B4N051 CDC Volume 2 (2018, Edit Code 05)

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1. (201) Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?

Explanation

Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. They are trained healthcare professionals who can provide a wide range of patient care services, including administering medications, performing procedures, and providing patient education. Therefore, they are not the individuals who are not authorized to see and treat patients.

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About This Quiz
Medical Training Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge on patient management within a medical facility, including admission processes, patient rights, and evacuation procedures.

2. What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

Explanation

During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This information is crucial for assessing the patient's overall health and determining the appropriate care and treatment plan. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide accurate and up-to-date information to the healthcare team, which is essential for monitoring the patient's condition and making informed decisions regarding their care.

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3. If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

Explanation

If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This is because if the vital signs had been taken, they would have been recorded in the chart as per the doctor's orders. The other options, such as the patient being off the unit having tests completed or the doctor changing the orders verbally, do not provide a direct explanation for the blank chart. Additionally, assuming that the patient is doing well and no problems were noted is not a valid inference as vital signs are an important indicator of a patient's health status.

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4. What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

Explanation

Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information about the procedure, what to expect, and addressing any questions or concerns the patient may have, preoperative teaching helps to alleviate anxiety and fear. It allows the patient to be better prepared for the surgery, both mentally and physically, and promotes a sense of control and involvement in their own care. This can lead to improved outcomes and a more positive surgical experience for the patient.

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5. What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

Explanation

The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. When the staff members are professional, they maintain a high level of competence and adhere to ethical standards, which instills confidence in the patient. Additionally, a caring attitude from the staff creates a supportive and empathetic environment, making the patient feel valued and well-cared for. These factors contribute to the overall perception of the quality of care and treatment received by the patient.

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6. Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

Explanation

Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. This sound is often associated with joint conditions such as arthritis or fractures. It is characterized by a grinding or cracking noise that can be heard or felt when moving the affected joint. Crepitus is caused by the roughening or loss of cartilage in the joint, leading to bone-on-bone contact.

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7. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally

Explanation

Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally a lifelong process. This is because spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage and limitations in mobility and function. The goal of rehabilitation is to maximize the patient's independence and quality of life by focusing on physical therapy, occupational therapy, and other interventions. The process involves ongoing support, adaptive strategies, and assistive devices to help the patient adapt to their new circumstances and manage any complications that may arise. Therefore, rehabilitation for spinal cord injury patients is typically a lifelong commitment.

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8. Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be

Explanation

When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to be consistent in their behavior and actions. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability, which can help to alleviate the patient's anxiety. By being consistent, healthcare professionals can establish trust and build rapport with the patient, making them feel more comfortable and reassured. This can ultimately contribute to a more positive and effective patient-provider relationship.

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9. What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises?

Explanation

If a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises, it is important to report the suspected abuse. As a responsible individual, it is our duty to ensure the safety and well-being of children. Reporting the suspected abuse can help protect the child from further harm and allow appropriate authorities to investigate the situation and provide necessary support and intervention.

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10. What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?

Explanation

The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is 95 to 98 percent. This range indicates the percentage of hemoglobin in the blood that is saturated with oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels below this range may indicate hypoxemia, which is a low oxygen level in the blood, while levels above this range may indicate hyperoxemia, which is an excess of oxygen in the blood. Maintaining oxygen saturation within the normal range is crucial for proper oxygen delivery to the body's tissues and organs.

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11. How are corneal abrasions detected?

Explanation

Corneal abrasions are detected using a fluorescein stain. This is because the stain helps to highlight any damage or scratches on the surface of the cornea. The stain is applied to the eye and any areas of abrasion will appear as bright green under a blue light. This method allows healthcare professionals to accurately identify and diagnose corneal abrasions, enabling appropriate treatment to be provided. X-ray, venogram, and angiogram are not used for detecting corneal abrasions as they are imaging techniques that are primarily used for examining blood vessels and internal structures.

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12. How do you apply moist heat?

Explanation

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13. The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the

Explanation

A clear liquid diet is a type of diet that only allows the consumption of clear fluids such as water, broth, and certain juices. While it can be helpful for certain medical conditions or procedures, it is not nutritionally adequate as it lacks essential nutrients like protein, fiber, and vitamins. Therefore, it should not be followed for more than three days to prevent malnutrition and deficiencies. In contrast, a full liquid diet includes more variety and provides a wider range of nutrients, making it a better option for longer periods of time. A mineral-restricted diet, on the other hand, focuses on limiting the intake of certain minerals and is not necessarily inadequate in all nutrients.

