4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz!

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1. The action assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician is called...

Explanation

Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician. This involves evaluating the safety of the scene, determining the number of patients, identifying potential hazards, and gathering information that can help in providing appropriate medical care. It is an important step in emergency medical response as it helps in prioritizing and planning the necessary actions to be taken.

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4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz! - Quiz

Engage with the 4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz to enhance skills in patient care techniques. Master precautions in patient movement, transfer methods, and ambulation support,... see morecrucial for healthcare professionals in aerospace services. see less

2. When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes?

Explanation

The examination that would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes is Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA). This examination checks the size, shape, and reactivity of the patient's pupils when exposed to light. It also assesses the accommodation reflex, which is the ability of the pupils to constrict when focusing on a near object. A normal response would be equal, round pupils that constrict when exposed to light and dilate when focusing on a near object.

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3. What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?

Explanation

If a child that you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. This is because the safety and well-being of the child should be the top priority, and reporting the suspected abuse can help ensure that the child receives the necessary protection and support. It is not sufficient to only report if the parents admit abuse, as abuse may be denied or concealed. Counseling the parent on their actions may not be enough to address the immediate safety concerns of the child. The technician has a responsibility to report suspected abuse, as it is a matter of child protection.

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4. What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis?

Explanation

Patients with seasonal allergies typically experience symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and a runny nose due to an overactive immune response to allergens like pollen or mold. Antihistamines are medications commonly used to treat these symptoms by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released during an allergic reaction. Therefore, it is expected that a patient with seasonal allergies would take antihistamines on a regular basis to manage their symptoms.

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5. One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is...

Explanation

Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various complications in females. One of the most common and serious complications is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix to the upper reproductive organs, such as the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It can cause severe pain, inflammation, and damage to these organs, leading to infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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6. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called...

Explanation

Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include interference from external sources, such as electrical equipment or movement of the patient, as well as internal factors like muscle activity or poor electrode placement. These artifacts can distort the ECG waveform and make it difficult to accurately interpret the results.

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7. When cleaning a two-inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound.  What would be the next step?

Explanation

The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound. Flushing the wound helps to clean it and reduce the risk of infection. It is a standard procedure in wound care to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

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8. In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?

Explanation

Emergency equipment and supplies in a crash ambulance need to be regularly checked to ensure they are in proper working condition and ready for immediate use in case of an emergency. Checking them on a daily basis allows for any issues or deficiencies to be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of failure during critical situations. This frequent monitoring ensures that the ambulance is always prepared to provide the necessary assistance and support during emergencies.

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9. Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

Explanation

The responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining the appropriate care and treatment plan. The medical technician would use specialized equipment to measure the patient's vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature. Additionally, obtaining the patient's height and weight helps in monitoring their nutritional status and determining the correct medication dosages.

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10. If an inpatient chard with the doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the...

Explanation

If an inpatient chart with the doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the healthcare provider being busy or forgetting to perform the vital signs. It is important to ensure that vital signs are regularly monitored as they provide crucial information about the patient's health status and any changes that may require immediate attention.

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11. What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

Explanation

Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, it helps to reduce anxiety and increase the patient's understanding and confidence. This not only helps to alleviate their concerns but also improves their overall experience and outcomes of the surgery. Sedation, back massage, and oxygen therapy may have their own benefits but may not directly address the patient's concerns prior to surgery.

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12. What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

The professionalism and caring attitude of healthcare providers have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism by being knowledgeable, skilled, and competent, it instills confidence in the patient and reassures them that they are receiving high-quality care. Additionally, a caring attitude, which includes empathy, compassion, and respect, helps to create a positive patient-provider relationship and enhances the overall patient experience. Both professionalism and a caring attitude contribute to the patient's perception of the quality of care and treatment they receive.

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13. What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?

Explanation

Platelets are involved in the clotting process. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. Platelets also interact with other clotting factors in the blood to form a stable clot that seals the wound. Therefore, platelets play a crucial role in the clotting process.

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14. Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Abuser." In cases of sexual abuse of a child, the responsibility lies solely with the abuser. They are the ones who have committed the harmful act and violated the child's rights. While other factors such as the child's environment or societal influences may contribute to the occurrence of abuse, ultimately, it is the abuser who is at fault for their actions. It is important to hold the abuser accountable and take measures to protect children from such harm.

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15. The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is...

Explanation

The correct answer is intramuscular (IM) because this method involves injecting a drug into a muscle. This route is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, allowing for a slower absorption rate compared to intravenous administration.

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16. Which of the following is NOT a type of transmission-based precaution?

Explanation

Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. The three types of transmission-based precautions are airborne, droplet, and contact. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that can be spread through tiny respiratory droplets that remain suspended in the air. Droplet precautions are used for diseases that can be spread through larger respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases that can be spread through direct or indirect contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions, on the other hand, refer to measures taken specifically for diseases that affect the gastrointestinal system.

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17. When can the minor surgery procedure being?

Explanation

The minor surgery procedure can only begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining informed consent is a crucial step in any medical procedure, including minor surgeries. The consent form ensures that the patient has been fully informed about the procedure, its risks and benefits, and has given their voluntary agreement to proceed. It also protects the healthcare provider from potential legal issues. Therefore, it is necessary for the consent form to be signed before starting the procedure.

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18. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

Explanation

When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcast. This is because broadcasting the patient's name can potentially violate their privacy and confidentiality. Sharing personal identifying information, such as a patient's name, without their consent can lead to unauthorized access to their medical records or compromise their privacy. It is important to prioritize patient confidentiality and only share necessary medical information while omitting personal identifiers.

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19. Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians in the fied to describe a possible fracture?

Explanation

Emergency medical technicians use the acronym "Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)" to describe a possible fracture. This acronym helps them quickly communicate the key symptoms of a fracture, which include pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area. By using this acronym, they can efficiently convey this information to other medical professionals and expedite the appropriate treatment for the patient.

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20. Which statement is NOT considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights?

Explanation

The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed of a drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by healthcare professionals based on the patient's condition and best medical practices.

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21. Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT...

Explanation

The correct answer is for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day. This is because as a medication administrator, your responsibility is to ensure the safe and appropriate administration of medications. Ensuring an individual's availability for work is not directly related to medication administration. The other options listed are all important responsibilities, such as following the six medication rights, being aware of side effects, and checking for possible interactions with current medications.

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22. Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen...

Explanation

Sodium chloride, also known as salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, the body may experience a deficiency in sodium chloride. This can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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23. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only...

Explanation

The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which could be specific rules or regulations set by the local authorities or Air Force guidelines, permits it. The decision to use lights and sirens is not solely based on the approval of the senior medical technician or the different phases of the response or transport.

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24. While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable.  What should you do?

Explanation

Based on the given scenario, the correct answer is to inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling. This is the most appropriate action because the patient's dizziness and instability suggest a potential risk of falling, which should be addressed immediately. Calling the doctor to order restraints or putting restraints on the patient without proper assessment and notification of the physician would not be appropriate or safe. Checking the patient's medications is also important as it could be a potential side effect causing the symptoms, but the immediate concern should be to ensure the patient's safety by informing the nurse.

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25. What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching?

Explanation

If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem would be muscular pain. Muscular pain can occur due to overuse, strain, or injury to the muscles. It is a common symptom and can be caused by various factors such as muscle tension, muscle imbalances, or inflammation. Unlike bone infection or malignant tumor, which would have specific symptoms and require further investigation, muscular pain is a common and relatively less serious orthopedic issue that can often be managed with rest, ice, pain medications, and physical therapy. Psychosomatic issues may also cause soreness or aching, but they are not specifically orthopedic problems.

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26. Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

Explanation

Compulsion is the correct answer because it refers to an irresistible urge to perform seemingly purposeless actions. In psychiatry, it is a symptom commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental acts, such as excessive handwashing or checking, despite knowing that these actions are unnecessary. These compulsions are often driven by the need to reduce anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. Therefore, compulsion accurately describes the phenomenon described in the question.

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27. If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions EXCEPT...

Explanation

In the given scenario, leaving the other patients to follow the escaping patient is not an appropriate action to take. The safety and well-being of all patients should be a priority, and leaving them unattended can put them at risk. Instead, it is important to take other actions such as telephoning for help, describing the patient and their clothing to aid in identification, and noting the direction in which the patient is heading. These actions can help ensure the patient's safe return and prevent any potential harm or danger.

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28. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally...

Explanation

Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life-long process because these injuries often result in permanent damage to the spinal cord, leading to long-term functional impairments. While patients may not fully recover their pre-injury abilities, rehabilitation aims to maximize their independence and quality of life by improving muscle strength, mobility, and daily living skills. The ongoing nature of the rehabilitation process ensures that patients receive the necessary support and interventions to adapt to their new circumstances and maintain their physical and psychological well-being throughout their lives.

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29. Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?

