CDC 4no51 Set B Vol 2 (1)

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| By Samantha Roderick
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Samantha Roderick
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 350
Questions: 50 | Attempts: 77

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CDC 4no51 Set B Vol 2 (1) - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients?

    • A.

      Dentists

    • B.

      Registered Nurses

    • C.

      Physician Assistants (PA)

    • D.

      Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM)

    Correct Answer
    B. Registered Nurses
    Explanation
    Registered Nurses are authorized to see and treat patients. They have the necessary qualifications and training to provide healthcare services. Dentists, Physician Assistants (PA), and Certified Nurse Midwives (CNM) are also authorized to see and treat patients in their respective fields.

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  • 2. 

    What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?

    • A.

      Patient's condition and the cost of admission per day

    • B.

      Facility policy and the patient's distance from home

    • C.

      Patient's condition and the facility policy

    • D.

      Facility policy and patient's request

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient's condition and the facility policy
    Explanation
    The steps in the routine admission process are determined by the patient's condition and the facility policy. The patient's condition is a crucial factor in determining the level of care and resources needed for their admission. The facility policy outlines the guidelines and procedures that need to be followed for admission, such as documentation requirements, insurance verification, and consent forms. Both factors work together to ensure that the patient receives appropriate care and that the facility operates within its established guidelines.

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  • 3. 

    What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?

    • A.

      Evaluate patient

    • B.

      Obtain patient's history

    • C.

      Transcribe doctor's orders

    • D.

      Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight

    Correct Answer
    D. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight
    Explanation
    During a routine patient admission to a nursing unit, the responsibility of the medical technician would be to obtain the patient's vital signs, height, and weight. This is important in order to assess the patient's current health status and to establish a baseline for future reference. By obtaining these measurements, the medical technician can provide accurate information to the healthcare team, which can aid in the patient's diagnosis and treatment plan.

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  • 4. 

    Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?

    • A.

      Pass

    • B.

      Discharge

    • C.

      Subsisting elsewhere

    • D.

      Absent without leave (AWOL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass
    Explanation
    The term "pass" refers to a statement or permission that allows a patient to temporarily leave the medical facility for a short period of time, typically between 24 and 48 hours. This could be for various reasons such as attending a family event or taking care of personal matters. During this time, the patient is still considered under the care of the medical facility and is expected to return within the specified timeframe.

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  • 5. 

    How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility?

    • A.

      56

    • B.

      66

    • C.

      76

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    B. 66
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 66. This suggests that a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility is allowed to bring 66 pounds of baggage.

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  • 6. 

    A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered

    • A.

      On pass

    • B.

      Subsisting out

    • C.

      On convalescent leave

    • D.

      Discharged and an outpatient

    Correct Answer
    B. Subsisting out
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "subsisting out". This term refers to a patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment. It implies that the patient is able to manage their daily activities and sustain themselves outside of the hospital setting while undergoing treatment.

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  • 7. 

    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the

    • A.

      Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed

    • B.

      Patient is doing well and no problems were noted

    • C.

      Doctor probably changed the orders verbally

    • D.

      Vital signs were not completed

    Correct Answer
    D. Vital signs were not completed
    Explanation
    If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, it can be assumed that the vital signs were not completed. This could be due to various reasons such as the nurse forgetting to take the vital signs, being busy with other tasks, or the patient refusing to have their vital signs taken. It is important to ensure that vital signs are regularly monitored as they provide crucial information about the patient's health status.

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  • 8. 

    What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?

    • A.

      No documentation is required at shift change

    • B.

      Document all totals in the Remarks section

    • C.

      Document in the Grand Total block

    • D.

      Circle the last accumulated total

    Correct Answer
    D. Circle the last accumulated total
    Explanation
    The proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet is to circle the last accumulated total. This means that at the end of each shift, the total for that shift is circled to indicate that it is the final tally for that period. This helps to ensure accuracy and clarity when recording and tracking intake and output data.

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  • 9. 

    Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?

    • A.

      Planning

    • B.

      Assessing

    • C.

      Evaluating

    • D.

      Implementing

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning
    Explanation
    Planning is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses because it involves developing a course of action to address the identified health issues and achieve the desired outcomes. Through planning, nurses determine the appropriate interventions, set goals, and prioritize the nursing actions to be taken. This step is crucial in providing effective and individualized care to patients, as it ensures that the necessary resources and interventions are implemented in a coordinated and timely manner.

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  • 10. 

    Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?

    • A.

      An observable change in patient behavior

    • B.

      A measurable change in the patient's condition

    • C.

      A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning

    • D.

      A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior

    Correct Answer
    D. A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
    Explanation
    A client goal in the nursing process refers to a realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior. This means that the goal should be specific, achievable, and can be observed and measured. It serves as a guide for the healthcare team to plan and provide appropriate care for the patient, as well as evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions.

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  • 11. 

    What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?

    • A.

      Sedation

    • B.

      Back massage

    • C.

      Oxygen therapy

    • D.

      Preoperative teaching

    Correct Answer
    D. Preoperative teaching
    Explanation
    Preoperative teaching is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery. By providing information and education about the surgical procedure, potential risks and complications, and what to expect during the recovery process, patients can feel more prepared and less anxious. This helps to alleviate their concerns and fears, allowing them to approach the surgery with a greater sense of confidence and understanding.

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  • 12. 

    What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?

    • A.

      Credentials of the surgeon

    • B.

      Availability of a base chaplain

    • C.

      Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff

    • D.

      Number of nurses and technicians on staff

    Correct Answer
    C. Professionalism and caring attitude of the staff
    Explanation
    The professionalism and caring attitude of the staff have a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment. This means that how the staff members conduct themselves, communicate with the patient, and show empathy and compassion towards them greatly influences how the patient perceives the care they are receiving. When the staff is professional and caring, it creates a positive and comforting environment for the patient, which can enhance their overall experience and satisfaction with the care and treatment they receive.

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  • 13. 

    What is the best reason for prepping the skin prior to surgery?

    • A.

      Reduces chance of infection

    • B.

      Prevents contamination of the operating room (OR)

    • C.

      Allows for proper suturing of the incision

    • D.

      Reduces pain when the surgical dressing is removed

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduces chance of infection
    Explanation
    Prepping the skin prior to surgery reduces the chance of infection. This is because the prepping process involves cleaning the skin with an antiseptic solution, which kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on the skin's surface. By reducing the number of bacteria present on the skin, the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the surgical site is minimized, thus decreasing the likelihood of post-operative infections.

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  • 14. 

    Without provider approval, what is the maximum number of minutes antiembolism stockings my be removed?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    Without provider approval, antiembolism stockings may be removed for a maximum of 30 minutes. This implies that any time period exceeding 30 minutes would require approval from a healthcare provider. This could be due to the potential risks associated with prolonged removal of antiembolism stockings, such as increased risk of blood clots or compromised circulation. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the recommended time limit unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare professional.

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  • 15. 

    What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?

    • A.

      Isolation is necessary

    • B.

      No precautions re necessary

    • C.

      A lead apron is placed over the patient

    • D.

      Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation is necessary
    Explanation
    After receiving a radioisotope implant, a postoperative patient needs to be isolated to minimize the potential radiation exposure to others. Radioisotopes can emit radiation, which can be harmful to others if they come in close contact with the patient. Isolation helps to protect other individuals from unnecessary radiation exposure.

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  • 16. 

    Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?

    • A.

      Low

    • B.

      High

    • C.

      Fowler's

    • D.

      Trendelenburg

    Correct Answer
    B. High
    Explanation
    In preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient, the bed is placed in the high position. This position allows for easier access to the patient and provides a comfortable working height for healthcare providers. Placing the bed in the high position also helps prevent strain and injury to healthcare providers when providing postoperative care and monitoring the patient's condition.