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14. What is the best reason for preping the skin prior to surgery?

Explanation

Prepping the skin prior to surgery is important because it helps reduce the chance of infection. By cleaning the skin with an antiseptic solution, bacteria and other microorganisms present on the skin's surface are eliminated or reduced, lowering the risk of introducing them into the surgical site. This is crucial to prevent post-operative infections, which can lead to complications and prolong the healing process. Proper skin preparation is a standard practice in surgical procedures to maintain a sterile environment and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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15. What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

Explanation

After receiving a radioisotope implant, the postoperative patient needs to be isolated to prevent exposure to others. Radioisotopes emit radiation, which can be harmful to others if they come into close contact with the patient. Isolation ensures that the radiation is contained and does not pose a risk to other individuals. This precaution is necessary to protect the health and safety of both the patient and others around them.

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16. Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?

Explanation

Standing hamstring stretches are not commonly used for postoperative patients because they require the patient to stand and stretch the muscles in the back of their thighs. Postoperative patients may have limited mobility or restrictions on weight-bearing activities, making standing hamstring stretches potentially unsafe or uncomfortable for them. Other exercises listed, such as diaphragmatic breathing, turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB), and circles with the big toe, are commonly used for postoperative patients to promote lung expansion, circulation, and mobility.

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17. If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

Explanation

If a patient receiving a blood transfusion shows signs of distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO). This occurs when the volume of blood transfused exceeds the patient's circulatory capacity. The first step in managing TACO is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further fluid overload. This allows healthcare professionals to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate interventions to alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.

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18. The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the

Explanation

When a stroke occurs, it affects the blood flow to a specific area of the brain, causing damage to that area. The side of the brain that is traumatized determines which side of the body will be affected. This is because the brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere controlling the opposite side of the body. Therefore, if the left side of the brain is traumatized, the right side of the body will be affected, and vice versa.

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19. When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be

Explanation

When a child experiences nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can be dangerous, leading to electrolyte imbalances, decreased blood volume, and potential organ damage. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor and address fluid intake in a child with nausea and vomiting to prevent dehydration and its associated complications.

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20. How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

Explanation

Catering to the patient's customs can help stimulate their appetite because it allows them to eat foods that they are familiar with and enjoy. Elderly patients may have specific dietary preferences or restrictions based on their cultural background or personal habits. By respecting and accommodating these customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and motivated to eat. This approach also promotes a sense of autonomy and control over their meals, which can further enhance their appetite.

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21. The first stage of dying is

Explanation

In the first stage of dying, known as denial, individuals may refuse to accept or acknowledge the reality of their impending death. This can manifest in various ways, such as avoiding discussions about death, downplaying the severity of their condition, or seeking multiple medical opinions in hopes of finding a different outcome. Denial serves as a defense mechanism, allowing individuals to cope with the overwhelming emotions and fear associated with dying. It provides a temporary sense of control and protection from the distressing reality.

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22. What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?

Explanation

An individual's feeling about themselves is primarily influenced by their self-perception. This refers to how they view themselves, their abilities, and their worth. Socioeconomic status may have an impact on self-perception, but it is not the sole determinant. Opinions of others can also influence self-perception, but ultimately it is the individual's own perception of themselves that has the most significant effect. Job title may contribute to self-perception, but it is not the main factor.

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23. Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity?

Explanation

Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood, excessive energy, racing thoughts (flight of ideas), and increased physical activity. People experiencing mania often feel elated, have an inflated sense of self-esteem, and engage in impulsive or risky behaviors. This term specifically describes the symptoms mentioned in the question, such as feelings of elation and wellbeing, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity. Neurosis, obsession, and psychosis do not specifically encompass these symptoms.

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24. A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of

Explanation

Withdrawal is the correct answer because when a patient feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt, they may exhibit a behavior of withdrawing from social interactions and isolating themselves. This could be a coping mechanism to protect themselves from further emotional pain and rejection. They may feel a lack of motivation to engage with others and may prefer to be alone. This behavior can be a sign of low self-esteem and a desire to avoid potential negative interactions.

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25. Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing?

