Prep Course Exam Review

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Dialysis functions include which of the following?
- Removal of excess fluid and waste form the blood
- Preventing the spread of bacteria
- Restoring kidney function
- Lowering cholesterol levels

About This Quiz

The PREP Course Exam Review assesses knowledge on dialysis procedures, focusing on topics such as tourniquet application, dialysate pH, weight measurements, vascular access, machine disinfection, and dialysis functions. This quiz is essential for healthcare professionals specializing in dialysis care.

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2.

What do you use to prime the extracorporeal circuit?
- Tap water
- Bicarbonate
- Purified water
- Normal Saline (NS)
Correct Answer

A. Normal Saline (NS)

Explanation

Normal Saline (NS) is used to prime the extracorporeal circuit. Priming refers to the process of filling the circuit with a fluid before it is used for a medical procedure. Normal Saline is a sterile solution of 0.9% sodium chloride in water. It is commonly used in medical settings as it closely resembles the electrolyte composition of the body's fluids. Using Normal Saline as the priming fluid helps to maintain the electrolyte balance and prevent any adverse reactions or complications during the procedure.

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3.

You should check both arms for a fistula or graft before taking which vital sign?
- Respirations
- Blood Pressure
- Temperature
- Weight
Correct Answer

A. Blood Pressure

Explanation

Before taking the vital sign of blood pressure, it is important to check both arms for a fistula or graft. This is because a fistula or graft can affect blood flow and subsequently impact the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Therefore, checking both arms for a fistula or graft ensures that the blood pressure measurement is reliable and accurate.

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4.

What is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease?
- Infection
- Alcohol abuse
- Diabetes
- Obesity
Correct Answer

A. Diabetes

Explanation

Diabetes is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease. High blood sugar levels in diabetes can damage the blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage over time. This can eventually progress to chronic kidney disease. Infection, alcohol abuse, and obesity can also contribute to kidney damage, but diabetes is the primary cause.

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5.

Which of the following is true about sharp containers?
- Unused needles do not have to be placed in sharps container
- They can be shaken to condense contents
- They do not require a lid
- They should be emptied when 2/3 - 3/4 full
Correct Answer

A. They should be emptied when 2/3 - 3/4 full

Explanation

Sharp containers should be emptied when they are 2/3 - 3/4 full to prevent overfilling and potential injuries. This ensures that there is enough space for additional sharps and reduces the risk of needlestick injuries during disposal.

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6.

If a needle infiltrates, what should you do first?
- Open up the saline line
- Stop the blood pump
- Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
- Take a blood pressure
Correct Answer

A. Stop the blood pump

Explanation

If a needle infiltrates, the first thing you should do is stop the blood pump. This is because the needle may have punctured a blood vessel, causing bleeding. By stopping the blood pump, you can prevent further blood loss and potential complications. Opening up the saline line, placing the patient in Trendelenburg position, or taking a blood pressure may be necessary steps after stopping the blood pump, but they are not the first action to take in this situation.

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7.

Why is BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab drawn pre and post treatment?
- To determine if a patient needs a different type of dialysate
- To evaluate the adequacy of a patient’s treatment
- To help diabetic patients control their blood sugar
- To determine the patient’s cholesterol level
Correct Answer

A. To evaluate the adequacy of a patient’s treatment

Explanation

BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab is drawn pre and post treatment to evaluate the adequacy of a patient's treatment. The BUN levels in the blood can indicate how well the kidneys are functioning and how effectively waste products are being filtered out of the body. By comparing the BUN levels before and after treatment, healthcare providers can assess whether the treatment is effectively managing the patient's condition and maintaining appropriate kidney function. This helps in determining if any adjustments or changes are needed in the treatment plan to ensure the patient receives optimal care.

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8.

