CDC 4N051 Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman Set 1: Volumes 1-3

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1. What concept is critical to attaining the goal of a healthy and fit force?          

Explanation

The concept critical to attaining the goal of a healthy and fit force is the "Human Weapon System." This refers to the idea that the individual Airman is a crucial component of the overall force health protection. It emphasizes the importance of taking care of the physical, mental, and emotional well-being of each Airman to ensure their readiness and effectiveness in fulfilling their duties. By prioritizing the health and fitness of each individual, the overall force can maintain a high level of readiness and be better prepared to fulfill their mission.

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About This Quiz
CDC 4N051 Aerospace Medical Service Journeyman Set 1: Volumes 1-3 - Quiz

Volume 1. Introduction to the Aerospace Medical Service Career Field.
Volume 2. Anatomy and Physiology.
Volume 3. Aerospace Medicine and Medical Standards.

2. What are the 3 FDS that the medical airman should be familiar with?          

Explanation

The medical airman should be familiar with three FDS: Roles and Responsibilities, Force Health Protection, and Competency. Understanding roles and responsibilities ensures that the airman knows their specific duties and obligations within the medical field. Force Health Protection refers to the measures taken to safeguard the health and well-being of military personnel. Competency relates to the airman's ability to perform their job effectively and efficiently. By being familiar with these three FDS, the medical airman can fulfill their responsibilities, contribute to force health protection, and demonstrate their competence in their role.

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3. What constitutes "compentency" for the AFMS?          

Explanation

The AFMS (Armed Forces Medical Services) considers professional knowledge and medical expertise "know-how" as the components of competency. This implies that individuals in the AFMS should possess a strong understanding of their field and have the necessary skills and expertise to perform their medical duties effectively. They should be knowledgeable about the latest advancements and developments in the medical field and be able to apply that knowledge in their practice. Overall, competency in the AFMS is determined by the combination of professional knowledge and medical expertise.

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4. Identifies the skill level of the AFS in 4N051          

Explanation

The answer "5" suggests that the skill level of the AFS in 4N051 is at level 5. This indicates that the AFS has advanced skills and knowledge in their field.

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5. Identifies the career field family in 4N051          

Explanation

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6. Identifies the career field subdivision in 4N051          

Explanation

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7. Identifies enlisted specialty and specific expertise in 4N051          

Explanation

This answer suggests that the individual is able to identify the enlisted specialty and specific expertise in the field of 4N051. This could mean that they have knowledge and understanding of the specific skills and knowledge required for this particular specialty.

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8. Identifies the career grouping in 4N051          

Explanation

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9. What is the difference between the PAFSC and DAFSC?          

Explanation

The PAFSC refers to the primary Air Force Specialty Code, which represents the specific job or specialty in which an individual is best qualified to perform their duties. On the other hand, the DAFSC stands for Duty Air Force Specialty Code, which is used to indicate the specialty or job in which the individual is currently performing their duties. In other words, the PAFSC represents the individual's overall qualification, while the DAFSC represents their current assignment or duty.

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10. How many parts is the CFETP divided into? and what is contained in those parts?          

Explanation

The CFETP is divided into two parts. Part 1 contains the necessary information for overall management of the 4N0XX career field and its specialties. Part 2 consists of documentation that allows and enables individuals to perform their job as a 4N0XX or in a specific specialty. Part 2 also includes the Specialty Training Standard (STS).

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11. In what part of the CFETP would you find Community College of the Air Force (CCAF), upgrade training diagrams and requirements for specialty qualification?          

Explanation

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12. What is the master training plan designed to do; what is circled?          

Explanation

The master training plan is designed to outline training goals and milestones for enlisted personnel within the assigned area. It also specifies that core tasks, upgrade training tasks, and unit-specific tasks will be circled.

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13. What is the difference between career knowledge training and job proficiency training?          

Explanation

Career knowledge training focuses on developing knowledge related to tasks and subjects necessary for performing a specific job safely and effectively. This type of training equips individuals with the necessary theoretical knowledge to understand the concepts and principles behind their job responsibilities. On the other hand, job proficiency training focuses on enhancing practical skills through hands-on experience while actually performing the duties and tasks of a specific job. This type of training helps individuals develop the necessary skills and expertise to excel in their job role.

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14. What specific four people are important to developing your future?          

Explanation

These four specific people are important to developing your future because they each play a crucial role in providing guidance, support, and evaluation in your training and development. The unit training manager oversees the overall training program and ensures that it aligns with organizational goals. The trainer delivers the training content and helps you acquire the necessary skills and knowledge. The task certifier assesses your competency in specific tasks and certifies your proficiency. Lastly, the supervisor provides ongoing feedback, guidance, and opportunities for growth and development. Together, these individuals create a comprehensive support system that helps shape your future success.

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15. Who is responsible to order and track your progress in the CDC's and orders your course exam when you have completed your CDC set?          

