4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz!

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| By Spencer Trilby
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Spencer Trilby
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4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz! - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When turning a patient, what is the MOST IMPORTANT precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?

    • A.

      Do not push too hard

    • B.

      Raise the far side rail

    • C.

      Raise the near side rail

    • D.

      Lock the wheels on the bed

    Correct Answer
    B. Raise the far side rail
    Explanation
    When turning a patient, raising the far side rail is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient. This is because raising the far side rail provides a barrier that prevents the patient from rolling off the bed and ensures their safety during the turning process. It helps to maintain the patient's position and prevents any accidental falls or injuries.

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  • 2. 

    When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by...

    • A.

      Locking beds and wheelchairs before the transfer

    • B.

      Using good teamwork and proper body mechanics

    • C.

      Explaining the procedure to the patient prior to the transfer

    • D.

      Knowing the patient's weight and capabilities prior to the transfer

    Correct Answer
    B. Using good teamwork and proper body mechanics
    Explanation
    Using good teamwork and proper body mechanics can help reduce the chance of injury to yourself when transferring patients. Good teamwork involves coordinating with others to ensure a smooth and safe transfer, while proper body mechanics involve using the correct posture, lifting techniques, and body positioning to minimize strain on your muscles and joints. By working together and using proper body mechanics, you can effectively transfer patients without putting yourself at risk of injury.

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  • 3. 

     A patient's feet MUST be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent...

    • A.

      The patient from falling out of bed

    • B.

      Pressure on the back of the legs

    • C.

      Pulmonary hypertension

    • D.

      Embolism

    Correct Answer
    B. Pressure on the back of the legs
    Explanation
    When a patient is in a dangling position, their feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool to prevent pressure on the back of the legs. This is important because prolonged pressure on the back of the legs can lead to decreased blood flow and potential complications such as pressure ulcers or deep vein thrombosis. By ensuring that the patient's feet are supported, the pressure on the back of the legs is relieved, reducing the risk of these complications.

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  • 4. 

    Which devices can be used to SLIDE a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

    • A.

      Drawsheet and trapeze

    • B.

      Drawsheet and roller board

    • C.

      Drawsheet and patient hoist

    • D.

      Roller board and patient hoist

    Correct Answer
    B. Drawsheet and roller board
    Explanation
    A drawsheet is a flat sheet that is placed under the patient's body to help with repositioning and transferring. A roller board is a device with wheels that can be placed next to the bed, allowing the patient to be easily slid onto it. By using a drawsheet and a roller board together, the patient can be smoothly and safely transferred from the bed to a stretcher. The other options listed do not include the necessary combination of devices for sliding a patient from a bed to a stretcher.

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  • 5. 

    When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

    • A.

      Beside the patient with your near arm interlocked with the patient's near arm

    • B.

      Beside the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under his or her near arm

    • C.

      Beside and a little behind the patient with your near arm interlocked with the patient's near arm

    • D.

      Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm

    Correct Answer
    D. Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm
    Explanation
    When helping a patient to ambulate, it is important to stand beside and a little behind the patient. This positioning allows for better support and stability. Placing one hand on the patient's waist helps to guide and stabilize their movements, while placing the other hand under the patient's near arm provides additional support. This positioning and hand placement ensure that the patient feels secure and balanced while walking.

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  • 6. 

    Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?

    • A.

      Two-point

    • B.

      Three-point

    • C.

      Four-point

    • D.

      Swing-through

    Correct Answer
    C. Four-point
    Explanation
    The four-point gait is a safe and stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs. In this gait pattern, the patient moves one crutch forward, followed by the opposite leg, then moves the other crutch forward, followed by the other leg. This gait provides a wider base of support and allows for more stability and weight-bearing on both legs, making it suitable for patients who have some weight-bearing ability.

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  • 7. 

    Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?

    • A.

      Two-point

    • B.

      Three-point

    • C.

      Four-point

    • D.

