B4N051 CDC Volume 2 (2018, Edit Code 05)
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(201) Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
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Dentists
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Registered Nurses
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Physician Assistants (PA)
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Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM).
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This quiz assesses knowledge on patient management within a medical facility, including admission processes, patient rights, and evacuation procedures.
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- 2.
What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
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Evaluate patient.
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Obtain patient’s history.
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Transcribe doctor’s orders
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Obtain patient’s vital signs, height, and weight.
Correct Answer
A. Obtain patient’s vital signs, height, and weight.Explanation
During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining the appropriate care and treatment plan. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide accurate and up-to-date information to the healthcare team, which is essential for monitoring the patient's condition and making informed decisions regarding their care.Rate this question:
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- 3.
If an inpatient chart with doctor’s orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
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Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed.
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Patient is doing well and no problems were noted.
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doctor probably changed the orders verbally.
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Vital signs were not completed.
Correct Answer
A. Vital signs were not completed.Explanation
If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This is because if the vital signs had been taken, they would have been recorded in the chart as per the doctor's orders. The other options, such as the patient being off the unit having tests completed or the doctor changing the orders verbally, do not provide a direct explanation for the blank chart. Additionally, assuming that the patient is doing well and no problems were noted is not a valid inference as vital signs are an important indicator of a patient's health status.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient’s concerns prior to surgery?
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Sedation
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Back massage
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Oxygen therapy
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Preoperative teaching
Correct Answer
A. Preoperative teachingExplanation
Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, preoperative teaching helps to alleviate anxiety and fear. It allows the patient to be better prepared for the surgery, both mentally and physically, and promotes a sense of control and involvement in their own care. This can lead to improved outcomes and a more positive surgical experience for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What has a significant impact on the patient’s perceived quality of care and treatment?
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Credentials of the surgeon.
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Availability of a base chaplain
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Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
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Number of nurses and technicians on staff.
Correct Answer
A. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staffExplanation
The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When the staff members are professional, they maintain a high level of competence and adhere to ethical standards, which instills confidence in the patient. Additionally, a caring attitude from the staff creates a supportive and empathetic environment, making the patient feel valued and well-cared for. These factors contribute to the overall perception of the quality of care and treatment received by the patient.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
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Crepitus
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Vibration
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Resonance
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Intonation
Correct Answer
A. CrepitusExplanation
Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often associated with joint conditions such as arthritis or fractures. It is characterized by a grinding or cracking noise that can be heard or felt when moving the affected joint. Crepitus is caused by the roughening or loss of cartilage in the joint, leading to bone-on-bone contact.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
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A lifelong process.
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Of no use because they do not fully recover
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continued for six months after the injury occurred
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Continued for up to two years after the final surgery
Correct Answer
A. A lifelong process.Explanation
Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process. This is because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations in mobility and function. The goal of rehabilitation is to maximize the patient's independence and quality of life by focusing on physical therapy, occupational therapy, and other interventions. The process involves ongoing support, adaptive strategies, and assistive devices to help the patient adapt to their new circumstances and manage any complications that may arise. Therefore, rehabilitation for spinal cord injury patients is typically a lifelong commitment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be
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Excited
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Consistent
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Demanding
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Unsympathetic
Correct Answer
A. ConsistentExplanation
When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to be consistent in their behavior and actions. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability, which can help to alleviate the patient's anxiety. By being consistent, healthcare professionals can establish trust and build rapport with the patient, making them feel more comfortable and reassured. This can ultimately contribute to a more positive and effective patient-provider relationship.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?
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Report the suspected abuse.
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Only report if the parents admits abuse
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Counsel the parent on his or her actions.
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Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse.
Correct Answer
A. Report the suspected abuse.Explanation
If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. As a responsible individual, it is our duty to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and allow appropriate authorities to investigate the situation and provide necessary support and intervention.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
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85 to 88 percent
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89 to 91 percent.
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92 to 95 percent
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95 to 98 percent.
Correct Answer
A. 95 to 98 percent.Explanation
The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98 percent. This range indicates the percentage of hemoglobin in the blood that is saturated with oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels below this range may indicate hypoxemia, which is a low oxygen level in the blood, while levels above this range may indicate hyperoxemia, which is an excess of oxygen in the blood. Maintaining oxygen saturation within the normal range is crucial for proper oxygen delivery to the body's tissues and organs.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How are corneal abrasions detected?
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X-ray.
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Venogram
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Angiogram
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Fluorescein stain.