Explanation

Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control because they create a predictable and familiar environment. When a child knows what to expect each day, it can help them feel more secure and in control of their surroundings. This can be particularly important in a hospital setting where there may be many unfamiliar and potentially stressful experiences. Having established rituals and routines can provide a sense of stability and normalcy, which can be comforting for a hospitalized child.

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30. Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?

Explanation

Restraining a child should never be based on the caregiver's lack of time or other tasks to do. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. The other reasons mentioned - the need for medical intervention, preventing the child from climbing out of bed, and preventing falls from a highchair - are all appropriate and necessary for the child's safety and health.

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31. What method of administration delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Oral. Oral administration involves delivering medication directly into a patient's digestive system through the mouth, where it is swallowed and then absorbed into the bloodstream through the gastrointestinal tract. This is the most common and convenient method of administration, as it can be easily self-administered and is suitable for a wide range of medications. Buccal administration involves placing medication between the cheek and gum, inhalation involves delivering medication into the lungs, and sublingual administration involves placing medication under the tongue.

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32. To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

Explanation

Liquid medications are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient and reduces the risk of any errors or mishaps that may occur during transportation from other locations such as the pharmacy or nurses' station. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for immediate administration and monitoring of the patient's response to the medication.

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33. The body's first step in the healing process is...

Explanation

Inflammation is the body's initial response to tissue damage or injury. It is a protective mechanism that helps to remove harmful stimuli and initiate the healing process. When tissues are injured, the body releases chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate, leading to increased blood flow to the area. This results in redness, swelling, heat, and pain. Inflammation also helps to recruit immune cells to the site of injury, which can help to fight off any potential infections. Overall, inflammation is a crucial first step in the healing process as it helps to clear away damaged tissues and initiate repair.

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34. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with...

Explanation

A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. This means that when there is a significant mechanism of injury, such as a major fall or a motor vehicle accident, the healthcare provider will prioritize assessing and addressing the areas of the body that are at the highest risk of causing immediate harm or complications to the patient. This approach ensures that critical injuries are identified and treated promptly, potentially saving the patient's life or preventing further damage.

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35. When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the...

Explanation

When setting up a cardiac monitor, it is crucial to pay particular attention to and fix the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing date and time if it is not correct. This is important because accurate date and time on the ECG tracing help to ensure proper documentation and tracking of the patient's cardiac activity. It allows healthcare professionals to accurately interpret and analyze the ECG data in relation to the patient's condition and treatment timeline. Incorrect date and time can lead to errors in diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of the patient's cardiac health.

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36. Which term allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

Explanation

The term "Pass" allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours.

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37. Which is NOT a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

Explanation

The healing time of a bone fracture is influenced by various factors, including age, extent of injury, and circulation to the area. However, gender is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture. Both males and females have similar healing processes, and gender does not play a significant role in bone healing.

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38. When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

Explanation

The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the successful treatment of mentally ill patients. By starting rehabilitation immediately, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's condition, develop a personalized treatment plan, and initiate therapeutic interventions to promote recovery. Delaying the start of rehabilitation may result in a worsening of symptoms and hinder the patient's progress towards mental wellness. Therefore, starting the rehabilitation process as soon as the patient is admitted maximizes the chances of a positive outcome.

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39. What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

Explanation

A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. This is because a tourniquet is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the blood vessels. It helps to prevent excessive bleeding and can be quickly applied in case of an emergency. Suction may be needed to remove any excess fluids or blood, oxygen may be required for respiratory support, and an NG tube may be used for feeding, but these are not specifically essential for managing bleeding after an amputation.

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40. Which one of these is NOT included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?

Explanation

The "Five Rights" of medication administration refer to the essential elements that need to be ensured when administering medication to a patient. These include the right time, right dose, right route, right patient, and right medication. The right documentation is not included in the "Five Rights" as it is not directly related to the actual administration process, but rather to the proper recording and documentation of the medication administration.

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41. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Explanation

A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts normal bodily functions. Pathogens can cause a wide range of illnesses, from mild infections to severe diseases, and can be transmitted through various means such as direct contact, contaminated food or water, or through the air. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infections and diseases.

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42. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

Explanation

The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent is multiplying and spreading within the body, but the person does not yet exhibit any symptoms. This is an important stage as it allows the infectious agent to establish itself and replicate before the immune system responds and symptoms become apparent.

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43. When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine...

Explanation

The patient's responses to questions about wearing glasses, contact lenses, or previous eye problems will determine the sequence of test performance. This means that the examiner will conduct specific tests based on the patient's answers to these questions. For example, if the patient wears glasses, the examiner may perform additional tests to evaluate the effectiveness of the current prescription. On the other hand, if the patient has had previous eye problems, the examiner may prioritize tests related to those issues. Therefore, the patient's responses will determine the order in which the tests are conducted.

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44. When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?

Explanation

Before unloading a patient from an ambulance, the first thing to do is to ensure that all straps are secured on the patient. This is important to ensure the safety and stability of the patient during the unloading process. Securing the straps will help prevent any potential injuries or accidents while transferring the patient from the ambulance to another location. Once the patient is safely strapped in, other necessary actions like turning off the oxygen in the ambulance or making a list of restocked supplies can be addressed.

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45. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?

Explanation

In this situation, it is important to determine if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type they are wearing. This information is crucial because if the patient is wearing contact lenses, it can affect the course of treatment. Chemical splashes can cause damage to the eye, and contact lenses can trap the chemical against the eye, leading to further injury. Therefore, knowing if the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type will help in deciding the appropriate steps to take for immediate care and minimizing potential complications.

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46. Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems?

Explanation

Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and combat scenarios that can result in various types of injuries, such as fractures, dislocations, sprains, and strains. These traumatic injuries may occur due to explosions, falls, direct impact, or other forms of physical trauma. The nature of their work and the demanding physical activities involved make military personnel more susceptible to orthopedic problems caused by traumatic injuries.

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47. The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a...

Explanation

Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain that is experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present but is perceived by the individual. It is a well-documented and recognized phenomenon that occurs due to the brain's inability to adjust to the absence of the limb. It is different from phantom limb sensation, which refers to the feeling of the presence of the missing limb. While phantom limb pain is a physiological phenomenon, it also has psychological aspects as it is influenced by the brain's perception and interpretation of signals.

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48. What affects an individuals feeling about themselves?

Explanation

An individual's feeling about themselves is influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how a person views and evaluates themselves, including their beliefs, attitudes, and thoughts about their own abilities, worth, and identity. It plays a significant role in shaping a person's self-esteem, self-confidence, and overall self-image. Self-perception can be influenced by various factors such as personal experiences, achievements, failures, and personal values. It is an internal process that is subjective and can differ from person to person.

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49. A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of...

Explanation

The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt lead to a behavior of withdrawal. This means that they may isolate themselves, avoid social interactions, and distance themselves from others. They may feel the need to protect themselves from further emotional harm by withdrawing from relationships and situations that may trigger their negative emotions.

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50. When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is...

Explanation

When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, behavior is the most important factor to consider. This is because behavior provides valuable insight into the patient's mental state, their emotions, and any potential changes or abnormalities in their condition. By closely observing their behavior, such as their actions, gestures, and reactions, healthcare professionals can gather crucial information that can aid in diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring the progress of the patient. Appearance, conversation, and sleeping habits are also important factors to consider, but behavior takes precedence as it directly reflects the patient's mental well-being.

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51. What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?

Explanation

A stat medication order is used when a medication needs to be administered immediately and only once. It is often used in emergency situations or when there is an urgent need for the medication. Unlike other types of medication orders, a stat order does not require any specific frequency or timing for administration.

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52. What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heartbeat?

Explanation

Antiarrhythmics are a type of medication used to prevent or correct irregular heartbeat. These medications work by stabilizing the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heart rhythm and prevent abnormal heartbeats. They are commonly prescribed for conditions such as atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and other arrhythmias. Antiarrhythmics can be classified into various classes based on their mechanism of action, and they are an essential component of treatment for individuals with irregular heart rhythms.

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53. Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

Explanation

Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant that is commonly obtained over the counter. It is often consumed in prolonged high doses, leading to habituation and psychological dependence. Caffeine is found in various beverages and foods such as coffee, tea, energy drinks, and chocolate. Its stimulating effects on the central nervous system can result in increased alertness, improved concentration, and enhanced physical performance. However, prolonged and excessive use of caffeine can lead to tolerance, where higher doses are required to achieve the same effects, and psychological dependence, where individuals may experience withdrawal symptoms when attempting to quit or reduce their caffeine intake.

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54. What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?

Explanation

Before operating a glucose meter, it is important to read the operating instructions. This step is crucial as it allows the user to understand how the meter works, its features, and how to properly use it to obtain accurate results. By reading the operating instructions, the user can ensure that they are following the correct procedures and using the meter correctly, which is essential for obtaining reliable glucose readings.

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55. The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the...