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  • 17. 

    Which exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients?

    • A.

      Standing hamstring stretches

    • B.

      Turn, cough and deep breath (TC&DB)

    • C.

      Diaphragmatic breathing

    • D.

      Circles with the big toe

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing hamstring stretches
    Explanation
    Postoperative patients often have limited mobility and may experience pain or discomfort. Standing hamstring stretches require the patient to stand and stretch their hamstring muscles, which can be challenging and potentially painful for postoperative patients. Therefore, this exercise is not commonly used for postoperative patients.

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  • 18. 

    Which form is used to document a patient's blood transfusion?

    • A.

      Standard Form 518

    • B.

      Standard Form 3066

    • C.

      AF Form 2019

    • D.

      AF Form 3066

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form 518
    Explanation
    Standard Form 518 is used to document a patient's blood transfusion. This form is specifically designed for recording the details of blood transfusion procedures, including the patient's information, blood type, donor information, transfusion date and time, and any adverse reactions or complications that may occur during or after the transfusion. It serves as a comprehensive record that ensures accurate documentation and communication between healthcare providers involved in the patient's care.

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  • 19. 

    How is whole blood normally supplied?

    • A.

      100 cc units

    • B.

      250 cc units

    • C.

      450 cc units

    • D.

      500 cc units

    Correct Answer
    C. 450 cc units
    Explanation
    Whole blood is normally supplied in 450 cc units. This means that a standard unit of whole blood contains 450 cubic centimeters. This unit is commonly used in medical settings for transfusions and other procedures where whole blood is needed.

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  • 20. 

    What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products?

    • A.

      20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    The guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to the transfusion start of blood products is 30. This means that once the blood products are picked up, they should be transfused within 30 minutes to ensure their effectiveness and safety. Transfusing the blood products within this time frame helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and maintain the quality of the blood products.

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  • 21. 

    If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?

    • A.

      Continue to monitor; this is a normal side effect

    • B.

      Place the patient on his or her left side

    • C.

      Administer 100 percent oxygen

    • D.

      Stop the transfusion

    Correct Answer
    D. Stop the transfusion
    Explanation
    If a patient receiving a blood transfusion is experiencing distended neck veins and dyspnea, it indicates a potential complication called fluid overload or transfusion reaction. This can be a life-threatening situation, and the first priority should be to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further harm. The other options, such as continuing to monitor, placing the patient on their left side, or administering oxygen, may be appropriate interventions in certain situations, but they do not address the immediate need to stop the transfusion.

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  • 22. 

    Which pain management method must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system?

    • A.

      Application of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) devices

    • B.

      Injection of long duration local anesthetic into the incisional area

    • C.

      Administration of oral analgesics

    • D.

      Administration of narcotics

    Correct Answer
    D. Administration of narcotics
    Explanation
    Administration of narcotics must be closely monitored because it can result in a depressed respiratory system. Narcotics are potent pain medications that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. This means that the person's breathing may become slow and shallow, which can be dangerous and even life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor the respiratory status of individuals receiving narcotics to ensure their safety and intervene promptly if any signs of respiratory depression occur.

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  • 23. 

    Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?

    • A.

      Modified lateral

    • B.

      Trendelenburg

    • C.

      Semisitting

    • D.

      Supine

    Correct Answer
    C. Semisitting
    Explanation
    The ideal position for a patient before performing oropharyngeal suctioning is the semisitting position. This position allows for better access to the oropharynx and helps prevent aspiration of secretions. It also helps to maintain the patient's airway and reduce the risk of complications during the procedure.

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  • 24. 

    Orthopedic deformities, such as a clubfoot or wryneck, are categorized as

    • A.

      Infectious

    • B.

      Congenital

    • C.

      Pathologic

    • D.