What should you do with sharps containers in the event of a flood?
- Put them in waterproof containers with medical records
- Leave them on the machines
- Lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room
- Send them home with the patients
Correct Answer

A. Lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room

Explanation

In the event of a flood, it is important to properly handle sharps containers. The correct answer is to lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room. This is because sharps containers contain potentially infectious materials, and it is crucial to prevent any leakage or contamination. By locking and sealing the containers, the risk of exposure is minimized. Placing them in a biohazard storage room ensures that they are stored in a secure and designated area, further reducing the potential for harm.

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1
9.

You must apply a tourniquet before cannulating which type of access?
- Fistula
- Graft
- Central Venous Catheter (CVC)
- All Access Types
Correct Answer

A. Fistula

Explanation

A tourniquet should be applied before cannulating a fistula. A fistula is a surgically created connection between an artery and a vein, typically in the arm, that is used for long-term dialysis access. Applying a tourniquet helps to locate and stabilize the vein, making it easier to insert the cannula. In contrast, grafts and central venous catheters (CVCs) do not require a tourniquet for cannulation. Grafts are synthetic tubes that connect an artery and a vein, while CVCs are inserted directly into a large vein, such as the jugular or subclavian vein.

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10.

During treatment transducer protectors must be kept _____and_____.
- Wet and unclamped
- Dry and unclamped
- Dry and clamped
- Wet and clamped
Correct Answer

A. Dry and unclamped

Explanation

During treatment, transducer protectors must be kept dry and unclamped to ensure proper functioning and prevent any damage to the equipment. Keeping them dry helps to prevent any moisture or liquid from entering the transducer, which could potentially cause malfunction or electrical damage. Additionally, keeping them unclamped allows for proper airflow and ventilation, which is important for preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance.

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11.

After treatment, a patient’s blood pressure has dropped from 135/90 to 94/68. What should you do?
- Tell the patient to go weigh on their own
- Tell the preceptor to take the patient to the scale
- Ask the patient if they feel well enough to go home; then send the patient home
- Notify the nurse to assess the patient
Correct Answer

A. Notify the nurse to assess the patient

Explanation

The patient's blood pressure has dropped significantly after treatment, which may indicate a potential issue or complication. It is important to notify the nurse to assess the patient and determine the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure. The nurse will be able to provide appropriate medical intervention or further treatment if necessary.

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12.

What must you do when you are leaving a dirty area and going to a clean area to get supplies?
- Remove used gloves and put on new gloves without hand hygiene
- Remove gloves and complete hand hygiene
- Remove only 1 glove
- Remove used gloves only
Correct Answer

A. Remove gloves and complete hand hygiene

Explanation

When leaving a dirty area and going to a clean area to get supplies, it is important to remove gloves and complete hand hygiene. This is necessary to prevent the spread of any potential contaminants from the dirty area to the clean area. Removing the gloves ensures that any dirt or germs on the gloves are not transferred to the clean area, and completing hand hygiene, such as washing hands or using hand sanitizer, further reduces the risk of contamination.

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13.

Where is the dialysis clinic can you dialyze a Hepatitis B surface antigen positive patient?
- Lobby
- Isolation room
- Negative air pressure room
- Anywhere in the clinic
Correct Answer

A. Isolation room

Explanation

The correct answer is "Isolation room" because a Hepatitis B surface antigen positive patient needs to be isolated to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients. Dialyzing the patient in an isolation room helps to minimize the risk of transmission and ensures the safety of other patients and healthcare providers.

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14.

Arterial Pressure (AP) should be no more than ____?
- -100mmHg
- -300mmHg
- -250mmHg
- 50mmHg
Correct Answer

A. -250mmHg
15.

How much saline should be kept in the saline bag at all times during the dialysis treatment?
- 100 mL
- 200 mL
- 50 mL
- 300 mL
Correct Answer

A. 300 mL

Explanation

During the dialysis treatment, it is necessary to keep a sufficient amount of saline in the saline bag to ensure the proper functioning of the procedure. The correct answer is 300 mL because this amount is considered to be the standard volume needed for the treatment. This quantity of saline is necessary to maintain the balance of electrolytes and fluid levels in the patient's body during the dialysis process. It helps to prevent dehydration and maintain the stability of the patient's blood pressure.