Explanation

A medical technician is responsible for completing the Intake and Output flowsheet and the Vital Signs Record. These forms are essential for monitoring and documenting a patient's fluid intake and output as well as their vital signs such as temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. This information is crucial for assessing a patient's overall health status and identifying any abnormalities or changes that may require medical intervention. By completing these forms accurately and regularly, the medical technician ensures that the healthcare team has up-to-date and comprehensive information to provide appropriate care to the patient.

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56. The first stage of dying is...

Explanation

The first stage of dying is denial. This is when a person refuses to accept or believe that they are dying or that a loved one is dying. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming reality of death. During this stage, individuals may exhibit behaviors such as disbelief, avoidance, or seeking second opinions. It is a normal and common reaction to the news of impending death.

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57. During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

Explanation

During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety the most. This is because they are becoming more independent and are beginning to explore the world around them, but still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for support and security. The fear of being separated from their caregivers can cause significant distress and anxiety during this stage.

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58. When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be...

Explanation

When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, and if not properly managed, it can result in dehydration. Dehydration can further worsen the child's condition and may lead to other complications. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and address the child's fluid intake to prevent dehydration and maintain their overall well-being.

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59. Which statement is TRUE regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

Explanation

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60. Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?

Explanation

Influenza vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products. This is because the influenza vaccine is typically produced using eggs, and traces of egg protein may be present in the final product. Therefore, individuals with egg allergies may experience an allergic reaction if they receive the influenza vaccine. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this allergy and consider alternative vaccination options for these individuals.

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61. Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit?

Explanation

Mosquitos transmit the viral disease called Yellow Fever. Yellow Fever is caused by the yellow fever virus, which is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitos. This viral disease can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, and in severe cases, organ failure and death. Vaccination is available to prevent yellow fever, and controlling mosquito populations and using protective measures can help reduce the transmission of this disease.

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62. When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing, which patient-education would be appropriate?

Explanation

Chewing the capsule of Tessalon perles can lead to a numbing effect in the mouth and throat, which may cause difficulty in swallowing. Therefore, it is important for the patient to be educated not to chew the capsule to avoid any potential complications.

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63. The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through…

Explanation

Cilia are tiny hair-like structures that line the respiratory tract. They move in coordinated waves to help sweep foreign particles, such as dust, bacteria, and viruses, out of the airways. The cilia trap these particles and move them towards the throat where they can be either swallowed or expelled through coughing. Therefore, cilia play a crucial role in filtering and trapping foreign bodies in the respiratory system.

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64. Which basic human need category is rest included in?

Explanation

Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs. Physiological needs are the fundamental requirements for survival, including food, water, shelter, and sleep. Rest is necessary for the body to recover and rejuvenate, ensuring proper functioning and overall well-being. Without sufficient rest, individuals may experience physical and mental fatigue, decreased cognitive abilities, and increased susceptibility to illness. Therefore, rest is an essential component of meeting our physiological needs.

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65. Plasma lipids include what three substances?

Explanation

Plasma lipids are a type of fat found in the bloodstream. They include triglycerides, which are the most common type of fat in the body and serve as a source of energy; phospholipids, which are important for cell structure and function; and cholesterol, which is used for various purposes in the body, including the production of hormones and cell membranes. These three substances are essential for the normal functioning of the body and are found in plasma lipids.

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66. During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?

Explanation

The first drop of blood is wiped away during a skin puncture because it contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with the test results. Epithelial cells are cells that line the surface of the skin and can contaminate the blood sample. Removing the first drop ensures that the sample collected is pure and free from any potential contaminants, ensuring accurate test results.

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67. Orthopedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as...

Explanation

Orthopedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of bones, joints, or muscles during fetal development. These deformities are not caused by infection or disease, nor are they temporary conditions.

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68. The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally...

Explanation

Elderly patients generally require less sleep at night because they tend to take frequent daytime naps. These naps compensate for any sleep deficits and reduce the overall amount of sleep needed during the night. As people age, their sleep patterns often change, and they may experience difficulty staying asleep through the night or have shorter periods of deep sleep. Therefore, relying on daytime naps helps them meet their sleep needs while still allowing for restful nights.

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69. How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Explanation

Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By accommodating their customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and satisfied with their meal, which can enhance their appetite. Additionally, familiarity with the food can also trigger positive memories and associations, further stimulating their desire to eat.

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70. What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?

Explanation

In the third phase of spousal abuse, the abuser typically apologizes and promises that the abuse will never happen again. This is a common pattern in abusive relationships known as the "honeymoon phase" or the "remorse/regret phase." The abuser may try to manipulate the victim into believing that they have changed or that the abuse was a one-time occurrence. However, it is important to note that this phase is often temporary, and the cycle of abuse is likely to continue unless effective intervention and support are provided.

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71. A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways?

Explanation

A provider can initiate a drug order in two ways. This implies that there are two different methods or processes through which a provider can request or initiate a drug order. The question does not provide specific details about these two ways, but it suggests that there are multiple options available for a provider to initiate a drug order.

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72. Drug administration is controlled PRIMARILY by...

Explanation

Drug administration is primarily controlled by federal law because the federal government has the authority to regulate and enforce laws related to the manufacturing, distribution, and use of drugs across the entire country. Federal laws, such as the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, the Controlled Substances Act, and the Drug Enforcement Administration regulations, set standards for drug safety, labeling, approval processes, and the enforcement of drug-related crimes. While state laws and facility mandates may also play a role in drug administration, they are secondary to federal law and must comply with federal regulations.

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73. Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

Explanation

Penicillin is administered to treat an infection, which suggests that it is aimed at curing the infection rather than just providing support or substitution. Therefore, penicillin falls under the category of curative drugs.

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74. To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe...

Explanation

To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe down to straighten the canal. This is done to ensure that the ear drops can easily reach the eardrum and be effective in treating the condition. Straightening the canal allows for a clear path for the drops to enter the ear and reach the desired area. Pulling the earlobe downward also helps in creating a better angle for the drops to be administered without causing discomfort or injury to the patient.

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75. Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent...

Explanation

Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis is a condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. This can be a serious complication after surgery, especially in patients who are immobile for extended periods of time. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent blood clots from forming. By receiving heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson is reducing his risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.

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76. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide...

Explanation

If the patient is not alert and their breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, it indicates a severe respiratory distress or failure. In this case, providing high concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask or low concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula may not be sufficient to support their breathing. The best course of action would be to provide ventilation with a bag-valve-mask, which allows for manual control of the patient's breathing, along with high flow oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. This method provides the most effective and immediate support for the patient's respiratory function.

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77. While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?

Explanation

A bruise behind the ear is a common sign of a basal skull fracture. Basal skull fractures occur at the base of the skull and can be caused by significant head trauma, such as a fall from a ladder. This type of fracture can result in leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose or ears, as well as bruising around the eyes (raccoon eyes) or behind the ears (Battle's sign). It is important to suspect a basal skull fracture in this scenario and promptly seek medical attention for further evaluation and management.

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78. Which devices can be used to SLIDE a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

Explanation

A drawsheet is a flat sheet that is placed under the patient's body to help with repositioning and transferring. A roller board is a device with wheels that can be placed next to the bed, allowing the patient to be easily slid onto it. By using a drawsheet and a roller board together, the patient can be smoothly and safely transferred from the bed to a stretcher. The other options listed do not include the necessary combination of devices for sliding a patient from a bed to a stretcher.

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79. During the acute stage of the stroke, the primary goal is to...

Explanation

During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to sustain life. This means ensuring the patient's vital functions are stable and supported, such as maintaining a clear airway, providing oxygen if necessary, monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, and addressing any immediate life-threatening complications. Sustaining life takes precedence over other goals such as stopping ischemia or maintaining mobility, as the immediate focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition and preventing further deterioration.

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80. The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should NOT be given for more than 3 days is the...

Explanation

A clear liquid diet is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days. This type of diet consists of clear fluids such as water, broth, and gelatin, which do not provide sufficient essential nutrients like proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. It is typically prescribed for short periods, such as before certain medical procedures or surgeries, to provide hydration and rest to the digestive system. However, it is not nutritionally balanced and should not be followed for an extended period as it may lead to malnutrition and other health issues.

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81. Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

Explanation

The trade name of a drug is the name given to it by the manufacturer. This name is used for marketing and branding purposes. It is usually a catchy and memorable name that helps in promoting the drug in the market. The official name, generic name, and chemical name are different types of names given to drugs for different purposes, but they are not necessarily given by the manufacturer.

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82. Which statement is TRUE regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

Explanation

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83. What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Explanation

The Controlled Substances Act is a law that requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. This act was enacted to regulate the manufacture, possession, and distribution of drugs that are considered to have a potential for abuse. It establishes a system for classifying and categorizing controlled substances based on their potential for abuse and accepted medical uses. The act also requires individuals and organizations that handle controlled substances to maintain accurate records and conduct regular inventories to ensure compliance with the law.

