Prep Course Exam Review

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1. You should check both arms for a fistula or graft before taking which vital sign?

Explanation

Before taking the vital sign of blood pressure, it is important to check both arms for a fistula or graft. This is because a fistula or graft can affect blood flow and subsequently impact the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Therefore, checking both arms for a fistula or graft ensures that the blood pressure measurement is reliable and accurate.

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About This Quiz
Prep Course Exam Review - Quiz

The PREP Course Exam Review assesses knowledge on dialysis procedures, focusing on topics such as tourniquet application, dialysate pH, weight measurements, vascular access, machine disinfection, and dialysis functions.... see moreThis quiz is essential for healthcare professionals specializing in dialysis care. see less

2. If a needle infiltrates, what should you do first?

Explanation

If a needle infiltrates, the first thing you should do is stop the blood pump. This is because the needle may have punctured a blood vessel, causing bleeding. By stopping the blood pump, you can prevent further blood loss and potential complications. Opening up the saline line, placing the patient in Trendelenburg position, or taking a blood pressure may be necessary steps after stopping the blood pump, but they are not the first action to take in this situation.

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3. What is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease?

Explanation

Diabetes is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease. High blood sugar levels in diabetes can damage the blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage over time. This can eventually progress to chronic kidney disease. Infection, alcohol abuse, and obesity can also contribute to kidney damage, but diabetes is the primary cause.

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4. Why is BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab drawn pre and post treatment?

Explanation

BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab is drawn pre and post treatment to evaluate the adequacy of a patient's treatment. The BUN levels in the blood can indicate how well the kidneys are functioning and how effectively waste products are being filtered out of the body. By comparing the BUN levels before and after treatment, healthcare providers can assess whether the treatment is effectively managing the patient's condition and maintaining appropriate kidney function. This helps in determining if any adjustments or changes are needed in the treatment plan to ensure the patient receives optimal care.

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5. You must apply a tourniquet before cannulating which type of access?

Explanation

A tourniquet should be applied before cannulating a fistula. A fistula is a surgically created connection between an artery and a vein, typically in the arm, that is used for long-term dialysis access. Applying a tourniquet helps to locate and stabilize the vein, making it easier to insert the cannula. In contrast, grafts and central venous catheters (CVCs) do not require a tourniquet for cannulation. Grafts are synthetic tubes that connect an artery and a vein, while CVCs are inserted directly into a large vein, such as the jugular or subclavian vein.

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6. Dialysis functions include which of the following?

Explanation

Dialysis is a medical procedure that helps to remove excess fluid and waste products from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly. It is used to treat individuals with kidney failure or chronic kidney disease. By filtering the blood, dialysis helps to maintain the balance of electrolytes and remove toxins that the kidneys would normally eliminate. Therefore, the correct answer is "Removal of excess fluid and waste from the blood."

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7. The components of the dialysate treatment that affect clearance include:

Explanation

The components of the dialysate treatment that affect clearance are dialysate flow, time of treatment, dialyzer size, and blood flow rate. These factors determine the efficiency of the dialysis process by influencing the rate at which waste products are removed from the blood. Dialysate flow refers to the rate at which the dialysate solution is circulated through the dialyzer, while the time of treatment determines the duration of the dialysis session. The dialyzer size and blood flow rate affect the surface area available for diffusion and the rate at which blood is pumped through the dialyzer, respectively. All these factors play a crucial role in achieving optimal clearance during dialysis.

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8. What must you do when you are leaving a dirty area and going to a clean area to get supplies?

Explanation

When leaving a dirty area and going to a clean area to get supplies, it is important to remove gloves and complete hand hygiene. This is necessary to prevent the spread of any potential contaminants from the dirty area to the clean area. Removing the gloves ensures that any dirt or germs on the gloves are not transferred to the clean area, and completing hand hygiene, such as washing hands or using hand sanitizer, further reduces the risk of contamination.

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9. What do you use to prime the extracorporeal circuit?

Explanation

Normal Saline (NS) is used to prime the extracorporeal circuit. Priming refers to the process of filling the circuit with a fluid before it is used for a medical procedure. Normal Saline is a sterile solution of 0.9% sodium chloride in water. It is commonly used in medical settings as it closely resembles the electrolyte composition of the body's fluids. Using Normal Saline as the priming fluid helps to maintain the electrolyte balance and prevent any adverse reactions or complications during the procedure.

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10. Where is the dialysis clinic can you dialyze a Hepatitis B surface antigen positive patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Isolation room" because a Hepatitis B surface antigen positive patient needs to be isolated to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients. Dialyzing the patient in an isolation room helps to minimize the risk of transmission and ensures the safety of other patients and healthcare providers.

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11. Which of the following is true about sharp containers?

Explanation

Sharp containers should be emptied when they are 2/3 - 3/4 full to prevent overfilling and potential injuries. This ensures that there is enough space for additional sharps and reduces the risk of needlestick injuries during disposal.

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12. A hemodialysis patient tests positive for Hepatitis B surface antigen. The technician should take which of these actions to prevent the spread of hepatitis B?