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16.

The components of the dialysate treatment that affect clearance include:
- EPOGEN® (Epoetin alfa), IV calcitriol, vancomycin
- Needle size, dialysate brand, machine brand, line configuration
- Predialysis weight, blood pressure, BUN level, Na level
- Dialysate flow, time of treatment, dialyzer size, blood flow rate
Correct Answer

A. Dialysate flow, time of treatment, dialyzer size, blood flow rate

Explanation

The components of the dialysate treatment that affect clearance are dialysate flow, time of treatment, dialyzer size, and blood flow rate. These factors determine the efficiency of the dialysis process by influencing the rate at which waste products are removed from the blood. Dialysate flow refers to the rate at which the dialysate solution is circulated through the dialyzer, while the time of treatment determines the duration of the dialysis session. The dialyzer size and blood flow rate affect the surface area available for diffusion and the rate at which blood is pumped through the dialyzer, respectively. All these factors play a crucial role in achieving optimal clearance during dialysis.

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17.

Which of the following is correct regarding machine disinfection?
- Bleach disinfection is completed daily
- Heat disinfection is completed biweekly
- Acid disinfection is completed daily
- Heat disinfection is completed weekly
Correct Answer

A. Acid disinfection is completed daily
18.

Which of the following is included in Fresenius Medical Care’s mission statement?
- Increasing financial stability of Fresenius Medical Care
- Developing the best dialysis products
- Adopting the practices of other successful medical facilities
- Improving the quality of life of patients
Correct Answer

A. Improving the quality of life of patients

Explanation

Fresenius Medical Care's mission statement includes the goal of improving the quality of life of patients. This implies that the company is focused on providing healthcare solutions and services that enhance the well-being and overall quality of life for their patients. This aligns with the core purpose and values of the organization, emphasizing the importance of patient care and welfare.

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1
19.

When is hand sanitizer okay to use?
- When hands are visibly soiled
- After using the restroom
- When leaving the patients station
- During treatment
Correct Answer

A. When leaving the patients station

Explanation

Hand sanitizer is okay to use when leaving the patient's station because it helps to kill germs and prevent the spread of infection. It is important to use hand sanitizer in healthcare settings to maintain proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of transmitting pathogens. Using hand sanitizer after leaving the patient's station helps to ensure that any potential contaminants on the hands are eliminated before moving on to another patient or task.

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20.

Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the cause of an arterial alarm?
- From the venous chamber to the venous needle
- The dialyzer only
- The blood pump only
- From the arterial needle to the blood pump
Correct Answer

A. From the arterial needle to the blood pump

Explanation

To determine the cause of an arterial alarm in the extracorporeal circuit, you should look from the arterial needle to the blood pump. This is because the arterial alarm is typically related to issues in the arterial line, such as a blockage or clot, and checking this section of the circuit will help identify and address the problem.

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21.

Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the cause of a venous alarm?
- From the venous chamber to the venous needle
- The dialyzer only
- The blood pump only
- From the arterial needle to the blood pump
Correct Answer

A. From the venous chamber to the venous needle

Explanation

To determine the cause of a venous alarm, you should look from the venous chamber to the venous needle in the extracorporeal circuit. This is because the venous chamber is the last component before the blood returns to the patient, so any issues or blockages in this section can cause the alarm. By inspecting this part of the circuit, you can identify any potential problems that may be causing the venous alarm.

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22.

Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low conductivity dialysate can all cause which complication?
- Hemolysis
- Uremia
- Crenation
- Hypokalemia
Correct Answer

A. Hemolysis

Explanation

Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low conductivity dialysate can all cause hemolysis. Hemolysis refers to the rupture or destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. In this case, the mentioned factors can disrupt the normal flow and temperature of the dialysate, causing damage to the red blood cells and resulting in hemolysis.

