condition where there is a lack of blood supply to the bone, resulting in tissue death. The extent of ischemic bone is usually determined through other imaging modalities such as MRI or bone scintigraphy. CT scans are more useful for evaluating fractures, bone tumors, and soft tissue abnormalities.

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  • 2. 

    Contrast-enhanced CT is indicated to diagnose all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Primary tumors

    • B.

      Metastases

    • C.

      Infection

    • D.

      Spinal cord integrity

    Correct Answer
    D. Spinal cord integrity
    Explanation
    Contrast-enhanced CT is a diagnostic imaging technique that uses a contrast agent to help visualize and highlight certain structures or abnormalities in the body. It is commonly used to diagnose primary tumors, metastases, and infections by enhancing the visibility of these conditions. However, it is not typically used to assess spinal cord integrity as it primarily focuses on identifying and evaluating abnormalities within the body. Therefore, the correct answer is spinal cord integrity.

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  • 3. 

    CT may be preferable to MRI in the knee for all of the following indications EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Evaluation of anterior cruciate liagament tears

    • B.

      Presurgical mapping of the area

    • C.

      Detection of patellofemoral disorders

    • D.

      Detection of bony lesions

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluation of anterior cruciate liagament tears
    Explanation
    CT may be preferable to MRI in the knee for all of the given indications except for the evaluation of anterior cruciate ligament tears. CT scans are useful for presurgical mapping of the area, detection of patellofemoral disorders, and detection of bony lesions. However, MRI is generally the preferred imaging modality for the evaluation of anterior cruciate ligament tears due to its ability to provide detailed images of soft tissues, such as ligaments.

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  • 4. 

    CT of the scapula is used for all of the following applications EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Detecting fractures that cannot be seen on plain film x-ray

    • B.

      As a replacement for arthrography to assess the integrity of the rotator cuff

    • C.

      Mapping out the relationship among bone fragments in cases of complex fracture

    • D.

      Determining the degree of fracture displacement from trauma

    Correct Answer
    B. As a replacement for arthrography to assess the integrity of the rotator cuff
    Explanation
    CT of the scapula is not used as a replacement for arthrography to assess the integrity of the rotator cuff. Arthrography is a specific imaging technique that involves injecting a contrast agent into the joint to evaluate the structures within it, such as the rotator cuff. CT scans of the scapula are typically used for detecting fractures that cannot be seen on plain film x-ray, mapping out the relationship among bone fragments in cases of complex fracture, and determining the degree of fracture displacement from trauma.

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  • 5. 

    The blood vessel of the lower extremity that is the major source of thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is the:

    • A.

      Popliteal vein

    • B.

      Popliteal fossa

    • C.

      Posterior tibial artery

    • D.

      Femoral artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Popliteal vein
    Explanation
    The popliteal vein is the correct answer because it is a major blood vessel in the lower extremity that is prone to forming blood clots (thrombi). These blood clots can break off and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. The popliteal vein is located behind the knee in the popliteal fossa, making it more susceptible to blood clot formation. The other options, such as the popliteal fossa, posterior tibial artery, and femoral artery, are not major sources of thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism.

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  • 6. 

    The ______ muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for providing outward rotation of the arm

    • A.

      Infraspinatus

    • B.

      Supraspinatus

    • C.

      Subscapularis

    • D.

      Deltoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Infraspinatus
    Explanation
    The infraspinatus muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for providing outward rotation of the arm. This muscle is located on the back of the shoulder blade and plays a crucial role in stabilizing and moving the shoulder joint. When the infraspinatus contracts, it helps to externally rotate the arm, allowing for movements such as throwing, reaching, and rotating the arm away from the body.

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  • 7. 

    A typical concentration of iodinated contrast used in musculoskeletal CT studies is _____mgI/mL.

    • A.

      150

    • B.

      240

    • C.

      320

    • D.