Explanation

Dialyzing the patient using a dedicated machine in an assigned area would help prevent the spread of hepatitis B because it would minimize the risk of cross-contamination. Using a separate machine for the patient would ensure that the virus does not spread to other patients receiving dialysis.

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13. Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low conductivity dialysate can all cause which complication?

Explanation

Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low conductivity dialysate can all cause hemolysis. Hemolysis refers to the rupture or destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. In this case, the mentioned factors can disrupt the normal flow and temperature of the dialysate, causing damage to the red blood cells and resulting in hemolysis.

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14. What should you do with sharps containers in the event of a flood?

Explanation

In the event of a flood, it is important to properly handle sharps containers. The correct answer is to lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room. This is because sharps containers contain potentially infectious materials, and it is crucial to prevent any leakage or contamination. By locking and sealing the containers, the risk of exposure is minimized. Placing them in a biohazard storage room ensures that they are stored in a secure and designated area, further reducing the potential for harm.

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15. Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the cause of an arterial alarm?

Explanation

To determine the cause of an arterial alarm in the extracorporeal circuit, you should look from the arterial needle to the blood pump. This is because the arterial alarm is typically related to issues in the arterial line, such as a blockage or clot, and checking this section of the circuit will help identify and address the problem.

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16. Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the cause of a venous alarm?

Explanation

To determine the cause of a venous alarm, you should look from the venous chamber to the venous needle in the extracorporeal circuit. This is because the venous chamber is the last component before the blood returns to the patient, so any issues or blockages in this section can cause the alarm. By inspecting this part of the circuit, you can identify any potential problems that may be causing the venous alarm.

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17. After treatment, a patient's blood pressure has dropped from 135/90 to 94/68. What should you do?

Explanation

The patient's blood pressure has dropped significantly after treatment, which may indicate a potential issue or complication. It is important to notify the nurse to assess the patient and determine the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure. The nurse will be able to provide appropriate medical intervention or further treatment if necessary.

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18. Which of the following is true about air in the dialyzer?

Explanation

Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer because it can lead to the formation of air bubbles in the blood during dialysis. These air bubbles can obstruct blood flow and cause clotting in the dialyzer. This can lead to inadequate dialysis treatment and potential complications for the patient. Therefore, it is important to ensure that there is no air in the dialyzer to prevent clotting and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

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19. How much saline should be kept in the saline bag at all times during the dialysis treatment?

Explanation

During the dialysis treatment, it is necessary to keep a sufficient amount of saline in the saline bag to ensure the proper functioning of the procedure. The correct answer is 300 mL because this amount is considered to be the standard volume needed for the treatment. This quantity of saline is necessary to maintain the balance of electrolytes and fluid levels in the patient's body during the dialysis process. It helps to prevent dehydration and maintain the stability of the patient's blood pressure.

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20. When is hand sanitizer okay to use?

Explanation

Hand sanitizer is okay to use when leaving the patient's station because it helps to kill germs and prevent the spread of infection. It is important to use hand sanitizer in healthcare settings to maintain proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of transmitting pathogens. Using hand sanitizer after leaving the patient's station helps to ensure that any potential contaminants on the hands are eliminated before moving on to another patient or task.

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21. During treatment transducer protectors must be kept _____and_____.

Explanation

During treatment, transducer protectors must be kept dry and unclamped to ensure proper functioning and prevent any damage to the equipment. Keeping them dry helps to prevent any moisture or liquid from entering the transducer, which could potentially cause malfunction or electrical damage. Additionally, keeping them unclamped allows for proper airflow and ventilation, which is important for preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance.

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22. Which of the following is included in Fresenius Medical Care's mission statement?

Explanation

Fresenius Medical Care's mission statement includes the goal of improving the quality of life of patients. This implies that the company is focused on providing healthcare solutions and services that enhance the well-being and overall quality of life for their patients. This aligns with the core purpose and values of the organization, emphasizing the importance of patient care and welfare.

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23. The normal range for a resting pulse rate in an adult is:

Explanation

The normal range for a resting pulse rate in an adult is 60 to 100 beats per minute. This means that when a person is at rest, their heart should be beating between 60 and 100 times in a minute. This range is considered normal because it indicates that the heart is functioning properly and efficiently, pumping an adequate amount of blood throughout the body. A pulse rate below or above this range may suggest an underlying health condition or indicate that the heart is not functioning optimally.

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24. At Mrs. Chase's next treatment, the technician suspects that her access is clotted. The technician's suspicion would be true if:

Explanation

If a bruit is absent during Mrs. Chase's treatment, it indicates that there is no turbulent blood flow in the access site. This suggests that the access may be clotted, as a bruit is typically heard when there is normal blood flow through the access. Therefore, the technician's suspicion would be true if a bruit was absent.

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25. Arterial Pressure (AP) should be no more than ____?

Explanation

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26. Which of the following would keep KECN values stable during treatment?