      Swing-through

    Correct Answer
    B. Three-point
    Explanation
    Three-point gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other. In this gait pattern, the patient uses crutches or a walker and moves the affected leg forward while bearing no weight on it, followed by moving the unaffected leg forward and bearing full weight on it. This gait allows for stability and support while minimizing weight-bearing on the affected leg.

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  • 8. 

    Isometric exercises are activities that involve...

    • A.

      Muscle relaxation without body movement

    • B.

      Muscle relaxation without any body movement

    • C.

      Muscle contraction without body movement

    • D.

      Muscle contraction with body movement

    Correct Answer
    C. Muscle contraction without body movement
    Explanation
    Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle contraction without body movement. In isometric exercises, the muscles are contracted and held in a static position, without any movement of the body or the joints. This type of exercise helps to strengthen the muscles and improve stability, without putting excessive strain on the joints. Isometric exercises are often used in rehabilitation programs and are beneficial for increasing muscle strength and endurance.

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  • 9. 

    The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is...

    • A.

      One-third full

    • B.

      One-half full

    • C.

      Three-fourths full

    • D.

      Full

    Correct Answer
    A. One-third full
    Explanation
    The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is one-third full. This is because waiting until the bag is completely full may cause it to leak or become too heavy, leading to discomfort and potential skin irritation. Changing the bag when it is one-third full ensures proper hygiene and prevents any complications associated with an overfilled bag.

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  • 10. 

    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called...

    • A.

      Hairline

    • B.

      Pathologic

    • C.

      Congenital

    • D.

      Traumatic

    Correct Answer
    B. Pathologic
    Explanation
    A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by the underlying disease, making it more susceptible to breaking. Unlike traumatic fractures, which occur due to an external force or injury, pathologic fractures are caused by the disease itself. They are often characterized by a break that occurs with minimal trauma or stress on the bone.

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  • 11. 

    Orthopedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as...

    • A.

      Infectious

    • B.

      Congenital

    • C.

      Pathologic

    • D.

      Temporary

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital
    Explanation
    Orthopedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that these deformities are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of bones, joints, or muscles during fetal development. These deformities are not caused by infection or disease, nor are they temporary conditions.

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  • 12. 

    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems?

    • A.

      Inflammatory disease

    • B.

      Congenital problems

    • C.

      Traumatic injuries

    • D.

      Infectious disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Traumatic injuries
    Explanation
    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and combat scenarios that can result in various types of injuries, such as fractures, dislocations, sprains, and strains. These traumatic injuries may occur due to explosions, falls, direct impact, or other forms of physical trauma. The nature of their work and the demanding physical activities involved make military personnel more susceptible to orthopedic problems caused by traumatic injuries.

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  • 13. 

    The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it...

    • A.

      Causes drop foot

    • B.

      Causes venous stasis

    • C.

      Causes external hip rotation

    • D.

      Promotes flexion deformities of the hip

    Correct Answer
    D. Promotes flexion deformities of the hip
    Explanation
    The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the hips flexed and knees bent, which can lead to tightening of the hip flexor muscles and shortening of the hip joint structures over time. This can result in a decreased range of motion and difficulty extending the hip fully. Therefore, avoiding the semi-recumbent position is important to prevent the development or worsening of flexion deformities in the hip.

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  • 14. 

    What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching?

    • A.

      Muscular pain

    • B.

      Bone infection

    • C.

      Malignant tumor

    • D.

      Psychosomatic issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscular pain
    Explanation
    If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem would be muscular pain. Muscular pain can occur due to overuse, strain, or injury to the muscles. It is a common symptom and can be caused by various factors such as muscle tension, muscle imbalances, or inflammation. Unlike bone infection or malignant tumor, which would have specific symptoms and require further investigation, muscular pain is a common and relatively less serious orthopedic issue that can often be managed with rest, ice, pain medications, and physical therapy. Psychosomatic issues may also cause soreness or aching, but they are not specifically orthopedic problems.