Explanation

Stimulant drugs are known to cause euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), tachycardia (increased heart rate), and rapid breathing. These drugs stimulate the central nervous system, increasing alertness, energy, and overall activity. Common examples of stimulants include amphetamines, cocaine, and caffeine.

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26. The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned

Explanation

The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned at the head of the bed on the stretcher side because this allows them to have a clear view of the patient's condition and to communicate effectively with the rest of the team during the transfer. Being at the head of the bed also allows for better control and coordination of the transfer process, ensuring the safety and comfort of the patient.

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27. What action(s) should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask?

Explanation

When moving a patient on a venturi mask, it is important to monitor the patient during transport to ensure their condition remains stable. This includes monitoring their oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, and overall comfort. Additionally, it is necessary to reassess the patient upon arrival at the new location to determine if any adjustments need to be made to their oxygen therapy or if further interventions are required. This is crucial to ensure the patient's safety and well-being during the transfer process.

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28. Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pass." In a medical facility, a patient can be granted a pass to temporarily leave the facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours. This allows the patient to attend to personal matters or take a break from the facility while still being under the care of medical professionals.

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29. A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered

Explanation

The correct answer is "subsisting out". This term suggests that the patient is allowed to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment. It implies that the patient is able to sustain themselves and continue their treatment outside of the hospital setting.

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30. Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?

Explanation

Administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are powerful pain medications that can suppress the central nervous system, including the respiratory centers in the brain. This can lead to decreased breathing rate and depth, which can be dangerous if not closely monitored. It is important to carefully monitor patients receiving narcotics for any signs of respiratory depression and adjust the dosage accordingly to ensure their safety.

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31. What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight?

Explanation

If a patient complains that their short leg cast feels tight, the appropriate action would be to bivalve the cast. Bivalving involves cutting the cast along its length to create two halves that can be easily opened and closed with straps or tape. This allows for better circulation, reduces pressure, and provides relief to the patient. Removing the cast entirely may not be necessary, as it may still be needed for proper healing. Petaling the cast involves creating small cuts around the edges to relieve pressure, but bivalving is a more effective solution.

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32. The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a

Explanation

The cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb is commonly known as phantom limb pain. This sensation is a real physical phenomenon and is not just a psychological experience. It occurs due to the brain's attempt to process and interpret signals from the nerves that used to be connected to the amputated limb. Despite the absence of the limb, the brain still receives signals and interprets them as pain, leading to the sensation of phantom limb pain.

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33. What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

Explanation

A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to temporarily restrict blood flow to a limb during surgery or in emergency situations. It helps control bleeding and reduces the risk of excessive blood loss. After a surgical amputation, there may be residual bleeding or the need for further surgical intervention, and having a tourniquet readily available allows for immediate control of bleeding if necessary.

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34. Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

Explanation

The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it does not prioritize the safety and well-being of the child. Restraining a child should only be done when necessary for their own protection or the protection of others, such as in the case of medical procedures or preventing accidents. Prioritizing other tasks over the child's safety is not an appropriate reason for restraining them.

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35. When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using

Explanation

Alcohol can be drying and irritating to the skin, especially for the elderly who may already have dry or sensitive skin. It can strip the skin of its natural oils and disrupt the skin's barrier function, leading to further dryness and potential skin damage. Therefore, it is important to avoid using alcohol-based products when providing skin care for the elderly.

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36. Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

Explanation

A compulsion is a repetitive behavior or mental act that a person feels driven to perform, even though it may not make sense to others or be necessary. It is characterized by an irresistible urge and is often associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). People with OCD experience distressing thoughts or obsessions, and performing compulsions temporarily relieves their anxiety. Therefore, a compulsion aligns with the given definition of an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions.

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37. When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

Explanation

The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial in treating mental illness. Starting the rehabilitation process immediately allows for early assessment, diagnosis, and the development of an individualized treatment plan. It also helps to establish a therapeutic relationship between the patient and healthcare providers, promoting trust and collaboration. By starting rehabilitation early, the patient can receive the necessary support and interventions to manage their symptoms and improve their overall well-being.

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38. When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is

Explanation

When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, behavior is the most important factor to consider. This is because behavior provides valuable insights into the patient's mental state, emotions, and overall functioning. It allows healthcare professionals to assess symptoms, identify patterns, and determine the effectiveness of interventions. Appearance, conversation, and sleeping habits can also provide useful information, but behavior is the primary indicator of mental health and should be given the highest priority in the observation and reporting process.