Explanation

Keeping the Blood Flow Rate (BFR) at the prescribed rate during treatment would help in maintaining stable KECN values. The BFR determines the rate at which blood flows through the dialyzer, allowing for efficient removal of waste products and excess fluids. If the BFR is set too low, the dialysis treatment may not be effective in removing toxins from the blood, leading to unstable KECN values. On the other hand, if the BFR is set too high, it can cause hemodynamic instability and other complications. Therefore, maintaining the BFR at the prescribed rate is essential for stable KECN values during treatment.

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27. Which of the following is true about near misses?

Explanation

Near misses are incidents that could have resulted in patient harm but did not. They are important because they help identify risks to patient safety and allow for proactive measures to be taken to reduce the risk of patient injury. Reporting near misses is crucial in order to learn from them and prevent similar incidents in the future. Therefore, near misses should be reported even if no patient injury is noted.

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28. Which of the following practices helps build a patient's immunity to Hepatitis B?

Explanation

Vaccination helps build a patient's immunity to Hepatitis B. Vaccines contain a weakened or inactivated form of the virus or its components, which stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies. These antibodies protect against future infections by recognizing and neutralizing the virus. By receiving the Hepatitis B vaccine, individuals can develop immunity to the virus and reduce their risk of infection. Isolation, decontamination, and sequestration are not effective practices for building immunity to Hepatitis B.

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29. At the end of a patient's treatment, which of these findings, if observed by the technician, should be reported to the nurse?

Explanation

A pulse rate of 120 beats per minute should be reported to the nurse because it is above the normal range of 60-100 beats per minute. This may indicate tachycardia, which could be a sign of an underlying medical condition or a side effect of the treatment. The nurse should be informed so that appropriate action can be taken to assess and address the patient's condition.

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30. Which of the following is correct regarding machine disinfection?

Explanation

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31. Stenosis is a major cause of access failure which, unless corrected, can lead to thrombosis and other complications. Which of the following are signs of stenosis?

Explanation

Rales on the bases of both lungs may indicate respiratory issues and are not specific signs of stenosis. Skin discoloration over the site of stenosis and an increase in skin temperature at the site of stenosis may indicate infection or inflammation, but they are not direct signs of stenosis. On the other hand, changes in the thrill (vibration) and bruit (abnormal sound) are commonly associated with stenosis and can be used to diagnose the condition.

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32. The functional unit of the kidney, or the structure in the kidney that does the work, is the:

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. It is responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. Each kidney contains millions of nephrons, which consist of a glomerulus, a tubule, and a collecting duct. The glomerulus filters blood, while the tubule reabsorbs necessary substances and excretes waste products. The collecting duct then transports the urine to the renal pelvis for elimination. Therefore, the nephron is the structure in the kidney that performs the essential functions of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.

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33. A semipermeable membrane is a porous barrier that:

Explanation

A semipermeable membrane is a porous barrier that allows for only certain sized particles to cross. This means that it selectively allows the passage of molecules or ions based on their size, while blocking the passage of larger particles. This property is useful in various applications, such as filtration processes, where the membrane can separate substances based on their molecular size. By controlling the size of particles that can pass through, the semipermeable membrane can effectively regulate the movement of substances across it.

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34. Which of the following machine alarms does NOT stop the blood pump:

Explanation

Conductivity is not a machine alarm that stops the blood pump. Conductivity is a measure of the ability of a solution to conduct an electric current, and it is used to monitor the concentration of electrolytes in the blood. It does not directly affect the operation of the blood pump. On the other hand, arterial pressure, venous pressure, and air detector are alarms that can indicate potentially dangerous situations and may cause the blood pump to stop to prevent further complications.

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35. What type of access has the lowest complication rate?

Explanation

A fistula is a type of access for hemodialysis that involves connecting an artery to a vein, creating a high-flow pathway for blood to be removed and returned during dialysis. Compared to other types of access such as loop grafts, central venous catheters (CVCs), and straight grafts, fistulas have the lowest complication rate. Fistulas have a lower risk of infection, thrombosis, and other complications, making them the preferred choice for long-term hemodialysis access.

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36. Which of the following is true about hand hygiene?

Explanation

Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds is the correct answer because it is the recommended duration for effective handwashing. Washing hands with soap and water for this length of time ensures that all surfaces of the hands are thoroughly cleaned and any potential pathogens are removed. This duration allows enough time for proper lathering, rubbing, and rinsing of the hands, which is essential for effective hand hygiene.

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37. Which of the following is INCORRECT about reinfusing blood during treatment termination?

Explanation

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38. Dialysate is the fluid that helps remove waste products from the body. It contains a number of substances. Choose the group below that might be prescribed for a dialysate solution:

Explanation

The correct answer is Bicarbonate, Sodium, Potassium. These substances are commonly prescribed in a dialysate solution because they help maintain the electrolyte balance in the body. Bicarbonate helps to neutralize acid in the blood, sodium helps regulate fluid balance, and potassium is essential for proper nerve and muscle function. By including these substances in the dialysate solution, waste products can be effectively removed from the body during the dialysis process.

