Trivia Quiz On CT Registry For Patient care!

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Trivia Quiz On CT Registry For Patient care! - Quiz

A computerized tomography scan (CT scan) is an X-ray machine which generates cross-sectional images of the body parts. A Doctor can view and observe the various parts of your body like bones of like shoulders, spine, abdomen, as well as diagnosing diseases. This quiz has been developed to test and increase your knowledge about CT scan techniques, terms and diseases of patients. So, let's try out the quiz. Good Luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following symptoms indicate a vagal reaction to Contrast 1. Bradycardia 2.A systolic pressure of less than 80 mm Hg 3. Diastolic pressure of more than 90 mm Hg

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      3 only

    • C.

      1 and 2

    • D.

      1 and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 and 2
    Explanation
    Bradycardia and a systolic pressure of less than 80 mm Hg are symptoms that indicate a vagal reaction to Contrast. Vagal reactions are caused by stimulation of the vagus nerve, which can lead to a decrease in heart rate (bradycardia) and a decrease in blood pressure (systolic pressure less than 80 mm Hg). These symptoms can occur in response to the administration of contrast agents during medical procedures. Diastolic pressure of more than 90 mm Hg is not a symptom of a vagal reaction and therefore not included in the correct answer.

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  • 2. 

    Before and after contact with each PT, proper hand washing requires the Tech to use soap and warm water with a circular rubbing motion for at least

    • A.

      10 sec

    • B.

      30 sec

    • C.

      2 minutes

    • D.

      5 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 30 sec
    Explanation
    Proper hand washing requires the Tech to use soap and warm water with a circular rubbing motion for at least 30 seconds. This duration allows enough time for the soap to create a lather, which helps to remove dirt, germs, and bacteria from the hands. It is important to wash hands for an adequate amount of time to ensure proper cleanliness and hygiene.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following should be included on a PT consent form for a CT scan with IV contrast?

    • A.

      A statement releasing the health professional involved from any and all responsibility

    • B.

      A clause protecting the Tech from possible lawsuit or negligence

    • C.

      An explanation of the procedure with its accompanying risks and possible alternatives

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. An explanation of the procedure with its accompanying risks and possible alternatives
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an explanation of the procedure with its accompanying risks and possible alternatives." This is because a PT consent form for a CT scan with IV contrast should include a clear explanation of the procedure, including any associated risks and possible alternatives. This is important for informed consent, ensuring that the patient understands what the procedure entails and the potential outcomes. The other options, such as releasing the health professional from responsibility or protecting the Tech from lawsuits, are not necessary components of a consent form and may not be ethically appropriate.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is an advantage of non-ionic contrast?

    • A.

      Decreased cost

    • B.

      Decreased nephrotoxicity

    • C.

      Decreased enhancment

    • D.

      Decreased incidence of adverse reaction

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased incidence of adverse reaction
    Explanation
    Non-ionic contrast agents have a decreased incidence of adverse reactions compared to ionic contrast agents. This is because non-ionic contrast agents have a lower osmolality, meaning they have a lower concentration of particles that can cause adverse reactions. This makes them safer to use, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment or those who are at a higher risk of adverse reactions.

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  • 5. 

    Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed

    • A.

      Stochastic

    • B.

      Nonstochastic

    • C.

      Negligible

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Stochastic
    Explanation
    The term "stochastic" refers to a random or chance occurrence. In the context of radiation exposure and its effects, the term stochastic is used to describe the relationship between exposure and the likelihood of harmful effects. Stochastic effects are those that occur randomly and have a probability of happening, such as the development of cancer. Nonstochastic effects, on the other hand, have a threshold level of exposure below which no harm is expected. The term "negligible" implies that the effects of radiation exposure are insignificant, which is not true. Therefore, the correct answer is "stochastic" as it accurately describes the relationship between radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following list butterfly needles in decreasing order of bore dimensions?

    • A.

      19, 21, 23 gauge

    • B.

      21, 23, 19 gauge

    • C.

      23, 21, 19 gauge

    • D.

      23, 19, 21 gauge

    Correct Answer
    A. 19, 21, 23 gauge
    Explanation
    The bore dimension of a needle refers to its diameter, with a smaller gauge number indicating a larger bore size. Therefore, the correct answer is 19, 21, 23 gauge, as it lists the butterfly needles in decreasing order of bore dimensions.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of automatic power injection over manual bolus method of IV contrast?

    • A.

      Uniform contrast enhancement throughout the exam

    • B.

      Consistent contrast administration for all PT

    • C.