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39. What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse?

Explanation

In the third and final phase of spousal abuse, the abusive spouse typically makes a promise that the abuse will never happen again. This is known as the "honeymoon phase" where the abuser tries to regain control and manipulate the victim into staying in the relationship. However, it is important to note that this promise is often false and the cycle of abuse is likely to continue.

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40. What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance?

Explanation

When providing care to a patient who has abused a substance, the priority is to monitor their vital signs and sustain life. This means ensuring that the patient's heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, and other essential functions are stable and supporting their overall well-being. The immediate focus should be on addressing any life-threatening issues and providing necessary medical interventions to stabilize the patient. Drawing blood for alcohol and drug testing, contacting the First Sergeant, and contacting Security Forces may be important steps to take later on, but they are not the immediate priority in providing care to the patient.

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41. What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?

Explanation

To help patients who become angry and hostile, it is important to allow them to express their hostility verbally. This can provide a safe outlet for their emotions and prevent them from resorting to physical aggression. By encouraging them to express themselves verbally, it allows them to communicate their feelings and concerns, potentially leading to a better understanding of their needs and finding appropriate solutions.

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42. To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every

Explanation

Decubitus ulcers, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, occur when there is prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Changing the patient's position regularly helps to relieve pressure and prevent the development of these ulcers. The recommended frequency for repositioning is every two hours. This allows for adequate blood flow and oxygenation to the tissues, reducing the risk of tissue damage. Changing positions every one hour may be too frequent and disruptive for the patient, while every three or four hours may not provide sufficient relief from pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is two hours.

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43. To use the internal girdle of support, you must

Explanation

To use the internal girdle of support, it is necessary to simultaneously contract the abdominal and buttocks muscles. This is because these muscles work together to provide stability and support to the core and pelvis. By contracting both the abdominal and buttocks muscles at the same time, the internal girdle of support is activated, which helps to maintain proper posture and alignment, and also assists in preventing lower back pain and injuries.

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44. During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?

Explanation

During catheterization of a male patient, the penis is held at a 90° angle and the catheter is inserted 6 to 10 inches. This angle allows for easier insertion of the catheter into the urethra, while the length ensures that the catheter reaches the bladder to drain urine effectively.

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45. How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?

Explanation

To apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound, the wet to dry method is used. This involves moistening a sterile dressing with a saline solution and placing it on the wound. As the dressing dries, it adheres to the wound surface and when removed, it helps to remove any dead or infected tissue, promoting wound healing. This method is commonly used for wounds with necrotic or sloughy tissue that needs to be removed.

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46. Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion?

Explanation

Standard Form 518 is used to document a patient's blood transfusion. This form is specifically designed for recording the details of blood transfusions, including the patient's information, the type and amount of blood transfused, any reactions or complications, and the signatures of the healthcare professionals involved. It serves as a standardized document to ensure accurate and consistent documentation of blood transfusions, which is crucial for patient safety and continuity of care.

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47. Orthopaedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as

Explanation

Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital. This means that they are present at birth and are a result of abnormal development or formation of the bones, joints, or muscles. These deformities are not caused by infection or disease, but rather by genetic or environmental factors that affect the development of the musculoskeletal system during fetal development. Therefore, the correct answer is congenital.

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48. A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called

Explanation

A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when a weakened bone breaks due to an underlying disease or condition, rather than from a traumatic injury. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and weaken it, making it more susceptible to fractures. Pathologic fractures are often more difficult to treat and may require additional interventions, such as surgery or radiation therapy, to address the underlying disease.

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49. During which child developmental stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

Explanation

During the preschool stage of child development, separation anxiety is most stressful. This is because preschool-aged children are starting to develop a sense of independence and autonomy, but they still rely heavily on their primary caregivers for support and security. As a result, when they are separated from their caregivers, they may experience heightened anxiety and distress. This stage is characterized by increasing social interactions and exploration, which can make separation from familiar and trusted individuals particularly challenging for preschoolers.

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50. There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident?

Explanation

If a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within 30 minutes of the accident, there is a high rate of success. This is because the sooner the procedure is performed, the higher the chances of successfully reattaching or replacing the tooth. Delaying the procedure for a longer period of time may result in complications such as infection or the inability to save the tooth. Therefore, acting promptly within the first 30 minutes is crucial for a successful tooth replacement procedure.