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39. The instrument used for measuring blood pressure is called a:

Explanation

A sphygmomanometer is a device used to measure blood pressure. It consists of an inflatable cuff that is wrapped around the upper arm and a pressure gauge that measures the pressure in the cuff. The cuff is inflated to temporarily stop the flow of blood in the arm, and then slowly released to allow the blood to flow again. The pressure at which the blood starts flowing again is recorded as the systolic pressure, while the pressure at which the sound of blood flow stops completely is recorded as the diastolic pressure. This device is commonly used in medical settings to monitor blood pressure and diagnose conditions such as hypertension.

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40. A rapid pulse of 104 beats/min would indicate that the patient has:

Explanation

A rapid pulse of 104 beats/min would indicate that the patient has tachycardia. Tachycardia is a condition characterized by an abnormally fast heart rate, typically above 100 beats per minute. In this case, the heart rate of 104 beats per minute is higher than the normal range, indicating tachycardia. Tachycardia can be caused by various factors such as stress, anxiety, certain medications, heart conditions, or underlying medical conditions. It is important to further evaluate the patient's symptoms and medical history to determine the underlying cause of the tachycardia and provide appropriate treatment.

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41. Which vital sign should you report to the nurse?

Explanation

A blood pressure reading of 165/102 is considered high and could indicate hypertension. It is important to report this reading to the nurse because it could be a sign of an underlying health issue that needs to be addressed. The other vital signs, such as respirations, temperature, and pulse, are within normal ranges and do not require immediate attention.

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42. The leading cause of End-Stage Renal Disease for adults in the United States is:

Explanation

Diabetes is the leading cause of End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) for adults in the United States. ESRD occurs when the kidneys are no longer able to function properly and filter waste products from the blood. Diabetes can damage the blood vessels and small filtering units in the kidneys over time, leading to kidney failure. This can result in the need for dialysis or a kidney transplant. Hypertension, glomerulonephritis, and urinary obstruction can also contribute to ESRD, but diabetes is the most common cause.

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43. What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW)?

Explanation

The term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW) is "Available Weight". This refers to the weight of a person's body that is available for treatment or evaluation, after subtracting the estimated amount of water weight. It helps in determining the actual weight of the body without the influence of excess fluid retention.

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44. Dialysis treatment adequacy has been linked to patient outcomes. Delivering an adequate "Dose" of dialysis is the responsibility of the patient care staff in a dialysis unit. Things that can affect dialysis adequacy include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Dialysis treatment adequacy is determined by factors such as time on treatment, blood and dialysate flow rates, and dialyzer clotting. Luer Lock connectors, on the other hand, do not directly affect dialysis adequacy. Luer Lock connectors are used to securely connect various components of the dialysis machine, but they do not impact the delivery of an adequate dose of dialysis.

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45. What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW)?

Explanation

The term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW) is called "Available weight".

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46. Legally, a treatment was performed but not charted in the patient's record, it was:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Not done" because if a treatment was performed but not charted in the patient's record, it means that it was not documented or recorded. This can be a serious issue as it can lead to errors in patient care, miscommunication among healthcare providers, and potential legal and ethical consequences. It is important for all treatments and procedures to be accurately documented in the patient's record to ensure continuity of care and proper medical management.

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47. Which of the following statements about clamps is correct?

Explanation

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48. When should you replace the venous line during a treatment?

Explanation

If a large clot is seen in the venous line, it is necessary to replace the line during the treatment. This is because a clot can obstruct the flow of blood and prevent the treatment from being effective. Replacing the line ensures that the treatment can continue without any interruptions or complications caused by the clot.

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49. What is Fresenius Medical Care's goal for a spkt/v?

Explanation

Fresenius Medical Care's goal for a spkt/v is 1.4.

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50. The endocrine functions of the kidney include:

Explanation

The endocrine functions of the kidney include producing erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells, and producing the active form of vitamin D, which is important for calcium absorption and bone health. These hormones are essential for maintaining proper blood cell levels and bone health in the body.

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51. What is the path of urine flow through the urinary tract?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra." This is the correct path of urine flow through the urinary tract. Urine is produced in the kidneys, then it travels through the ureters to reach the bladder, where it is stored. When it is time to urinate, the urine flows out of the bladder through the urethra and out of the body.

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52. A central venous catheter may be used as a vascular access when a:

Explanation

A central venous catheter may be used as a vascular access when a patient has inadequate blood vessels in the limbs. This means that the patient's blood vessels are not suitable for other types of vascular access, such as a peripheral IV line or an arteriovenous fistula. In these cases, a central venous catheter can be inserted into a large central vein, such as the jugular vein or the subclavian vein, to provide a reliable and long-term access for medications, fluids, or blood products.

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53. Why are dialysis patients more likely to become infected with germs like methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

Explanation

Dialysis patients are more likely to become infected with germs like MRSA because they usually have weak immune systems. Dialysis is a treatment for people with kidney failure, and it involves filtering waste and excess fluids from the blood. However, dialysis cannot completely replace the function of healthy kidneys, leading to a weakened immune system. This makes dialysis patients more susceptible to infections, including MRSA, which is a type of bacteria that is resistant to many antibiotics.