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84. Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

Explanation

The Physician Desk Reference is a common reference source for drugs. It is widely used by healthcare professionals, including physicians, to access comprehensive information about prescription drugs, including their uses, side effects, dosages, and interactions. It provides detailed and reliable information that helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about prescribing medications to their patients. The other options, such as the internet search, nurse's pharmacy handbook, and technician's pharmacy handbook, may also provide information on drugs, but the Physician Desk Reference is specifically designed for healthcare professionals and is considered a standard reference source in the field.

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85. Which one of these statements is a DISADVANTAGE of inhalation medication?

Explanation

The disadvantage of inhalation medication is that monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult. This means that it is challenging to accurately measure and control the dosage of medication delivered through inhalation. This can lead to potential under or over-dosing, which may result in ineffective treatment or adverse effects.

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86. An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is…

Explanation

An isolation cat is not a valid option for an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit. This is because an isolation cat does not provide the necessary functionality and purpose of an anteroom, which is typically used as a buffer zone between the outside environment and the isolation unit to prevent the spread of contaminants. Therefore, it is not a suitable alternative.

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87. What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

Explanation

Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, as it binds to oxygen and allows it to be transported throughout the body. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia.

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88. Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

Explanation

Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial part of the immune system. They play a vital role in protecting the body against diseases at the cellular level by identifying and eliminating pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Leukocytes are responsible for the body's defense against infections and are involved in various immune responses, including inflammation and immune surveillance. They are not involved in the production of hemoglobin or carrying oxygen, nor are they responsible for carrying amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion.

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89. How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

Explanation

Suction units must provide a vacuum pressure of 300 mmHg when the tube is clamped. This level of vacuum is necessary to effectively remove fluids or air from the patient's body. It ensures efficient suctioning and helps maintain a clear airway.

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90. If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should...

Explanation

If clear fluid is running out of the ears, it is important not to block the fluid from draining. Blocking the fluid can lead to an accumulation of pressure and potentially cause further damage. Allowing the fluid to drain naturally helps to prevent complications and allows for proper healing.

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91. What major problem affects mental health treatment?

Explanation

The major problem that affects mental health treatment is the attitude of society. This refers to the stigma and discrimination that individuals with mental health issues face, which can prevent them from seeking help or receiving appropriate treatment. Society's negative attitudes and misconceptions about mental health can contribute to feelings of shame and isolation, making it harder for individuals to access the care they need. This problem highlights the importance of raising awareness, promoting acceptance, and creating a supportive environment for those struggling with mental health.

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92. The purpose of MOST drug therapy is to...

Explanation

The purpose of most drug therapy is to maintain a constant level of the drug in the body. This is important because a constant level ensures that the drug remains effective in treating the condition it is prescribed for. Fluctuations in drug levels can lead to inadequate treatment or potential side effects. By maintaining a constant level, the drug can provide consistent therapeutic effects and minimize any potential harm.

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93. Why are oral medications that are taken BEFORE meals generally faster acting?

Explanation

Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content means that there is less food in the stomach and intestines. This allows for quicker absorption and distribution of the medication into the bloodstream. When there is less food present, the medication can be rapidly broken down and absorbed by the body, leading to faster onset of action.

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94. Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?

Explanation

Upon entering the Air Force, all recruits receive a booster for the Tetanus vaccine. Tetanus is a bacterial infection that can cause severe muscle stiffness and spasms. It is commonly found in soil and can enter the body through cuts or wounds. The booster shot helps to ensure that recruits are protected against this potentially life-threatening infection while serving in the Air Force.

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95. What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

Explanation

Cleaning is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization because it involves removing visible dirt, debris, and organic matter from the surfaces of the objects. This step is important because sterilization is most effective when performed on clean surfaces. Cleaning helps to eliminate potential sources of contamination and ensures that the sterilization process can effectively kill any remaining microorganisms. Disinfection, pasteurization, and decontamination are subsequent steps that may be necessary depending on the specific requirements of the objects and the level of sterilization needed.

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96. Potassium helps to maintain...

Explanation

Potassium is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in maintaining the normal functioning of the heart. It helps in regulating the electrical impulses that control the heartbeat, ensuring that it beats in a steady rhythm. Potassium also helps in maintaining the balance of fluids in the body, which is important for maintaining blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is heartbeat regulation.

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97. In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's...

Explanation

In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's complaint of a headache. This is because subjective information refers to the patient's symptoms and experiences that cannot be observed or measured objectively. By documenting the patient's complaint of a headache, healthcare providers can gather important information about the nature, duration, and severity of the headache, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment planning. Temperature, history of cardiac arrhythmias, and physical deformity of the leg are not relevant to subjective information in this context.

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98. When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should...

Explanation

During a neurological exam, the pupils should constrict quickly and simultaneously. This is because the constriction of the pupils, known as pupillary constriction or miosis, is controlled by the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system regulates the size of the pupils in response to light, emotions, and other stimuli. When the pupils constrict quickly and simultaneously, it indicates a normal and coordinated response of the autonomic nervous system, suggesting that there is no abnormality or dysfunction in the neurological pathways controlling the pupillary reflex.

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99. What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

Explanation

The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total intake and output should be calculated and circled to indicate that it is the final accumulated total for that shift. This allows for easy identification and tracking of the shift change totals. No documentation is required at shift change, documenting all totals in the Remarks section or documenting in the Grand Total block are not the correct methods of annotating shift change totals on the form.

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100. When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by...

Explanation

Using good teamwork and proper body mechanics can help reduce the chance of injury to yourself when transferring patients. Good teamwork involves coordinating with others to ensure a smooth and safe transfer, while proper body mechanics involve using the correct posture, lifting techniques, and body positioning to minimize strain on your muscles and joints. By working together and using proper body mechanics, you can effectively transfer patients without putting yourself at risk of injury.

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101. If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice dyspnea, what should you do first?

Explanation

If a patient receiving a blood transfusion experiences dyspnea, it is important to stop the transfusion immediately. Dyspnea can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction or transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), both of which can be life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion allows for further assessment and appropriate intervention to be taken to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Continuing to monitor, placing the patient on their left side, or administering oxygen may be necessary, but stopping the transfusion is the first and most crucial step.

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102. Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause...

Explanation

Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movements or jolts can disrupt the blood flow to the heart, leading to a loss of oxygen and nutrients. It can also trigger abnormal heart rhythms or cause the heart to stop altogether. Therefore, it is crucial to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid rapid movements that can potentially result in cardiac arrest.

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103. The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is...

Explanation

Regression is the normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control. Regression refers to the tendency of children to revert back to earlier behaviors or stages of development during times of stress or anxiety. This can include behaviors such as bed-wetting, thumb-sucking, or seeking comfort from a caregiver. By regressing, children are able to regain a sense of security and control in their lives.

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104. The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to...

Explanation

Pinching the urinary catheter prior to removal from the bladder prevents air from entering into the bladder. This is important because the introduction of air into the bladder can cause a condition known as bladder insufflation, which can lead to discomfort, pain, and potential complications for the patient. By pinching the catheter, the healthcare professional ensures that no air enters the bladder during the removal process, promoting the patient's comfort and safety.

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105. How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?

Explanation

The correct answer is 143. To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.20462. Therefore, to convert 65 kg to pounds, you multiply 65 by 2.20462, which equals approximately 143 pounds.

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106. Which statement is PROPER procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient?

Explanation

Assessing the patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy is the proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract. This is important to monitor the patient's response to the therapy and ensure their safety. By assessing vital signs such as pulse, blood pressure, and respiratory rate, any adverse effects or complications can be identified and appropriate actions can be taken. This helps in providing effective and individualized care to the patient.

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107. Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?

Explanation

Airborne transmission-based precautions require monitoring of negative air pressure. This is because airborne diseases are transmitted through tiny particles that can remain suspended in the air for longer periods and can be inhaled by others. Negative air pressure in a room helps to prevent the spread of these infectious particles by ensuring that air flows into the room rather than escaping from it, reducing the risk of contamination to healthcare workers and other patients.

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108. What procedures are followed when transporting an infections patient to the radiology department?

Explanation

When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is important to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is necessary to prevent the spread of infection to other areas of the hospital and to protect healthcare personnel and other patients from potential exposure. By providing the patient with appropriate protective clothing, the risk of transmission can be minimized during transport.

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109. A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age...

Explanation

A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at age 24 months. This is because during the first two years of life, children experience rapid growth and development. By the age of 24 months, most toddlers have doubled their birth weight, and by four times their birth weight, they have reached a healthy and appropriate weight for their age.

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110. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a part of a work site wellness program?

Explanation

Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they are a common and effective way to monitor and assess an individual's health. Regular blood pressure screenings can help identify individuals at risk for hypertension or other cardiovascular conditions, allowing for early intervention and prevention. By including blood pressure screenings in a work site wellness program, employers can promote employee health and well-being, and potentially reduce healthcare costs associated with untreated or undiagnosed conditions.

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111. For any patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is...