      400

    Correct Answer
    A. 150
    Explanation
    A typical concentration of iodinated contrast used in musculoskeletal CT studies is 150 mgI/mL. This concentration is commonly used as it provides sufficient contrast enhancement for imaging the musculoskeletal system. Higher concentrations may not be necessary and could increase the risk of adverse reactions, while lower concentrations may not provide adequate visualization of the structures of interest. Therefore, 150 mgI/mL is the preferred concentration for musculoskeletal CT studies.

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  • 8. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a bony structure of the pelvis?

    • A.

      Talus

    • B.

      Ilium

    • C.

      Ischium

    • D.

      Pubic ramis

    Correct Answer
    A. Talus
    Explanation
    The talus is not a bony structure of the pelvis. The pelvis consists of the ilium, ischium, and pubic ramis, which are all part of the pelvic bones. The talus, on the other hand, is a bone located in the foot, specifically in the ankle joint. It articulates with the tibia and fibula to form the ankle joint, but it is not part of the pelvis.

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  • 9. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a potential risk factor for an adverse reaction to iodinated contrast?

    • A.

      History of diabetes

    • B.

      Congestive heart failure

    • C.

      History of sever hypersensitivity to insect stings

    • D.

      Renal disease

    Correct Answer
    C. History of sever hypersensitivity to insect stings
    Explanation
    A history of severe hypersensitivity to insect stings is not a potential risk factor for an adverse reaction to iodinated contrast. Adverse reactions to iodinated contrast are typically related to renal function, so renal disease is a potential risk factor. Diabetes and congestive heart failure can also increase the risk of adverse reactions. However, a history of severe hypersensitivity to insect stings is unrelated to the administration of iodinated contrast and would not contribute to an adverse reaction.

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  • 10. 

    The _______muscle provides teh strongest flexing action for the hip

    • A.

      Iliopsoas

    • B.

      Ligamentum teres

    • C.

      Pubofemoral teres

    • D.

      Iliofemoral

    Correct Answer
    A. Iliopsoas
    Explanation
    The iliopsoas muscle provides the strongest flexing action for the hip. This muscle is a combination of the iliacus and the psoas major muscles, which originate from the lower spine and pelvis and insert onto the femur. When contracted, the iliopsoas muscle flexes the hip joint, bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. It is one of the primary muscles responsible for lifting the leg during activities such as walking, running, and climbing stairs.

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  • 11. 

    Which one of the following statements regarding breath-holding during the CT examination is TRUE?

    • A.

      The excellent spatial resolution of 16-slice scanners means that breath-holds are no longer required

    • B.

      Although scan times are shorter, a breath hold of up to 30 seconds may be needed, as scans are now covering wider body areas

    • C.

      The use of iodinated contrast may interefere with breath-holding

    • D.

      Breathing during the scan increases the riskk of streak artifacts

    Correct Answer
    B. Although scan times are shorter, a breath hold of up to 30 seconds may be needed, as scans are now covering wider body areas
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that although scan times are shorter, a breath hold of up to 30 seconds may be needed, as scans are now covering wider body areas. This is because wider body areas require more time to capture all the necessary images, even with shorter scan times. Therefore, the patient may still need to hold their breath for a period of time to ensure clear and accurate images are obtained.

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  • 12. 

    Which one of the following statements regarding CT of the sternoclavicular joint is FALSE?

    • A.

      Most injuries to this joint are caused by penetrating trauma

    • B.

      Fractures may be accompanied by fractures of the superior ribs

    • C.

      IV contrast should be given in cases of joint dislocation to rule out injury to the great vessels

    • D.

      Fractures of the shoulder joint should also be suspected with sternoclavicular joint injury

    Correct Answer
    D. Fractures of the shoulder joint should also be suspected with sternoclavicular joint injury
    Explanation
    Fractures of the shoulder joint should not be suspected with sternoclavicular joint injury. The sternoclavicular joint is a separate joint from the shoulder joint, and injuries to one do not necessarily indicate injuries to the other.

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  • 13. 