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for ordering and tracking your progress in the CDCs (Career Development Courses) and also orders your course exam when you have completed your CDC set. They play a crucial role in ensuring that you receive the necessary training and support to progress in your career.

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16. Who is the key ingredient to your training program and what are some attributes neccessary for success?          

Explanation

The answer states that "I am" is the key ingredient to the training program. It emphasizes the importance of being attentive to training opportunities, showing enthusiasm and initiative, and not being afraid to step up and assist or learn from others. This suggests that the individual themselves play a crucial role in their own training and success.

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17. How is sustainment training accomplished?          

Explanation

Sustainment training is achieved through a combination of qualification training, formal training courses, and in-service training and exercise. Qualification training ensures that individuals have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their specific duties. Formal training courses provide more structured and comprehensive instruction on specific subjects. In-service training and exercise allow individuals to practice and refine their skills in real-world scenarios. Together, these methods ensure that individuals maintain their proficiency and readiness over time.

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18. How are subspecialties of the 4N0X1 career field identified?          

Explanation

Subspecialties of the 4N0X1 career field are identified through shredouts or Special Experience identifiers (SEI's). These identifiers are used to designate specific areas of expertise or additional training that individuals in the career field have received. By having these shredouts or SEI's, individuals can demonstrate their specialized knowledge and skills within the 4N0X1 career field.

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19. What is the title of the 4N0X1C shredout?          

Explanation

The title of the 4N0X1C shredout is Independent Duty Medical Technician, IDMT.

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20. What does the SEI 494 stand for?          

Explanation

SEI 494 stands for Aeromedical Evacuation Technician, AET. This refers to a specific job or role within the field of aeromedical evacuation. The AET is responsible for providing medical care and support during the transportation of patients via air. They are trained to handle various medical emergencies and ensure the safety and well-being of the patients during the evacuation process.

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21. What is required to be completed to achieve the AFSC 4N051?          

Explanation

The AFSC 4N051 requires completion of Phase 1 and 2 technical training, a career knowledge upgrade including the 5-level CDC's, job proficiency upgrade, and being technically ready to accomplish the mission.

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22. Who recieves the completed Job Inventory?          

Explanation

The Career Field Manager (CFM) receives the completed Job Inventory (JI).

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23. What is GAS and who completes it?          

Explanation

The correct answer is the Graduate Assessment Survey that the supervisor completes. This suggests that GAS refers to a survey conducted for graduate assessment, and it is the responsibility of the supervisor to complete it. This survey may be used to evaluate the performance and progress of graduate students in their respective programs.

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24. How many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file?          

Explanation

The AF Form 1041 must be kept on file for 2 years. This form is used for documenting and reporting various financial transactions and activities within the Air Force. Keeping it on file for 2 years ensures that it is readily accessible for reference or audit purposes.

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25. What step must you complete first to complete initial waivers within Aeromedical inforamtion Management Waiver Tracking System?          

Explanation

To complete initial waivers within the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System, the first step is to enter the patient's demographics. This means providing the necessary information about the patient, such as their name, age, gender, and any other relevant personal details. This step is crucial as it establishes the patient's identity and ensures that the waivers are being processed for the correct individual.

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26. What attaches skeletal muscle to bones?          

Explanation

Tendons attach skeletal muscles to bones. They are tough, fibrous connective tissues that transmit the force generated by muscles to the bones, allowing for movement and stability. Tendons are composed mainly of collagen fibers, which provide strength and flexibility. They are located at the ends of muscles and anchor them to specific points on bones, enabling the contraction of muscles to move the bones they are attached to.

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27. Which of the following defines fidelity?          

Explanation

Fidelity refers to the quality of being faithful, loyal, and committed. Acting in a responsible manner aligns with these qualities as it involves being accountable for one's actions, fulfilling obligations, and making ethical choices. When someone acts in a responsible manner, they demonstrate fidelity towards their responsibilities and commitments.

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28. Which symptom is the most specific early symptom of the chokes?          

Explanation

The most specific early symptom of the chokes is substernal pain. This refers to pain or discomfort felt beneath the sternum, which is the bone located in the center of the chest. This symptom is specific to the chokes and can help in early identification and diagnosis of the condition. Other symptoms may also be present, but substernal pain is the most specific and indicative of the chokes.

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29. What are the primary operational hazards for personnel who work in a missle alert facility?          

Explanation

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30. The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in?          

Explanation

AFPAM 48-133 is a document that provides the format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination. It outlines the guidelines and standards that medical professionals should follow when performing a physical examination. This document serves as a reference for healthcare providers to ensure consistency and accuracy in conducting physical examinations and recording the findings. It covers various aspects of the examination process, including the techniques, equipment, and documentation required. By referring to AFPAM 48-133, healthcare professionals can ensure that they are following the correct protocols and guidelines for conducting a physical examination.

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31. The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations are properly specified in?          