      Temporary

    Correct Answer
    B. Congenital
    Explanation
    Orthopedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as congenital because they are present at birth. Congenital deformities occur due to abnormalities in fetal development and can be caused by genetic factors, environmental factors, or a combination of both. These deformities are not infectious, as they are not caused by a pathogen or infection. They are also not temporary, as they are typically permanent and require medical intervention for correction. Finally, while these deformities can cause pathology or functional impairment, they are not categorized as pathologic in nature.

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  • 25. 

    A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called

    • A.

      Hairline

    • B.

      Pathologic

    • C.

      Congenital

    • D.

      Traumatic

    Correct Answer
    B. Pathologic
    Explanation
    A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called a pathologic fracture. This type of fracture occurs when the bone is weakened by an underlying condition, making it more susceptible to breaking. In the case of metastatic cancer, the cancer cells spread to the bone and weaken it, leading to a pathologic fracture. This is different from a traumatic fracture, which occurs due to an external force or injury, and congenital fractures, which are present at birth. A hairline fracture refers to a small crack in the bone that may not be visible on an X-ray.

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  • 26. 

    The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it

    • A.

      Causes drop foot

    • B.

      Causes venous stasis

    • C.

      Causes external hip rotation

    • D.

      Promotes flexion deformities of the hip

    Correct Answer
    D. Promotes flexion deformities of the hip
    Explanation
    The semi-recumbent position can promote flexion deformities of the hip in patients with orthopedic disorders. This position involves sitting with the knees bent and the hips flexed, which can lead to shortening and tightening of the hip flexor muscles. Over time, this can result in a flexion contracture, where the hip joint becomes permanently flexed and limits the range of motion. This can further worsen the orthopedic condition and hinder mobility. Therefore, it is important to avoid prolonged periods in the semi-recumbent position to prevent the development or progression of flexion deformities of the hip.

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  • 27. 

    Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?

    • A.

      Crepitus

    • B.

      Vibration

    • C.

      Resonance

    • D.

      Intonation

    Correct Answer
    A. Crepitus
    Explanation
    Crepitus is the term used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together. It is often associated with joint disorders, such as osteoarthritis, where the cartilage between the bones wears down and causes friction. This friction produces a crackling or grinding sound, which is known as crepitus. Vibration, resonance, and intonation do not specifically refer to the sound produced by bones rubbing together.

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  • 28. 

    Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone?

    • A.

      Closed reduction, external fixation

    • B.

      Closed reduction, internal fixation

    • C.

      Open reduction, external fixation

    • D.

      Open reduction, internal fixation

    Correct Answer
    C. Open reduction, external fixation
    Explanation
    Pin care is required with open reduction, external fixation because in this type of reduction, pins or wires are inserted through the skin and into the bone to stabilize the fracture. These pins can cause irritation and infection if not properly cared for. Regular cleaning and monitoring of the pin sites is necessary to prevent complications and ensure proper healing of the fracture.

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  • 29. 

    What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complains that his or her short leg cast feels tight?

    • A.

      None. It is normal for a cast to feel tight.

    • B.

      Remove the cast.

    • C.

      Bivalve the cast.

    • D.

      Petal the cast

    Correct Answer
    C. Bivalve the cast.
    Explanation
    If a patient complains that their short leg cast feels tight, the appropriate action to take is to bivalve the cast. Bivalving involves cutting the cast on both sides, allowing it to open like a clamshell. This relieves the pressure and provides relief to the patient. Removing the cast completely may not be necessary, as the tightness could be due to swelling or improper application. Petaling the cast involves cutting small slits at the edges to prevent further constriction, but bivalving is a more effective solution in this case.

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  • 30. 

    The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as 

    • A.

      Phantom limb pain

    • B.

      Phantom limb sensation

    • C.

      Physiological phenomena

    • D.

      Psychological phenomena

    Correct Answer
    A. Phantom limb pain
    Explanation
    Phantom limb pain is the correct answer because it refers to the cramping, burning, or crushing pain experienced by amputees in their missing limb. This pain is perceived to be coming from the amputated limb, even though it is no longer there. It is a common phenomenon that occurs due to the brain's continued perception of the limb's existence.

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  • 31. 