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  • 15. 

    Which is NOT a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

    • A.

      Age

    • B.

      Gender

    • C.

      Extent of injury

    • D.

      Circulation to the area

    Correct Answer
    B. Gender
    Explanation
    The healing time of a bone fracture is influenced by various factors, including age, extent of injury, and circulation to the area. However, gender is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture. Both males and females have similar healing processes, and gender does not play a significant role in bone healing.

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  • 16. 

    The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a...

    • A.

      Phantom limb pain

    • B.

      Phantom limb sensation

    • C.

      Physiological phenomena

    • D.

      Psychological phenomena

    Correct Answer
    A. Phantom limb pain
    Explanation
    Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain that is experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present but is perceived by the individual. It is a well-documented and recognized phenomenon that occurs due to the brain's inability to adjust to the absence of the limb. It is different from phantom limb sensation, which refers to the feeling of the presence of the missing limb. While phantom limb pain is a physiological phenomenon, it also has psychological aspects as it is influenced by the brain's perception and interpretation of signals.

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  • 17. 

    The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally...

    • A.

      Less because of frequent daytime naps

    • B.

      More because of insufficient activity

    • C.

      The same as required by all ages

    • D.

      More than for youthful patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Less because of frequent daytime naps
    Explanation
    Elderly patients generally require less sleep at night because they tend to take frequent daytime naps. These naps compensate for any sleep deficits and reduce the overall amount of sleep needed during the night. As people age, their sleep patterns often change, and they may experience difficulty staying asleep through the night or have shorter periods of deep sleep. Therefore, relying on daytime naps helps them meet their sleep needs while still allowing for restful nights.

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  • 18. 

    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

    • A.

      Explain the importance of nutrition

    • B.

      Ask the patient to try new foods

    • C.

      Cater to the patients customs

    • D.

      Bring a tray full of choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Cater to the patients customs
    Explanation
    Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By accommodating their customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and satisfied with their meal, which can enhance their appetite. Additionally, familiarity with the food can also trigger positive memories and associations, further stimulating their desire to eat.

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  • 19. 

    The first stage of dying is...

    • A.

      Bargaining

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Anger

    • D.

      Denial

    Correct Answer
    D. Denial
    Explanation
    The first stage of dying is denial. This is when a person refuses to accept or believe that they are dying or that a loved one is dying. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with the overwhelming reality of death. During this stage, individuals may exhibit behaviors such as disbelief, avoidance, or seeking second opinions. It is a normal and common reaction to the news of impending death.

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  • 20. 

    What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues?

    • A.

      Infiltration

    • B.

      Embolism

    • C.

      Phlebitis

    • D.

      Extravasation

    Correct Answer
    D. Extravasation
    Explanation
    Extravasation is the correct answer as it refers to the leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissues. This can cause serious side effects such as tissue damage, pain, inflammation, and even necrosis. It is important to detect and manage extravasation promptly to minimize the potential harm to the patient.

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  • 21. 

    All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed...

    • A.

      Environment

    • B.

      Personality

    • C.

      Character

    • D.

      Heredity

    Correct Answer
    B. Personality
    Explanation
    Personality refers to the unique set of characteristics, behaviors, and traits that define an individual. It encompasses a person's thoughts, emotions, and actions, and is shaped by a combination of genetic factors, environmental influences, and personal experiences. Personality is what makes each person distinct and determines how they interact with others and perceive the world around them. It is a comprehensive term that encompasses the entirety of an individual's psychological makeup, including their attitudes, values, and beliefs.

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  • 22. 

    What affects an individuals feeling about themselves?

    • A.

      Socioeconomic status

    • B.

      Opinions of others

    • C.

      Self perception

    • D.