Explanation

When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because they are suddenly faced with a traumatic event or a significant change in their health, which can be overwhelming and disorienting. The shock may cause them to feel numb, confused, and unable to fully comprehend the situation. This initial reaction is a natural response to a sudden and unexpected crisis, as the individual tries to process and make sense of what has happened to them.

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112. With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on...

Explanation

In the context of blood transfusions, it is important to document the procedure for record-keeping and future reference. The correct answer, a Standard Form 518, is likely the designated form used by the organization or institution to document and record blood transfusions. This form ensures accurate and consistent documentation of the transfusion process, including patient information, blood type, units transfused, and any adverse reactions or complications. Using a standardized form helps maintain a comprehensive and organized record of all transfusions, ensuring proper patient care and accountability.

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113. A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is most liekely experiencing...

Explanation

The correct answer is emergence delirium. Emergence delirium refers to a state of confusion and agitation that can occur as a side effect of anesthesia after surgery. It is characterized by restlessness, thrashing, and crying. This condition is temporary and typically resolves on its own. Extreme pain, hyperthermia, and electrolyte imbalances may also cause agitation, but emergence delirium is the most likely explanation in a post-operative patient.

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114. All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed...

Explanation

Personality refers to the unique set of characteristics, behaviors, and traits that define an individual. It encompasses a person's thoughts, emotions, and actions, and is shaped by a combination of genetic factors, environmental influences, and personal experiences. Personality is what makes each person distinct and determines how they interact with others and perceive the world around them. It is a comprehensive term that encompasses the entirety of an individual's psychological makeup, including their attitudes, values, and beliefs.

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115. What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

Explanation

The solution temperature during gastric gavage should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, such as hot or chilled, can cause discomfort or harm to the patient. Lukewarm temperature may also not be ideal as it can potentially cause burns or irritation to the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, room temperature is the most appropriate option to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient during gastric gavage.

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116. Which one of these statements is TRUE regarding subcutaneous injections?

Explanation

Subcutaneous injections involve injecting medication into the layer of tissue just beneath the skin. This route of administration allows for the administration of only small amounts of a drug compared to other routes such as intravenous or intramuscular injections. The subcutaneous tissue has a limited capacity for drug absorption, which restricts the volume that can be administered. Therefore, the statement "Only small amounts of a drug may be administered" is true regarding subcutaneous injections.

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117. Some of the symptoms associated with Type II diabetes are all of the following EXCEPT...

Explanation

Excessive weight loss is not typically associated with Type II diabetes. In fact, weight gain or difficulty losing weight is often a symptom of this condition. Polydipsia, slow healing, and vision problems are commonly observed symptoms of Type II diabetes, but not excessive weight loss.

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118. What is the MOST serious type of meningitis?

Explanation

Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis. Unlike viral meningitis, which is usually less severe and resolves on its own, bacterial meningitis can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream and infecting the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Bacterial meningitis requires immediate medical attention and treatment with antibiotics to prevent complications such as brain damage, hearing loss, or even death. Serum and pneumococcal are not types of meningitis, so they are not the most serious type.

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119. When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on…

Explanation

It is important to put on the mask before entering the isolation unit to ensure that any potential contaminants are not inhaled. The mask should be worn throughout the time spent inside the unit to provide continuous protection. It is also necessary to remove the mask before leaving the unit to prevent any potential contaminants from being carried outside. Therefore, the correct answer is to put on the mask before entering and take it off before leaving.

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120. Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of...

Explanation

Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that occur within a cell to maintain life. These reactions are controlled by enzymes, which are proteins that act as catalysts to speed up the rate of these reactions. Enzymes play a crucial role in cellular metabolism by facilitating the breakdown of molecules such as glucose and the synthesis of new molecules. Therefore, the correct answer is enzyme.

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121. Full maturation of a wound is evident when...

Explanation

Full maturation of a wound is evident when the scarring is white and glossy. This indicates that the wound has fully healed and the scar tissue has formed. The white and glossy appearance suggests that the scar tissue is well-developed and has undergone the remodeling process. This stage of healing typically occurs after the initial inflammatory response, the formation of new capillaries, and the shedding of the scab.

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122. Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?

Explanation

The electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiates in the sinoatrial node. This node, located in the right atrium of the heart, acts as the natural pacemaker. It generates electrical impulses that regulate the heart's rhythm and coordinate the contraction of the atria. These impulses then travel through specialized pathways to the atrioventricular node, which further conducts the electrical signals to the ventricles, causing them to contract and pump blood. The sinoatrial node is responsible for initiating each heartbeat and setting the pace for the entire heart.

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123. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation falls below...

Explanation

If the patient's oxygen saturation falls below 97 percent, it is important to notify the nurse or physician immediately. Oxygen saturation refers to the amount of oxygen being carried by the red blood cells and is an important indicator of how well the body is receiving oxygen. A saturation level below 97 percent may indicate that the patient is not getting enough oxygen, which can be a sign of respiratory distress or other serious medical conditions. Therefore, prompt notification of healthcare professionals is necessary to address the issue and provide appropriate interventions.

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124. Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?

Explanation

Antiembolism stockings are used to prevent blood clots in the legs, particularly in patients who are immobile or have limited mobility. These stockings exert pressure on the legs, promoting blood flow and reducing the risk of clot formation. However, it is important to periodically remove the stockings to assess the skin and allow for hygiene. Without provider approval, the maximum time the stockings should be removed is 30 minutes. This ensures that the benefits of wearing the stockings are not compromised while still allowing for necessary care and monitoring.

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125. What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products?

Explanation

The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products is 30. This means that once blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Transfusing the blood products within this time frame helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and maintain the viability of the blood components.

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126. Which of the following medications' primary action is pain relief?

Explanation

The medications that primarily act to relieve pain are analgesics. Sedatives and hypnotics, on the other hand, are primarily used to induce sleep or relaxation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics."

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127. Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of micro-organisms on living tissue?

Explanation

Antiseptics are substances used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. They are specifically designed to be used on the skin, mucous membranes, and other external surfaces of the body to prevent infection. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on inanimate objects, antiseptics are safe to use on living tissue without causing harm or irritation. They work by either killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms, helping to prevent the spread of infection and promote healing. Therefore, antiseptic is the correct answer for this question.

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128. Half-normal saline is represented by...

Explanation

Half-normal saline is a solution commonly used in medical settings that contains 0.45% sodium chloride (NaCl). It is called "half-normal" because it has half the concentration of sodium chloride compared to normal saline, which contains 0.9% NaCl. This solution is isotonic, meaning it has the same osmolarity as human blood, and is often used for fluid replacement and to maintain electrolyte balance in patients. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.45%.

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129. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for...

Explanation

After obtaining a blood sample, it is important to instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for 2 to 3 minutes. This is because applying pressure helps to prevent bleeding and promote clotting at the puncture site. Maintaining pressure for this duration allows enough time for the blood to clot and reduces the risk of hematoma formation or excessive bleeding.

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130. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the...

Explanation

A proctoscopy is a medical procedure that involves the inspection of the rectum. This procedure allows doctors to visually examine the rectal area for any abnormalities or signs of disease. It is often used to diagnose conditions such as hemorrhoids, rectal bleeding, or inflammation. By inserting a proctoscope into the rectum, doctors can obtain a clear view of the rectal lining and surrounding tissues. This examination is specific to the rectum and does not involve the inspection of other parts of the colon, such as the sigmoid, ascending, or transverse colon.

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131. Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on?

Explanation

Code 3 refers to an emergency response where emergency vehicles are required to respond with lights and sirens on. This indicates a high-priority situation that requires immediate attention and rapid response. The term "hot" is often used to describe urgent or critical situations, hence the use of "hot" in the answer choice. Code 1 and Code 2 are not associated with responding with lights and sirens on, making them incorrect choices. Code 4 is not a commonly used emergency response code, so it is also an incorrect choice.

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132. When turning a patient, what is the MOST IMPORTANT precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?

Explanation

When turning a patient, raising the far side rail is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient. This is because raising the far side rail provides a barrier that prevents the patient from rolling off the bed and ensures their safety during the turning process. It helps to maintain the patient's position and prevents any accidental falls or injuries.

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133. The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is...

Explanation

The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is one-third full. This is because waiting until the bag is completely full may cause it to leak or become too heavy, leading to discomfort and potential skin irritation. Changing the bag when it is one-third full ensures proper hygiene and prevents any complications associated with an overfilled bag.

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134. A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called...

Explanation

A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by the underlying disease, making it more susceptible to breaking. Unlike traumatic fractures, which occur due to an external force or injury, pathologic fractures are caused by the disease itself. They are often characterized by a break that occurs with minimal trauma or stress on the bone.

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135. What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in their digestive tract?

Explanation

The diet that is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in their digestive tract is a liquid diet. This type of diet consists of foods that are in a liquid or semi-liquid form, making it easier for patients to consume and digest. It helps to ensure that patients receive adequate nutrition while minimizing the risk of choking or discomfort during eating.

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136. What classification of drugs is NOT acceptable for medical use?