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54. What PPE should you wear while disinfecting a dialysis station or cleaning a blood spill?

Explanation

While disinfecting a dialysis station or cleaning a blood spill, it is important to wear personal protective equipment (PPE) to prevent exposure to potentially harmful pathogens. Gloves are necessary to protect the hands from direct contact with the contaminated surfaces. A gown provides full-body coverage and prevents any splashes or spills from reaching the clothing. A face shield or mask is necessary to protect the face and eyes from any splashes or aerosols. Goggles are also necessary to provide additional protection for the eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is gloves, gown, face shield or mask, and goggles.

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55. Which of the following situations will cause an increase in venous pressure during dialysis?

Explanation

Venous needle infiltration refers to the unintentional insertion of the venous needle outside the vein during dialysis. This can cause an increase in venous pressure because the blood flow is obstructed, leading to a backflow of blood and an increase in pressure within the vein.

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56. Before a dialysis treatment, the patient tells the technician, "Yesterday, I felt terrible and vomited up some blood. I feel must better today." The technician can expect the patient's treatment will be modified by:

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of feeling terrible and vomiting up blood indicate that they may have experienced bleeding during their previous dialysis treatment. Decreasing the heparin dose, which is an anticoagulant, can help reduce the risk of bleeding during the next treatment.

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57. Why do kidney patients often have bone disease?

Explanation

When the kidneys stop producing calcitriol, it leads to a decrease in the absorption of calcium from the intestines. This results in low levels of calcium in the blood. In response, the parathyroid glands release parathyroid hormone (PTH) to increase the levels of calcium in the blood by stimulating the release of calcium from the bones. Over time, this can lead to bone disease in kidney patients due to the constant breakdown of bone tissue.

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58. Dialysate conductivity measures:?

Explanation

Dialysate conductivity measures the total electrical charge of a solution. Conductivity is a measure of how well a solution can conduct electricity, and it is influenced by the concentration of ions in the solution. Therefore, by measuring the conductivity of dialysate, we can determine the total electrical charge present in the solution. This information is important in dialysis, as it helps to monitor the composition and quality of the dialysate solution used in the process.

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59. What should you do first when drawing a post-BUN?

Explanation

When drawing a post-BUN, the first thing you should do is turn off the ultrafiltration rate (UFR) and dialysate flow rate (DFR). This is important because it allows you to stop the removal of fluid and dialysate from the patient's blood, ensuring that you have an accurate sample for the post-BUN measurement. By turning off the UFR and DFR, you can prevent any further changes in the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance, which could affect the accuracy of the post-BUN results.

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60. Which of the following pH measurements is safe for dialysate?

Explanation

A pH measurement of 7.0 is safe for dialysate because it is considered neutral. Dialysate is the fluid used in dialysis to help remove waste and excess fluid from the body. It is important for the pH of the dialysate to be balanced in order to maintain the proper chemical environment during the dialysis process. A pH measurement of 7.0 indicates that the dialysate is neither too acidic nor too alkaline, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the dialysis treatment.

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61. Which of the following is true about ultra low total chlorine testing?

Explanation

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62. What does a yellow AMP light indicate?

Explanation

A yellow AMP light indicates that the projected spkt/v is less than 1.4.

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63. The water supply to the water treatment system is called:

Explanation

The water supply to the water treatment system is called "feed water" because it refers to the water that is being fed into the system for treatment. This water is typically sourced from various places such as rivers, lakes, or wells, and it undergoes treatment processes to remove impurities and make it safe for consumption or other uses. "Feed water" is a commonly used term in the water treatment industry to describe the input water that enters the treatment system.

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64. A patient who is fluid overloaded will probably have which of the following sets of symptoms. Symptoms may be mild or severe.

Explanation

A patient who is fluid overloaded may experience tachycardia (rapid heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and dyspnea (shortness of breath). These symptoms occur because the excess fluid puts a strain on the heart, causing it to beat faster (tachycardia) and leading to increased blood pressure (hypertension). The fluid may also accumulate in the lungs, leading to difficulty breathing (dyspnea). These symptoms can vary in severity depending on the extent of fluid overload.

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65. What term is defined as a failure to follow established procedure, treatment prescriptions, or an even that causes patient injury or death?

Explanation

Adverse event is defined as a failure to follow established procedure, treatment prescriptions, or an event that causes patient injury or death. This term encompasses any negative outcome that occurs as a result of a deviation from standard protocols or guidelines. It includes errors in medication administration, surgical mistakes, and other preventable incidents that harm patients. Adverse events are important to identify and address in order to improve patient safety and prevent future harm.

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66. Which of these parts of the water treatment system removes endotoxins?

Explanation

An ultrafilter is a part of the water treatment system that is specifically designed to remove endotoxins. It is a type of membrane filter that has very small pores, allowing it to effectively remove particles, bacteria, and endotoxins from the water. The resin bed, deionization tank, and softener are other components of the water treatment system that serve different purposes but do not specifically target the removal of endotoxins.