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23.

Which of the following is true about air in the dialyzer?
- Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer
- Air in the dialyzer will decrease the number of machine alarms
- Air can assist with ultrafiltration
- Air can improve the adequacy of the dialysis treatment
Correct Answer

A. Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer

Explanation

Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer because it can lead to the formation of air bubbles in the blood during dialysis. These air bubbles can obstruct blood flow and cause clotting in the dialyzer. This can lead to inadequate dialysis treatment and potential complications for the patient. Therefore, it is important to ensure that there is no air in the dialyzer to prevent clotting and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

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24.

Which of the following would keep KECN values stable during treatment?
- Blood Flow Rate (BFR) set at prescribed rate
- Missed heparin dose
- Clotting in the dialyzer
- Poor arterial flow from the access
Correct Answer

A. Blood Flow Rate (BFR) set at prescribed rate

Explanation

Keeping the Blood Flow Rate (BFR) at the prescribed rate during treatment would help in maintaining stable KECN values. The BFR determines the rate at which blood flows through the dialyzer, allowing for efficient removal of waste products and excess fluids. If the BFR is set too low, the dialysis treatment may not be effective in removing toxins from the blood, leading to unstable KECN values. On the other hand, if the BFR is set too high, it can cause hemodynamic instability and other complications. Therefore, maintaining the BFR at the prescribed rate is essential for stable KECN values during treatment.

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25.

A hemodialysis patient tests positive for Hepatitis B surface antigen. The technician should take which of these actions to prevent the spread of hepatitis B?
- After dialyzing the patient in the main treatment area, rinse the machine
- Ask the nurse to vaccinate the patient
- Require the patient to wear a mask during hemodialysis treatments
- Dialyze patient using a dedicated machine in an assigned area
Correct Answer

A. Dialyze patient using a dedicated machine in an assigned area

Explanation

Dialyzing the patient using a dedicated machine in an assigned area would help prevent the spread of hepatitis B because it would minimize the risk of cross-contamination. Using a separate machine for the patient would ensure that the virus does not spread to other patients receiving dialysis.

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26.

The normal range for a resting pulse rate in an adult is:
- 20 to 40 beats/min
- 40 to 60 beats/min
- 60 to 100 beats/min
- 90 to 110 beats/min
Correct Answer

A. 60 to 100 beats/min

Explanation

The normal range for a resting pulse rate in an adult is 60 to 100 beats per minute. This means that when a person is at rest, their heart should be beating between 60 and 100 times in a minute. This range is considered normal because it indicates that the heart is functioning properly and efficiently, pumping an adequate amount of blood throughout the body. A pulse rate below or above this range may suggest an underlying health condition or indicate that the heart is not functioning optimally.

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27.

What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW)?
- Available Weight
- Body Weight
- Weight Gain
- Dry Weight
Correct Answer

A. Available Weight

Explanation

The term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW) is "Available Weight". This refers to the weight of a person's body that is available for treatment or evaluation, after subtracting the estimated amount of water weight. It helps in determining the actual weight of the body without the influence of excess fluid retention.

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28.

Which of the following is true about hand hygiene?
- Hand hygiene with hand sanitizer should be at least 1 minute
- Hand hygiene with soap and water should be 20-30 seconds
- Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds
- Hand hygiene with hand sanitizer should be 10-20 seconds
Correct Answer

A. Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds

Explanation

Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds is the correct answer because it is the recommended duration for effective handwashing. Washing hands with soap and water for this length of time ensures that all surfaces of the hands are thoroughly cleaned and any potential pathogens are removed. This duration allows enough time for proper lathering, rubbing, and rinsing of the hands, which is essential for effective hand hygiene.

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29.