    CT should not be used if the patient is wearing a plaster cast.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    CT scans can be performed even if the patient is wearing a plaster cast. CT scans use X-ray technology to create detailed images of the inside of the body, and the plaster cast does not interfere with this process. However, it is important to ensure that the cast does not contain any metal components, as these can cause artifacts in the CT images. Additionally, the cast may need to be cut or removed if the area being scanned is directly underneath it. Therefore, the statement that CT should not be used if the patient is wearing a plaster cast is false.

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  • 14. 

    Which one of the following statements regarding the acetabulum is FALSE?

    • A.

      It is composed of the ilium, the ishium, and the pubis

    • B.

      It articulates with the femur to form the hip joint

    • C.

      Its fossa contains the femoral head as well as the principle ligaments of the hip joint

    • D.

      It appears as three distinct columns on axial cross-sectional images

    Correct Answer
    D. It appears as three distinct columns on axial cross-sectional images
    Explanation
    It appears as TWO distinct columns

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  • 15. 

    The brachial artery:

    • A.

      Is the primary blood supply to the elbow

    • B.

      Branches below the elbow to form the radial and ulnar arteries

    • C.

      Supplies only 30% of blood to the elbow

    • D.

      Is easily visualized in the antecubital fossa

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the primary blood supply to the elbow
    Explanation
    The brachial artery is the primary blood supply to the elbow because it is the main artery that runs through the upper arm and supplies blood to the elbow joint. It is responsible for delivering oxygenated blood to the muscles and tissues of the elbow, allowing them to function properly.

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  • 16. 

    The ______process of the sternum is used as a landmark in localizer scans

    • A.

      Manubrium

    • B.

      Jugular notch

    • C.

      Xiphoid

    • D.

      Sternal angle

    Correct Answer
    C. Xiphoid
    Explanation
    The xiphoid process of the sternum is used as a landmark in localizer scans. The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension at the lower end of the sternum. It can be easily palpated and serves as a reference point for locating other structures in the body. In localizer scans, which are used to determine the position and orientation of the body for imaging purposes, the xiphoid process helps ensure accurate and consistent positioning of the patient.

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  • 17. 

    The _____tendon is the most frequently injured tendon of the rotator cuff

    • A.

      Biceps

    • B.

      Supraspinatus

    • C.

      Acromioclavicular

    • D.

      Glenoid

    Correct Answer
    B. Supraspinatus
    Explanation
    The supraspinatus tendon is the most frequently injured tendon of the rotator cuff. This is because it is located in a vulnerable position within the shoulder joint and is responsible for initiating the abduction of the arm. The supraspinatus tendon can become damaged or torn due to repetitive overhead movements, trauma, or degeneration over time. Its frequent involvement in rotator cuff injuries makes it a common source of shoulder pain and dysfunction.

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  • 18. 

    The thoracic region of the spinal column contains ___ vertebrae.

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      15

    Correct Answer
    C. 12
    Explanation
    The thoracic region of the spinal column contains 12 vertebrae. This is because the thoracic region is located in the middle of the spine and is responsible for supporting the rib cage. There are 12 pairs of ribs, and each rib is attached to a vertebra in the thoracic region. Therefore, there must be 12 vertebrae in this region to accommodate the ribs and provide stability and protection to the chest area.

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  • 19. 

    The intervertebral foramina:

    • A.

      Are formed by the superior and anterior notches of adjacent vertebrae

    • B.

      Are only present in the lumbar vertebrae

    • C.

      Allow for the ingress and egress of nerve root

    • D.

      Serve as attachment sites for the muscles of the back

    Correct Answer
    C. Allow for the ingress and egress of nerve root
    Explanation
    The intervertebral foramina are small openings between adjacent vertebrae. These foramina allow for the ingress (entry) and egress (exit) of nerve roots from the spinal cord. This means that the nerves can pass through these openings to connect with other parts of the body. The other options provided in the question, such as attachment sites for muscles or being present only in the lumbar vertebrae, are incorrect and do not accurately describe the function or location of the intervertebral foramina.