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67. A patient asks the technician, "What does uremia mean?" The technician's response should be based on the understanding that uremia is:

Explanation

Uremia refers to the buildup of waste products in the blood that are normally excreted by the kidneys. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, these waste products, such as urea and creatinine, accumulate in the blood. This can lead to various symptoms and complications, including fatigue, nausea, edema, and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, the technician should explain to the patient that uremia means an increase of wastes in the blood.

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68. What concentration of bleach is used to clean up a blood spill greater than 10ml?

Explanation

To clean up a blood spill greater than 10ml, a concentration of bleach is required. The correct answer suggests using a concentration of 1:10 followed by 1:100. This means that the bleach should be diluted with water at a ratio of 1 part bleach to 10 parts water, and then further diluted at a ratio of 1 part diluted bleach to 100 parts water. This two-step dilution process ensures that the bleach is at an appropriate concentration to effectively clean up the blood spill.

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69. Which of the following could cause air to enter the blood lines and dialyzer?

Explanation

If the arterial chamber level is low, it can cause air to enter the blood lines and dialyzer because there may not be enough pressure to prevent air from entering the system. As a result, air can be drawn into the blood lines and potentially enter the patient's bloodstream during dialysis.

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70. A patient begins to experience faintness, double vision, and clammy hands. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

Explanation

The patient experiencing faintness, double vision, and clammy hands is most likely experiencing hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, blurred vision, and sweating. This can happen if the patient has not eaten for a long time or if they have taken too much insulin or diabetes medication. Hyperglycemia, on the other hand, is high blood sugar levels, and would not typically cause the symptoms described. Hypertension refers to high blood pressure, and hyperkalemia is high levels of potassium in the blood, neither of which would explain the patient's symptoms.

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71. Which of the following is true about dialysate?

Explanation

The correct answer is "It is ultrapure". Dialysate is the fluid used in dialysis to remove waste and excess fluid from the blood. It needs to be ultrapure to prevent any contamination or introduction of harmful substances into the patient's bloodstream. Sterility is a requirement for dialysate, but it is not the defining characteristic. Urea is a waste product that is removed by dialysis, so it would not be present in the dialysate. Chlorine is not typically present in dialysate as it can be harmful to the patient. Therefore, the statement that dialysate is ultrapure is the most accurate.

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72. Which vascular access needle(s) can be placed against the flow of blood?

Explanation

An arterial needle can be placed against the flow of blood because it is inserted directly into an artery, which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart. On the other hand, a venous needle is inserted into a vein, which carries deoxygenated blood towards the heart. Therefore, a venous needle cannot be placed against the flow of blood.

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73. Normal body temperature taken orally is:

Explanation

The normal body temperature taken orally is 98.6°F. This is the average temperature that is considered to be within the normal range for a healthy adult. It is important to note that individual body temperatures can vary slightly, and factors such as time of day and activity level can also affect body temperature. However, 98.6°F is generally accepted as the standard normal body temperature.

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74. The technician is unsure which one of a patient's arteriovenous (AV) graft's anastomoses is arterial and which one is venous. In order to differentiate between the two, the technician should:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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75. Diffusion is movement of particles:

Explanation

Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This process occurs due to the random motion of particles, where they spread out to achieve a more uniform distribution.

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76. Dialysate that has too much sodium may cause patient injury. Too much sodium or Hypernatremia can cause:

Explanation

Too much sodium or hypernatremia can lead to various symptoms and complications. Headaches can occur due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. High blood pressure can result from the body retaining excess fluid to dilute the sodium concentration. Shriveling of red blood cells or crenation can occur when there is an imbalance of sodium inside and outside the cells, causing them to lose water and shrink. These symptoms indicate the potential harm that can be caused to the patient if the dialysate has too much sodium.

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77. Two things that affect the dialyzer's ability to remove wastes from the body include:

Explanation

The dialyzer's ability to remove wastes from the body is influenced by two factors: surface area and molecular weight cutoff. The surface area of the dialyzer determines the amount of contact between the blood and the dialysis solution, allowing for efficient waste removal. The molecular weight cutoff refers to the size of molecules that can pass through the dialyzer membrane. A lower molecular weight cutoff allows for the removal of smaller waste molecules. Therefore, surface area and molecular weight cutoff are important considerations for the effectiveness of a dialyzer in removing wastes from the body.

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78. Which vascular access needle(s) can be placed with the flow of blood?

Explanation

Both arterial and venous needles can be placed with the flow of blood. The arterial needle is used to access the arterial blood supply, while the venous needle is used to access the venous blood supply. Placing both needles with the flow of blood ensures that the blood can be properly accessed and utilized for medical procedures or treatments.

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79. Where in the clinic can you put a Hepatitis B susceptible patient during treatment?

Explanation

A Hepatitis B susceptible patient should be placed outside of the buffer zone and away from the isolation room during treatment. This is because the buffer zone is a designated area for patients with contagious diseases, and the isolation room is specifically for patients with airborne diseases. Placing the patient outside of the buffer zone helps to minimize the risk of transmission to other patients in the clinic.