      Job title

    Correct Answer
    C. Self perception
    Explanation
    An individual's feeling about themselves is influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how a person views and evaluates themselves, including their beliefs, attitudes, and thoughts about their own abilities, worth, and identity. It plays a significant role in shaping a person's self-esteem, self-confidence, and overall self-image. Self-perception can be influenced by various factors such as personal experiences, achievements, failures, and personal values. It is an internal process that is subjective and can differ from person to person.

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  • 23. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

    • A.

      Compulsion

    • B.

      Delusion

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion
    Explanation
    Compulsion is the correct answer because it refers to an irresistible urge to perform seemingly purposeless actions. In psychiatry, it is a symptom commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental acts, such as excessive handwashing or checking, despite knowing that these actions are unnecessary. These compulsions are often driven by the need to reduce anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. Therefore, compulsion accurately describes the phenomenon described in the question.

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  • 24. 

    Which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality?

    • A.

      Phobia

    • B.

      Neuroses

    • C.

      Delusion

    • D.

      Psychoses

    Correct Answer
    B. Neuroses
    Explanation
    Neuroses is the correct answer because it refers to a psychiatric term that describes functional disorders where there is no gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality. Neuroses are characterized by excessive anxiety, irrational fears, obsessive-compulsive behaviors, and other maladaptive patterns of thinking and behavior. This term is used to differentiate these disorders from psychoses, which involve a more severe disorganization of personality and a loss of contact with reality. Phobia refers to a specific irrational fear, delusion refers to a fixed false belief, and psychoses encompass a range of severe mental disorders.

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  • 25. 

    If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?

    • A.

      Supine

    • B.

      Prone

    • C.

      Semi-recumbent

    • D.

      High Fowler's

    Correct Answer
    B. Prone
    Explanation
    For a patient recovering from alcohol intoxication and experiencing extreme agitation, the correct position would be prone. Placing the patient in the prone position helps to prevent them from injuring themselves or others, as it restricts their movement and reduces the risk of falls or violent outbursts. Additionally, being in the prone position may help to calm the patient by providing a sense of security and reducing sensory stimulation.

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  • 26. 

    What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?

    • A.

      Counseling is sought

    • B.

      Tension and stress build

    • C.

      Physical or verbal abuse occurs

    • D.

      Spouse states it will never happen again

    Correct Answer
    D. Spouse states it will never happen again
    Explanation
    In the third phase of spousal abuse, the abuser typically apologizes and promises that the abuse will never happen again. This is a common pattern in abusive relationships known as the "honeymoon phase" or the "remorse/regret phase." The abuser may try to manipulate the victim into believing that they have changed or that the abuse was a one-time occurrence. However, it is important to note that this phase is often temporary, and the cycle of abuse is likely to continue unless effective intervention and support are provided.

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  • 27. 

    A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of...

    • A.

      Withdrawal

    • B.

      Suspicion

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Anger

    Correct Answer
    A. Withdrawal
    Explanation
    The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt lead to a behavior of withdrawal. This means that they may isolate themselves, avoid social interactions, and distance themselves from others. They may feel the need to protect themselves from further emotional harm by withdrawing from relationships and situations that may trigger their negative emotions.

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  • 28. 

    How are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories?

    • A.

      Severity of behavior or shared characteristics

    • B.

      Shared characteristics or established criteria

    • C.

      Severity of behavior and patient's age

    • D.

      Established criteria and patient's age

    Correct Answer
    B. Shared characteristics or established criteria
    Explanation
    Behavior disorders and syndromes are grouped into categories based on shared characteristics or established criteria. This means that individuals with similar behaviors or symptoms are grouped together, or they are categorized based on specific criteria that have been established by professionals in the field. This allows for a more organized and systematic approach to understanding and diagnosing behavior disorders and syndromes, as well as providing appropriate interventions and treatments.

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  • 29. 

    When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

    • A.

      During preadmission

    • B.

      Within 12 hours of admission

    • C.

      Within 24 hours of admission

    • D.

