B4N051 CDC Volume 2 (2018, Edit Code 05)

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 155

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B4N051 CDC Volume 2 (2018, Edit Code 05) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?
    • A. 

      Dentists

    • B. 

      Registered Nurses

    • C. 

      Physician Assistants (PA)

    • D. 

      Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM).

  • 2. 
    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
    • A. 

      Patient’s condition and the cost of admission per day.

    • B. 

      Facility policy and the patient’s distance from home.

    • C. 

      Patient’s condition and the facility policy

    • D. 

      Facility policy and patient’s request.

  • 3. 
    What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
    • A. 

      Evaluate patient.

    • B. 

      Obtain patient’s history.

    • C. 

      Transcribe doctor’s orders

    • D. 

      Obtain patient’s vital signs, height, and weight.

  • 4. 
    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
    • A. 

      Pass.

    • B. 

      Discharge

    • C. 

      Subsisting elsewhere.

    • D. 

      Absent without leave (AWOL).

  • 5. 
    How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility?
    • A. 

      56

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      76

    • D. 

      10

  • 6. 
    A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
    • A. 

      On pass.

    • B. 

      Subsisting out

    • C. 

      On convalescent leave.

    • D. 

      Discharged and an outpatient

  • 7. 
    If an inpatient chart with doctor’s orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
    • A. 

      Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed.

    • B. 

      Patient is doing well and no problems were noted.

    • C. 

      doctor probably changed the orders verbally.

    • D. 

      Vital signs were not completed.

  • 8. 
    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?
    • A. 

      No documentation is required at shift change.

    • B. 

      Document all totals in the Remarks section

    • C. 

      Document in the Grand Total block.

    • D. 

      Circle the last accumulated total.

  • 9. 
    Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Assessing

    • C. 

      Evaluating

    • D. 

      Implementing

  • 10. 
    Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
    • A. 

      An observable change in patient behavior.

    • B. 

      A measurable change in the patient’s condition

    • C. 

      A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning

    • D. 

      A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior.

  • 11. 
    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient’s concerns prior to surgery?
    • A. 

      Sedation

    • B. 

      Back massage

    • C. 

      Oxygen therapy

    • D. 

      Preoperative teaching

  • 12. 
    What has a significant impact on the patient’s perceived quality of care and treatment?
    • A. 

      Credentials of the surgeon.

    • B. 

      Availability of a base chaplain

    • C. 

      Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff

    • D. 

      Number of nurses and technicians on staff.

  • 13. 
    What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?
    • A. 

      Reduces the chance of infection.

    • B. 

      Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR).

    • C. 

      Allows for proper suturing of the incision.

    • D. 

      Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed

  • 14. 
    Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 15. 
    What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
    • A. 

      Isolation is necessary.

    • B. 

      No precautions are necessary

    • C. 

      A lead apron is placed over the patient

    • D. 

      Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients.

  • 16. 
    Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
    • A. 

      Low

    • B. 

      High

    • C. 

      Fowler’s

    • D. 

      Trendelenburg

  • 17. 
    Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?
    • A. 

      Standing hamstring stretches

    • B. 

      Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB).

    • C. 

      Diaphragmatic breathing.

    • D. 

      Circles with the big toe

  • 18. 
    Which form is used to document a patient’s blood transfusion?
    • A. 

      Standard Form 518.

    • B. 

      Standard Form 3066

    • C. 

      AF Form 2019

    • D. 

      AF Form 3066.

  • 19. 
    How is whole blood normally supplied?
    • A. 

      100 cc units

    • B. 

      250 cc units.

    • C. 

      450 cc units.

    • D. 

      500 cc units.

  • 20. 
    What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 21. 
    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
    • A. 

      Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect.

    • B. 

      Place the patient on his or her left side

    • C. 

      Administer 100 percent oxygen.

    • D. 

      Stop the transfusion.

  • 22. 
    Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?
    • A. 

      Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) devices.

    • B. 

      Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area.

    • C. 

      Administration of oral analgesics.

    • D. 

      Administration of narcotics

  • 23. 
    Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
    • A. 

      Modified lateral.

    • B. 

      Trendelenberg.

    • C. 

      Semisitting.

    • D. 

      Supine.

  • 24. 
    Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as
    • A. 

      Infectious

    • B. 

      Congenital

    • C. 

      Pathologic

    • D. 

      Temporary

  • 25. 
    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
    • A. 

      Hairline

    • B. 

      Pathologic

    • C. 

      Congenital

    • D. 

      Traumatic

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