B4N051 CDC Volume 2 (2018, Edit Code 05)

100 Questions | By Akamoosejr | Updated: Mar 22, 2022 | Attempts: 178

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1.

(201) Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
- A.
  
  Dentists
- B.
  
  Registered Nurses
- C.
  
  Physician Assistants (PA)
- D.
  
  Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM).
2.

What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
- A.
  
  Patient’s condition and the cost of admission per day.
- B.
  
  Facility policy and the patient’s distance from home.
- C.
  
  Patient’s condition and the facility policy
- D.
  
  Facility policy and patient’s request.
3.

What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
- A.
  
  Evaluate patient.
- B.
  
  Obtain patient’s history.
- C.
  
  Transcribe doctor’s orders
- D.
  
  Obtain patient’s vital signs, height, and weight.
4.

Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
- A.
  
  Pass.
- B.
  
  Discharge
- C.
  
  Subsisting elsewhere.
- D.
  
  Absent without leave (AWOL).
5.

How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility?
- A.
  
  56
- B.
  
  66
- C.
  
  76
- D.
  
  10
6.

A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
- A.
  
  On pass.
- B.
  
  Subsisting out
- C.
  
  On convalescent leave.
- D.
  
  Discharged and an outpatient
7.

If an inpatient chart with doctor’s orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
- A.
  
  Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed.
- B.
  
  Patient is doing well and no problems were noted.
- C.
  
  doctor probably changed the orders verbally.
- D.
  
  Vital signs were not completed.
8.

What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?
- A.
  
  No documentation is required at shift change.
- B.
  
  Document all totals in the Remarks section
- C.
  
  Document in the Grand Total block.
- D.
  
  Circle the last accumulated total.
9.

Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
- A.
  
  Planning
- B.
  
  Assessing
- C.
  
  Evaluating
- D.
  
  Implementing
10.

Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
- A.
  
  An observable change in patient behavior.
- B.
  
  A measurable change in the patient’s condition
- C.
  
  A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning
- D.
  
  A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior.
11.

What is a way to help relieve most of the patient’s concerns prior to surgery?
- A.
  
  Sedation
- B.
  
  Back massage
- C.
  
  Oxygen therapy
- D.
  
  Preoperative teaching
12.

What has a significant impact on the patient’s perceived quality of care and treatment?
- A.
  
  Credentials of the surgeon.
- B.
  
  Availability of a base chaplain
- C.
  
  Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
- D.
  
  Number of nurses and technicians on staff.
13.

What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?
- A.
  
  Reduces the chance of infection.
- B.
  
  Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR).
- C.
  
  Allows for proper suturing of the incision.
- D.
  
  Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed
14.

Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?
- A.
  
  15
- B.
  
  30
- C.
  
  45
- D.
  
  60
15.

What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
- A.
  
  Isolation is necessary.
- B.
  
  No precautions are necessary
- C.
  
  A lead apron is placed over the patient
- D.
  
  Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients.
16.

Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
- A.
  
  Low
- B.
  
  High
- C.
  
  Fowler’s
- D.
  
  Trendelenburg
17.

Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
- A.
  
  Standing hamstring stretches
- B.
  
  Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB).
- C.
  
  Diaphragmatic breathing.
- D.
  
  Circles with the big toe
18.

Which form is used to document a patient’s blood transfusion?
- A.
  
  Standard Form 518.
- B.
  
  Standard Form 3066
- C.
  
  AF Form 2019
- D.
  
  AF Form 3066.
19.

How is whole blood normally supplied?
- A.
  
  100 cc units
- B.
  
  250 cc units.
- C.
  
  450 cc units.
- D.
  
  500 cc units.
20.

What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?
- A.
  
  20
- B.
  
  30
- C.
  
  60
- D.
  
  90
21.

If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
- A.
  
  Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect.
- B.
  
  Place the patient on his or her left side
- C.
  
  Administer 100 percent oxygen.
- D.
  
  Stop the transfusion.
22.

Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?
- A.
  
  Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) devices.
- B.
  
  Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area.
- C.
  
  Administration of oral analgesics.
- D.
  
  Administration of narcotics
23.

Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
- A.
  
  Modified lateral.
- B.
  
  Trendelenberg.
- C.
  
  Semisitting.
- D.
  
  Supine.
24.

Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as
- A.
  
  Infectious
- B.
  
  Congenital
- C.
  
  Pathologic
- D.
  
  Temporary
25.

A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
- A.
  
  Hairline
- B.
  
  Pathologic
- C.
  
  Congenital
- D.
  
  Traumatic