    What equipment is essential to have t the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?

    • A.

      Nasogastric (NG) tube

    • B.

      Tourniquet

    • C.

      Oxygen

    • D.

      Suction

    Correct Answer
    B. Tourniquet
    Explanation
    A tourniquet is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb. A tourniquet is a device used to temporarily stop bleeding by applying pressure to a limb. In the case of a surgical amputation, there may be residual bleeding that needs to be controlled, and a tourniquet can be used for this purpose. It allows healthcare professionals to apply direct pressure to the site of bleeding, preventing further blood loss and ensuring proper wound healing.

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  • 32. 

    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause

    • A.

      Aspiration

    • B.

      Cardiac arrest

    • C.

      Disorientation

    • D.

      Respiratory arrest

    Correct Answer
    B. Cardiac arrest
    Explanation
    Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause cardiac arrest. This is because sudden movements or changes in position can disrupt the blood flow to the heart, leading to a sudden stoppage of the heart's pumping action. This can result in a cardiac arrest, where the heart stops beating and the patient requires immediate medical intervention such as CPR or defibrillation to restore normal heart function.

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  • 33. 

    Rehabilitation for patient with spinal cord injury is normally

    • A.

      A lifelong process

    • B.

      Of no use because they do not fully recover

    • C.

      Continued for six months after the injury occurred

    • D.

      Continued for up to two years after the final surgery

    Correct Answer
    A. A lifelong process
    Explanation
    Rehabilitation for patients with spinal cord injury is a lifelong process because they do not fully recover. Spinal cord injuries often result in permanent damage, leading to long-term physical and functional limitations. Therefore, rehabilitation is necessary throughout the patient's life to manage symptoms, improve quality of life, and maximize independence. This includes ongoing therapy, adaptive equipment, and support to address the challenges associated with spinal cord injury.

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  • 34. 

    The side of the body that is affected by stroke is determined by the

    • A.

      Dominant right or left side

    • B.

      Side of the body that is weaker

    • C.

      Side of the brain that was traumatized

    • D.

      Position the patient was in when the stroke occurred

    Correct Answer
    C. Side of the brain that was traumatized
    Explanation
    When a stroke occurs, it affects the side of the brain that was traumatized. The brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere controlling the opposite side of the body. Therefore, if the stroke occurs in the right hemisphere, the left side of the body will be affected, and vice versa. The side of the body that is weaker is not the determining factor, as it is a consequence of the stroke. Similarly, the dominant right or left side of the body does not determine the side affected by the stroke. The position of the patient when the stroke occurred also does not determine the side affected.

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  • 35. 

    During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?

    • A.

      Early infancy

    • B.

      Preschool

    • C.

      School age

    • D.

      Adolescence

    Correct Answer
    B. Preschool
    Explanation
    During the preschool stage, children typically experience separation anxiety at a higher level compared to other stages of child development. This is because preschoolers are at a stage where they are developing a sense of identity and independence, but still heavily rely on their primary caregivers for support and security. As they start to explore the world around them and engage in activities outside of their immediate family, the fear of being separated from their caregivers can cause significant stress and anxiety. This is why separation anxiety is most commonly observed and experienced during the preschool stage.

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  • 36. 

    The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is

    • A.

      Fantasy

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Regression

    • D.

      Displacement

    Correct Answer
    C. Regression
    Explanation
    Regression is the correct answer because when children lose their sense of control, they often revert back to behaviors or coping mechanisms that they used at an earlier stage of development. This is known as regression. It allows them to feel a sense of security and comfort by returning to familiar patterns of behavior. They may display behaviors that are typical of a younger age, such as temper tantrums or clinging to caregivers. This regression helps them cope with the loss of control and regain a sense of stability.

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  • 37. 

    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting,  primary concern would be

    • A.

      Hypernatremia

    • B.

      Hyperkalemia

    • C.