Correct Answer
A. Fluorescein stain.Explanation
Corneal abrasions are detected using a fluorescein stain. This is because the stain helps to highlight any damage or scratches on the surface of the cornea. The stain is applied to the eye and any areas of abrasion will appear as bright green under a blue light. This method allows healthcare professionals to accurately identify and diagnose corneal abrasions, enabling appropriate treatment to be provided. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not used for detecting corneal abrasions as they are imaging techniques that are primarily used for examining blood vessels and internal structures.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How do you apply moist heat?
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Fill a water bottle with hot water and place on affected area.
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Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient
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Wash the affected area with warm water then apply a heat source
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Place the patient under a heat lamp and use a spray bottle to dampen skin.
Correct Answer
A. Moisten a towel and place between heat application and patient -
- 13.
What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?
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Reduces the chance of infection.
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Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR).
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Allows for proper suturing of the incision.
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Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed
Correct Answer
A. Reduces the chance of infection.Explanation
Prepping the skin prior to surgery is important because it helps reduce the chance of infection. By cleaning the skin with an antiseptic solution, bacteria and other microorganisms present on the skin's surface are eliminated or reduced, lowering the risk of introducing them into the surgical site. This is crucial to prevent post-operative infections, which can lead to complications and prolong the healing process. Proper skin preparation is a standard practice in surgical procedures to maintain a sterile environment and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
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Isolation is necessary.
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No precautions are necessary
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A lead apron is placed over the patient
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Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients.
Correct Answer
A. Isolation is necessary.Explanation
After receiving a radioisotope implant, the postoperative patient needs to be isolated to prevent exposure to others. Radioisotopes emit radiation, which can be harmful to others if they come into close contact with the patient. Isolation ensures that the radiation is contained and does not pose a risk to other individuals. This precaution is necessary to protect the health and safety of both the patient and others around them.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
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Standing hamstring stretches
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Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB).
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Diaphragmatic breathing.
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Circles with the big toe
Correct Answer
A. Standing hamstring stretchesExplanation
Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they require the patient to stand and stretch the muscles in the back of their thighs. Postoperative patients may have limited mobility or restrictions on weight-bearing activities, making standing hamstring stretches potentially unsafe or uncomfortable for them. Other exercises listed, such as diaphragmatic breathing, turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB), and circles with the big toe, are commonly used for postoperative patients to promote lung expansion, circulation, and mobility.Rate this question:
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- 16.
If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
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Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect.
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Place the patient on his or her left side
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Administer 100 percent oxygen.
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Stop the transfusion.
Correct Answer
A. Stop the transfusion.Explanation
If a patient receiving a blood transfusion shows signs of distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO). This occurs when the volume of blood transfused exceeds the patient's circulatory capacity. The first step in managing TACO is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further fluid overload. This allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate interventions to alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the
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Dominant right or left side
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Side of the body that is weaker
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Side of the brain that was traumatized
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Position the patient was in when the stroke occurred
Correct Answer
A. Side of the brain that was traumatizedExplanation
When a stroke occurs, it affects the blood flow to a specific area of the brain, causing damage to that area. The side of the brain that is traumatized determines which side of the body will be affected. This is because the brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere controlling the opposite side of the body. Therefore, if the left side of the brain is traumatized, the right side of the body will be affected, and vice versa.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
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Hypernatremia
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Hyperkalemia
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Dehydration
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Aspiration
Correct Answer
A. DehydrationExplanation
When a child experiences nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous, leading to electrolyte imbalances, decreased blood volume, and potential organ damage. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and address fluid intake in a child with nausea and vomiting to prevent dehydration and its associated complications.Rate this question:
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- 19.
How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
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Explain the importance of nutrition
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Ask the patient to try new foods
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Cater to the patient’s customs.
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Bring a tray full of choices.
Correct Answer
A. Cater to the patient’s customs.Explanation
Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By respecting and accommodating these customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and motivated to eat. This approach also promotes a sense of autonomy and control over their meals, which can further enhance their appetite.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The first stage of dying is
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Bargaining
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Depression
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Anger
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Denial
Correct Answer
A. DenialExplanation
In the first stage of dying, known as denial, individuals may refuse to accept or acknowledge the reality of their impending death. This can manifest in various ways, such as avoiding discussions about death, downplaying the severity of their condition, or seeking multiple medical opinions in hopes of finding a different outcome. Denial serves as a defense mechanism, allowing individuals to cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with dying. It provides a temporary sense of control and protection from the distressing reality.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What affects an individual’s feeling about themselves?
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Socioeconomic status.
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Opinions of others.
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Self-perception.