Explanation

AFI 48-123 is the document that properly specifies the medical standards, frequency, scope, and instructions for completing required physical examinations. It provides guidelines and regulations for conducting physical examinations in the medical field.

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32. What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in?          

Explanation

The correct answer is "Activity issue/turn-in summary." This is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in.

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33. What is the primary function of the renal cortex?          

Explanation

The primary function of the renal cortex is to protect kidney functions in the renal medulla. The renal cortex is the outer region of the kidney and contains structures such as glomeruli, which filter waste products and excess water from the blood. These filtered substances then pass through the renal medulla, where further processing and concentration occur. Therefore, the renal cortex plays a crucial role in maintaining and supporting the functions of the renal medulla.

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34. What is it called when measuring from the aircraft to the ground below it?          

Explanation

When measuring from the aircraft to the ground below it, it is called absolute altitude. This term refers to the vertical distance between the aircraft and the actual ground level. It is often measured using altimeters or other instruments that can determine the aircraft's height above sea level or a specific reference point on the ground.

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35. Which of the following is not a factor of decompression sickness?          

Explanation

Decompression sickness, also known as "the bends," is a condition that occurs when a person ascends too quickly after being in a high-pressure environment, such as deep-sea diving. Factors that contribute to decompression sickness include the depth and duration of the dive, the rate of ascent, and the amount of time spent at different depths. However, the rate of descent is not a factor in decompression sickness because it refers to the speed at which a person descends into the water, not ascends.

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36. What do you do once the Aeromedical information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed?          

Explanation

Once the Aeromedical Information Management Waiver Tracking System process is completed, the next step is to place the information in the patient's record. This ensures that the information is properly documented and easily accessible for future reference or use by healthcare professionals. By placing the information in the patient's record, it becomes a part of their medical history and can be used for continuity of care and decision-making purposes.

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37. What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?          

Explanation

The lymph nodes act as the filter in the lymph system. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are distributed throughout the body and are connected by lymphatic vessels. They contain immune cells that help filter and trap foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, as well as abnormal cells like cancer cells. The lymph nodes play a crucial role in the immune response by removing harmful substances and activating immune cells to fight against infections and diseases.

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38. What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?          

Explanation

The tool used to list the personnel assigned to a work center is UMPR.

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39. How many hours should an individual wait to fly following diving activities?          

Explanation

An individual should wait for 48 hours before flying following diving activities. This is because diving can cause nitrogen bubbles to form in the body tissues, which can lead to decompression sickness. Flying can increase the risk of decompression sickness due to the decrease in cabin pressure. Waiting for 48 hours allows enough time for the body to eliminate the nitrogen bubbles and reduce the risk of decompression sickness during the flight.

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40. Which part of the adrenal gland makes up most of it?          

Explanation

The adrenal gland is made up of two main parts: the adrenal cortex and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the gland and makes up the majority of its structure. It is responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones. The adrenal medulla, on the other hand, is the inner part of the gland and is responsible for producing adrenaline and noradrenaline. Therefore, the correct answer is adrenal cortex.

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41. What is the name of the triangular bone that lies over the knee?          

Explanation

The triangular bone that lies over the knee is called the patella.

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42. Positive G forces affect the diaphram by doing what to the viscera?          

Explanation

Positive G forces affect the diaphragm by moving the viscera up.

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43. Where is the AF Form 422 established on officers entering the Air Force?        

Explanation

When officers enter the Air Force, the AF Form 422 is established at their First Duty Station. This form is used to document the individual's medical condition and any limitations or restrictions they may have. By establishing the form at their First Duty Station, the Air Force ensures that the officer's medical information is readily available and can be properly managed throughout their career.

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44. What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?        

Explanation

A syndesmosis joint is a type of joint that connects the distal end of the tibia and fibula. In this type of joint, the bones are held together by a fibrous connective tissue called a syndesmosis. This joint allows for minimal movement between the tibia and fibula, providing stability to the lower leg.

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45. What is the best way to administer Oxygen while treating decompression sickness?        

Explanation

The best way to administer oxygen while treating decompression sickness is through an aviator's mask. This type of mask is specifically designed to deliver high-flow oxygen to the patient, ensuring that they receive an adequate amount of oxygen to help alleviate the symptoms of decompression sickness. The aviator's mask is commonly used in aviation and aerospace industries, where individuals are at a higher risk of experiencing decompression sickness due to changes in altitude. By using an aviator's mask, the patient can receive a continuous supply of oxygen, which is crucial for their recovery.

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46. What sensory system is often reffered to as the "seat of the pants" sense?      

Explanation

The sensory system that is often referred to as the "seat of the pants" sense is the proprioceptive system. This sensory system provides information about body position, movement, and balance, allowing us to have a sense of where our body is in space without relying on visual cues. It is often associated with the feeling of "having a gut feeling" or intuition.

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47. Which factor would apply to an individual who has organic defects of the ears?      