Which of the following practices helps build a patient’s immunity to Hepatitis B?
- Isolation
- Decontamination
- Vaccination
- Sequestration
Correct Answer

A. Vaccination

Explanation

Vaccination helps build a patient's immunity to Hepatitis B. Vaccines contain a weakened or inactivated form of the virus or its components, which stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies. These antibodies protect against future infections by recognizing and neutralizing the virus. By receiving the Hepatitis B vaccine, individuals can develop immunity to the virus and reduce their risk of infection. Isolation, decontamination, and sequestration are not effective practices for building immunity to Hepatitis B.

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30.

A semipermeable membrane is a porous barrier that:
- Allows for only certain sized particles to cross
- Prevents fungal contamination
- Can distinguish between particles
- Is biocompatible, non-toxic, and hypoallergenic
Correct Answer

A. Allows for only certain sized particles to cross

Explanation

A semipermeable membrane is a porous barrier that allows for only certain sized particles to cross. This means that it selectively allows the passage of molecules or ions based on their size, while blocking the passage of larger particles. This property is useful in various applications, such as filtration processes, where the membrane can separate substances based on their molecular size. By controlling the size of particles that can pass through, the semipermeable membrane can effectively regulate the movement of substances across it.

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31.

At the end of a patient’s treatment, which of these findings, if observed by the technician, should be reported to the nurse?
- A pulse rate of 120 beats per minute
- Temperature of 98 degrees F (36.3 degrees Celsius)
- A weight loss of 6.6lbs (3kg)
- Blood pressure of 122/68mmg
Correct Answer

A. A pulse rate of 120 beats per minute

Explanation

A pulse rate of 120 beats per minute should be reported to the nurse because it is above the normal range of 60-100 beats per minute. This may indicate tachycardia, which could be a sign of an underlying medical condition or a side effect of the treatment. The nurse should be informed so that appropriate action can be taken to assess and address the patient's condition.

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32.

Which of the following is INCORRECT about reinfusing blood during treatment termination?
- The blood pump should be set at 150-200 ml/min during reinfusion
- If the saline bag empties, it could cause an air embolism
- Staff members can leave the patient’s chairside if the patient is alert
- Arterial blood is returned first, then venous
Correct Answer

A. Staff members can leave the patient’s chairside if the patient is alert
33.

What type of access has the lowest complication rate?
- Fistula
- Loop graft
- Central Venous Catheter (CVC)
- Straight graft
Correct Answer

A. Fistula

Explanation

A fistula is a type of access for hemodialysis that involves connecting an artery to a vein, creating a high-flow pathway for blood to be removed and returned during dialysis. Compared to other types of access such as loop grafts, central venous catheters (CVCs), and straight grafts, fistulas have the lowest complication rate. Fistulas have a lower risk of infection, thrombosis, and other complications, making them the preferred choice for long-term hemodialysis access.

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34.

Which of the following is true about near misses?
- They do not have to be reported if no patient injury is noted
- They help identify risks to patient safety and reduce the risk of patient injury
- They are not referred to as “good catches”
- They help identify staff members who are more likely to make mistakes
Correct Answer

A. They help identify risks to patient safety and reduce the risk of patient injury

Explanation

Near misses are incidents that could have resulted in patient harm but did not. They are important because they help identify risks to patient safety and allow for proactive measures to be taken to reduce the risk of patient injury. Reporting near misses is crucial in order to learn from them and prevent similar incidents in the future. Therefore, near misses should be reported even if no patient injury is noted.

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35.

At Mrs. Chase’s next treatment, the technician suspects that her access is clotted. The technician’s suspicion would be true if:
- There was redness over the area
- There was swelling over the area
- A bruit was absent
- A thrill was present
Correct Answer

A. A bruit was absent

Explanation

If a bruit is absent during Mrs. Chase's treatment, it indicates that there is no turbulent blood flow in the access site. This suggests that the access may be clotted, as a bruit is typically heard when there is normal blood flow through the access. Therefore, the technician's suspicion would be true if a bruit was absent.