      As soon as the patient is admitted

    Correct Answer
    D. As soon as the patient is admitted
    Explanation
    The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the successful treatment of mentally ill patients. By starting rehabilitation immediately, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's condition, develop a personalized treatment plan, and initiate therapeutic interventions to promote recovery. Delaying the start of rehabilitation may result in a worsening of symptoms and hinder the patient's progress towards mental wellness. Therefore, starting the rehabilitation process as soon as the patient is admitted maximizes the chances of a positive outcome.

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  • 30. 

    What major problem affects mental health treatment?

    • A.

      Attitude of society

    • B.

      Cost of medical care

    • C.

      Lack of adequate medication

    • D.

      Limited number of appointments

    Correct Answer
    A. Attitude of society
    Explanation
    The major problem that affects mental health treatment is the attitude of society. This refers to the stigma and discrimination that individuals with mental health issues face, which can prevent them from seeking help or receiving appropriate treatment. Society's negative attitudes and misconceptions about mental health can contribute to feelings of shame and isolation, making it harder for individuals to access the care they need. This problem highlights the importance of raising awareness, promoting acceptance, and creating a supportive environment for those struggling with mental health.

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  • 31. 

    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is...

    • A.

      Behavior

    • B.

      Appearance

    • C.

      Conversation

    • D.

      Sleeping habits

    Correct Answer
    A. Behavior
    Explanation
    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, behavior is the most important factor to consider. This is because behavior provides valuable insight into the patient's mental state, their emotions, and any potential changes or abnormalities in their condition. By closely observing their behavior, such as their actions, gestures, and reactions, healthcare professionals can gather crucial information that can aid in diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring the progress of the patient. Appearance, conversation, and sleeping habits are also important factors to consider, but behavior takes precedence as it directly reflects the patient's mental well-being.

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  • 32. 

    If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions EXCEPT...

    • A.

      Telephone for help

    • B.

      Try to describe the patient, including the patient's clothing

    • C.

      Note the direction in which the patient is heading

    • D.

      Leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient

    Correct Answer
    D. Leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient
    Explanation
    In the given scenario, leaving the other patients to follow the escaping patient is not an appropriate action to take. The safety and well-being of all patients should be a priority, and leaving them unattended can put them at risk. Instead, it is important to take other actions such as telephoning for help, describing the patient and their clothing to aid in identification, and noting the direction in which the patient is heading. These actions can help ensure the patient's safe return and prevent any potential harm or danger.

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  • 33. 

    Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?

    • A.

      Child

    • B.

      Abuser

    • C.

      Parents

    • D.

      Society

    Correct Answer
    B. Abuser
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Abuser." In cases of sexual abuse of a child, the responsibility lies solely with the abuser. They are the ones who have committed the harmful act and violated the child's rights. While other factors such as the child's environment or societal influences may contribute to the occurrence of abuse, ultimately, it is the abuser who is at fault for their actions. It is important to hold the abuser accountable and take measures to protect children from such harm.

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  • 34. 

    What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?

    • A.

      Report the suspected abuse

    • B.

      Only report if the parents admit abuse

    • C.

      Counsel the parent on his or her actions

    • D.

      Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Report the suspected abuse
    Explanation
    If a child that you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. This is because the safety and well-being of the child should be the top priority, and reporting the suspected abuse can help ensure that the child receives the necessary protection and support. It is not sufficient to only report if the parents admit abuse, as abuse may be denied or concealed. Counseling the parent on their actions may not be enough to address the immediate safety concerns of the child. The technician has a responsibility to report suspected abuse, as it is a matter of child protection.

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  • 35. 

    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

    • A.

      Suction

    • B.

      Oxygen

    • C.

      NG tube

    • D.

      Tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    D. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. This is because a tourniquet is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the blood vessels. It helps to prevent excessive bleeding and can be quickly applied in case of an emergency. Suction may be needed to remove any excess fluids or blood, oxygen may be required for respiratory support, and an NG tube may be used for feeding, but these are not specifically essential for managing bleeding after an amputation.

