4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz!

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  • 1/266 Questions

    What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?

    • Report the suspected abuse
    • Only report if the parents admit abuse
    • Counsel the parent on his or her actions
    • Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse
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About This Quiz

Engage with the 4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz to enhance skills in patient care techniques. Master precautions in patient movement, transfer methods, and ambulation support, crucial for healthcare professionals in aerospace services.

4N051 CDC Set B: Aerospace Medical Service Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The action assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician is called...

    • Expanded primary survey

    • Secondary survey

    • Trauma history

    • Scene sizeup

    Correct Answer
    A. Scene sizeup
    Explanation
    Scene sizeup refers to the action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician. This involves evaluating the safety of the scene, determining the number of patients, identifying potential hazards, and gathering information that can help in providing appropriate medical care. It is an important step in emergency medical response as it helps in prioritizing and planning the necessary actions to be taken.

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  • 3. 

    When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes?

    • Onset Provoke Quality Radiation Severity and Time (OPQRST)

    • Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA)

    • Evaluating extraocular movements (EOM)

    • Range-of-motion (ROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA)
    Explanation
    The examination that would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes is Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERRLA). This examination checks the size, shape, and reactivity of the patient's pupils when exposed to light. It also assesses the accommodation reflex, which is the ability of the pupils to constrict when focusing on a near object. A normal response would be equal, round pupils that constrict when exposed to light and dilate when focusing on a near object.

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  • 4. 

    Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?

    • Child

    • Abuser

    • Parents

    • Society

    Correct Answer
    A. Abuser
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Abuser." In cases of sexual abuse of a child, the responsibility lies solely with the abuser. They are the ones who have committed the harmful act and violated the child's rights. While other factors such as the child's environment or societal influences may contribute to the occurrence of abuse, ultimately, it is the abuser who is at fault for their actions. It is important to hold the abuser accountable and take measures to protect children from such harm.

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  • 5. 

    What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis?

    • Antineoplastics

    • Antihistimines

    • Antifungals

    • Antivirals

    Correct Answer
    A. Antihistimines
    Explanation
    Patients with seasonal allergies typically experience symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and a runny nose due to an overactive immune response to allergens like pollen or mold. Antihistamines are medications commonly used to treat these symptoms by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released during an allergic reaction. Therefore, it is expected that a patient with seasonal allergies would take antihistamines on a regular basis to manage their symptoms.

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  • 6. 

    One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is...

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • Irregular menstrual cycles

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various complications in females. One of the most common and serious complications is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix to the upper reproductive organs, such as the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It can cause severe pain, inflammation, and damage to these organs, leading to infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea.

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  • 7. 

    Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called...

    • Artifacts

    • Disturbances

    • Random waves

    • Deflection waves

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts
    Explanation
    Artifacts are any artificial products or features that appear on an electrocardiogram tracing. These can include interference from external sources, such as electrical equipment or movement of the patient, as well as internal factors like muscle activity or poor electrode placement. These artifacts can distort the ECG waveform and make it difficult to accurately interpret the results.

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  • 8. 

    When cleaning a two-inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound.  What would be the next step?

    • Begin suturing

    • Flush the wound

    • Dig out the debris with an allis clamp

    • Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Flush the wound
    Explanation
    The next step would be to flush the wound. This is important to remove any foreign material or debris that may be present in the wound. Flushing the wound helps to clean it and reduce the risk of infection. It is a standard procedure in wound care to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

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  • 9. 

    In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Bimonthly

    • Monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Emergency equipment and supplies in a crash ambulance need to be regularly checked to ensure they are in proper working condition and ready for immediate use in case of an emergency. Checking them on a daily basis allows for any issues or deficiencies to be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of failure during critical situations. This frequent monitoring ensures that the ambulance is always prepared to provide the necessary assistance and support during emergencies.

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  • 10. 

    Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

    • Evaluate patient

    • Obtain patient's history

    • Transcribe doctor's orders

    • Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight
    Explanation
    The responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining the appropriate care and treatment plan. The medical technician would use specialized equipment to measure the patient's vital signs such as blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature. Additionally, obtaining the patient's height and weight helps in monitoring their nutritional status and determining the correct medication dosages.

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  • 11. 

    If an inpatient chard with the doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the...

    • Patient was likely off the unit having test completed

    • The patient is doing well and no problems were noted

    • Doctor probably changed the orders verbally

    • Vital signs were not completed

    Correct Answer
    A. Vital signs were not completed
    Explanation
    If an inpatient chart with the doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the healthcare provider being busy or forgetting to perform the vital signs. It is important to ensure that vital signs are regularly monitored as they provide crucial information about the patient's health status and any changes that may require immediate attention.

