CDC 4N051 Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman Set 1: Volumes 1-3

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CDC 4N051 Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman Set 1: Volumes 1-3 - Quiz


Volume 1. Introduction to the Aerospace Medical Service Career Field.
Volume 2. Anatomy and Physiology.
Volume 3. Aerospace Medicine and Medical Standards.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Where would you find very little compact bone?          

    Explanation
    Bone ends typically have very little compact bone. Compact bone is the dense outer layer of bone that provides strength and protection. However, at the ends of long bones, such as the femur or humerus, the compact bone is thinner and gives way to spongy or cancellous bone. This spongy bone is made up of a lattice-like structure with open spaces filled with bone marrow. The presence of spongy bone at the ends of bones allows for flexibility and shock absorption, as well as providing a site for red blood cell production.

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  • 2. 

    What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?          

    Explanation
    The purpose of the lymphatic system is to defend the body against infection and remove excess fluids. The lymphatic system consists of lymph nodes, lymph vessels, and lymphatic organs, such as the spleen and thymus. It plays a crucial role in the immune system by filtering and trapping bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens in the lymph nodes. Additionally, the lymphatic system helps to remove excess fluids, waste products, and toxins from the body, maintaining fluid balance and preventing swelling.

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  • 3. 

    The larnyx is composed of how many cartilages?          

    Explanation
    The larynx is composed of three single cartilages and three paired cartilages. The three single cartilages are the thyroid cartilage, the cricoid cartilage, and the epiglottis. The three paired cartilages are the arytenoid cartilages, the corniculate cartilages, and the cuneiform cartilages.

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  • 4. 

    The largest lymphatic organ is the what?          

    Explanation
    The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is located in the upper left side of the abdomen and is responsible for filtering the blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, and producing white blood cells to help fight infection. The spleen also plays a role in storing and releasing blood cells and platelets when needed.

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  • 5. 

    The small spaces between neurons are called the?          

    Explanation
    Synapses are the small spaces between neurons where communication and transmission of signals occur. They are crucial for the functioning of the nervous system as they allow for the transfer of information between neurons. Electrical or chemical signals are transmitted across synapses, enabling the brain to process and transmit information throughout the body.

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  • 6. 

    What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?          

    Explanation
    The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations. It consists of the glomerulus, which filters blood, and the tubules, which reabsorb necessary substances and excrete waste products.

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  • 7. 

    Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MPF at least...          

    Explanation
    Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MPF at least quarterly. This means that the information is updated and sent to the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) every three months. This regular update ensures that the MPF has the most current and accurate enrollment information for military personnel and their dependents.

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  • 8. 

    What steps must you take before you can access AFCITA?          

    Explanation
    Before accessing AFCITA, you need to follow a few steps. First, you must contact your local AFCITA program manager. They will provide you with the necessary information and guidance. Next, you need to have an account established. This involves providing your personal details and fulfilling any requirements set by the program manager. Finally, you must have the AFCITA program loaded on your computer. This ensures that you have the necessary software to access and utilize AFCITA effectively.

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  • 9. 

    Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?          

    Explanation
    Thyroxine is the correct answer because it is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones in the body. Thyroxine plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development. It helps to control the rate at which cells use energy and affects various bodily functions, including heart rate, body temperature, and digestion.

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  • 10. 

    Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?          

    Explanation
    The phase of a patient relationship described in the answer is the introductory phase. This phase focuses on establishing the identity and role of both the patient and the healthcare worker. It also involves clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization, which helps set the foundation for the rest of the patient's healthcare journey.

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  • 11. 

    What percent of medical equipment operation malfuctions are normally attributed to operational error?          

    Explanation
    Operational error is responsible for 70% of medical equipment operation malfunctions. This means that a significant majority of malfunctions can be attributed to mistakes made during the operation of the equipment. It is crucial for medical professionals to receive proper training and follow protocols to minimize these errors and ensure the safe and effective use of medical equipment.

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  • 12. 

    What long bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?          

    Explanation
    Sesamoid bones are small, round bones that are embedded within tendons or joint capsules. They are usually located in areas where there is frequent pressure or tension, such as the hands, feet, and knees. These bones act as pulleys, providing a smooth surface for tendons to glide over, reducing friction and increasing efficiency of movement. Therefore, sesamoid bones are the long bones that are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied.

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  • 13. 

    How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?          