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80. A patient asks the technician why a high venous pressure alarm is sounding. The technician should explain that a high venous pressure alarm might indicate a:

Explanation

A high venous pressure alarm might indicate a clotting of blood in the access. This means that there is a blockage or obstruction in the venous blood tubing, preventing the blood from flowing properly. This can lead to increased pressure in the vein, triggering the alarm. The other options, such as a decrease in blood flow rate, kink in the arterial blood tubing, or separation of venous blood tubing, would not directly cause a high venous pressure alarm.

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81. A patient who has diabetes mellitus should be observed for signs of low blood sugar, which include:

Explanation

Patients with diabetes mellitus should be observed for signs of low blood sugar, known as hypoglycemia. Anxiety and confusion are common symptoms of hypoglycemia, as the brain is not receiving enough glucose for proper functioning. Fever and chills, thirst and weight gain, and decreased blood pressure and heart rate are not typically associated with low blood sugar.

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82. Dialyzer performance can be affected by reuse. Which of the following sets of potential problems may be related to reuse?

Explanation

Reusing a dialyzer can lead to reduced dialyzer performance, as the dialyzer may become less effective at removing waste and excess fluid from the blood. Plugged hollow fibers can also occur, which can further impair the dialyzer's ability to filter the blood properly. Additionally, the volume of the fiber bundle within the dialyzer may change over time, which can impact its overall performance. These potential problems are all related to the reuse of the dialyzer.

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83. According to the AAMI standards, the total microbial count of water used to prepare dialysate shall not exceed:

Explanation

According to the AAMI standards, the total microbial count of water used to prepare dialysate should not exceed 200 CFU/mL. This is because high microbial counts can increase the risk of infection for patients undergoing dialysis. Keeping the microbial count below this limit helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the dialysis process.

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84. A nephron is made up of:

Explanation

A nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering waste from the blood and producing urine. It consists of a glomerulus, which is a network of capillaries, and a tubule. The glomerulus filters the blood, allowing waste products and excess fluids to pass into the tubule, where further processing and reabsorption of essential substances occur. The other options mentioned, such as the nephrons and a capsule, the loop of Henle and the capillary ball, and the bladder and the ureter, are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the components of a nephron.

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85. Which of the following occurs when the dialysis machine alarms and goes into bypass?

Explanation

When the dialysis machine alarms and goes into bypass, it means that there is a problem with the flow of dialysate through the dialyzer. Dialysate is the fluid that helps remove waste and excess fluid from the blood during dialysis. If the dialysate stops flowing, the dialysis process cannot effectively remove waste and excess fluid from the patient's blood, leading to a potential health risk. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

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86. At which point in the extracorporeal circuit is the blood usually under negative pressure?

Explanation

In the extracorporeal circuit, the blood is usually under negative pressure in the arterial line section before the blood pump. This is because the blood pump creates a vacuum effect, pulling the blood from the patient's body into the circuit. The negative pressure in this section helps to ensure proper blood flow and circulation throughout the circuit.

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87. Calculate the target weight for a patient with the following pre-treatment information: EDW 75.5kg. Pre-treatment weight 77.0kg. Prime & rinse 500ml.

Explanation

The target weight for a patient is calculated by subtracting the pre-treatment weight from the EDW (Estimated Dry Weight), and then subtracting the volume of prime and rinse. In this case, the EDW is 75.5kg and the pre-treatment weight is 77.0kg. Subtracting 77.0kg from 75.5kg gives a difference of -1.5kg. Then, subtracting the volume of prime and rinse, which is 500ml, or 0.5kg, gives a final target weight of -2.0kg.

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88. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of chemical reaction due to incomplete rinsing of germicide from a reprocessed dialyzer?

Explanation

Diarrhea is not a symptom of a chemical reaction due to incomplete rinsing of germicide from a reprocessed dialyzer. The other symptoms listed, such as burning in the access site, numbness in the access arm, and blurred vision, could potentially be caused by the chemicals in the germicide. However, diarrhea is not typically associated with chemical reactions in this context.

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89. A patient asks the dialysis technician, "Why am I getting vitamin D therapy?" Which of these responses would be accurate?

Explanation

Vitamin D is needed for healthy bones because it helps the body absorb calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for bone health. Without enough vitamin D, the body cannot properly use these minerals, leading to weak and brittle bones. Therefore, receiving vitamin D therapy is important for maintaining strong and healthy bones.

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90. Patients with kidney failure often complain of itching, which is likely to be caused by:

Explanation

Hyperphosphatemia is a condition characterized by high levels of phosphate in the blood. In patients with kidney failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter out excess phosphate, leading to its buildup in the blood. This can result in several complications, including itching. The exact mechanism behind the itching is not fully understood, but it is believed that the high levels of phosphate may directly stimulate nerve endings in the skin, leading to the sensation of itching. Therefore, hyperphosphatemia is likely the cause of itching in patients with kidney failure.