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  • 20. 

    Indications for routine CT of the cervical spine include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Fracture

    • B.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta

    • C.

      Radiculopathy

    • D.

      Stenosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    Explanation
    Routine CT of the cervical spine is typically performed to evaluate for fractures, radiculopathy, and stenosis. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disorder characterized by brittle bones and would not be an indication for routine CT of the cervical spine. Therefore, osteogenesis imperfecta is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 21. 

    The recommended display slice thickness for a routine cervical spine scan using a 16-slice CT scanner is ____mm.

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The recommended display slice thickness for a routine cervical spine scan using a 16-slice CT scanner is 2mm. This thickness allows for detailed visualization of the cervical spine structures and any potential abnormalities or injuries. A thinner slice thickness may provide even more detailed images, but it also increases the scanning time and radiation dose to the patient. Therefore, 2mm is a commonly recommended thickness for this type of scan.

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  • 22. 

    For a CT scan of the lumbar spine requiring contrast, the contrast should be injected at a rate of ___ cc/sec.

    • A.

    • B.

      1-1.5

    • C.

      1-2

    • D.

      2.5

    Correct Answer
    C. 1-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1-2. When performing a CT scan of the lumbar spine requiring contrast, the contrast should be injected at a rate of 1-2 cc/sec. This rate allows for a sufficient amount of contrast to be delivered to the area of interest while minimizing the risk of adverse reactions or complications. Injecting the contrast too quickly or too slowly may result in suboptimal imaging or potential harm to the patient.

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  • 23. 

    Patients who have had a prior allergic reaction to a contrast agent should be asked all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      How were the symptoms?

    • B.

      Were you hospitalized for the reaction?

    • C.

      How were the symptoms treated?

    • D.

      Are you allergic to shellfish?

    Correct Answer
    D. Are you allergic to shellfish?
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the information that should not be asked to patients who have had a prior allergic reaction to a contrast agent. The correct answer is "are you allergic to shellfish?" This is because the question is specifically about allergic reactions to contrast agents, not shellfish allergies. The other options are relevant as they inquire about the symptoms, hospitalization, and treatment related to the prior allergic reaction.

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  • 24. 

    The most common patient position for spine and musculoskeletal scanning is:

    • A.

      Feet first, supine

    • B.

      Head first, supine

    • C.

      Head first, prone

    • D.

      Decubitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Feet first, supine
    Explanation
    The most common patient position for spine and musculoskeletal scanning is feet first, supine. This position allows for optimal visualization of the spine and musculoskeletal structures. Placing the feet first helps to minimize motion artifacts and allows for better alignment of the body during the scan. The supine position, with the patient lying flat on their back, is preferred as it provides a stable and comfortable position for the patient.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following sections of the scapula serve as attachment sites for muscles EXCEPT the:

    • A.

      Scapular spine

    • B.

      Acromion

    • C.

      Glenoid fossa

    • D.

      Glenoid process

    Correct Answer
    C. Glenoid fossa
    Explanation
    The glenoid fossa is not a section of the scapula that serves as an attachment site for muscles. The glenoid fossa is actually a shallow depression on the scapula that forms the socket for the shoulder joint. It is where the head of the humerus (upper arm bone) articulates with the scapula to allow for shoulder movement. While the other options mentioned (scapular spine, acromion, and glenoid process) all serve as attachment sites for various muscles, the glenoid fossa does not have any muscle attachments.

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  • 26. 

    The _____ is not one fo the four muscles that forms the rotator cuff in the shoulder

    • A.

      Teres minor

    • B.

      Teres lateralus

    • C.

      Supraspinatus

    • D.

      Infraspinatus

    Correct Answer
    B. Teres lateralus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is teres lateralus. The teres lateralus is not one of the four muscles that form the rotator cuff in the shoulder. The four muscles that make up the rotator cuff are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. The teres lateralus is not part of this group.