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  • 12. 

    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

    • Sedation

    • Back massage

    • Oxygen therapy

    • Preoperative teaching

    Correct Answer
    A. Preoperative teaching
    Explanation
    Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, it helps to reduce anxiety and increase the patient's understanding and confidence. This not only helps to alleviate their concerns but also improves their overall experience and outcomes of the surgery. Sedation, back massage, and oxygen therapy may have their own benefits but may not directly address the patient's concerns prior to surgery.

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  • 13. 

    What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

    • Credentials of the surgeon

    • Availability of a smoking lounge

    • Professionalism and caring attitude

    • Number of nurses and technicians on staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Professionalism and caring attitude
    Explanation
    The professionalism and caring attitude of healthcare providers have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When healthcare professionals demonstrate professionalism by being knowledgeable, skilled, and competent, it instills confidence in the patient and reassures them that they are receiving high-quality care. Additionally, a caring attitude, which includes empathy, compassion, and respect, helps to create a positive patient-provider relationship and enhances the overall patient experience. Both professionalism and a caring attitude contribute to the patient's perception of the quality of care and treatment they receive.

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  • 14. 

    What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?

    • Platelets

    • Leukocytes

    • Packed cells

    • Anticoagulants

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelets
    Explanation
    Platelets are involved in the clotting process. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets are activated and form a plug at the site of injury to stop bleeding. They release chemicals that attract more platelets and help in the formation of a clot. Platelets also interact with other clotting factors in the blood to form a stable clot that seals the wound. Therefore, platelets play a crucial role in the clotting process.

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  • 15. 

    Which statement is NOT considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights?

    • Be informed of a drug's name.

    • Be informed of a drug's purpose.

    • Choose the method of administration.

    • Receive clearly labeled medication containers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Choose the method of administration.
    Explanation
    The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed of a drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by healthcare professionals based on the patient's condition and best medical practices.

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  • 16. 

    The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is...

    • Intravenous (IV) push

    • Intramuscular (IM)

    • Subcutaneous (sc)

    • IV drip

    Correct Answer
    A. Intramuscular (IM)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is intramuscular (IM) because this method involves injecting a drug into a muscle. This route is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, allowing for a slower absorption rate compared to intravenous administration.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is NOT a type of transmission-based precaution?

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Enteric

    Correct Answer
    A. Enteric
    Explanation
    Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are measures taken to prevent the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. The three types of transmission-based precautions are airborne, droplet, and contact. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that can be spread through tiny respiratory droplets that remain suspended in the air. Droplet precautions are used for diseases that can be spread through larger respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases that can be spread through direct or indirect contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions, on the other hand, refer to measures taken specifically for diseases that affect the gastrointestinal system.

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  • 18. 

    When can the minor surgery procedure being?

    • When the provider says its time

    • After the consent form is signed

    • Once a set of vital signs are repeated

    • Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

    Correct Answer
    A. After the consent form is signed
    Explanation
    The minor surgery procedure can only begin after the consent form is signed. This is because obtaining informed consent is a crucial step in any medical procedure, including minor surgeries. The consent form ensures that the patient has been fully informed about the procedure, its risks and benefits, and has given their voluntary agreement to proceed. It also protects the healthcare provider from potential legal issues. Therefore, it is necessary for the consent form to be signed before starting the procedure.

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  • 19. 

    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

    • Age

    • Name

    • Chief complaint

    • Medications and allergies

    Correct Answer
    A. Name
    Explanation
    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, the name should not be broadcast. This is because broadcasting the patient's name can potentially violate their privacy and confidentiality. Sharing personal identifying information, such as a patient's name, without their consent can lead to unauthorized access to their medical records or compromise their privacy. It is important to prioritize patient confidentiality and only share necessary medical information while omitting personal identifiers.

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  • 20. 

    Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians in the fied to describe a possible fracture?

    • Range of motion (ROM)

    • Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

    • Purified protein derivative (PPD)

    • Alert verbal painful unresponsive (AVPU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
    Explanation
    Emergency medical technicians use the acronym "Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)" to describe a possible fracture. This acronym helps them quickly communicate the key symptoms of a fracture, which include pain, swelling, and deformity in the affected area. By using this acronym, they can efficiently convey this information to other medical professionals and expedite the appropriate treatment for the patient.

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  • 21. 

    What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching?