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51. What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

Explanation

The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is important in determining the level of care and treatment required, which will influence the steps in the admission process. The facility policy also plays a role in determining the necessary procedures and protocols to be followed during the admission process. Both factors need to be taken into consideration to ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and that the facility operates in accordance with its policies and guidelines.

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52. Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?

Explanation

Antiembolism stockings are used to prevent blood clots in the legs. These stockings should not be removed for an extended period without provider approval because doing so can increase the risk of blood clots. The maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed without provider approval is 30 minutes. Removing the stockings for longer than this duration without medical supervision may compromise the effectiveness of the stockings in preventing blood clots.

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53. What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?

Explanation

The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30 minutes. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Transfusing the blood products within this time frame helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and maintain the quality of the blood products.

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54. The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

Explanation

Regression is the correct answer because it refers to a normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control. Regression involves reverting back to behaviors or actions that were typical of an earlier stage of development, providing a sense of comfort and security. This can include behaviors such as thumb-sucking, bed-wetting, or seeking more attention from parents. By regressing, children are able to cope with feelings of helplessness or insecurity.

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55. Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?

Explanation

Drawsheets and roller boards are devices commonly used in healthcare settings to facilitate the transfer of patients from a bed to a stretcher. A drawsheet is a flat sheet placed under the patient, which can be used to slide them across surfaces. A roller board, on the other hand, is a specialized device with rollers that allows for easy lateral transfer of patients. By using both the drawsheet and roller board together, healthcare professionals can safely and efficiently move a patient from the bed to a stretcher, minimizing the risk of injury to both the patient and the caregivers.

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56. What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?

Explanation

During gastric gavage, the solution temperature should be at room temperature. This is because extreme temperatures, whether hot or chilled, can cause discomfort or even harm to the patient. Lukewarm temperature is also not recommended as it can still cause discomfort. Room temperature is considered the most suitable as it is neither too hot nor too cold, ensuring the patient's comfort and safety during the procedure.

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57. For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned

Explanation

For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned on his or her left side. This position allows for better flow and retention of the enema solution. It helps in the proper distribution of the solution throughout the colon, allowing for effective cleansing and evacuation. Additionally, the left side position minimizes the risk of aspiration and discomfort for the patient during the procedure.

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58. How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility?

Explanation

The correct answer is 66. This suggests that a patient being aero-medically evacuated to another facility is allowed to carry 66 pounds of baggage.

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59. Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

Explanation

Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves creating a roadmap for the patient's care. It includes setting goals, determining interventions, and organizing resources to address the identified nursing diagnoses. Through planning, nurses can prioritize and coordinate their actions to effectively resolve the patient's health issues. Assessing helps in gathering information about the patient's condition, evaluating involves determining the effectiveness of interventions, and implementing refers to carrying out the planned interventions. However, planning is the initial and crucial step in the nursing process that guides the entire care process.

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60. How is whole blood normally supplied?

Explanation

Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that a standard unit of whole blood contains 450 cubic centimeters of blood. This is the typical volume of blood that is collected from a donor and used for transfusions or other medical purposes. Other options, such as 100 cc units, 250 cc units, and 500 cc units, are not the standard volumes for whole blood supply.

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61. Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except

Explanation

Psychotherapy typically involves various forms of talk therapy, such as hypnosis and psychoanalysis, as well as occupational therapy to help individuals improve their daily functioning. However, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not considered a part of psychotherapy. ECT is a medical procedure that involves the use of electric currents to induce seizures in order to treat severe mental illnesses, such as major depression or bipolar disorder. While it may be used in conjunction with psychotherapy, it is not a form of psychotherapy itself.

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62. When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to

Explanation

When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, developing a good rapport is the primary goal. This is because establishing a positive and trusting relationship with the patient is essential for effective treatment and therapy. It helps create a safe and supportive environment where the patient feels comfortable expressing their thoughts and emotions. By building a good rapport, healthcare professionals can better understand the patient's needs and tailor their activities and interventions accordingly. Motivating the patient, reassuring them, and showing sincere concern are important aspects of developing a good rapport, but they are secondary goals in this context.

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63. Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?