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Job title
Correct Answer
A. Self-perception.Explanation
An individual's feeling about themselves is primarily influenced by their self-perception. This refers to how they view themselves, their abilities, and their worth. Socioeconomic status may have an impact on self-perception, but it is not the sole determinant. Opinions of others can also influence self-perception, but ultimately it is the individual's own perception of themselves that has the most significant effect. Job title may contribute to self-perception, but it is not the main factor.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity?
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Neurosis
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Mania
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Obsession
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Psychosis
Correct Answer
A. ManiaExplanation
Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood, excessive energy, racing thoughts (flight of ideas), and increased physical activity. People experiencing mania often feel elated, have an inflated sense of self-esteem, and engage in impulsive or risky behaviors. This term specifically describes the symptoms mentioned in the question, such as feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity. Neurosis, obsession, and psychosis do not specifically encompass these symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
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Withdrawal
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Suspicion
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Anxiety
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Anger
Correct Answer
A. WithdrawalExplanation
Withdrawal is the correct answer because when a patient feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt, they may exhibit a behavior of withdrawing from social interactions and isolating themselves. This could be a coping mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional pain and rejection. They may feel a lack of motivation to engage with others and may prefer to be alone. This behavior can be a sign of low self-esteem and a desire to avoid potential negative interactions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing?
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Depressant.
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Narcotic
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Alcohol
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Stimulant
Correct Answer
A. StimulantExplanation
Stimulant drugs are known to cause euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), tachycardia (increased heart rate), and rapid breathing. These drugs stimulate the central nervous system, increasing alertness, energy, and overall activity. Common examples of stimulants include amphetamines, cocaine, and caffeine.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned
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Near patient’s shoulder furthest from stretcher
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At the bottom of the bed on the stretcher side.
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At the head of the bed on the stretcher side
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Near patient’s shoulder closest to stretcher
Correct Answer
A. At the head of the bed on the stretcher sideExplanation
The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned at the head of the bed on the stretcher side because this allows them to have a clear view of the patient's condition and to communicate effectively with the rest of the team during the transfer. Being at the head of the bed also allows for better control and coordination of the transfer process, ensuring the safety and comfort of the patient.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the
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Option 1
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Full liquid.
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Clear liquid
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Mineral-restricted.
Correct Answer
A. Clear liquidExplanation
A clear liquid diet is a type of diet that only allows the consumption of clear fluids such as water, broth, and certain juices. While it can be helpful for certain medical conditions or procedures, it is not nutritionally adequate as it lacks essential nutrients like protein, fiber, and vitamins. Therefore, it should not be followed for more than three days to prevent malnutrition and deficiencies. In contrast, a full liquid diet includes more variety and provides a wider range of nutrients, making it a better option for longer periods of time. A mineral-restricted diet, on the other hand, focuses on limiting the intake of certain minerals and is not necessarily inadequate in all nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask?
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Monitor in transport.
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Reduce oxygen flow in transport.
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Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival.
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Reduce oxygen flow in transport and reassess patient on arrival.
Correct Answer
A. Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival.Explanation
When moving a patient on a venturi mask, it is important to monitor the patient during transport to ensure their condition remains stable. This includes monitoring their oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, and overall comfort. Additionally, it is necessary to reassess the patient upon arrival at the new location to determine if any adjustments need to be made to their oxygen therapy or if further interventions are required. This is crucial to ensure the patient's safety and well-being during the transfer process.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
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Pass.
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Discharge
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Subsisting elsewhere.
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Absent without leave (AWOL).
Correct Answer
A. Pass.Explanation
The correct answer is "Pass." In a medical facility, a patient can be granted a pass to temporarily leave the facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours. This allows the patient to attend to personal matters or take a break from the facility while still being under the care of medical professionals.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
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On pass.
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Subsisting out
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On convalescent leave.
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Discharged and an outpatient
Correct Answer
A. Subsisting outExplanation
The correct answer is "subsisting out". This term suggests that the patient is allowed to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment. It implies that the patient is able to sustain themselves and continue their treatment outside of the hospital setting.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?
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Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) devices.
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Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area.
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Administration of oral analgesics.
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Administration of narcotics
Correct Answer
A. Administration of narcoticsExplanation
Administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are powerful pain medications that can suppress the central nervous system, including the respiratory centers in the brain. This can lead to decreased breathing rate and depth, which can be dangerous if not closely monitored. It is important to carefully monitor patients receiving narcotics for any signs of respiratory depression and adjust the dosage accordingly to ensure their safety.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight?