Explanation

Schedule I drugs are classified as substances with a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use. These drugs are considered the most dangerous and are strictly regulated. They are not accepted for medical use due to their high potential for addiction and lack of recognized medical benefits.

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137. Where are sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered?

Explanation

Sub-cutaneous injections are commonly administered in the upper arms. This area is often chosen because it has a good amount of subcutaneous fat and a large muscle mass, making it suitable for administering medications or vaccines. Additionally, the upper arms are easily accessible for self-administration or by healthcare professionals.

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138. The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mgdl) is...

Explanation

The normal fasting blood glucose level is typically between 70 to 115 mg/dl. This range indicates the amount of glucose present in the blood after an overnight fast. It is important for the body to maintain blood glucose levels within this range to ensure proper functioning of organs and cells. Levels below 70 mg/dl may indicate hypoglycemia, while levels above 115 mg/dl may indicate hyperglycemia, both of which can have negative health effects.

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139. During pulmonary function testing, the MINIMUM number of practice attempts and acceptable tracing an examinee must perform are...

Explanation

During pulmonary function testing, it is important for the examinee to perform a minimum of 2 practice attempts in order to familiarize themselves with the procedure and ensure accurate results. Additionally, an acceptable tracing must be performed at least 3 times to ensure consistency and reliability of the measurements. This ensures that any potential errors or variations are minimized, and the results obtained are accurate and reliable.

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140. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the...

Explanation

When performing an electrocardiogram on a rated individual, a copy of the electrocardiogram must be sent to the US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library. This suggests that the library is responsible for storing and maintaining electrocardiogram records for the US Air Force. It is likely that this library serves as a centralized database for electrocardiogram data, allowing for easy access and retrieval of records when needed for medical purposes or further analysis.

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141. What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

Explanation

Isolation is necessary for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant because radioisotopes emit radiation, which can be harmful to others. By isolating the patient, the risk of exposing others to radiation is minimized. This precaution ensures the safety of both the patient and the people around them.

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142. When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

Explanation

When helping a patient to ambulate, it is important to stand beside and a little behind the patient. This positioning allows for better support and stability. Placing one hand on the patient's waist helps to guide and stabilize their movements, while placing the other hand under the patient's near arm provides additional support. This positioning and hand placement ensure that the patient feels secure and balanced while walking.

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143. Opioids are contraindicated with...

Explanation

Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can mask the symptoms of a head injury and make it difficult to accurately assess the patient's condition. Opioids can also cause respiratory depression, which can be dangerous for someone with a head injury. It is important to closely monitor and evaluate head injury patients for any changes in their neurological status, and opioids can interfere with this assessment process. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid using opioids in the treatment of head injuries.

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144. Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant infection?

Explanation

Corticosteroids are used to prevent organ transplant infection because they have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. These drugs suppress the immune system, reducing the risk of rejection of the transplanted organ. By suppressing the immune response, corticosteroids also help prevent infections that could occur as a result of a weakened immune system. Therefore, corticosteroids are commonly prescribed as part of the immunosuppressive regimen in organ transplant patients to prevent infections and ensure the success of the transplant.

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145. What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

Explanation

The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is an involuntary response that helps protect the infant from potential danger. It is often referred to as the "startle reflex" and is commonly observed in newborn babies. The sudden extension and retraction of the limbs is a natural reaction to the unexpected stimulus, and it gradually diminishes as the infant grows older.

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146. Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through...

Explanation

Freezing is the correct answer because when food is frozen, the vitamin B6 concentration can decrease. Freezing can cause the breakdown of the cellular structure of food, leading to the loss of nutrients including vitamin B6. This is why it is important to consume fresh foods or properly preserve them to retain their nutrient content.

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147. When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by...

Explanation

When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body produces ketones as a byproduct. Acetone is one type of ketone that can be detected in the breath and urine. This is because acetone is volatile and can be expelled through these bodily fluids. Therefore, the presence of acetone in the breath and urine can indicate that the body is metabolizing a large amount of fats.

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148. How many test slides are i the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester (OVT)?

Explanation

The Optec 2300 Vision Tester (OVT) has seven test slides in its standard test category.

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149. For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the CORRECT sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse, and what is the CORRECT interval between readings?

Explanation

The correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse for orthostatic vital sign measurements is lying, sitting, and standing. The correct interval between readings is 3 minutes. This sequence allows for a gradual change in position, which helps to assess the body's response to changes in posture. The 3-minute interval allows for enough time to observe any significant changes in blood pressure and pulse rate that may occur when transitioning from one position to another.

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150. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Explanation

After applying a topical anesthetic to a wound, it is important to assess sensory awareness next. This involves checking if the patient can feel any pain or discomfort in the area where the anesthetic was applied. Assessing sensory awareness helps determine if the anesthetic has effectively numbed the area and if it is safe to proceed with further treatment, such as applying a sterile dressing or suturing the wound. Soaking the wound in cold water is not necessary at this stage and may not be recommended depending on the specific wound and treatment required.

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151. Who authorizes transfer of the patient care for an INTERSERVICE transfer?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both Service Chiefs." In an INTERSERVICE transfer, which involves the transfer of a patient from one service to another within a hospital, the authorization for the transfer of patient care is given by both Service Chiefs. This means that the chiefs of both the sending and receiving services need to approve and coordinate the transfer to ensure a smooth transition of care for the patient.

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152. Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals MOST EFFECTIVELY?

Explanation

Nursing interventions are actions taken by nurses to help patients achieve their goals most effectively. These interventions are specific and individualized to each patient's needs and are aimed at promoting their health and well-being. By implementing nursing interventions, nurses can provide the necessary care, support, and guidance to patients, which can greatly contribute to their overall progress and success in reaching their goals.

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153. Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as...

Explanation

Narcotics like codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have a high potential for abuse but also have acceptable medical uses. These substances are classified as Schedule II drugs. This classification indicates that they have a high potential for abuse, can lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, but may still be prescribed by a healthcare professional in certain situations.

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154. An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a...

Explanation

A liniment is a type of medication preparation that is an oily liquid used on the skin. It is typically applied by rubbing or massaging onto the affected area to relieve pain or inflammation. Liniments are commonly used for conditions such as muscle strains, arthritis, or sports injuries. They often contain ingredients like essential oils, herbal extracts, or analgesics that provide a soothing and warming effect on the skin.

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155. Which of these elements is NOT required on a medication order?

Explanation

The patient's age is not required on a medication order because the dosage and type of medication prescribed are typically based on the patient's weight, medical condition, and other factors, rather than their age. The patient's name is necessary for identification, the specified time is needed to indicate when the medication should be administered, and the provider's signature is essential for authentication purposes.

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156. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day.  Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg.  The medication is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL.  How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose?

Explanation

Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg and the doctor has ordered her to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. To calculate the dosage, we multiply the weight (65 kg) by the ordered dose (5mg/kg), which gives us 325 mg. The medication is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL, so we divide the total dosage (325 mg) by the concentration (50mg/mL) to find the volume needed. This gives us 6.5 mL, which is the amount of Ancef that will be given for each dose.

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157. Into what body cavity are otic medication administered?

Explanation

Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal, which is the passage that leads from the outer ear to the middle ear. This is where the medication can effectively reach the ear drum and treat any conditions or infections in the ear. The internal auditory canal is not the correct answer as it is a narrow canal that connects the inner ear to the brain. The conjunctival sacs are not related to the administration of otic medications, as they are part of the eye anatomy.

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158. Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of...

Explanation

Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of contaminated food or water. This means that if someone consumes food or water that is contaminated with the hepatitis A virus, they can become infected. The virus can be present in the feces of an infected person, and if proper hygiene practices are not followed, it can contaminate food or water sources. Therefore, it is important to ensure that food and water are properly handled, cooked, and consumed to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A.

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159. What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?

Explanation

The physiological need of rest includes two actions: being pain free and engaging in rest. Rest is necessary for the body to recover and recharge, and being pain free allows for a more comfortable and rejuvenating rest. Both of these actions contribute to meeting the physiological need for rest.

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160. The life span of lymphocytes is...

Explanation

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body. Unlike other blood cells, lymphocytes can live for years. This is important because it allows them to provide long-term protection against infections and diseases. Their extended lifespan also enables them to develop immunological memory, which means they can remember and respond more effectively to previously encountered pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is "years".

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161. How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?

Explanation

To send a stool specimen to the laboratory, it is recommended to collect 2 tablespoons of fecal material. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing purposes without being excessive. Collecting all of the defecated stool may not be necessary as it could lead to unnecessary handling and potential contamination.

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162. Which surgical case would likely be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic?

Explanation

An odonectomy, also known as a tooth extraction, is a minor surgical procedure that can typically be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic. This type of surgery is relatively quick and does not require an overnight hospital stay. In contrast, hip replacement, hysterectomy, and appendectomy are more complex procedures that usually require a longer recovery time and are typically performed in a hospital setting. Therefore, the most likely surgical case to be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic would be an odonectomy.

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163.  A patient's feet MUST be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent...