    Explanation
    Equipment inspections are usually conducted on a daily basis. This means that inspections are carried out every day to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition, meets safety standards, and is ready for use. Daily inspections help identify any potential issues or damages early on, allowing for timely repairs and maintenance to prevent accidents or breakdowns. Regular inspections also help in prolonging the lifespan of the equipment and maintaining its efficiency.

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  • 14. 

    Where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum?          

    Explanation
    After leaving the ileum, undigested chyme will enter the cecum. The cecum is a pouch-like structure located at the beginning of the large intestine. It receives the chyme from the small intestine and serves as a site for the fermentation of indigestible materials, such as fiber. From the cecum, the chyme will continue to move through the large intestine, where water and electrolytes are absorbed, and eventually be eliminated as feces.

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  • 15. 

    Aqueous humor filles the space between the cornea and the what?          

    Explanation
    The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The cornea is the clear outer layer of the eye, and the iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil. The aqueous humor is a clear fluid that helps maintain the shape of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens.

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  • 16. 

    If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit what system should you use that will support FHP, Population health and MHS Optimization?          

    Explanation
    AHLTA is the system that should be used to determine the deployment status of a unit as it supports FHP (Force Health Protection), Population health, and MHS (Military Health System) Optimization. AHLTA is an electronic health record system used by the Department of Defense and it provides comprehensive health information for military personnel. It allows for the tracking and monitoring of the health status of individuals and populations, ensuring force readiness and optimizing healthcare resources.

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  • 17. 

    What is the main consideration under the E Physical Profile Factor?          

    Explanation
    The main consideration under the E Physical Profile Factor is only the distant visual acuity. This means that the primary focus is on the individual's ability to see clearly at a distance. Other aspects of vision, such as near vision or color vision, are not taken into account in this factor.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in tenors of function, organization, location, skill, grade, and any other chacteristic needed to clearly define the mission?          

    Explanation
    A manpower authorization is a funded requirement that defines various aspects of a position, such as its function, organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic necessary to clearly define the mission. It is a formal document that outlines the specific details and specifications for a position, ensuring that the necessary resources and personnel are allocated appropriately.

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  • 19. 

    What administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office of record?          

    Explanation
    The administrative tool that shows every record series maintained for an office of record is called a Files Plan. A Files Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the organization's recordkeeping system, including the different types of records, their retention periods, and their disposal processes. It helps in managing and organizing records effectively, ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, and facilitating easy retrieval of information when needed.

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  • 20. 

    What is not a habit of successful PCM teams?          

    Explanation
    Being punctual is a habit of successful PCM teams.

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  • 21. 

    What special organs do the larger lymphatic vessels lead to?          

    Explanation
    Larger lymphatic vessels lead to lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that filter lymph fluid and contain immune cells. They play a crucial role in the immune system by trapping and destroying harmful substances, such as bacteria and viruses, before they can spread to other parts of the body. The lymphatic vessels transport lymph fluid, which contains waste products, excess fluids, and immune cells, to the lymph nodes for filtration and removal of harmful substances.

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  • 22. 

    Which sensation is flat associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness?          

    Explanation
    Numbness is associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness. Decompression sickness occurs when a person ascends too quickly from a deep dive, causing nitrogen bubbles to form in the blood and tissues. These bubbles can block blood vessels and cause tissue damage, leading to symptoms such as numbness or tingling in the affected area. Therefore, numbness is a common sensation experienced in the skin manifestations of decompression sickness.

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  • 23. 

    The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the?          

    Explanation
    The perimysium is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual bundles of muscle fibers within a muscle. It lies just below the epimysium, which is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. The perimysium helps to support and protect the muscle fibers within each bundle, while also providing a pathway for blood vessels and nerves to reach the muscle fibers.

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  • 24. 

    Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?          

    Explanation
    The nurse is responsible for analyzing the performance and health status of patients in a primary care setting. They are trained to assess and monitor vital signs, administer medications, and provide ongoing care and support to patients. Nurses play a crucial role in identifying any changes in a patient's condition and communicating this information to the rest of the care team. They collaborate with other healthcare professionals to develop and implement care plans, ensuring the overall well-being and recovery of patients.

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  • 25. 

    Who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lens program?          

    Explanation
    Optometry is responsible for training aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lens program. This means that optometrists are in charge of teaching aircrew members how to safely and effectively remove their soft contact lenses in emergency situations. They have the knowledge and expertise in eye care to ensure that aircrew members are equipped with the necessary skills to handle contact lens emergencies.