Explanation

When standing, keeping the feet parallel helps to maintain balance by evenly distributing the weight across both feet. This prevents any excessive strain on the back, hips, and legs. When the feet are not parallel, it can lead to an uneven weight distribution, causing muscle imbalances and potential strain on these areas. Therefore, keeping the feet parallel helps to maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain.

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64. When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?

Explanation

When helping a patient to ambulate, it is important to stand beside and a little behind the patient. This position provides support and stability while allowing the patient to maintain their balance. Placing one hand on the patient's waist helps to guide and support their movements, while the other hand under their near arm provides additional support and stability. This positioning and hand placement help to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient while ambulating.

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65. Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to

Explanation

Closed-chest drainage is a method used to reexpand a collapsed lung. When a lung collapses, it can cause difficulty in breathing and other complications. Closed-chest drainage involves inserting a tube into the chest cavity to remove air or fluid that may be causing the collapse. By removing the air or fluid, the lung is able to reexpand and function properly again. This procedure is commonly used in the treatment of conditions such as pneumothorax or hemothorax.

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66. What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?

Explanation

Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a decrease in blood flow to the brain. A fall in cardiac output can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, resulting in cerebral ischemia and potentially causing syncope. Palpitations refer to irregular or rapid heartbeats, dyspnea refers to shortness of breath, and fatigue refers to extreme tiredness. While these symptoms may be associated with cardiac conditions, they are not directly caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia.

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67. When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism?

Explanation

The Valsalva maneuver is taught to patients to decrease the chance of an air embolism during the insertion of a central venous pressure line. The Valsalva maneuver involves the patient exhaling forcefully while keeping their mouth closed and nose pinched shut. This increases intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure, which helps prevent the entry of air into the bloodstream through the insertion site. By performing the Valsalva maneuver, the patient can reduce the risk of air embolism, which can be a potentially serious complication during the procedure.

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68. When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is

Explanation

When caring for a patient with electrical burns, the first priority is to manage the patient's airway. Electrical burns can cause damage to the airway due to inhalation of smoke or other toxic substances, as well as swelling or obstruction of the airway. Therefore, ensuring that the patient's airway is open and clear is crucial for their survival and overall well-being. Applying sterile dressings to the burn sites, evaluating the extent of the burn, and infection control are important aspects of care, but they come after ensuring the patient's airway is managed properly.

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69. Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

Explanation

Before performing oropharyngeal suctioning, it is ideal to place the patient in a semisitting position. This position allows for better accessibility to the patient's airway and facilitates the removal of secretions or foreign objects through suctioning. The semisitting position also helps to prevent aspiration and allows for proper drainage of secretions, reducing the risk of complications during the procedure.

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70. The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it

Explanation

The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the hips and knees flexed, which can lead to shortening of the hip flexor muscles and tightening of the hip joint. Over time, this can result in a flexion contracture, where the hip joint becomes permanently flexed and limits the range of motion. Therefore, it is important to avoid this position for long periods of time in order to prevent the development of flexion deformities in the hip.

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71. Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

Explanation

Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movement or rotation of the body can put stress on the already compromised spinal cord, leading to a disruption in the normal functioning of the heart. The spinal cord plays a crucial role in transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body, including the heart. Any injury or trauma to the spinal cord can interfere with these signals, potentially leading to cardiac arrest.

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72. When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to 

Explanation

When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram (g) of diaper weight is equal to one milliliter (ml). This means that for every gram of weight gained by the diaper, one milliliter of urine has been produced by the infant. This is a common method used to estimate urine output in infants, as it is difficult to directly measure urine output in this population.

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73. When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked?

Explanation

When using an oxygen tent, it is important to regularly check the oxygen concentrations and temperature to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient. Checking these parameters every 1 to 2 hours allows for timely adjustments and interventions if needed. This frequent monitoring helps to maintain optimal oxygen levels and temperature within the tent, which is crucial for the patient's well-being.

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74. Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?

Explanation

Four-point gait is a safe and stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs. This gait involves the use of both crutches and both legs, with a sequence of movements where one crutch and the opposite leg are advanced together, followed by the other crutch and opposite leg. This gait provides maximum stability and support for patients who have the ability to bear weight on both legs but may require assistance or balance.

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75. What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?

Explanation

Liquid diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract. This type of diet consists of foods that are in liquid or semi-liquid form, such as soups, juices, and purees. It helps to provide adequate nutrition while reducing the need for chewing and making it easier for patients to swallow. Additionally, a liquid diet can help to minimize irritation or discomfort in the digestive tract by reducing the amount of residue that needs to be processed.