Explanation

When a patient is in a dangling position, their feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool to prevent pressure on the back of the legs. This is important because prolonged pressure on the back of the legs can lead to decreased blood flow and potential complications such as pressure ulcers or deep vein thrombosis. By ensuring that the patient's feet are supported, the pressure on the back of the legs is relieved, reducing the risk of these complications.

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164. A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is BEST defined as a...

Explanation

A clinical pharmacist is the best definition for a specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs. Clinical pharmacists have advanced training and expertise in medication therapy management and work directly with healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective use of medications. They can provide recommendations on drug selection, dosage adjustments, and potential drug interactions, among other things. Their role is focused on optimizing medication therapy outcomes and promoting patient safety.

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165. When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag?

Explanation

When administering a vaginal douche, the bag should be hung approximately 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. This height allows for a gentle flow of the solution into the vagina without causing discomfort or excessive pressure. Hanging the bag too low may result in a slow or incomplete administration of the douche, while hanging it too high may create a forceful flow that could be uncomfortable for the patient.

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166. Which of the following medications are used primarily for analgesic actions in the treatment of arthritis?

Explanation

Acetaminophen is used primarily for analgesic actions in the treatment of arthritis. It is a non-opioid pain reliever and fever reducer that is commonly used to alleviate pain associated with arthritis. It works by inhibiting the production of certain chemicals in the body that cause pain and inflammation. Acetaminophen is often recommended as a first-line treatment for arthritis due to its effectiveness and relatively low risk of side effects compared to other medications.

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167. When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced?

Explanation

When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, they can potentiate hypotension. This means that the combination of these medications can further lower blood pressure, leading to a greater decrease in blood pressure than if each medication was taken alone. This can be beneficial for patients with conditions such as hypertension, as it helps to further reduce their blood pressure levels. However, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely for signs of excessive hypotension when these medications are used together.

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168. Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of which of the following?

Explanation

Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate commonly cause constipation as a side effect. This is because these substances can slow down the movement of the digestive system, leading to difficulty in passing stools. Constipation is characterized by infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation.

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169. Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock and possibly death can result from...

Explanation

Abrupt withdrawal of adrenal corticosteroids can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency, shock, and possibly death. Adrenal corticosteroids are hormones produced by the adrenal glands that help regulate various bodily functions, including the response to stress. When these hormones are abruptly stopped, it can cause a sudden drop in hormone levels, leading to adrenal insufficiency. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, low blood pressure, and electrolyte imbalances. In severe cases, it can progress to shock and potentially be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to gradually taper off corticosteroid medications to avoid these complications.

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170. How many doses are given in a series of the Hepatitis B vaccine regiment?

Explanation

The Hepatitis B vaccine is given in a series of three doses. This is because the vaccine requires multiple doses to build up the necessary level of immunity in the body. The first dose is usually given at birth or shortly after, the second dose is given one to two months after the first dose, and the third dose is given four to six months after the first dose. This series of three doses ensures that the individual is adequately protected against Hepatitis B.

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171. What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

Explanation

Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages are another type of white blood cell that engulf and digest pathogens and debris. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and destroy microorganisms, helping to protect the body from infection.

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172. Isometric exercises are activities that involve...

Explanation

Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle contraction without body movement. In isometric exercises, the muscles are contracted and held in a static position, without any movement of the body or the joints. This type of exercise helps to strengthen the muscles and improve stability, without putting excessive strain on the joints. Isometric exercises are often used in rehabilitation programs and are beneficial for increasing muscle strength and endurance.

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173. Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with...

Explanation

Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with preventing the formation of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that play a key role in inflammation. They are produced in response to tissue damage or infection and contribute to the inflammatory response, causing pain, swelling, and redness. By preventing the formation of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory actions can help reduce inflammation and its associated symptoms.

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174. Antipsychotic medications are categorized as...

Explanation

Antipsychotic medications are categorized as major tranquilizers because they are primarily used to treat serious mental illnesses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These medications work by balancing certain chemicals in the brain to reduce symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. The term "major tranquilizers" reflects their ability to calm and stabilize individuals with severe psychiatric conditions.

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175. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by...

Explanation

ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by decreasing vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the action of an enzyme called angiotensin-converting enzyme, which is responsible for the production of a hormone called angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes blood vessels to constrict, so by inhibiting its production, ACE inhibitors help to relax and widen blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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176. Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with...

Explanation

Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When taken together with alcohol or salicylates, the hypoglycemic effect of insulin may be enhanced. Alcohol can lower blood sugar levels and increase the risk of hypoglycemia when combined with insulin. Salicylates, such as aspirin, can also lower blood sugar levels and may further potentiate the hypoglycemic effect of insulin. Therefore, it is important for individuals taking insulin to be cautious when consuming alcohol or using medications containing salicylates to avoid dangerously low blood sugar levels.

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177. Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

Explanation

Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is a classification of organisms that includes the parasite responsible for causing malaria. Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite, which belongs to the Sporozoa group. The parasites are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Therefore, Sporozoa is the classification of organisms responsible for the disease malaria.

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178. Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is not commonly used as a disinfecting agent because it is highly corrosive and can cause severe damage to surfaces and skin. It is primarily used in industrial settings for cleaning and etching purposes. In contrast, formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used disinfecting agents due to their effectiveness in killing bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms.

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179. Which route is injectable iron administered?

Explanation

Injectable iron is typically administered through the intramuscular route. This route involves injecting the iron into the muscle tissue, allowing for slow absorption into the bloodstream. The Z-track technique is a specific method used when administering intramuscular injections to prevent leakage of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. However, it is important to note that the Z-track technique itself is not a route of administration. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is "Intramuscular."

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180. Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by...

Explanation

Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by artificially acquired active immunity. This is because immunizations involve the administration of vaccines, which contain weakened or killed pathogens or their antigens. These antigens stimulate the immune system to produce an immune response, including the production of antibodies and memory cells. This active response results in the development of immunity against the specific pathogen, providing long-term protection.

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181. What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Explanation

Hyperkalemia, which refers to an excess of potassium in the blood, can cause dysrhythmias that can lead to cardiac or respiratory arrest. High levels of potassium can disrupt the electrical signals in the heart, resulting in abnormal heart rhythms. This can ultimately lead to a cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest if the heart is unable to pump blood effectively. Therefore, hyperkalemia is the electrolyte imbalance that can cause these dangerous complications.

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182. When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following EXCEPT shaving...

Explanation

When educating a patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, it is important to instruct them to avoid shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth, with facial skin stretched, and with slow strokes. Shaving in the direction of hair growth is actually the recommended method to minimize irritation and reduce the risk of developing PFB. This allows for a closer shave without causing the hair to curl back into the skin, which is a common cause of PFB.

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183. During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are the patient's valuables safeguarded?

Explanation

During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, the patient's valuables are safeguarded by having a designated custodian sign for the property. The custodian then forwards the items by registered mail, ensuring that they are securely transported and accounted for. This method allows for a reliable and traceable transfer process, minimizing the risk of loss or theft of the patient's valuables.

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184. The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it...

Explanation

The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the hips flexed and knees bent, which can lead to tightening of the hip flexor muscles and shortening of the hip joint structures over time. This can result in a decreased range of motion and difficulty extending the hip fully. Therefore, avoiding the semi-recumbent position is important to prevent the development or worsening of flexion deformities in the hip.

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185. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day.  Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg.  The medication of Ancef is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL.  How many milligrams of medication will be given twice a day?

Explanation

Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg and the doctor has ordered her to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Therefore, the total amount of Ancef she needs per day is 65 kg * 5 mg/kg = 325 mg. Since she needs to take this medication twice a day, the total amount of medication she will be given is 325 mg * 2 = 650 mg. However, the medication is supplied in vials of 50 mg/mL, so she will need 650 mg / 50 mg/mL = 13 mL of medication per day.

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186. Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to...

Explanation

Quinidine is a medication primarily used to maintain a normal rhythm after cardioversion. Cardioversion is a medical procedure that restores the heart's normal rhythm by delivering an electric shock. After cardioversion, there is a risk of the heart returning to an abnormal rhythm, and quinidine helps to prevent this from happening. It works by blocking certain electrical signals in the heart, which helps to regulate the heart's rhythm and prevent arrhythmias. Therefore, quinidine is used as a prophylactic therapy to maintain a normal rhythm after cardioversion.

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187. The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is...

Explanation

Thrombolytic therapy involves the administration of medications to dissolve blood clots. While this treatment can be effective in preventing or treating conditions caused by blood clots, it carries the risk of causing excessive bleeding as a side effect. This is because the medication used to dissolve the clot can also affect the body's normal blood clotting mechanisms, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, bleeding is considered the most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy.

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188. The influenza vaccine is manufactured...

Explanation

The influenza vaccine is manufactured with an inactive virus. This means that the virus used in the vaccine is no longer capable of causing illness. By using an inactive virus, the vaccine stimulates the immune system to produce an immune response without actually causing the flu. This helps to protect individuals from the flu strain for a year.