      Decreased cost to PT

    • D.

      Decreased injection times

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreased cost to PT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "decreased cost to PT". This means that automatic power injection does not provide a cost advantage over the manual bolus method of IV contrast. While automatic power injection offers advantages such as uniform contrast enhancement throughout the exam, consistent contrast administration for all patients, and decreased injection times, it does not result in decreased cost for the patient.

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  • 8. 

    The maximum dose of IV contrast for a child should not exceed__________

    • A.

      1 mg/kg body weight

    • B.

      3 mg/kg body weight

    • C.

      5 mg/kg body weight

    • D.

      10 mg/kg body weight

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 mg/kg body weight
    Explanation
    The maximum dose of IV contrast for a child should not exceed 3 mg/kg body weight. This is because exceeding this dose can increase the risk of adverse reactions and potential harm to the child. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the appropriate dosage based on the child's weight to ensure their safety during imaging procedures.

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  • 9. 

    The average range for normal prothrombin time is approximately

    • A.

      3-5 sec

    • B.

      7-9 sec

    • C.

      10-12 sec

    • D.

      14-18 sec

    Correct Answer
    C. 10-12 sec
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10-12 sec. Prothrombin time is a blood test that measures how long it takes for blood to clot. A normal prothrombin time range is usually around 10-12 seconds. This range indicates that the blood is clotting within a normal time frame, suggesting that the blood's ability to form clots is functioning properly.

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  • 10. 

    Examples of moderate adverse reactions to Contrast may include 1. Shock 2. Syncope 3. Severe vomiting

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      1 and 3

    • C.

      2 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 and 3
    Explanation
    Moderate adverse reactions to contrast may include severe vomiting and syncope. Shock is not considered a moderate adverse reaction to contrast.

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  • 11. 

    A typical range for skin dose to the PT during a CT study of the head is

    • A.

      .1-.3 cGy

    • B.

      1-2 cGy

    • C.

      2-4 cGy

    • D.

      6-8 cGy

    Correct Answer
    C. 2-4 cGy
    Explanation
    During a CT study of the head, the typical range for skin dose to the patient is 2-4 cGy. This means that the amount of radiation absorbed by the patient's skin during the procedure falls within this range. It is important to monitor and limit the skin dose to ensure that it is kept as low as reasonably achievable to minimize the potential risks associated with radiation exposure.

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  • 12. 

    The proper ratio of chest compressions to ventilation during a one-person CPR is

    • A.

      3:1

    • B.

      5:2

    • C.

      15:2

    • D.

      30:2

    Correct Answer
    D. 30:2
    Explanation
    The proper ratio of chest compressions to ventilation during a one-person CPR is 30:2. This means that for every 30 chest compressions, there should be 2 ventilations. This ratio allows for adequate circulation and oxygenation of the blood during CPR, ensuring that the person receiving CPR has the best chance of survival.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following medical terms is commonly used in place of the word vomit?

    • A.

      Emesis

    • B.

      Volute

    • C.

      Formite

    • D.

      Purulent

    Correct Answer
    A. Emesis
    Explanation
    Emesis is commonly used in place of the word vomit in medical terminology. It refers to the act of expelling the contents of the stomach through the mouth. This term is widely used in healthcare settings to describe the symptom of vomiting, which can be caused by various factors such as gastrointestinal infections, food poisoning, or motion sickness.

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  • 14. 

    Intrathecal injection of Contrast may be performed for which of the following CT exams

    • A.

      Knee

    • B.

      Pituitary

    • C.

      Lumbar spine

    • D.

      High resolution chest

    Correct Answer
    C. Lumbar spine
    Explanation
    An intrathecal injection of contrast is performed for CT exams of the lumbar spine. This procedure involves injecting contrast directly into the space around the spinal cord, known as the intrathecal space. By doing so, the contrast can better visualize the spinal cord and surrounding structures, helping to diagnose conditions such as spinal tumors, herniated discs, or spinal infections. The other options listed (knee, pituitary, high resolution chest) do not typically require an intrathecal injection of contrast for imaging purposes.

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  • 15. 

    The drug Solu-Cortef may be classified as which of the following

    • A.

      Anticholinergic

    • B.

      Bronchodilator

    • C.

      Antihistamine

    • D.