Explanation

An individual with organic defects of the ears would fall under the factor of physical condition. Organic defects refer to structural abnormalities or malformations of the ears that are present from birth or acquired later in life. This physical condition affects the individual's ability to hear and can impact their overall well-being and quality of life.

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48. The muscle layer that lies ust beneath the epimysium is the?      

Explanation

The perimysium is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual muscle fascicles. It is located just beneath the epimysium, which is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. The perimysium contains blood vessels, nerves, and muscle fibers, and helps to support and protect the fascicles within the muscle.

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49. Back flow of urine in the uteres is prevented by?      

Explanation

A flap of mucous membrane prevents the backflow of urine in the uteres. This flap acts as a valve, closing off the uteres and preventing urine from flowing back into the kidneys. This mechanism ensures that urine flows in one direction, from the kidneys to the bladder, and prevents any potential damage or infection that could occur if urine were to flow back into the kidneys.

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50. What environmental stress has the greatest influence on G forces?    

Explanation

Heat is the correct answer because it has the greatest influence on G forces. When the temperature increases, the air molecules expand and become less dense, resulting in a decrease in air pressure. This decrease in air pressure affects the lift generated by an aircraft's wings, causing a decrease in the maximum achievable G forces. Therefore, heat can limit the performance of an aircraft and its ability to sustain high G forces.

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51. The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substance through the canal is the?    

Explanation

The layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the muscle layer. The muscles in the alimentary canal contract and relax to push food and other substances through the digestive system. This movement, known as peristalsis, helps to break down food and move it along the digestive tract for absorption and elimination.

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52. What is the difference in number of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develop?    

Explanation

The difference in the number of primary teeth and permanent teeth a person will develop is 12. This means that a person will have 12 more permanent teeth than primary teeth.

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53. Where is the repository for all mishap investigation reports?  

Explanation

The repository for all mishap investigation reports is the AF safety center.

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54. What are the four specifc disciplines in the USAF safety program?  

Explanation

The USAF safety program consists of four specific disciplines: flight safety, weapons safety, ground safety, and systems safety. These disciplines focus on ensuring safety in different areas of operations. Flight safety pertains to safety measures during aircraft operations, weapons safety involves the safe handling and storage of weapons, ground safety focuses on safety procedures on the ground, and systems safety aims to identify and mitigate risks associated with complex systems.

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55. In what division of the atmosphere will the phenomena of weather mostly occur?  

Explanation

The phenomena of weather mostly occur in the troposphere. The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to an average height of about 7-20 kilometers. It is where temperature decreases with increasing altitude, and where most of the Earth's weather processes take place, including cloud formation, precipitation, and the movement of air masses. The troposphere is also where we find the majority of the Earth's atmospheric gases and weather phenomena such as storms, rain, snow, and wind.

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56. Where is the greatest barometric pressure found?  

Explanation

The greatest barometric pressure is found in the Troposphere. The Troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to about 10-15 kilometers. This layer contains the majority of the Earth's air mass and is where weather phenomena occur. As the Troposphere is closest to the Earth's surface, it experiences the greatest weight of the atmosphere above it, resulting in higher barometric pressure compared to the upper layers of the atmosphere.

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57. Which of the following concerns would be considered primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missle Alert Facilities?  

Explanation

The primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missile Alert Facilities would include concerns related to sanitation, food, water, and facility safety. These factors are crucial for ensuring the well-being and health of the personnel working in such facilities. Maintaining proper sanitation practices, providing safe and nutritious food and water, and ensuring the safety of the facility are essential to prevent any physical harm or hazards to the personnel.

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58. If an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is resportable as an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Mishap?  

Explanation

The procedure for determining whether an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) crash is reportable as a mishap involves checking if another Department of Defense (DoD) aircraft was involved. If another DoD aircraft was involved in the incident, then it is considered reportable as a UAV mishap. This suggests that the reportability of the crash depends on the involvement of other DoD aircraft, implying that crashes involving only the UAV itself may not be considered reportable.

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59. What steps need to be completed before completing an aircraft mishap report?  

Explanation

Before completing an aircraft mishap report, it is necessary to compile all the necessary data. This includes gathering information about the incident, such as the date, time, location, and details of what happened. It also involves collecting any relevant documents, such as maintenance records, flight logs, and witness statements. By compiling all the necessary data, the report can provide a comprehensive and accurate account of the mishap, which is crucial for investigating the incident, identifying causes, and implementing preventive measures in the future.

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60. Class E Physiological events are reported by message using the format found in  

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and reports. This document provides guidelines and procedures for reporting and investigating safety incidents. It outlines the format and structure for reporting physiological events that occur in Class E environments. By following the format outlined in this document, accurate and consistent reporting of physiological events can be achieved.

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61. The overall purpose of flight line visits is to  

Explanation

Flight line visits are conducted to promote flying safety. This is because flight line visits allow for the inspection and assessment of aircraft and equipment, ensuring that they are in proper working condition and meet safety standards. Additionally, flight line visits provide an opportunity for pilots and ground crew to discuss any safety concerns or issues that may arise. By promoting flying safety through regular flight line visits, the risk of accidents and incidents can be minimized, ensuring the safety of personnel and aircraft.