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  • 36. 

    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally...

    • A.

      A life-long process

    • B.

      Of no use because they do not fully recover

    • C.

      Continued for 6 months after the injury occurred

    • D.

      Continued for up to 2 years after the final surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A life-long process
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life-long process because these injuries often result in permanent damage to the spinal cord, leading to long-term functional impairments. While patients may not fully recover their pre-injury abilities, rehabilitation aims to maximize their independence and quality of life by improving muscle strength, mobility, and daily living skills. The ongoing nature of the rehabilitation process ensures that patients receive the necessary support and interventions to adapt to their new circumstances and maintain their physical and psychological well-being throughout their lives.

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  • 37. 

    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause...

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Cardiac arrest

    • C.

      Disorientation

    • D.

      Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    B. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movements or jolts can disrupt the blood flow to the heart, leading to a loss of oxygen and nutrients. It can also trigger abnormal heart rhythms or cause the heart to stop altogether. Therefore, it is crucial to handle patients with spinal cord injuries carefully and avoid rapid movements that can potentially result in cardiac arrest.

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  • 38. 

    During the acute stage of the stroke, the primary goal is to...

    • A.

      Sustain life

    • B.

      Stop ischemia

    • C.

      Maintain mobility

    • D.

      Monitor vital signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustain life
    Explanation
    During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to sustain life. This means ensuring the patient's vital functions are stable and supported, such as maintaining a clear airway, providing oxygen if necessary, monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate, and addressing any immediate life-threatening complications. Sustaining life takes precedence over other goals such as stopping ischemia or maintaining mobility, as the immediate focus is on stabilizing the patient's condition and preventing further deterioration.

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  • 39. 

    During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

    • A.

      Early infancy

    • B.

      Preschool

    • C.

      School age

    • D.

      Adolescence

    Correct Answer
    B. Preschool
    Explanation
    During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety the most. This is because they are becoming more independent and are beginning to explore the world around them, but still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for support and security. The fear of being separated from their caregivers can cause significant distress and anxiety during this stage.

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  • 40. 

    Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?

    • A.

      Strictly enforced rules

    • B.

      Use of safety restraints

    • C.

      Changes in daily routine

    • D.

      Established daily rituals and routines

    Correct Answer
    D. Established daily rituals and routines
    Explanation
    Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control because they create a predictable and familiar environment. When a child knows what to expect each day, it can help them feel more secure and in control of their surroundings. This can be particularly important in a hospital setting where there may be many unfamiliar and potentially stressful experiences. Having established rituals and routines can provide a sense of stability and normalcy, which can be comforting for a hospitalized child.

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  • 41. 

    The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is...

    • A.

      Fantasy

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Regression

    • D.

      Displacement

    Correct Answer
    C. Regression
    Explanation
    Regression is the normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control. Regression refers to the tendency of children to revert back to earlier behaviors or stages of development during times of stress or anxiety. This can include behaviors such as bed-wetting, thumb-sucking, or seeking comfort from a caregiver. By regressing, children are able to regain a sense of security and control in their lives.

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  • 42. 

    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be...

    • A.

      Hypernatremia

    • B.

      Hyperkalemia

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    C. Dehydration
    Explanation
    When a child is experiencing nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, and if not properly managed, it can result in dehydration. Dehydration can further worsen the child's condition and may lead to other complications. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and address the child's fluid intake to prevent dehydration and maintain their overall well-being.

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  • 43. 

    Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?

    • A.

      The physician needs to suture the child's face.

    • B.

      The child continues to climb out of bed in the night.

    • C.

      To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair

    • D.

      You have other tasks to do and no time to sit with the child.

    Correct Answer
    D. You have other tasks to do and no time to sit with the child.
    Explanation
    Restraining a child should never be based on the caregiver's lack of time or other tasks to do. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. The other reasons mentioned - the need for medical intervention, preventing the child from climbing out of bed, and preventing falls from a highchair - are all appropriate and necessary for the child's safety and health.