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  • 27. 

    The tibia articulates with the femur at the _____condyle(s)

    • A.

      Medial and anterolateral

    • B.

      Anterolateral and posterolateral

    • C.

      Medial only

    • D.

      Medial and lateral

    Correct Answer
    D. Medial and lateral
    Explanation
    The tibia articulates with the femur at the medial and lateral condyles. This means that the tibia forms joints with both the inner (medial) and outer (lateral) parts of the femur. These articulations allow for movement and stability between the two bones, contributing to the overall function of the knee joint.

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  • 28. 

    Contrast media is used in CT scans of the ankle for all of the following EXCEPT to:

    • A.

      Establish the differential diagnosis of lesions

    • B.

      Detect small fractures

    • C.

      Map the vascular anatomy of the ankle

    • D.

      Improve the accuracy of lesion diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Detect small fractures
    Explanation
    Contrast media is not used in CT scans of the ankle to detect small fractures. Contrast media is typically used to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and soft tissues, allowing for a more accurate diagnosis of lesions and mapping of the vascular anatomy. However, small fractures can usually be detected without the use of contrast media, as they are visible on the CT scan images.

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  • 29. 

    Reconstruction algorithms for CT scans of the elbow include:

    • A.

      Standard and bone

    • B.

      Soft tissue and bone

    • C.

      Standard and soft tissue

    • D.

      Kernal only

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard and bone
    Explanation
    The correct answer is standard and bone because reconstruction algorithms for CT scans of the elbow typically involve creating images that show both the standard structures of the elbow joint and the bone structures. This combination allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the elbow, including the assessment of any fractures or abnormalities in the bone. Soft tissue and standard or soft tissue and bone alone would not provide a complete picture of the elbow's anatomy and potential issues. The option "kernal only" is not a common reconstruction algorithm for CT scans of the elbow and is therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the acetabulum?

    • A.

      Ilium

    • B.

      Ischium

    • C.

      Sacrum

    • D.

      Pubis

    Correct Answer
    C. Sacrum
    Explanation
    The acetabulum is the socket of the hip joint, formed by the fusion of three bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. The sacrum is not part of the acetabulum. It is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, formed by the fusion of five vertebrae.

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  • 31. 

    The _______ligament is primarily responsible for stabilizing the anterior portion of the hip joint

    • A.

      Acetabular

    • B.

      Iliofemoral

    • C.

      Transverse

    • D.

      Ischiofemoral

    Correct Answer
    B. Iliofemoral
    Explanation
    The iliofemoral ligament is primarily responsible for stabilizing the anterior portion of the hip joint. It is the strongest ligament in the body and helps to prevent excessive extension of the hip joint. This ligament attaches from the ilium (part of the pelvis) to the femur (thigh bone), and its main function is to limit hyperextension and maintain stability during weight-bearing activities.

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  • 32. 

    The _____ ligament reinforces the medial side of the elbow joint

    • A.

      Ulnar collateral ligament

    • B.

      Radial collateral ligament

    • C.

      Annular ligament

    • D.

      Humeral ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulnar collateral ligament
    Explanation
    The ulnar collateral ligament is the correct answer because it is responsible for reinforcing the medial side of the elbow joint. This ligament connects the ulna bone to the humerus bone and provides stability to the inner side of the elbow, preventing excessive side-to-side movement.

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  • 33. 

    The proper scan delay time following the beginning of contrast delivery for a routine lumbar spine scan is:

    • A.

      15 sec

    • B.

      20 sec

    • C.

      30 sec

    • D.

      The scan should begin following administration of the total contrast dose

    Correct Answer
    D. The scan should begin following administration of the total contrast dose
    Explanation
    The proper scan delay time following the beginning of contrast delivery for a routine lumbar spine scan is to begin the scan following administration of the total contrast dose. This means that the scan should start after the entire amount of contrast has been injected into the patient. This allows sufficient time for the contrast to circulate throughout the body and reach the area of interest in the lumbar spine, ensuring optimal visualization of the structures during the scan. Delaying the scan for a specific amount of time (15 sec, 20 sec, or 30 sec) may not be necessary or appropriate in this case.