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62. What is your specific responsibility to the Life Support Section?  

Explanation

The specific responsibility to the Life Support Section is to provide advice to unit personnel regarding protective equipment programs. This means that the individual is responsible for offering guidance and recommendations to the members of the unit on matters related to protective equipment. This could involve educating them on the proper use and maintenance of protective gear, conducting training sessions, providing updates on new equipment and technologies, and addressing any concerns or questions they may have. The goal is to ensure that unit personnel have the necessary knowledge and resources to effectively utilize protective equipment and maintain their safety.

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63. What is the primary device a computer uses to store information?  

Explanation

A hard disk drive is the primary device a computer uses to store information. It is a non-volatile storage device that stores and retrieves digital information using magnetic storage and rotating disks. It provides a large amount of storage capacity and allows for quick access to stored data.

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64. What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems?  

Explanation

SATE stands for Security Automation, Tools, and Engineering. It is a program that focuses on information protection principles and ensures the consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems. SATE aims to automate security processes, provide tools for effective security management, and enhance the engineering of secure systems. By emphasizing information protection precepts, SATE helps to safeguard Air Force information systems and promote a secure computing environment.

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65. What adminitrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office of record?  

Explanation

The administrative tool that shows every record series maintained for an office of record is called a Files Plan. This tool provides a structured and organized system for managing and categorizing records within an organization. It helps in identifying and locating specific records series, ensuring proper retention and disposal of records, and promoting efficient record-keeping practices.

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66. Once you arrive at the Knowledge Exchange webpage, what should be the next step to begin training on the Physical Examinations Processing Program database?  

Explanation

The next step to begin training on the Physical Examinations Processing Program database is to click on the "Aerospace Medicine" tab. This tab is likely to contain the necessary information and resources for training on the database.

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67. During a physical examination, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on the  

Explanation

The depth of evaluation of any body system during a physical examination depends primarily on the type of medical examination being conducted. Different types of medical examinations may focus on specific body systems or have different levels of thoroughness in evaluating each system. Therefore, the type of examination being performed will determine the extent to which each body system is evaluated.

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68. Members with 4T profile must have the AF Form reviewed every  

Explanation

Members with a 4T profile must have their AF Form reviewed every 30 days.

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69. What organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422?  

Explanation

The organization that authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422 is HQ AFPC.

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70. What must occur to ensure health records are maintained according to Air Force and Joint Commision on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations Standards?  

Explanation

To ensure health records are maintained according to Air Force and Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations Standards, MTF reviews must occur. MTF stands for Medical Treatment Facility, which refers to the healthcare facility where the records are stored. These reviews involve assessing the accuracy, completeness, and compliance of the records with the established standards. Regular MTF reviews help to identify any deficiencies or areas for improvement in the maintenance of health records, ensuring that they meet the required standards for quality and patient safety.

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71. What gas law explains the way in which ascent to altitude induces hypoxia?  

Explanation

Dalton's Law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each individual gas. In the context of ascent to altitude inducing hypoxia, Dalton's Law explains that as altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases. This decrease in pressure leads to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen, resulting in a lower oxygen concentration in the air. This reduced oxygen availability can lead to hypoxia, which is a condition characterized by insufficient oxygen supply to the body's tissues and organs.

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72. Hypoxia is most frequently caused by  

Explanation

Hypoxia is most frequently caused by equipment malfunctions. This means that when equipment, such as oxygen masks or tanks, fails to function properly, it can lead to a lack of oxygen supply to the body, resulting in hypoxia. This can be a critical situation, especially in environments where oxygen levels are already low, such as at high altitudes or in space. Therefore, it is important to regularly check and maintain equipment to prevent malfunctions and ensure the safety of individuals in such situations.

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73. Where would you find very little compact bone?          

Explanation

Bone ends typically have very little compact bone. Compact bone is the dense outer layer of bone that provides strength and protection. However, at the ends of long bones, such as the femur or humerus, the compact bone is thinner and gives way to spongy or cancellous bone. This spongy bone is made up of a lattice-like structure with open spaces filled with bone marrow. The presence of spongy bone at the ends of bones allows for flexibility and shock absorption, as well as providing a site for red blood cell production.

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74. What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?          

Explanation

The purpose of the lymphatic system is to defend the body against infection and remove excess fluids. The lymphatic system consists of lymph nodes, lymph vessels, and lymphatic organs, such as the spleen and thymus. It plays a crucial role in the immune system by filtering and trapping bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens in the lymph nodes. Additionally, the lymphatic system helps to remove excess fluids, waste products, and toxins from the body, maintaining fluid balance and preventing swelling.

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75. The larnyx is composed of how many cartilages?          