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None. It is normal for a cast to feel tight.
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Remove the cast.
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Bivalve the cast.
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Petal the cast.
Correct Answer
A. Bivalve the cast.Explanation
If a patient complains that their short leg cast feels tight, the appropriate action would be to bivalve the cast. Bivalving involves cutting the cast along its length to create two halves that can be easily opened and closed with straps or tape. This allows for better circulation, reduces pressure, and provides relief to the patient. Removing the cast entirely may not be necessary, as it may still be needed for proper healing. Petaling the cast involves creating small cuts around the edges to relieve pressure, but bivalving is a more effective solution.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
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Phantom limb pain.
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Phantom limb sensation
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Physiological phenomena.
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Psychological phenomena.
Correct Answer
A. Phantom limb pain.Explanation
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb is commonly known as phantom limb pain. This sensation is a real physical phenomenon and is not just a psychological experience. It occurs due to the brain's attempt to process and interpret signals from the nerves that used to be connected to the amputated limb. Despite the absence of the limb, the brain still receives signals and interprets them as pain, leading to the sensation of phantom limb pain.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
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Nasogastric (NG) tube
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Tourniquet
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Oxygen
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Suction
Correct Answer
A. TourniquetExplanation
A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to temporarily restrict blood flow to a limb during surgery or in emergency situations. It helps control bleeding and reduces the risk of excessive blood loss. After a surgical amputation, there may be residual bleeding or the need for further surgical intervention, and having a tourniquet readily available allows for immediate control of bleeding if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
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The physician needs to suture the child’s face.
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The child continues to climb out of bed in the night
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To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair
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You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child.
Correct Answer
A. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child.Explanation
The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it does not prioritize the safety and well-being of the child. Restraining a child should only be done when necessary for their own protection or the protection of others, such as in the case of medical procedures or preventing accidents. Prioritizing other tasks over the child's safety is not an appropriate reason for restraining them.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using
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Alcohol
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Lotion
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Lanolin
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Antiseptic soap.
Correct Answer
A. AlcoholExplanation
Alcohol can be drying and irritating to the skin, especially for the elderly who may already have dry or sensitive skin. It can strip the skin of its natural oils and disrupt the skin's barrier function, leading to further dryness and potential skin damage. Therefore, it is important to avoid using alcohol-based products when providing skin care for the elderly.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
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Compulsion
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Delusion
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Anxiety
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Conflict
Correct Answer
A. CompulsionExplanation
A compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform, even though it may not make sense to others or be necessary. It is characterized by an irresistible urge and is often associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD experience distressing thoughts or obsessions, and performing compulsions temporarily relieves their anxiety. Therefore, a compulsion aligns with the given definition of an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?
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During preadmission
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Within 12 hours of admission.
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Within 24 hours of admission
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As soon as the patient is admitted.
Correct Answer
A. As soon as the patient is admitted.Explanation
The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial in treating mental illness. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows for early assessment, diagnosis, and the development of an individualized treatment plan. It also helps to establish a therapeutic relationship between the patient and healthcare providers, promoting trust and collaboration. By starting rehabilitation early, the patient can receive the necessary support and interventions to manage their symptoms and improve their overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 38.
When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is
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Behavior
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Appearance
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Conversation
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Sleeping habits
Correct Answer
A. BehaviorExplanation
When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, behavior is the most important factor to consider. This is because behavior provides valuable insights into the patient's mental state, emotions, and overall functioning. It allows healthcare professionals to assess symptoms, identify patterns, and determine the effectiveness of interventions. Appearance, conversation, and sleeping habits can also provide useful information, but behavior is the primary indicator of mental health and should be given the highest priority in the observation and reporting process.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?
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Counseling is sought
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Tension and stress builds
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Physical or verbal abuse occurs.
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Spouse states it will never happen again.
Correct Answer
A. Spouse states it will never happen again.Explanation
In the third and final phase of spousal abuse, the abusive spouse typically makes a promise that the abuse will never happen again. This is known as the "honeymoon phase" where the abuser tries to regain control and manipulate the victim into staying in the relationship. However, it is important to note that this promise is often false and the cycle of abuse is likely to continue.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?
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Draw blood for alcohol and drug testing.
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Monitor vital signs and sustain life.
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Contact the First Sergeant.