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  • 26. 

    Which organ secretes the adrenocorticotropic hormones?          

    Explanation
    The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes the adrenocorticotropic hormones. These hormones stimulate the adrenal glands to produce cortisol, which helps regulate the body's response to stress and inflammation. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in the endocrine system by producing and releasing various hormones that control many bodily functions.

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  • 27. 

    What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?          

    Explanation
    A bipolar neuron is a type of neuron that has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other. This type of neuron is commonly found in sensory organs such as the retina of the eye and the olfactory epithelium in the nose. The bipolar structure allows for the transmission of signals from sensory receptors to the central nervous system.

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  • 28. 

    What method of measuring altitude is used to measure the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it?          

    Explanation
    Absolute altitude is the method of measuring altitude that directly measures the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it. It provides the most accurate measurement of altitude as it is measured from a fixed reference point, such as sea level. This method is commonly used in aviation to determine the exact height of an aircraft above the ground.

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  • 29. 

    The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in?          

    Explanation
    AFI 48-123 is a document that specifies the medical standards, frequency, scope, and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly. It outlines the guidelines and procedures that medical professionals must follow when conducting physical examinations in the military. This document ensures that all examinations are conducted consistently and in accordance with the established standards, promoting the health and well-being of military personnel.

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  • 30. 

    What is the function of the interior of the cerebrum?          

    Explanation
    The interior of the cerebrum is responsible for storing knowledge. This is where information from the senses is processed and stored as memories. The cerebrum is divided into different regions, each with specific functions related to memory and learning. The hippocampus, for example, is involved in forming new memories, while the prefrontal cortex is responsible for working memory and decision-making. Overall, the interior of the cerebrum plays a crucial role in the storage and retrieval of knowledge and memories.

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  • 31. 

    Members may be retained on the temporary disability retirement list for no more than how many years?          

    Explanation
    Members can be retained on the temporary disability retirement list for a maximum of five years.

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  • 32. 

    The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the?          

    Explanation
    The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tubules within the cell that is responsible for the transport of molecules. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, folding, and modification of proteins, as well as the synthesis of lipids. The endoplasmic reticulum is connected to the nuclear envelope and extends throughout the cytoplasm, allowing for efficient movement of molecules within the cell. Therefore, the endoplasmic reticulum is the correct answer for the network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell.

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  • 33. 

    As altitude increases, barometric pressure will do what?          

    Explanation
    As altitude increases, the air pressure decreases. This is because as you go higher in the atmosphere, there is less air above you to exert pressure. Therefore, barometric pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

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  • 34. 

    On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the STS?          

  • 35. 

    Most common sonsory illusion resulting from stimulation of the semi-circular canals?          

    Explanation
    The Leans is a sensory illusion that occurs when there is a mismatch between the visual and vestibular (semi-circular canals) inputs. This can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a boat or an airplane, and suddenly stops or changes direction. The semi-circular canals detect rotational movements, and when they sense a sudden change in motion, the brain may interpret it as the body still moving in the original direction. This can lead to a sensation of leaning or tilting, even though the body is actually stationary.

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  • 36. 

    Common type of Hypoxia in aircrew members?          

    Explanation
    Hypoxic hypoxia is a common type of hypoxia experienced by aircrew members. It occurs when there is a decrease in the oxygen content of the air at high altitudes, resulting in a reduced oxygen supply to the body's tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, and shortness of breath. Aircrew members are particularly susceptible to hypoxic hypoxia due to the lower oxygen levels at high altitudes.

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  • 37. 

    What is meant by the statement, "doctrine is authoritative but not directive in nature"?          

    Explanation
    The statement "doctrine is authoritative but not directive in nature" means that doctrine provides authoritative guidance and knowledge, but it does not provide specific instructions on how to carry out a task or mission. It serves as a resource that offers principles, concepts, and best practices based on experience and expertise, allowing individuals or organizations to adapt and apply them according to their specific circumstances and requirements. Doctrine provides a framework and common understanding, but it does not dictate the exact actions or steps to be taken.

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  • 38. 

    The Air Force Medical Service Doctrine applies to whom?          

    Explanation
    The Air Force Medical Service Doctrine applies to all Active Duty, Air Force Reserve, Air National guard, and civilian Air Force Personnel. This means that the doctrine is relevant and applicable to all individuals serving in the Air Force, regardless of their specific role or status. It ensures that all personnel are aware of and adhere to the principles and guidelines outlined in the doctrine, promoting consistency and standardization in medical practices within the Air Force.