Explanation

The larynx is composed of three single cartilages and three paired cartilages. The three single cartilages are the thyroid cartilage, the cricoid cartilage, and the epiglottis. The three paired cartilages are the arytenoid cartilages, the corniculate cartilages, and the cuneiform cartilages.

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76. The largest lymphatic organ is the what?          

Explanation

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is located in the upper left side of the abdomen and is responsible for filtering the blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, and producing white blood cells to help fight infection. The spleen also plays a role in storing and releasing blood cells and platelets when needed.

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77. The small spaces between neurons are called the?          

Explanation

Synapses are the small spaces between neurons where communication and transmission of signals occur. They are crucial for the functioning of the nervous system as they allow for the transfer of information between neurons. Electrical or chemical signals are transmitted across synapses, enabling the brain to process and transmit information throughout the body.

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78. What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?          

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations. It consists of the glomerulus, which filters blood, and the tubules, which reabsorb necessary substances and excrete waste products.

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79. Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MPF at least...          

Explanation

Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MPF at least quarterly. This means that the information is updated and sent to the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) every three months. This regular update ensures that the MPF has the most current and accurate enrollment information for military personnel and their dependents.

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80. What steps must you take before you can access AFCITA?          

Explanation

Before accessing AFCITA, you need to follow a few steps. First, you must contact your local AFCITA program manager. They will provide you with the necessary information and guidance. Next, you need to have an account established. This involves providing your personal details and fulfilling any requirements set by the program manager. Finally, you must have the AFCITA program loaded on your computer. This ensures that you have the necessary software to access and utilize AFCITA effectively.

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81. Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?          

Explanation

Thyroxine is the correct answer because it is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones in the body. Thyroxine plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, growth, and development. It helps to control the rate at which cells use energy and affects various bodily functions, including heart rate, body temperature, and digestion.

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82. Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?          

Explanation

The phase of a patient relationship described in the answer is the introductory phase. This phase focuses on establishing the identity and role of both the patient and the healthcare worker. It also involves clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization, which helps set the foundation for the rest of the patient's healthcare journey.

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83. What percent of medical equipment operation malfuctions are normally attributed to operational error?          

Explanation

Operational error is responsible for 70% of medical equipment operation malfunctions. This means that a significant majority of malfunctions can be attributed to mistakes made during the operation of the equipment. It is crucial for medical professionals to receive proper training and follow protocols to minimize these errors and ensure the safe and effective use of medical equipment.

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84. What long bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?          

Explanation

Sesamoid bones are small, round bones that are embedded within tendons or joint capsules. They are usually located in areas where there is frequent pressure or tension, such as the hands, feet, and knees. These bones act as pulleys, providing a smooth surface for tendons to glide over, reducing friction and increasing efficiency of movement. Therefore, sesamoid bones are the long bones that are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied.

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85. How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?          

Explanation

Equipment inspections are usually conducted on a daily basis. This means that inspections are carried out every day to ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition, meets safety standards, and is ready for use. Daily inspections help identify any potential issues or damages early on, allowing for timely repairs and maintenance to prevent accidents or breakdowns. Regular inspections also help in prolonging the lifespan of the equipment and maintaining its efficiency.

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86. Where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum?          

Explanation

After leaving the ileum, undigested chyme will enter the cecum. The cecum is a pouch-like structure located at the beginning of the large intestine. It receives the chyme from the small intestine and serves as a site for the fermentation of indigestible materials, such as fiber. From the cecum, the chyme will continue to move through the large intestine, where water and electrolytes are absorbed, and eventually be eliminated as feces.

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87. Aqueous humor filles the space between the cornea and the what?          

Explanation

The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The cornea is the clear outer layer of the eye, and the iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil. The aqueous humor is a clear fluid that helps maintain the shape of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens.

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88. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit what system should you use that will support FHP, Population health and MHS Optimization?          

Explanation

AHLTA is the system that should be used to determine the deployment status of a unit as it supports FHP (Force Health Protection), Population health, and MHS (Military Health System) Optimization. AHLTA is an electronic health record system used by the Department of Defense and it provides comprehensive health information for military personnel. It allows for the tracking and monitoring of the health status of individuals and populations, ensuring force readiness and optimizing healthcare resources.

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89. What is the main consideration under the E Physical Profile Factor?          

Explanation

The main consideration under the E Physical Profile Factor is only the distant visual acuity. This means that the primary focus is on the individual's ability to see clearly at a distance. Other aspects of vision, such as near vision or color vision, are not taken into account in this factor.

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90. Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in tenors of function, organization, location, skill, grade, and any other chacteristic needed to clearly define the mission?          

Explanation

A manpower authorization is a funded requirement that defines various aspects of a position, such as its function, organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic necessary to clearly define the mission. It is a formal document that outlines the specific details and specifications for a position, ensuring that the necessary resources and personnel are allocated appropriately.

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91. What administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office of record?          