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  • 34. 

    The recommended kV/mAs setting for routine CT scanning of the thoracic spine is:

    • A.

      120/300

    • B.

      120/250

    • C.

      250/300

    • D.

      120/370

    Correct Answer
    A. 120/300
    Explanation
    The recommended kV/mAs setting for routine CT scanning of the thoracic spine is 120/300. This setting ensures that the appropriate amount of radiation is used to produce clear images of the thoracic spine. A higher kV setting of 120 helps to penetrate the dense bone structures in the spine, while a higher mAs setting of 300 ensures sufficient radiation exposure to capture the necessary details. This combination of settings strikes a balance between image quality and radiation dose, making it suitable for routine thoracic spine CT scans.

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  • 35. 

    The most inferior portion of the spinal cord is called the:

    • A.

      Cauda equina

    • B.

      Conus medullaris

    • C.

      Filum terminale

    • D.

      Medulla oblongata

    Correct Answer
    B. Conus medullaris
    Explanation
    The conus medullaris is the most inferior portion of the spinal cord. It is located at the end of the spinal cord, just above the beginning of the cauda equina. The conus medullaris is cone-shaped and marks the termination of the spinal cord. It is an important landmark in the spinal cord as it is the point where lumbar punctures are performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic purposes. The other options, such as cauda equina, filum terminale, and medulla oblongata, are not the correct answers as they refer to different structures in the nervous system.

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  • 36. 

    The ______ ligament is responsible for preventing hyperextension of the vertebral column

    • A.

      Supraspinatus

    • B.

      Ligamentum flava

    • C.

      Anterior longitudinal

    • D.

      Posterior longitudinal

    Correct Answer
    C. Anterior longitudinal
    Explanation
    The anterior longitudinal ligament is responsible for preventing hyperextension of the vertebral column. It runs along the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies and helps to maintain stability and limit excessive backward bending of the spine. This ligament plays a crucial role in protecting the spinal cord and preventing injury during movements that could potentially cause hyperextension.

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  • 37. 

    Using a multidetector-row scanner, the proper slice thickness used to reconstruct the hip is ___ mm. 

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2-4

    • C.

      3-5

    • D.

      5-7

    Correct Answer
    C. 3-5
    Explanation
    The proper slice thickness used to reconstruct the hip is typically between 3-5 mm when using a multidetector-row scanner. This range allows for detailed imaging of the hip structure, including the bones, joints, and surrounding soft tissues. It provides a balance between capturing sufficient anatomical information and minimizing the radiation dose to the patient.

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  • 38. 

    Minimum CT scan times have been reduced from 5 minutes per slice in 1976 to ______ seconds per slice in 2004

    • A.

      0.375

    • B.

      0.5

    • C.

      0.75

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.375
    Explanation
    The given answer, 0.375, suggests that the minimum CT scan times per slice in 2004 were 0.375 seconds. This means that there has been a significant reduction in the time required for CT scans over the years, from 5 minutes per slice in 1976 to 0.375 seconds per slice in 2004. This advancement in technology has allowed for faster and more efficient CT scans, improving patient experience and reducing waiting times.

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  • 39. 

    Slip ring technology made spiral CT a possibility by:

    • A.

      Improved insulating and cooling system, allowing CT scanners to run at higher speeds and temperatures

    • B.

      Decreasing the amount of radiation per slice

    • C.

      Allowing the gantry to stop rotating and reverse course while maintaining accurate beam direction

    • D.