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36.

The functional unit of the kidney, or the structure in the kidney that does the work, is the:
- Medulla
- Cortex
- Calyx
- Nephron
Correct Answer

A. Nephron

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. It is responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. Each kidney contains millions of nephrons, which consist of a glomerulus, a tubule, and a collecting duct. The glomerulus filters blood, while the tubule reabsorbs necessary substances and excretes waste products. The collecting duct then transports the urine to the renal pelvis for elimination. Therefore, the nephron is the structure in the kidney that performs the essential functions of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.

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37.

Dialysis treatment adequacy has been linked to patient outcomes. Delivering an adequate “Dose” of dialysis is the responsibility of the patient care staff in a dialysis unit. Things that can affect dialysis adequacy include all of the following EXCEPT:
- Time on treatment
- Blood and dialysate flow rates
- Luer Lock connectors
- Dialyzer clotting
Correct Answer

A. Luer Lock connectors

Explanation

Dialysis treatment adequacy is determined by factors such as time on treatment, blood and dialysate flow rates, and dialyzer clotting. Luer Lock connectors, on the other hand, do not directly affect dialysis adequacy. Luer Lock connectors are used to securely connect various components of the dialysis machine, but they do not impact the delivery of an adequate dose of dialysis.

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38.

A rapid pulse of 104 beats/min would indicate that the patient has:
- Bradycardia
- Tachycardia
- An arrhythmia
- Atrial flutter
Correct Answer

A. Tachycardia

Explanation

A rapid pulse of 104 beats/min would indicate that the patient has tachycardia. Tachycardia is a condition characterized by an abnormally fast heart rate, typically above 100 beats per minute. In this case, the heart rate of 104 beats per minute is higher than the normal range, indicating tachycardia. Tachycardia can be caused by various factors such as stress, anxiety, certain medications, heart conditions, or underlying medical conditions. It is important to further evaluate the patient's symptoms and medical history to determine the underlying cause of the tachycardia and provide appropriate treatment.

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39.

Stenosis is a major cause of access failure which, unless corrected, can lead to thrombosis and other complications. Which of the following are signs of stenosis?
- Rales on the bases of both lungs
- Changes in the thrill and bruit
- Skin discoloration over the site of stenosis
- Increase on skin temperature at site of stenosis
Correct Answer

A. Changes in the thrill and bruit

Explanation

Rales on the bases of both lungs may indicate respiratory issues and are not specific signs of stenosis. Skin discoloration over the site of stenosis and an increase in skin temperature at the site of stenosis may indicate infection or inflammation, but they are not direct signs of stenosis. On the other hand, changes in the thrill (vibration) and bruit (abnormal sound) are commonly associated with stenosis and can be used to diagnose the condition.

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40.

What is Fresenius Medical Care’s goal for a spkt/v?
- 1.3
- 1.0
- 1.5
- 1.4
Correct Answer

A. 1.4

Explanation

Fresenius Medical Care's goal for a spkt/v is 1.4.

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41.

The endocrine functions of the kidney include:
- Regulating growth hormone and making thyroid hormone
- Making erythropoietin and the active form of vitamin D
- Making estrogen and testosterone
- Regulating body temperature and sleep rhythms
Correct Answer

A. Making erythropoietin and the active form of vitamin D

Explanation

The endocrine functions of the kidney include producing erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells, and producing the active form of vitamin D, which is important for calcium absorption and bone health. These hormones are essential for maintaining proper blood cell levels and bone health in the body.

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42.

The leading cause of End-Stage Renal Disease for adults in the United States is:
- Hypertension
- Glomerulonephritis
- Diabetes
- Urinary obstruction
Correct Answer

A. Diabetes

Explanation

Diabetes is the leading cause of End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) for adults in the United States. ESRD occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to function properly and filter waste products from the blood. Diabetes can damage the blood vessels and small filtering units in the kidneys over time, leading to kidney failure. This can result in the need for dialysis or a kidney transplant. Hypertension, glomerulonephritis, and urinary obstruction can also contribute to ESRD, but diabetes is the most common cause.