Explanation

The administrative tool that shows every record series maintained for an office of record is called a Files Plan. A Files Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines the organization's recordkeeping system, including the different types of records, their retention periods, and their disposal processes. It helps in managing and organizing records effectively, ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, and facilitating easy retrieval of information when needed.

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92. What is not a habit of successful PCM teams?          

Explanation

Being punctual is a habit of successful PCM teams.

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93. What special organs do the larger lymphatic vessels lead to?          

Explanation

Larger lymphatic vessels lead to lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that filter lymph fluid and contain immune cells. They play a crucial role in the immune system by trapping and destroying harmful substances, such as bacteria and viruses, before they can spread to other parts of the body. The lymphatic vessels transport lymph fluid, which contains waste products, excess fluids, and immune cells, to the lymph nodes for filtration and removal of harmful substances.

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94. Which sensation is flat associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness?          

Explanation

Numbness is associated with skin manifestations of decompression sickness. Decompression sickness occurs when a person ascends too quickly from a deep dive, causing nitrogen bubbles to form in the blood and tissues. These bubbles can block blood vessels and cause tissue damage, leading to symptoms such as numbness or tingling in the affected area. Therefore, numbness is a common sensation experienced in the skin manifestations of decompression sickness.

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95. The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the?          

Explanation

The perimysium is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual bundles of muscle fibers within a muscle. It lies just below the epimysium, which is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. The perimysium helps to support and protect the muscle fibers within each bundle, while also providing a pathway for blood vessels and nerves to reach the muscle fibers.

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96. Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?          

Explanation

The nurse is responsible for analyzing the performance and health status of patients in a primary care setting. They are trained to assess and monitor vital signs, administer medications, and provide ongoing care and support to patients. Nurses play a crucial role in identifying any changes in a patient's condition and communicating this information to the rest of the care team. They collaborate with other healthcare professionals to develop and implement care plans, ensuring the overall well-being and recovery of patients.

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97. Who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lens program?          

Explanation

Optometry is responsible for training aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lens program. This means that optometrists are in charge of teaching aircrew members how to safely and effectively remove their soft contact lenses in emergency situations. They have the knowledge and expertise in eye care to ensure that aircrew members are equipped with the necessary skills to handle contact lens emergencies.

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98. Which organ secretes the adrenocorticotropic hormones?          

Explanation

The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes the adrenocorticotropic hormones. These hormones stimulate the adrenal glands to produce cortisol, which helps regulate the body's response to stress and inflammation. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in the endocrine system by producing and releasing various hormones that control many bodily functions.

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99. What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?          

Explanation

A bipolar neuron is a type of neuron that has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other. This type of neuron is commonly found in sensory organs such as the retina of the eye and the olfactory epithelium in the nose. The bipolar structure allows for the transmission of signals from sensory receptors to the central nervous system.

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100. What method of measuring altitude is used to measure the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it?          

Explanation

Absolute altitude is the method of measuring altitude that directly measures the distance from the aircraft to the ground directly below it. It provides the most accurate measurement of altitude as it is measured from a fixed reference point, such as sea level. This method is commonly used in aviation to determine the exact height of an aircraft above the ground.

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101. The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in?          

Explanation

AFI 48-123 is a document that specifies the medical standards, frequency, scope, and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly. It outlines the guidelines and procedures that medical professionals must follow when conducting physical examinations in the military. This document ensures that all examinations are conducted consistently and in accordance with the established standards, promoting the health and well-being of military personnel.

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102. What is the function of the interior of the cerebrum?          

Explanation

The interior of the cerebrum is responsible for storing knowledge. This is where information from the senses is processed and stored as memories. The cerebrum is divided into different regions, each with specific functions related to memory and learning. The hippocampus, for example, is involved in forming new memories, while the prefrontal cortex is responsible for working memory and decision-making. Overall, the interior of the cerebrum plays a crucial role in the storage and retrieval of knowledge and memories.

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103. Members may be retained on the temporary disability retirement list for no more than how many years?          

Explanation

Members can be retained on the temporary disability retirement list for a maximum of five years.

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104. The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the?          

Explanation

The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tubules within the cell that is responsible for the transport of molecules. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, folding, and modification of proteins, as well as the synthesis of lipids. The endoplasmic reticulum is connected to the nuclear envelope and extends throughout the cytoplasm, allowing for efficient movement of molecules within the cell. Therefore, the endoplasmic reticulum is the correct answer for the network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell.

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105. As altitude increases, barometric pressure will do what?          

Explanation

As altitude increases, the air pressure decreases. This is because as you go higher in the atmosphere, there is less air above you to exert pressure. Therefore, barometric pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

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106. On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the STS?          

Explanation

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107. Most common sonsory illusion resulting from stimulation of the semi-circular canals?          