    • Muscular pain

    • Bone infection

    • Malignant tumor

    • Psychosomatic issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscular pain
    Explanation
    If a patient complains of soreness or aching, the most likely orthopedic problem would be muscular pain. Muscular pain can occur due to overuse, strain, or injury to the muscles. It is a common symptom and can be caused by various factors such as muscle tension, muscle imbalances, or inflammation. Unlike bone infection or malignant tumor, which would have specific symptoms and require further investigation, muscular pain is a common and relatively less serious orthopedic issue that can often be managed with rest, ice, pain medications, and physical therapy. Psychosomatic issues may also cause soreness or aching, but they are not specifically orthopedic problems.

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  • 22. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

    • Compulsion

    • Delusion

    • Anxiety

    • Conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion
    Explanation
    Compulsion is the correct answer because it refers to an irresistible urge to perform seemingly purposeless actions. In psychiatry, it is a symptom commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD feel compelled to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental acts, such as excessive handwashing or checking, despite knowing that these actions are unnecessary. These compulsions are often driven by the need to reduce anxiety or prevent a feared outcome. Therefore, compulsion accurately describes the phenomenon described in the question.

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  • 23. 

    If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions EXCEPT...

    • Telephone for help

    • Try to describe the patient, including the patient's clothing

    • Note the direction in which the patient is heading

    • Leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient
    Explanation
    In the given scenario, leaving the other patients to follow the escaping patient is not an appropriate action to take. The safety and well-being of all patients should be a priority, and leaving them unattended can put them at risk. Instead, it is important to take other actions such as telephoning for help, describing the patient and their clothing to aid in identification, and noting the direction in which the patient is heading. These actions can help ensure the patient's safe return and prevent any potential harm or danger.

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  • 24. 

    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally...

    • A life-long process

    • Of no use because they do not fully recover

    • Continued for 6 months after the injury occurred

    • Continued for up to 2 years after the final surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A life-long process
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a life-long process because these injuries often result in permanent damage to the spinal cord, leading to long-term functional impairments. While patients may not fully recover their pre-injury abilities, rehabilitation aims to maximize their independence and quality of life by improving muscle strength, mobility, and daily living skills. The ongoing nature of the rehabilitation process ensures that patients receive the necessary support and interventions to adapt to their new circumstances and maintain their physical and psychological well-being throughout their lives.

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  • 25. 

    Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?

    • Strictly enforced rules

    • Use of safety restraints

    • Changes in daily routine

    • Established daily rituals and routines

    Correct Answer
    A. Established daily rituals and routines
    Explanation
    Established daily rituals and routines provide a hospitalized child with a sense of control because they create a predictable and familiar environment. When a child knows what to expect each day, it can help them feel more secure and in control of their surroundings. This can be particularly important in a hospital setting where there may be many unfamiliar and potentially stressful experiences. Having established rituals and routines can provide a sense of stability and normalcy, which can be comforting for a hospitalized child.

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  • 26. 

    Which reason is NOT appropriate for restraining a child?

    • The physician needs to suture the child's face.

    • The child continues to climb out of bed in the night.

    • To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair

    • You have other tasks to do and no time to sit with the child.

    Correct Answer
    A. You have other tasks to do and no time to sit with the child.
    Explanation
    Restraining a child should never be based on the caregiver's lack of time or other tasks to do. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. The other reasons mentioned - the need for medical intervention, preventing the child from climbing out of bed, and preventing falls from a highchair - are all appropriate and necessary for the child's safety and health.

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  • 27. 

    Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following EXCEPT...

    • For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day

    • Performing all steps in the modified six medication rights

    • Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication

    • Verifying any possible interactions against current medications

    Correct Answer
    A. For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day. This is because as a medication administrator, your responsibility is to ensure the safe and appropriate administration of medications. Ensuring an individual's availability for work is not directly related to medication administration. The other options listed are all important responsibilities, such as following the six medication rights, being aware of side effects, and checking for possible interactions with current medications.

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  • 28. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen...

    • During a blood transfusion

    • As a result of not using table salt

    • When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    Sodium chloride, also known as salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating or diarrhea, the body may experience a deficiency in sodium chloride. This can lead to symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 29. 

    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only...

    • When the senior medical technician on board approves it

    • When local protocol authorizes it

    • During the response phase

    • During the transport phase

    Correct Answer
    A. When local protocol authorizes it
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when local protocol authorizes it. This means that the use of lights and sirens on an ambulance call in the Air Force is only allowed when the local protocol, which could be specific rules or regulations set by the local authorities or Air Force guidelines, permits it. The decision to use lights and sirens is not solely based on the approval of the senior medical technician or the different phases of the response or transport.

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  • 30. 

    While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable.  What should you do?