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43.

The instrument used for measuring blood pressure is called a:
- Sphygmomanometer
- Spirometer
- Bronchoscope
- Tachometer
Correct Answer

A. Sphygmomanometer

Explanation

A sphygmomanometer is a device used to measure blood pressure. It consists of an inflatable cuff that is wrapped around the upper arm and a pressure gauge that measures the pressure in the cuff. The cuff is inflated to temporarily stop the flow of blood in the arm, and then slowly released to allow the blood to flow again. The pressure at which the blood starts flowing again is recorded as the systolic pressure, while the pressure at which the sound of blood flow stops completely is recorded as the diastolic pressure. This device is commonly used in medical settings to monitor blood pressure and diagnose conditions such as hypertension.

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44.

What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW)?
- Weight gain
- Dry weight
- Body weight
- Available weight
Correct Answer

A. Available weight

Explanation

The term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW) is called "Available weight".

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45.

Which of the following machine alarms does NOT stop the blood pump:
- Conductivity
- Arterial Pressure
- Venous Pressure
- Air detector
Correct Answer

A. Conductivity

Explanation

Conductivity is not a machine alarm that stops the blood pump. Conductivity is a measure of the ability of a solution to conduct an electric current, and it is used to monitor the concentration of electrolytes in the blood. It does not directly affect the operation of the blood pump. On the other hand, arterial pressure, venous pressure, and air detector are alarms that can indicate potentially dangerous situations and may cause the blood pump to stop to prevent further complications.

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46.

Which of the following is true about ultra low total chlorine testing?
- The RO must run for 10 minutes
- The sample cup must be rinsed 3 times
- The sample port must run for 5 minutes
- The sample must be 200ml
Correct Answer

A. The sample cup must be rinsed 3 times
47.

Dialysate is the fluid that helps remove waste products from the body. It contains a number of substances. Choose the group below that might be prescribed for a dialysate solution:
- Bicarbonate, Sodium, Potassium
- Magnesium, Creatinine, Calcium
- Chloride, Glucose, Urea
- Beta 2 microglobulin, Calcium, Sodium
Correct Answer

A. Bicarbonate, Sodium, Potassium

Explanation

The correct answer is Bicarbonate, Sodium, Potassium. These substances are commonly prescribed in a dialysate solution because they help maintain the electrolyte balance in the body. Bicarbonate helps to neutralize acid in the blood, sodium helps regulate fluid balance, and potassium is essential for proper nerve and muscle function. By including these substances in the dialysate solution, waste products can be effectively removed from the body during the dialysis process.

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48.

When should you replace the venous line during a treatment?
- If the venous pressure is half the BFR
- If the arterial pressure goes to -250mmHg
- If a large clot is seen in the venous line
- It should never be replaced during treatment
Correct Answer

A. If a large clot is seen in the venous line

Explanation

If a large clot is seen in the venous line, it is necessary to replace the line during the treatment. This is because a clot can obstruct the flow of blood and prevent the treatment from being effective. Replacing the line ensures that the treatment can continue without any interruptions or complications caused by the clot.

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49.

What is the path of urine flow through the urinary tract?
- Urine flows from the kidneys, to the urethra, to the bladder, to the ureters
- Urine flows from the ureters, to the bladder, to the kidneys, to the urethra
- Urine flows from the ureters, to the kidneys, to the urethra, to the bladder
- Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra
Correct Answer

A. Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra." This is the correct path of urine flow through the urinary tract. Urine is produced in the kidneys, then it travels through the ureters to reach the bladder, where it is stored. When it is time to urinate, the urine flows out of the bladder through the urethra and out of the body.

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Jun 05, 2020

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