Explanation

The Leans is a sensory illusion that occurs when there is a mismatch between the visual and vestibular (semi-circular canals) inputs. This can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a boat or an airplane, and suddenly stops or changes direction. The semi-circular canals detect rotational movements, and when they sense a sudden change in motion, the brain may interpret it as the body still moving in the original direction. This can lead to a sensation of leaning or tilting, even though the body is actually stationary.

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108. Common type of Hypoxia in aircrew members?          

Explanation

Hypoxic hypoxia is a common type of hypoxia experienced by aircrew members. It occurs when there is a decrease in the oxygen content of the air at high altitudes, resulting in a reduced oxygen supply to the body's tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, and shortness of breath. Aircrew members are particularly susceptible to hypoxic hypoxia due to the lower oxygen levels at high altitudes.

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109. What is meant by the statement, "doctrine is authoritative but not directive in nature"?          

Explanation

The statement "doctrine is authoritative but not directive in nature" means that doctrine provides authoritative guidance and knowledge, but it does not provide specific instructions on how to carry out a task or mission. It serves as a resource that offers principles, concepts, and best practices based on experience and expertise, allowing individuals or organizations to adapt and apply them according to their specific circumstances and requirements. Doctrine provides a framework and common understanding, but it does not dictate the exact actions or steps to be taken.

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110. The Air Force Medical Service Doctrine applies to whom?          

Explanation

The Air Force Medical Service Doctrine applies to all Active Duty, Air Force Reserve, Air National guard, and civilian Air Force Personnel. This means that the doctrine is relevant and applicable to all individuals serving in the Air Force, regardless of their specific role or status. It ensures that all personnel are aware of and adhere to the principles and guidelines outlined in the doctrine, promoting consistency and standardization in medical practices within the Air Force.

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111. How does Air Force Doctrine aid AFMS commanders in accomplishing the mission?          

Explanation

AFMS doctrine provides the necessary guidance for commanders in the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) to make informed decisions and effectively utilize available assets in order to accomplish their mission. This doctrine serves as a framework that outlines best practices, strategies, and principles that commanders can refer to when planning and executing their operations. By following this guidance, AFMS commanders can ensure that they are making well-informed decisions and utilizing their resources effectively to achieve their mission objectives.

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112. What type of doctrine guides organizationa nd employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad inits functional areas and operational environments?          

Explanation

Operational Doctrine is the correct answer because it refers to the type of doctrine that guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives. It is broad in its functional areas and operational environments, meaning that it provides general principles and guidelines that can be applied across different situations and contexts. Operational Doctrine helps to ensure consistency and effectiveness in military operations by providing a framework for decision-making and action.

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113. Using the automobile example, which doctrine is best describe and explained if you are a buyer seeking a very fast car with specific qualities such as a "Candy Apple Red" paint job, racing rims and a extended warranty?          

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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114. What are the operational doctrine principles of the Air Force Health Services for maintaining health and fitness?          

Explanation

The operational doctrine principles of the Air Force Health Services for maintaining health and fitness involve integrating prevention-oriented health, fitness, and medical intervention. This means that the Air Force Health Services prioritize proactive measures to prevent health issues and promote overall well-being. They also emphasize the importance of maintaining physical fitness and provide medical interventions when necessary to ensure the health and readiness of service members. By integrating these principles, the Air Force Health Services aim to optimize the health and fitness of their personnel.

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115. What are Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS)?          

Explanation

Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS) refer to basic principles and beliefs that serve as the building blocks for creating Air Force Doctrine Documents (AFDDs). These statements outline the fundamental ideas and values that guide the development and implementation of AFDDs, which are authoritative publications that provide guidance and direction for Air Force operations. FDS help ensure consistency and coherence in the doctrine and serve as a foundation for decision-making and strategic planning within the Air Force.

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Hypoxia is most frequently caused by  
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The largest lymphatic organ is the what?...
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What percent of medical equipment operation malfuctions are normally...
What long bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is...
How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?...
Where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum?...
Aqueous humor filles the space between the cornea and the what?...
If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit what...
What is the main consideration under the E Physical Profile Factor?...
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines...
What administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an...
What is not a habit of successful PCM teams?...
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Which sensation is flat associated with skin manifestations of...
The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the?...
Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of...
Who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft...
Which organ secretes the adrenocorticotropic hormones?...
What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma...
What method of measuring altitude is used to measure the distance from...
The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for...
What is the function of the interior of the cerebrum? ...
Members may be retained on the temporary disability retirement list...
The network of tubules that moves molecules within the cell is the?...
As altitude increases, barometric pressure will do what? ...
On what form would you document specific duty position training that...
Most common sonsory illusion resulting from stimulation of the...
Common type of Hypoxia in aircrew members?...
What is meant by the statement, "doctrine is authoritative but...
The Air Force Medical Service Doctrine applies to whom?...
How does Air Force Doctrine aid AFMS commanders in accomplishing the...
What type of doctrine guides organizationa nd employment of forces...
Using the automobile example, which doctrine is best describe and...
What are the operational doctrine principles of the Air Force Health...
What are Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS)?...
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