      Corticosteriod

    Correct Answer
    D. Corticosteriod
    Explanation
    The drug Solu-Cortef is classified as a corticosteroid. It is the brand name for Hydrocortisone. Corticosteroids are a class of medications that mimic the natural hormones produced by the adrenal glands, and they have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. Solu-Cortef contains hydrocortisone sodium succinate, which is a synthetic form of cortisol (a natural corticosteroid hormone). It is often used for various medical conditions, including inflammatory and allergic reactions, autoimmune disorders, and as an emergency treatment for conditions such as anaphylaxis or adrenal insufficiency.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following lab values are the most dependable measures of renal function?

    • A.

      BUN

    • B.

      Creatinine

    • C.

      PT

    • D.

      PTT

    Correct Answer
    B. Creatinine
    Explanation
    Creatinine is the most dependable measure of renal function because it is a waste product produced by muscles and filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated levels of creatinine indicate impaired kidney function, as the kidneys are not effectively filtering it out. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) is also used to assess renal function, but it can be influenced by factors such as diet and hydration status, making creatinine a more reliable indicator. PT (prothrombin time) and PTT (partial thromboplastin time) are tests used to assess blood clotting and are not directly related to renal function.

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  • 17. 

    A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult is

    • A.

      40-60 mmHG

    • B.

      60-90 mmHG

    • C.

      80-120 mmHG

    • D.

      95-140 mmHG

    Correct Answer
    B. 60-90 mmHG
    Explanation
    The diastolic blood pressure represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult is typically between 60-90 mmHg. This range indicates that the blood vessels are able to relax and fill with blood properly, allowing for adequate blood flow throughout the body. Values below or above this range may indicate underlying health conditions or cardiovascular problems.

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  • 18. 

    The escape of contrast from a needle or blood vessel into the subcutaneous tissue is called

    • A.

      Infusion

    • B.

      Extraversion

    • C.

      Influxation

    • D.

      Extravasation

    Correct Answer
    D. Extravasation
    Explanation
    Extravasation is the correct answer because it refers to the escape of contrast from a needle or blood vessel into the subcutaneous tissue. Infusion refers to the process of introducing fluid into the body, while extraversion and influxation are not medical terms.

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  • 19. 

    PT preparation for CT of A/P may include which of the following 1. Receiving nothing by mouth for 4 hours before the exam 2.Digestion of a fatty meal 1 hour before the exam 3. Refraining from urination for 2 hours before the exam

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      1 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "1 only" because it is common practice to instruct patients to fast for a certain number of hours before a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. This is done to ensure that the digestive system is empty, allowing for better visualization of the organs and structures in the area. Digestion of a fatty meal (option 2) would not be recommended as it could interfere with the quality of the images. Refraining from urination (option 3) is not necessary for a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following types of oral contrast could cause peritonitis if leakage from the digestive tract occurs due to perforation?

    • A.

      Gastrographin

    • B.

      Barium sulfate

    • C.

      Hypaque

    • D.

      Effervescent granules

    Correct Answer
    B. Barium sulfate
    Explanation
    Barium sulfate is a type of oral contrast used in medical imaging to enhance the visibility of the digestive tract. If there is a perforation in the digestive tract, leakage of barium sulfate could lead to peritonitis, which is inflammation of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity. This can occur because barium sulfate is not absorbed by the body and can cause irritation and infection if it leaks into the peritoneum. Therefore, barium sulfate is the type of oral contrast that could cause peritonitis in the event of a perforation.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following terms is used to describe a PT having difficulty breathing?

    • A.

      Dyslexia

    • B.

      Dyspnea

    • C.

      Dysphagia

    • D.

      Dysphasia

    Correct Answer
    B. Dyspnea
    Explanation
    Dyspnea is the term used to describe a PT (patient) having difficulty breathing. It is a medical condition characterized by shortness of breath or breathlessness. Dyslexia refers to a learning disorder affecting reading and writing skills, dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, and dysphasia refers to difficulty with language and speech.

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  • 22. 

    The reduction in number of infectious organisms w/o a complete elimination is termed

    • A.

      Medical asepsis

    • B.

      Sterilization

    • C.

      Surgical asepsis

    • D.

      Immunization

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical asepsis
    Explanation
    Medical asepsis refers to the reduction in the number of infectious organisms without completely eliminating them. It involves practices such as hand hygiene, proper cleaning and disinfection of surfaces, and using personal protective equipment to prevent the spread of infection. Unlike sterilization, which completely eliminates all microorganisms, medical asepsis focuses on reducing the number of pathogens to a level that is not harmful to individuals. Surgical asepsis, on the other hand, refers to the complete elimination of all microorganisms in a specific area during surgical procedures. Immunization, on the other hand, is the process of inducing immunity to a specific disease through vaccination.

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 14, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Leclark
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