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76. Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn?

Explanation

Partial thickness burns involve damage to the epidermis and possibly the dermis and its appendages. This type of burn is characterized by redness, blistering, and pain. Superficial burns only affect the epidermis, while full thickness burns extend through the entire dermis and may involve underlying tissues. "Severe thickness" is not a recognized classification for burns.

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77. All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed

Explanation

Personality refers to the unique combination of traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses a person's emotions, attitudes, values, and social interactions. It is different from character, which refers to the moral and ethical qualities of a person, and heredity, which pertains to the genetic factors that influence a person's traits. Personality is also distinct from the environment, which refers to the external factors and experiences that shape an individual. Therefore, personality is the most suitable term to describe all that a person is, feels, and does.

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78. What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient?

Explanation

The primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient is to strengthen their defenses. This means helping the patient develop coping mechanisms and skills to better manage their mental illness and prevent relapse. Strengthening defenses can involve therapy, medication, and support systems that empower the patient to effectively deal with their condition and maintain stability in their daily life. It is important to focus on building resilience and self-care strategies to enhance the patient's ability to navigate their mental health challenges.

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79. Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise?

Explanation

Passive exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise. This type of exercise involves the therapist or caregiver moving the patient's limbs or body through a range of motion without any effort from the patient. It is often used for patients who are bedridden, have limited mobility, or are recovering from surgery or injury. Passive exercise helps maintain joint flexibility, improve circulation, prevent muscle atrophy, and promote healing.

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80. Which is a sign of uremia?

Explanation

Oliguria is a sign of uremia. Uremia is a condition where there is a buildup of waste products in the blood due to impaired kidney function. Oliguria refers to a decreased urine output, which is often seen in uremia. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products from the blood, leading to a decrease in urine production. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, polyuria refers to excessive urine production, and dysuria refers to painful urination. While these symptoms can be associated with various urinary tract conditions, oliguria specifically points towards uremia.

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81. For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is

Explanation

For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is 60 to 90 percent. A nonrebreathing mask is a device used to deliver high concentrations of oxygen to patients. It has a reservoir bag that is filled with oxygen, and one-way valves prevent the patient from rebreathing exhaled air. This allows for a higher concentration of oxygen to be delivered to the patient, typically between 60 to 90 percent.

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82. As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns?

Explanation

The correct answer is 20. When a patient has chemical burns in their eye, it is important to irrigate the eye with water or saline solution for at least 20 minutes. This duration allows for thorough flushing of the chemical from the eye, reducing the risk of further damage. Irrigating for a shorter period may not effectively remove all traces of the chemical, while irrigating for longer than necessary may cause unnecessary discomfort to the patient.

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83. Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?

Explanation

A client goal, relative to the nursing process, refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be achievable and quantifiable, allowing healthcare professionals to track the progress and effectiveness of the care plan. It helps guide the nursing interventions and serves as a benchmark for evaluating the patient's response to treatment.

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84. Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?

Explanation

The bed is placed in a high position in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient. This is because a high position allows for easier access to the patient and better visibility for the medical staff. It also facilitates patient transfers and reduces strain on the healthcare providers. Placing the bed in a high position is important for ensuring the comfort and safety of the patient during postoperative care.

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85. Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube?

Explanation

Before performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric (NG) tube, it is important to check for tube placement. This is necessary to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the patient's stomach or intestines. Checking for tube placement helps to prevent complications such as aspiration or injury to the respiratory system. By verifying the correct placement of the NG tube, healthcare professionals can proceed with the procedure safely and effectively.

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86. During catheterization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder?

Explanation

During catheterization of a female patient, the catheter is inserted approximately 2 to 3 inches into the urinary bladder for proper placement. This length is sufficient to reach the bladder and allow for effective drainage of urine.

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87. Colostomy irrigations are performed to

Explanation

Colostomy irrigations are performed to establish fecal control. This means that the procedure helps regulate and control the elimination of feces from the body through the colostomy. By performing irrigations, the healthcare provider can ensure that the patient has regular and predictable bowel movements, which can improve their quality of life and prevent complications such as bowel obstructions or leaks. This is different from the other options, as they focus on preventing the need for an ostomy appliance, keeping the bowel empty, or preventing odors, which are not the primary goals of colostomy irrigations.