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  • 44. 

    Care MUST be taken to ensure patients do NOT hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as that may cause...

    • A.

      Muscle strain

    • B.

      Heart attack

    • C.

      Dizziness

    • D.

      Acidosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Heart attack
    Explanation
    Holding one's breath during isometric exercises can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, leading to a higher workload on the heart. This increased workload can potentially trigger a heart attack, especially in individuals with pre-existing heart conditions or high blood pressure. It is important for patients to breathe regularly during exercise to maintain proper oxygenation and prevent any unnecessary strain on the cardiovascular system.

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  • 45. 

    What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in their digestive tract?

    • A.

      Soft

    • B.

      Bland

    • C.

      Liquid

    • D.

      Regular

    Correct Answer
    C. Liquid
    Explanation
    The diet that is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in their digestive tract is a liquid diet. This type of diet consists of foods that are in a liquid or semi-liquid form, making it easier for patients to consume and digest. It helps to ensure that patients receive adequate nutrition while minimizing the risk of choking or discomfort during eating.

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  • 46. 

    The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should NOT be given for more than 3 days is the...

    • A.

      Soft diet

    • B.

      Full liquid

    • C.

      Clear liquid

    • D.

      Mineral-restricted

    Correct Answer
    C. Clear liquid
    Explanation
    A clear liquid diet is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days. This type of diet consists of clear fluids such as water, broth, and gelatin, which do not provide sufficient essential nutrients like proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. It is typically prescribed for short periods, such as before certain medical procedures or surgeries, to provide hydration and rest to the digestive system. However, it is not nutritionally balanced and should not be followed for an extended period as it may lead to malnutrition and other health issues.

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  • 47. 

    What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

    • A.

      Hot

    • B.

      Chilled

    • C.

      Lukewarm

    • D.

      Room temperature

    Correct Answer
    D. Room temperature
    Explanation
    The solution temperature during gastric gavage should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, such as hot or chilled, can cause discomfort or harm to the patient. Lukewarm temperature may also not be ideal as it can potentially cause burns or irritation to the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, room temperature is the most appropriate option to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient during gastric gavage.

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  • 48. 

    To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the MAXIMUM amount of urine to remove during catheterization is between...

    • A.

      550 to 800 cc

    • B.

      650 to 900 cc

    • C.

      750 to 1000 cc

    • D.

      850 to 1100 cc

    Correct Answer
    C. 750 to 1000 cc
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 750 to 1000 cc. This range is the maximum amount of urine that should be removed during catheterization in order to prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder. Removing a larger amount of urine at once can cause the bladder to rapidly contract and potentially lead to complications such as bladder spasms or injury.

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  • 49. 

    During catheterization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder?

    • A.

      2 to 3

    • B.

      3 to 4

    • C.

      4 to 5

    • D.

      5 to 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 3
    Explanation
    During catheterization of a female patient, the catheter is inserted approximately 2 to 3 inches into the urinary bladder for proper placement. This is the standard depth for catheter insertion in order to ensure that the catheter reaches the bladder and allows for effective drainage of urine.

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  • 50. 

    The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to...

    • A.

      Prevent the risk of contamination of the catheter tip

    • B.

      Prevent dripping of urine on the bed linen

    • C.

      Eliminate any possible pain to the patient

    • D.

      Prevent air from entering into the bladder

    Correct Answer
    D. Prevent air from entering into the bladder
    Explanation
    Pinching the urinary catheter prior to removal from the bladder prevents air from entering into the bladder. This is important because the introduction of air into the bladder can cause a condition known as bladder insufflation, which can lead to discomfort, pain, and potential complications for the patient. By pinching the catheter, the healthcare professional ensures that no air enters the bladder during the removal process, promoting the patient's comfort and safety.

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