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  • 39. 

    How does Air Force Doctrine aid AFMS commanders in accomplishing the mission?          

    Explanation
    AFMS doctrine provides the necessary guidance for commanders in the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) to make informed decisions and effectively utilize available assets in order to accomplish their mission. This doctrine serves as a framework that outlines best practices, strategies, and principles that commanders can refer to when planning and executing their operations. By following this guidance, AFMS commanders can ensure that they are making well-informed decisions and utilizing their resources effectively to achieve their mission objectives.

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  • 40. 

    What type of doctrine guides organizationa nd employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad inits functional areas and operational environments?          

    Explanation
    Operational Doctrine is the correct answer because it refers to the type of doctrine that guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environments, meaning that it provides general principles and guidelines that can be applied across different situations and contexts. Operational Doctrine helps to ensure consistency and effectiveness in military operations by providing a framework for decision-making and action.

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  • 41. 

    Using the automobile example, which doctrine is best describe and explained if you are a buyer seeking a very fast car with specific qualities such as a "Candy Apple Red" paint job, racing rims and a extended warranty?          

  • 42. 

    What are the operational doctrine principles of the Air Force Health Services for maintaining health and fitness?          

    Explanation
    The operational doctrine principles of the Air Force Health Services for maintaining health and fitness involve integrating prevention-oriented health, fitness, and medical intervention. This means that the Air Force Health Services prioritize proactive measures to prevent health issues and promote overall well-being. They also emphasize the importance of maintaining physical fitness and provide medical interventions when necessary to ensure the health and readiness of service members. By integrating these principles, the Air Force Health Services aim to optimize the health and fitness of their personnel.

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  • 43. 

    What are Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS)?          

    Explanation
    Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS) refer to basic principles and beliefs that serve as the building blocks for creating Air Force Doctrine Documents (AFDDs). These statements outline the fundamental ideas and values that guide the development and implementation of AFDDs, which are authoritative publications that provide guidance and direction for Air Force operations. FDS help ensure consistency and coherence in the doctrine and serve as a foundation for decision-making and strategic planning within the Air Force.

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  • 44. 

    What concept is critical to attaining the goal of a healthy and fit force?          

    Explanation
    The concept critical to attaining the goal of a healthy and fit force is the "Human Weapon System." This refers to the idea that the individual Airman is a crucial component of the overall force health protection. It emphasizes the importance of taking care of the physical, mental, and emotional well-being of each Airman to ensure their readiness and effectiveness in fulfilling their duties. By prioritizing the health and fitness of each individual, the overall force can maintain a high level of readiness and be better prepared to fulfill their mission.

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  • 45. 

    What are the 3 FDS that the medical airman should be familiar with?          

    Explanation
    The medical airman should be familiar with three FDS: Roles and Responsibilities, Force Health Protection, and Competency. Understanding roles and responsibilities ensures that the airman knows their specific duties and obligations within the medical field. Force Health Protection refers to the measures taken to safeguard the health and well-being of military personnel. Competency relates to the airman's ability to perform their job effectively and efficiently. By being familiar with these three FDS, the medical airman can fulfill their responsibilities, contribute to force health protection, and demonstrate their competence in their role.

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  • 46. 

    What constitutes "compentency" for the AFMS?          

    Explanation
    The AFMS (Armed Forces Medical Services) considers professional knowledge and medical expertise "know-how" as the components of competency. This implies that individuals in the AFMS should possess a strong understanding of their field and have the necessary skills and expertise to perform their medical duties effectively. They should be knowledgeable about the latest advancements and developments in the medical field and be able to apply that knowledge in their practice. Overall, competency in the AFMS is determined by the combination of professional knowledge and medical expertise.

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  • 47. 

    Identifies the skill level of the AFS in 4N051          

    Explanation
    The answer "5" suggests that the skill level of the AFS in 4N051 is at level 5. This indicates that the AFS has advanced skills and knowledge in their field.

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  • 48. 

    Identifies the career field family in 4N051          

  • 49. 

    Identifies the career field subdivision in 4N051          

  • 50. 

    Identifies enlisted specialty and specific expertise in 4N051          

    Explanation
    This answer suggests that the individual is able to identify the enlisted specialty and specific expertise in the field of 4N051. This could mean that they have knowledge and understanding of the specific skills and knowledge required for this particular specialty.

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  • Dec 01, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 08, 2011
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