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88. Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone?

Explanation

Pin care is required with open reduction, external fixation because in this type of reduction, the bone is surgically realigned and then held in place with pins or wires that are inserted through the skin and into the bone. These pins or wires can create an opening in the skin, which increases the risk of infection. Therefore, proper care and cleaning of the pins are necessary to prevent infection and promote healing.

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89. When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?

Explanation

When turning a patient, raising the far siderail is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient. This is because raising the far siderail provides a barrier and prevents the patient from falling off the bed during the turning process. It helps to ensure the safety and security of the patient while they are being repositioned.

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90. What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein?

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position is the correct position for the insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein. This position involves tilting the patient's head down and elevating the legs higher than the head. This position helps to increase venous return and blood flow to the central veins, making it easier to insert the line. The other positions mentioned, such as left lateral recumbent, right lateral recumbent, and supine, are not specifically recommended for this procedure.

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91. What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream?

Explanation

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is an excess buildup of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the bloodstream. This happens when the lungs are unable to remove enough CO2 from the body, causing it to mix with water in the blood. As a result, the pH level of the blood decreases, leading to an acidic environment. Symptoms of respiratory acidosis may include shortness of breath, confusion, and fatigue. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause and improving lung function to restore the acid-base balance in the body.

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92. What complications could occur to the patient following a thoracentesis?

Explanation

Following a thoracentesis, complications such as shock, bleeding, and dyspnea may occur. Shock can happen due to a sudden drop in blood pressure, while bleeding can occur if a blood vessel is punctured during the procedure. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can result from the removal of fluid or air from the pleural space. These complications need to be monitored and managed promptly to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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93. What is the proper sequence for cleaning a wound?

Explanation

The proper sequence for cleaning a wound is to first remove the old dressing to expose the wound. Then, don sterile gloves to ensure cleanliness and prevent infection. Finally, wipe from the wound outwards to remove any debris or bacteria and promote proper healing. This sequence ensures that the wound is properly cleaned and protected from further contamination.

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94. For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to

Explanation

Beginning the exercise program early in the patient's hospital stay is the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program for patients who suffer from pain. This is because starting the program early allows the patient to gradually build up their tolerance and strength, which can help alleviate pain over time. By starting early, the patient can also receive proper guidance and supervision from healthcare professionals, ensuring that the exercises are performed correctly and safely. Additionally, starting early helps to establish a routine and habit of exercise, making it more likely for the patient to continue with the program even after leaving the hospital.

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95. A burn is classified as moderate if it involves

Explanation

A burn is classified as moderate if it involves full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface. This means that the burn affects both the outer layer of the skin (epidermis) and the underlying layer (dermis) and covers 2 to 10 percent of the body surface area. This classification helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the burn and guide appropriate treatment and management.

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96. The physiological function that the heart sound S1 ("lub") is associated with is

Explanation

The heart sound S1, also known as "lub," is associated with the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. This sound occurs during the ventricular systole phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract and the blood is pumped out of the heart. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves prevents the backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria, ensuring that the blood flows in the correct direction through the heart and into the circulation.

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97. What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time?

Explanation

If you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time, the body's natural response would be reflex vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels in the affected area would constrict, reducing blood flow to that area. This reflex action is a protective mechanism to prevent excessive heat from damaging the tissues. Reflex vasodilatation, Babinski's reflex, and Haab's reflex are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

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98. Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?

Explanation

The technique used to move a patient up in bed is determined by the size and capabilities of the patient. This is because the size of the patient will determine the amount of physical strength and assistance required to safely move them. Additionally, the capabilities of the patient, such as their ability to assist in the movement or follow instructions, will also affect the technique used.

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99. Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause

Explanation

Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as it may cause a heart attack. Holding the breath during exercise can increase blood pressure and heart rate, leading to an increased workload on the heart. This can be especially risky for individuals with pre-existing heart conditions or those who are not accustomed to intense physical activity. Therefore, it is important to encourage patients to breathe properly and avoid breath-holding to minimize the risk of a heart attack during isometric exercises.

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100. What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

Explanation

The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to document them in the Grand Total block. This means that the totals should be recorded in the designated section on the form where the overall sum of intake and output is calculated. This ensures that the shift change totals are accurately recorded and easily accessible for reference.

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