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Contact Security Forces
Correct Answer
A. Monitor vital signs and sustain life.Explanation
When providing care to a patient who has abused a substance, the priority is to monitor their vital signs and sustain life. This means ensuring that the patient's heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, and other essential functions are stable and supporting their overall well-being. The immediate focus should be on addressing any life-threatening issues and providing necessary medical interventions to stabilize the patient. Drawing blood for alcohol and drug testing, contacting the First Sergeant, and contacting Security Forces may be important steps to take later on, but they are not the immediate priority in providing care to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
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Involve the patient in group therapy sessions
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Allow the patient to become physically abusive
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Refer the patient to the nurse or physician for counseling
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Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression.
Correct Answer
A. Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression.Explanation
To help patients who become angry and hostile, it is important to allow them to express their hostility verbally. This can provide a safe outlet for their emotions and prevent them from resorting to physical aggression. By encouraging them to express themselves verbally, it allows them to communicate their feelings and concerns, potentially leading to a better understanding of their needs and finding appropriate solutions.Rate this question:
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- 42.
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every
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one hour
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Two hours.
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Hree hours
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Four hours
Correct Answer
A. Two hours.Explanation
Decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, occur when there is prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Changing the patient's position regularly helps to relieve pressure and prevent the development of these ulcers. The recommended frequency for repositioning is every two hours. This allows for adequate blood flow and oxygenation to the tissues, reducing the risk of tissue damage. Changing positions every one hour may be too frequent and disruptive for the patient, while every three or four hours may not provide sufficient relief from pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is two hours.Rate this question:
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- 43.
To use the internal girdle of support, you must
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Simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.
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simultaneously contract abdominal and shoulder muscles.
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Contract buttocks muscles and relax abdominal muscles
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Contract abdominal muscles and relax buttocks muscles.
Correct Answer
A. Simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.Explanation
To use the internal girdle of support, it is necessary to simultaneously contract the abdominal and buttocks muscles. This is because these muscles work together to provide stability and support to the core and pelvis. By contracting both the abdominal and buttocks muscles at the same time, the internal girdle of support is activated, which helps to maintain proper posture and alignment, and also assists in preventing lower back pain and injuries.Rate this question:
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- 44.
During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?
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20°, 4 to 5 inches
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30°, 6 to 10 inches
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60°, 4 to 5 inches
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90°, 6 to 10 inches.
Correct Answer
A. 90°, 6 to 10 inches.Explanation
During catheterization of a male patient, the penis is held at a 90° angle and the catheter is inserted 6 to 10 inches. This angle allows for easier insertion of the catheter into the urethra, while the length ensures that the catheter reaches the bladder to drain urine effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?
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Dry
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Wet
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Wet to dry.
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Wet to wet
Correct Answer
A. Wet to dry.Explanation
To apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound, the wet to dry method is used. This involves moistening a sterile dressing with a saline solution and placing it on the wound. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound surface and when removed, it helps to remove any dead or infected tissue, promoting wound healing. This method is commonly used for wounds with necrotic or sloughy tissue that needs to be removed.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which form is used to document a patient’s blood transfusion?
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Standard Form 518.
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Standard Form 3066
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AF Form 2019
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AF Form 3066.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Form 518.Explanation
Standard Form 518 is used to document a patient's blood transfusion. This form is specifically designed for recording the details of blood transfusions, including the patient's information, the type and amount of blood transfused, any reactions or complications, and the signatures of the healthcare professionals involved. It serves as a standardized document to ensure accurate and consistent documentation of blood transfusions, which is crucial for patient safety and continuity of care.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as
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Infectious
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Congenital
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Pathologic
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Temporary
Correct Answer
A. CongenitalExplanation
Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that they are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of the bones, joints, or muscles. These deformities are not caused by infection or disease, but rather by genetic or environmental factors that affect the development of the musculoskeletal system during fetal development. Therefore, the correct answer is congenital.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
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Hairline
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Pathologic
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Congenital
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Traumatic
Correct Answer
A. PathologicExplanation
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone breaks due to an underlying disease or condition, rather than from a traumatic injury. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and weaken it, making it more susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are often more difficult to treat and may require additional interventions, such as surgery or radiation therapy, to address the underlying disease.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?
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Early infancy
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Preschool.
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School age.
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Adolescence
Correct Answer
A. Preschool.Explanation
During the preschool stage of child development, separation anxiety is most stressful. This is because preschool-aged children are starting to develop a sense of independence and autonomy, but they still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for support and security. As a result, when they are separated from their caregivers, they may experience heightened anxiety and distress. This stage is characterized by increasing social interactions and exploration, which can make separation from familiar and trusted individuals particularly challenging for preschoolers.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 14, 2018Quiz Created by
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