      Allowing the tube and detectors to rotate continuously

    Correct Answer
    D. Allowing the tube and detectors to rotate continuously
    Explanation
    Slip ring technology allows for continuous rotation of the tube and detectors in a spiral CT scanner. This continuous rotation enables the scanner to capture images of the body in a helical or spiral pattern, resulting in faster scan times and improved image quality. Without slip ring technology, the tube and detectors would have to stop and reverse direction, which would disrupt the scanning process and potentially lead to inaccurate beam direction. Therefore, slip ring technology is essential for the continuous rotation of the tube and detectors in a spiral CT scanner.

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  • 40. 

    Using the prone position in kidney scanning can help identify renal calculi that are trapped in the

    • A.

      Proximal ureter

    • B.

      Distal ureter

    • C.

      Minor calices

    • D.

      Renal pelvis

    Correct Answer
    B. Distal ureter
    Explanation
    The prone position in kidney scanning can help identify renal calculi that are trapped in the distal ureter. The prone position refers to lying face down, which allows gravity to aid in the movement of the stone. The distal ureter is the lower part of the ureter, closer to the bladder. By using the prone position, the stone is more likely to move towards the bladder, making it easier to visualize and diagnose.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements regarding the mediastinum is TRUE?

    • A.

      Its four sections are demarcated by fibrous membranes

    • B.

      The heart is located within the anterior mediastinum

    • C.

      The middle mediastinum is bound laterally by the lungs

    • D.

      Patients with tumors of the posterior mediastinum have a significantly higher 5-year mortality than those with tumors of the middle mediastinum

    Correct Answer
    C. The middle mediastinum is bound laterally by the lungs
    Explanation
    The middle mediastinum is bound laterally by the lungs. This means that the space between the lungs, known as the middle mediastinum, is limited by the lungs on each side. The mediastinum is divided into four sections, but the correct statement is specifically referring to the middle section. The heart is located within the middle mediastinum, but this statement is not true. The statement about tumors and mortality is not mentioned in the explanation.

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  • 42. 

    Which one fo the following forms of lung cancer is associated with asbestos exposure?

    • A.

      Mesothelioma

    • B.

      Adenocarcinoma

    • C.

      Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma

    • D.

      Squamos cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesothelioma
    Explanation
    Mesothelioma is the correct answer because it is a form of lung cancer that is specifically linked to asbestos exposure. Asbestos is a known carcinogen and individuals who have been exposed to it, typically in occupational settings such as construction or mining, are at an increased risk of developing mesothelioma. This cancer affects the lining of the lungs and other organs, and its association with asbestos exposure is well-established. Adenocarcinoma, bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma are other forms of lung cancer that may have different causes and risk factors.

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  • 43. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a benefit of multidetector-row CT scanning:

    • A.

      The large number of images to manage

    • B.

      Allows evaluation of small bowel disease using routine protocols

    • C.

      Enables identification of bowel obstruction with or without ischemia

    • D.

      Allows the acquisition of images of the mesenteric circulation during the same scan

    Correct Answer
    A. The large number of images to manage
    Explanation
    Multidetector-row CT scanning offers several benefits, such as allowing evaluation of small bowel disease using routine protocols, enabling identification of bowel obstruction with or without ischemia, and allowing the acquisition of images of the mesenteric circulation during the same scan. However, the large number of images to manage is not a benefit of this type of scanning. This implies that managing a large number of images may be challenging or time-consuming, which is not advantageous.

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  • 44. 

    Studies of CT colonoscopy results have shown a high sensitivity of approximately ___% for detecting colon polyps >_10 mm

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      72

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    D. 90
    Explanation
    Studies of CT colonoscopy results have shown a high sensitivity of approximately 90% for detecting colon polyps >10 mm. This means that out of all the colon polyps that are larger than 10 mm, the CT colonoscopy is able to correctly identify 90% of them. This high sensitivity indicates that CT colonoscopy is a reliable method for detecting larger colon polyps, which is important for early detection and prevention of colorectal cancer.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following pelvic structures is NOT normally visible on CT scanning?

    • A.

      Uterus

    • B.

      Fallopian tubes

    • C.