    • Call the doctor to order restraints

    • Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling

    • Look at the patient's medications; it could be a side effect

    • Put restraints on the patient until the physician can be notified

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling
    Explanation
    Based on the given scenario, the correct answer is to inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling. This is the most appropriate action because the patient's dizziness and instability suggest a potential risk of falling, which should be addressed immediately. Calling the doctor to order restraints or putting restraints on the patient without proper assessment and notification of the physician would not be appropriate or safe. Checking the patient's medications is also important as it could be a potential side effect causing the symptoms, but the immediate concern should be to ensure the patient's safety by informing the nurse.

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  • 31. 

    Which is NOT a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?

    • Age

    • Gender

    • Extent of injury

    • Circulation to the area

    Correct Answer
    A. Gender
    Explanation
    The healing time of a bone fracture is influenced by various factors, including age, extent of injury, and circulation to the area. However, gender is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture. Both males and females have similar healing processes, and gender does not play a significant role in bone healing.

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  • 32. 

    When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

    • During preadmission

    • Within 12 hours of admission

    • Within 24 hours of admission

    • As soon as the patient is admitted

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as the patient is admitted
    Explanation
    The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial for the successful treatment of mentally ill patients. By starting rehabilitation immediately, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's condition, develop a personalized treatment plan, and initiate therapeutic interventions to promote recovery. Delaying the start of rehabilitation may result in a worsening of symptoms and hinder the patient's progress towards mental wellness. Therefore, starting the rehabilitation process as soon as the patient is admitted maximizes the chances of a positive outcome.

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  • 33. 

    What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

    • Suction

    • Oxygen

    • NG tube

    • Tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    A. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. This is because a tourniquet is used to control bleeding by applying pressure to the blood vessels. It helps to prevent excessive bleeding and can be quickly applied in case of an emergency. Suction may be needed to remove any excess fluids or blood, oxygen may be required for respiratory support, and an NG tube may be used for feeding, but these are not specifically essential for managing bleeding after an amputation.

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  • 34. 

    Which one of these is NOT included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?

    • Right time

    • Right dose

    • Right route

    • Right documentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Right documentation
    Explanation
    The "Five Rights" of medication administration refer to the essential elements that need to be ensured when administering medication to a patient. These include the right time, right dose, right route, right patient, and right medication. The right documentation is not included in the "Five Rights" as it is not directly related to the actual administration process, but rather to the proper recording and documentation of the medication administration.

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  • 35. 

    What method of administration delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?

    • Oral

    • Buccal

    • Inhalation

    • Sublingual

    Correct Answer
    A. Oral
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oral. Oral administration involves delivering medication directly into a patient's digestive system through the mouth, where it is swallowed and then absorbed into the bloodstream through the gastrointestinal tract. This is the most common and convenient method of administration, as it can be easily self-administered and is suitable for a wide range of medications. Buccal administration involves placing medication between the cheek and gum, inhalation involves delivering medication into the lungs, and sublingual administration involves placing medication under the tongue.

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  • 36. 

    To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

    • In the pharmacy

    • At a work station

    • At the nurses' station

    • At the patient's bedside

    Correct Answer
    A. At the patient's bedside
    Explanation
    Liquid medications are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient and reduces the risk of any errors or mishaps that may occur during transportation from other locations such as the pharmacy or nurses' station. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for immediate administration and monitoring of the patient's response to the medication.

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  • 37. 

    The body's first step in the healing process is...

    • Inflammation

    • Collecting

    • Infection

    • Bruising

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation
    Explanation
    Inflammation is the body's initial response to tissue damage or injury. It is a protective mechanism that helps to remove harmful stimuli and initiate the healing process. When tissues are injured, the body releases chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate, leading to increased blood flow to the area. This results in redness, swelling, heat, and pain. Inflammation also helps to recruit immune cells to the site of injury, which can help to fight off any potential infections. Overall, inflammation is a crucial first step in the healing process as it helps to clear away damaged tissues and initiate repair.

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  • 38. 

    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with...

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the areas of the body not already attended to

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    Correct Answer
    A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
    Explanation
    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are. This means that when there is a significant mechanism of injury, such as a major fall or a motor vehicle accident, the healthcare provider will prioritize assessing and addressing the areas of the body that are at the highest risk of causing immediate harm or complications to the patient. This approach ensures that critical injuries are identified and treated promptly, potentially saving the patient's life or preventing further damage.

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  • 39. 

    When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the...

    • Electrocardiogram tracing date and time

    • Code blue record of events

    • Ambulance run sheet

    • Doctor's note

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrocardiogram tracing date and time
    Explanation
    When setting up a cardiac monitor, it is crucial to pay particular attention to and fix the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing date and time if it is not correct. This is important because accurate date and time on the ECG tracing help to ensure proper documentation and tracking of the patient's cardiac activity. It allows healthcare professionals to accurately interpret and analyze the ECG data in relation to the patient's condition and treatment timeline. Incorrect date and time can lead to errors in diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of the patient's cardiac health.