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189. Oral iron supplements should NOT be taken with...

Explanation

Oral iron supplements should not be taken with tea, milk or coffee because these beverages contain compounds that can inhibit the absorption of iron in the body. Tea contains tannins, which can bind to iron and prevent its absorption. Milk contains calcium, which can also interfere with iron absorption. Coffee contains polyphenols, which can have a similar inhibitory effect on iron absorption. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming these beverages when taking oral iron supplements to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the supplement.

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190. If a patient exhibits a MILD allergic response to an intravenous solution, what should you do?

Explanation

If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous solution, the appropriate action would be to slow down the infusion. This allows for a slower introduction of the solution into the patient's bloodstream, potentially minimizing the allergic reaction. Discontinuing the IV immediately may be too drastic of a measure for a mild allergic response. Similarly, replacing the tubing and container or sending the solution to the laboratory for analysis may not be necessary unless the allergic response worsens or there are other indications of a more severe reaction.

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191. To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the MAXIMUM amount of urine to remove during catheterization is between...

Explanation

The correct answer is 750 to 1000 cc. This range is the maximum amount of urine that should be removed during catheterization in order to prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder. Removing a larger amount of urine at once can cause the bladder to rapidly contract and potentially lead to complications such as bladder spasms or injury.

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192. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter?

Explanation

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of medications that are commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. They work by specifically blocking the reabsorption of serotonin, a chemical neurotransmitter in the brain. By preventing the reuptake of serotonin, SSRIs increase the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps to regulate mood and emotions. Therefore, the correct answer is serotonin.

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193. Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms?

Explanation

Surgical asepsis refers to practices that aim to eliminate all micro-organisms in a surgical setting. This includes the use of sterile techniques, such as wearing sterile gloves and gowns, sterilizing surgical instruments, and maintaining a sterile environment in the operating room. Surgical asepsis is crucial in preventing surgical site infections and ensuring the safety of patients undergoing surgery. It is different from medical asepsis, which focuses on reducing the number of micro-organisms and preventing their spread in non-surgical settings. Medical sepsis and surgical sepsis refer to infections caused by micro-organisms, rather than practices to eliminate them.

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194. What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?

Explanation

For a sigmoidoscopy, the patient would normally be placed in the Sims position. This position involves lying on the left side with the left arm behind the body and the right knee slightly bent. This position allows for better visualization and access to the rectum and sigmoid colon during the procedure. The Fowler position is used for sitting up at a 45-degree angle, the supine position is lying flat on the back, and the prone position is lying flat on the stomach.

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195. Verbal orders MUST be countersigned by the physician within...

Explanation

Verbal orders are instructions given by a physician to other healthcare professionals verbally, instead of in writing. These orders are considered temporary until they are documented and signed by the physician. To ensure accuracy and accountability, it is necessary for the physician to review and sign these verbal orders within a specific timeframe. In this case, the correct answer is 24 hours, which means that the physician must sign the verbal orders within 24 hours to validate them and make them permanent in the patient's medical record.

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196. Which nursing activity is the MAIN aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

Explanation

Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a comprehensive care plan based on the assessment data gathered. By planning, nurses can prioritize the identified nursing diagnoses, set goals, and determine appropriate interventions to address the patient's needs. This process ensures that the care provided is individualized, effective, and focused on resolving the nursing diagnoses identified during the assessment phase.

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197. The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to...

Explanation

The preoperative medication given to the surgery patient is to dry mucous membranes. This is important because dry mucous membranes can help reduce the risk of complications during surgery, such as bleeding or infection. Additionally, dry mucous membranes can make it easier for the medical team to perform the surgery by providing a clear and dry surgical field.

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198. Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?

Explanation

The four-point gait is a safe and stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs. In this gait pattern, the patient moves one crutch forward, followed by the opposite leg, then moves the other crutch forward, followed by the other leg. This gait provides a wider base of support and allows for more stability and weight-bearing on both legs, making it suitable for patients who have some weight-bearing ability.

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199. Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?

Explanation

Three-point gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other. In this gait pattern, the patient uses crutches or a walker and moves the affected leg forward while bearing no weight on it, followed by moving the unaffected leg forward and bearing full weight on it. This gait allows for stability and support while minimizing weight-bearing on the affected leg.

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200. Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

Explanation

The ideal position for a patient before performing oropharyngeal suctioning is semi-sitting. This position allows for better access to the patient's airway and helps prevent aspiration. In the semi-sitting position, the patient's head is elevated at a 45-degree angle, which helps to prevent the backward flow of secretions and allows for easier removal of mucus or other obstructions from the oropharynx. This position also helps to maintain the patient's airway and promote effective suctioning.

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The action assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable...
When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination...
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are...
What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal...
One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop...
Any artificial products or features which appear on an...
When cleaning a two-inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's...
In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and...
Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician...
If an inpatient chard with the doctor's orders for vital signs every 4...
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to...
What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of...
What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?
Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves...
Which of the following is NOT a type of transmission-based...
When can the minor surgery procedure being?
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what...
Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians in the fied to...
Which statement is NOT considered one of the patients' legal and...
Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of...
Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen...
In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call...
While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and...
What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of...
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform...
If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take...
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally...
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?
Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?
What method of administration delivers medication directly into a...
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications...
The body's first step in the healing process is...
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with...
When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay...
Which term allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a...
Which is NOT a determining factor for the healing time of a bone...
When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill...
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after...
Which one of these is NOT included in the "Five Rights" of medication...
Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that...
Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of...
When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or...
When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you...
While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states...
Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what...
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees...
What affects an individuals feeling about themselves?
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a...
When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most...
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be...
What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular...
Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over...
What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?
The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible...
The first stage of dying is...
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most...
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern...
Which statement is TRUE regarding how ambient temperature can affect...
Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to...
Which viral disease do mosquitos transmit?
When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop...
The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through…
Which basic human need category is rest included in?
Plasma lipids include what three substances?
During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
Orthopedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized...
The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is...
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?
A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways?
Drug administration is controlled PRIMARILY by...
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what...
To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently...
Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin...
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than...
While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise...
Which devices can be used to SLIDE a patient from the bed to a...
During the acute stage of the stroke, the primary goal is to...
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should NOT be given...
Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug...
Which statement is TRUE regarding the role of a medical service...
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
Which one of these statements is a DISADVANTAGE of inhalation...
An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is…
What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?
Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should...
What major problem affects mental health treatment?
The purpose of MOST drug therapy is to...
Why are oral medications that are taken BEFORE meals generally faster...
Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the...
What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?
Potassium helps to maintain...
In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is...
When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils...
What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD...
When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to...
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and...
Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord...
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their...
The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder...
How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?
Which statement is PROPER procedure for administering inhalations into...
Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air...
What procedures are followed when transporting an infections patient...
A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age...
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a part of a work site...
For any patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical...
With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to...
A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing violently or...
All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed...
What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?
Which one of these statements is TRUE regarding subcutaneous...
Some of the symptoms associated with Type II diabetes are all of the...
What is the MOST serious type of meningitis?
When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on…
Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of...
Full maturation of a wound is evident when...
Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?
Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen...
Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism...
What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to...
Which of the following medications' primary action is pain relief?
Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of...
Half-normal saline is represented by...
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain...
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the...
Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with...
When turning a patient, what is the MOST IMPORTANT precaution to take...
The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is...
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the...
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing...
What classification of drugs is NOT acceptable for medical use?
Where are sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered?
The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mgdl)...
During pulmonary function testing, the MINIMUM number of practice...
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a...
What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a...
When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where...
Opioids are contraindicated with...
Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant...
What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or...
Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through...
When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted...
How many test slides are i the standard test category of the Optec...
For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the CORRECT sequence...
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires...
Who authorizes transfer of the patient care for an INTERSERVICE...
Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals...
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a...
An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication...
Which of these elements is NOT required on a medication order?
Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a...
Into what body cavity are otic medication administered?
Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of...
What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?
The life span of lymphocytes is...
How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory...
Which surgical case would likely be performed in a Same Day Surgery...
 A patient's feet MUST be placed on the floor or a footstool...
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is BEST...
When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's...
Which of the following medications are used primarily for analgesic...
When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in...
Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side...
Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock and possibly death can result...
How many doses are given in a series of the Hepatitis B vaccine...
What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading...
Isometric exercises are activities that involve...
Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with...
Antipsychotic medications are categorized as...
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure...
Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly...
Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease...
Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
Which route is injectable iron administered?
Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected...
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to...
When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on...
During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how...
The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of...
Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a...
Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to...
The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is...
The influenza vaccine is manufactured...
Oral iron supplements should NOT be taken with...
If a patient exhibits a MILD allergic response to an intravenous...
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the MAXIMUM...
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the...
Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all...
What position would you normally place a patient in for a...
Verbal orders MUST be countersigned by the physician within...
Which nursing activity is the MAIN aspect of resolving nursing...
The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to...
Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear...
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one...
Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing...
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