      Dehydration

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    C. Dehydration
    Explanation
    When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, the primary concern would be dehydration. Nausea and vomiting can lead to fluid loss, which can quickly result in dehydration, especially in children who have smaller fluid reserves. Dehydration can cause various complications and can be particularly dangerous for children, as they are more susceptible to dehydration-related illnesses. Therefore, it is crucial to address dehydration promptly and ensure the child receives adequate fluids to prevent further complications.

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  • 38. 

    Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?

    • A.

      The physician needs to suture the child's face

    • B.

      The child continues to climb out of the bed in the night

    • C.

      To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair

    • D.

      You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child

    Correct Answer
    D. You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
    Explanation
    The reason "You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child" is not appropriate for restraining a child because it prioritizes the caregiver's convenience over the child's safety and well-being. Restraining a child should only be done when necessary for their protection or for medical reasons such as suturing a wound or preventing falls. Neglecting to supervise a child due to personal tasks is not a valid justification for restraining them.

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  • 39. 

    When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using

    • A.

      Alcohol

    • B.

      Lotion

    • C.

      Lanolin

    • D.

      Antiseptic soap

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol
    Explanation
    When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using alcohol because it can be drying and irritating to the skin. Aging skin tends to be more delicate and prone to dryness, so using alcohol-based products can further strip the skin of its natural oils and cause discomfort. Instead, it is recommended to use gentle and hydrating products that can nourish and protect the skin without causing any harm.

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  • 40. 

    How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?

    • A.

      Explain the importance

    • B.

      Ask the patient to try new foods

    • C.

      Cater to the patient's customs

    • D.

      Bring a tray full of choices

    Correct Answer
    C. Cater to the patient's customs
    Explanation
    Catering to the patient's customs is important in stimulating the appetite of an elderly patient. Elderly individuals often have specific dietary preferences and cultural customs that influence their food choices. By respecting and accommodating these customs, the patient is more likely to feel comfortable and enjoy their meals. This can help stimulate their appetite and encourage them to eat more.

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  • 41. 

    Which is a sign of uremia?

    • A.

      Oliguria

    • B.

      Hematuria

    • C.

      Polyuria

    • D.

      Dysuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Oliguria
    Explanation
    Oliguria is a sign of uremia. Uremia refers to the build-up of waste products in the blood due to kidney dysfunction. Oliguria is a condition characterized by a decreased urine output, typically less than 400 mL per day. This occurs because the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste and excess fluid from the blood. Therefore, oliguria is a clear sign of uremia as it indicates impaired kidney function and the accumulation of waste products in the body.

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  • 42. 

    The first stage of dying is

    • A.

      Bargaining

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Anger

    • D.

      Denial

    Correct Answer
    D. Denial
    Explanation
    In the stages of dying, the first stage is denial. This refers to the initial reaction of refusing to accept or acknowledge the reality of impending death or loss. It is a defense mechanism that helps individuals cope with overwhelming emotions and allows them time to process the situation gradually. Denial often involves disbelief, shock, and a sense of detachment from the situation. It is a natural response that can provide a temporary sense of control and protection from the overwhelming emotions associated with dying.

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  • 43. 

    All that a person is, fells, and does is generally termed

    • A.

      Environment

    • B.

      Personality

    • C.

      Character

    • D.

      Heredity

    Correct Answer
    B. Personality
    Explanation
    Personality refers to the unique set of traits, behaviors, and patterns of thinking that define an individual. It encompasses a person's emotions, attitudes, and overall demeanor. Unlike character, which refers to moral and ethical qualities, personality is more focused on individual differences and how a person interacts with their environment. Heredity plays a role in shaping personality, but it is not the sole determinant. Therefore, personality is the most appropriate term to describe all that a person is, feels, and does.

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  • 44. 

    What affects an individual's feeling about themselves?

    • A.

      Socioeconomic status

    • B.

      Opinions of others

    • C.

      Self-perception

    • D.