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  • 40. 

    Which term allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

    • Pass

    • Discharge

    • Subsisting elsewhere

    • Absent without leave

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass
    Explanation
    The term "Pass" allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours.

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  • 41. 

    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems?

    • Inflammatory disease

    • Congenital problems

    • Traumatic injuries

    • Infectious disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Traumatic injuries
    Explanation
    Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for traumatic injuries. This is because they are often exposed to high-risk situations and combat scenarios that can result in various types of injuries, such as fractures, dislocations, sprains, and strains. These traumatic injuries may occur due to explosions, falls, direct impact, or other forms of physical trauma. The nature of their work and the demanding physical activities involved make military personnel more susceptible to orthopedic problems caused by traumatic injuries.

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  • 42. 

    The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a...

    • Phantom limb pain

    • Phantom limb sensation

    • Physiological phenomena

    • Psychological phenomena

    Correct Answer
    A. Phantom limb pain
    Explanation
    Phantom limb pain refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain that is experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This sensation is not physically present but is perceived by the individual. It is a well-documented and recognized phenomenon that occurs due to the brain's inability to adjust to the absence of the limb. It is different from phantom limb sensation, which refers to the feeling of the presence of the missing limb. While phantom limb pain is a physiological phenomenon, it also has psychological aspects as it is influenced by the brain's perception and interpretation of signals.

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  • 43. 

    What affects an individuals feeling about themselves?

    • Socioeconomic status

    • Opinions of others

    • Self perception

    • Job title

    Correct Answer
    A. Self perception
    Explanation
    An individual's feeling about themselves is influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how a person views and evaluates themselves, including their beliefs, attitudes, and thoughts about their own abilities, worth, and identity. It plays a significant role in shaping a person's self-esteem, self-confidence, and overall self-image. Self-perception can be influenced by various factors such as personal experiences, achievements, failures, and personal values. It is an internal process that is subjective and can differ from person to person.

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  • 44. 

    A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of...

    • Withdrawal

    • Suspicion

    • Anxiety

    • Anger

    Correct Answer
    A. Withdrawal
    Explanation
    The patient's feelings of being unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt lead to a behavior of withdrawal. This means that they may isolate themselves, avoid social interactions, and distance themselves from others. They may feel the need to protect themselves from further emotional harm by withdrawing from relationships and situations that may trigger their negative emotions.

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  • 45. 

    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is...

    • Behavior

    • Appearance

    • Conversation

    • Sleeping habits

    Correct Answer
    A. Behavior
    Explanation
    When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, behavior is the most important factor to consider. This is because behavior provides valuable insight into the patient's mental state, their emotions, and any potential changes or abnormalities in their condition. By closely observing their behavior, such as their actions, gestures, and reactions, healthcare professionals can gather crucial information that can aid in diagnosis, treatment planning, and monitoring the progress of the patient. Appearance, conversation, and sleeping habits are also important factors to consider, but behavior takes precedence as it directly reflects the patient's mental well-being.

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  • 46. 

    What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?

    • Stat

    • Single

    • Standing

    • As needed (PRN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Stat
    Explanation
    A stat medication order is used when a medication needs to be administered immediately and only once. It is often used in emergency situations or when there is an urgent need for the medication. Unlike other types of medication orders, a stat order does not require any specific frequency or timing for administration.

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  • 47. 

    What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heartbeat?

    • Antiarrhythmics

    • Antiinfectives

    • Cathartics

    • Antacids

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiarrhythmics
    Explanation
    Antiarrhythmics are a type of medication used to prevent or correct irregular heartbeat. These medications work by stabilizing the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heart rhythm and prevent abnormal heartbeats. They are commonly prescribed for conditions such as atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, and other arrhythmias. Antiarrhythmics can be classified into various classes based on their mechanism of action, and they are an essential component of treatment for individuals with irregular heart rhythms.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen

    • Antibody

    • Pathogen

    • Micro-organism

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogen
    Explanation
    A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts normal bodily functions. Pathogens can cause a wide range of illnesses, from mild infections to severe diseases, and can be transmitted through various means such as direct contact, contaminated food or water, or through the air. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infections and diseases.

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  • 49. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • Illness

    • Virulence

    • Incubation

    • Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation
    Explanation
    The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent is multiplying and spreading within the body, but the person does not yet exhibit any symptoms. This is an important stage as it allows the infectious agent to establish itself and replicate before the immune system responds and symptoms become apparent.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Spencer Trilby

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