      Ovaries

    • D.

      Symphysis pubis

    Correct Answer
    B. Fallopian tubes
    Explanation
    The fallopian tubes are NOT normally visible on CT scanning. CT scanning is a diagnostic imaging technique that uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body. While the uterus, ovaries, and symphysis pubis can be visualized on CT scans, the fallopian tubes are typically not visible due to their small size and location deep within the pelvis. Therefore, the correct answer is fallopian tubes.

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  • 46. 

    The majority of CT images are displayed in the _____plane.

    • A.

      Sagittal

    • B.

      Axial

    • C.

      Oblique

    • D.

      Coronal

    Correct Answer
    B. Axial
    Explanation
    The correct answer is axial. Axial plane refers to a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts. In CT imaging, most images are displayed in the axial plane as it provides a clear view of the internal structures and allows for accurate diagnosis and evaluation of various conditions. Sagittal, coronal, and oblique planes are also used in CT imaging, but they are less commonly utilized compared to the axial plane.

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  • 47. 

    In an upper abdominal localizer scan, the scanning range should extend from two inches above the xiphoid notch to the:

    • A.

      Superior margin of the sacroiliac joint

    • B.

      Superior surface to the transverse colon

    • C.

      Inferior surface of the liver

    • D.

      Superior surface of the bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior margin of the sacroiliac joint
    Explanation
    In an upper abdominal localizer scan, the scanning range should extend from two inches above the xiphoid notch to the superior margin of the sacroiliac joint. This is because the upper abdominal region includes the liver, gallbladder, stomach, and other organs that are located above the xiphoid notch. The sacroiliac joint is the joint between the sacrum and the ilium bones in the pelvis, and it marks the lower boundary of the upper abdominal region. Therefore, the scanning range should extend up to the superior margin of the sacroiliac joint to ensure that all relevant structures within the upper abdomen are captured in the scan.

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  • 48. 

    Large vessels of the mediastinum that can be visualized on CT scans include all of the following except the ______artery/arteries:

    • A.

      Common carotid

    • B.

      Subclavian

    • C.

      Brachiocephalic

    • D.

      Splenic

    Correct Answer
    D. Splenic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is splenic. Large vessels of the mediastinum that can be visualized on CT scans include the common carotid artery, subclavian artery, and brachiocephalic artery. However, the splenic artery is not located in the mediastinum, but rather in the abdomen. Therefore, it cannot be visualized on CT scans of the mediastinum.

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  • 49. 

    Lower extremity scans performed in conjuction with pulmonary embolism scans should be conducted _____minutes after the beginning of the contrast injection to allow sufficient opacification of the leg

    • A.

    • B.

      2.5

    • C.

      1.5

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.5
    Explanation
    Lower extremity scans performed in conjunction with pulmonary embolism scans should be conducted 2.5 minutes after the beginning of the contrast injection to allow sufficient opacification of the leg. This timing is crucial as it ensures that the contrast has enough time to circulate and reach the lower extremities, providing clear images for accurate diagnosis. Conducting the scan too early may result in inadequate opacification, while conducting it too late may result in the contrast being washed out, leading to suboptimal imaging. Therefore, the correct timing of 2.5 minutes is necessary for optimal visualization of the leg during the scan.

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  • 50. 

    For CT colonography, supine and prone scanning is used for all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      To determine whether filling defects are fixed

    • B.

      To differentiate between polyps and fecal material

    • C.

      To assure that all segments of the colon are seen when distended

    • D.

      To show diverticuli

    Correct Answer
    D. To show diverticuli
    Explanation
    Supine and prone scanning in CT colonography is used to determine whether filling defects are fixed, to differentiate between polyps and fecal material, and to assure that all segments of the colon are seen when distended. However, it is not used to show diverticuli. Diverticuli are small bulges or pockets that can develop in the lining of the colon, and they are typically seen using other imaging techniques such as barium enema or colonoscopy.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 11, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 31, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tkraiger
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