      Job title

    Correct Answer
    C. Self-perception
    Explanation
    An individual's feeling about themselves is influenced by their self-perception. Self-perception refers to how individuals perceive and evaluate themselves, including their self-worth, self-esteem, and self-image. It is based on their beliefs, attitudes, and thoughts about themselves. Self-perception plays a crucial role in shaping an individual's self-confidence, self-acceptance, and overall emotional well-being. It can be influenced by various factors such as personal experiences, achievements, failures, and personal growth. Socioeconomic status, opinions of others, and job title can also have an impact on self-perception, but ultimately it is the individual's own perception of themselves that has the most significant effect.

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  • 45. 

    Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?

    • A.

      Compulsion

    • B.

      Delusion

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Conflict

    Correct Answer
    A. Compulsion
    Explanation
    A compulsion is a psychiatric term that refers to an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions. This term is often associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where individuals experience intrusive thoughts and engage in repetitive behaviors to alleviate anxiety or distress. Compulsions are typically time-consuming and interfere with daily functioning. Unlike delusions, which are fixed false beliefs, or anxiety, which is a general feeling of unease, compulsions specifically involve the need to perform certain actions, even if they seem irrational or unnecessary. Conflict does not specifically define an irresistible urge to perform meaningless actions.

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  • 46. 

    Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical over-activity?

    • A.

      Neurosis

    • B.

      Mania

    • C.

      Obsession

    • D.

      Psychosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Mania
    Explanation
    Mania is the correct answer because it is a psychiatric term that defines a mood disorder characterized by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical over-activity. Manic episodes are often associated with bipolar disorder and can include symptoms such as increased energy, decreased need for sleep, excessive talking, racing thoughts, and impulsive behavior.

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  • 47. 

    Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be

    • A.

      Excited

    • B.

      Consistent

    • C.

      Demanding

    • D.

      Unsympathetic

    Correct Answer
    B. Consistent
    Explanation
    When a patient is anxious, it is important for healthcare professionals to exhibit consistent behavior and actions. Consistency helps to create a sense of stability and predictability, which can help alleviate the patient's anxiety. By being consistent, healthcare professionals can provide reassurance and build trust with the patient, making them feel more comfortable and supported. This approach ensures that the patient receives consistent care and attention, which is crucial in managing their anxiety and promoting their well-being.

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  • 48. 

    A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of

    • A.

      Withdrawal

    • B.

      Suspicion

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Anger

    Correct Answer
    A. Withdrawal
    Explanation
    The patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of withdrawal. This means that they tend to isolate themselves and distance from others. Feeling unloved and inferior may lead to a lack of motivation to engage with others, while feeling hurt can make them hesitant to open up and trust others. Therefore, withdrawal is a likely response to these negative emotions.

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  • 49. 

    When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?

    • A.

      During preadmission

    • B.

      Within 12 hours of admission

    • C.

      Within 24 hours of admission

    • D.

      As soon as the patient is admitted

    Correct Answer
    D. As soon as the patient is admitted
    Explanation
    The rehabilitation process begins as soon as the patient is admitted because early intervention is crucial in the treatment of mentally ill patients. By starting the rehabilitation process immediately, healthcare professionals can assess the patient's condition, develop a personalized treatment plan, and provide the necessary support and therapy to promote recovery and improve their quality of life. Delaying the rehabilitation process could result in a worsening of symptoms and a longer recovery time for the patient.

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  • 50. 

    What is the primary rehabilitation need  of a mentally ill patient?

    • A.

      Strengthening the patient's defenses

    • B.

      Group therapy to prevent relapse

    • C.

      Prevention of regression

    • D.

      Social actions follow-up

    Correct Answer
    A. Strengthening the patient's defenses
    Explanation
    The primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient is to strengthen their defenses. This involves helping the patient develop coping mechanisms and strategies to better handle stressors and triggers in their daily life. By strengthening their defenses, the patient can improve their ability to manage their mental illness and prevent relapses. This may involve various therapeutic techniques and interventions aimed at building resilience and enhancing the patient's overall well-being.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 17, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Samantha Roderick
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