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91. Negative pressure is pressure created when:

Explanation

Negative pressure is created when fluid is pulled through a restriction. This means that there is a lower pressure on one side of the restriction compared to the other side, causing the fluid to be pulled towards the lower pressure area. This can occur in various situations, such as when a vacuum is created or when a pump is used to draw fluid through a narrow passage.

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92. What is the most important safety monitor during a dialysis treatment?

Explanation

The dialysis technician is the most important safety monitor during a dialysis treatment because they are responsible for monitoring the patient's vital signs, ensuring the correct functioning of the dialysis machine, and responding to any emergencies or complications that may arise during the treatment. They play a critical role in ensuring the safety and well-being of the patient throughout the entire dialysis process.

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93. What must you do when using the emergency hand crank during a power outage?

Explanation

When using the emergency hand crank during a power outage, it is important to check that there is 300ml of normal saline (NS) in the bag. This is necessary because the hand crank is used to manually pump the saline solution through the dialysis machine, providing the necessary fluid for the dialysis process. Without the proper amount of saline in the bag, the dialysis machine will not be able to function effectively. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that there is an adequate amount of normal saline in the bag before using the emergency hand crank.

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94. What is the limit for total chlorine?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Less than 0.1ppm". This suggests that the acceptable limit for total chlorine is less than 0.1 parts per million. This limit is likely set to ensure that the concentration of chlorine in a given substance or environment remains at a safe level. Higher concentrations of chlorine can be harmful to human health and the environment, so it is important to keep the concentration below this threshold.

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95. Which of the following will increase the amount of solutes that will diffuse across the semipermeable membrane?

Explanation

High concentration gradients will increase the amount of solutes that will diffuse across the semipermeable membrane. Concentration gradient refers to the difference in solute concentration between two regions. When the concentration gradient is high, there is a greater difference in solute concentration, which creates a driving force for diffusion. This means that more solutes will move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, resulting in an increased amount of diffusion across the semipermeable membrane.

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96. Dialysate with a high conductivity will cause _____; Dialysate with a low conductivity will cause _____.

Explanation

Dialysate with a high conductivity will cause crenation, which refers to the shrinking or shriveling of red blood cells due to the movement of water out of the cells. On the other hand, dialysate with a low conductivity will cause hemolysis, which is the rupture or destruction of red blood cells due to the movement of water into the cells.

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97. Seizures during dialysis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Seizures during dialysis can be caused by electrolyte imbalances, hypotension, and dialysate composition errors. However, a sudden decrease in dialyzer clearance is not a known cause of seizures during dialysis. The dialyzer is responsible for filtering waste and excess fluid from the blood during dialysis, so a decrease in its clearance would not directly lead to seizures.

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98. Which of the following is the first symptom that a patient developing dialysis disequilibrium syndrome is most likely to exhibit?

Explanation

Patients developing dialysis disequilibrium syndrome are most likely to exhibit a headache as the first symptom. This syndrome occurs when there is a rapid removal of solutes during dialysis, leading to an imbalance between the solute concentrations in the blood and brain. The resulting osmotic gradient causes fluid to move into the brain, leading to cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure, which manifests as a headache. Other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, seizures, and altered mental status may follow, but headache is typically the earliest and most common symptom.

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99. The most common cause of a low conductivity alarm during hemodialysis is:

Explanation

A low conductivity alarm during hemodialysis indicates that the conductivity of the dialysate solution is below the desired level. This can be caused by various factors, but the most common cause is an exhausted concentrate supply. The concentrate is responsible for providing the necessary electrolytes and salts to the dialysate solution, and when it becomes depleted, the conductivity of the solution decreases. This can lead to inadequate dialysis treatment and the need to replace the concentrate supply.

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100. AAMI standards recommend quality control activities before a reprocessed dialyzer is used on a patient. How many people must check the dialyzer to verify quality control information?

Explanation

The AAMI standards recommend that quality control activities be performed before a reprocessed dialyzer is used on a patient. These activities include checking the dialyzer for quality control information. According to the given correct answer, two people should check the dialyzer to verify this information. One of these two people should be the patient themselves, as they are the ones who will be directly affected by the use of the dialyzer. The involvement of the patient in the quality control process ensures that they are actively participating in their own healthcare and can provide valuable input regarding their treatment.

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101. Which of the following is CORRECT about online clearance (OLC) testing?

Explanation

Online clearance (OLC) testing is a method used to estimate the clearance of substances in the body. In this case, sodium is used specifically to estimate the clearance of urea. The other options are not correct because OLC tests do not project serum albumin levels and they are not completed 8 times per treatment. The result of an OLC test is not known as a KECN with an expected range of 300-400, so this option is also incorrect.

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102. Dialysate that has too little sodium can cause:

Explanation

Dialysate is a solution used in dialysis to help remove waste and excess fluid from the blood. It needs to have the right balance of electrolytes, including sodium. If the dialysate has too little sodium, it can lead to low blood pressure because sodium helps regulate blood volume. This can cause symptoms such as cramping, as the body tries to compensate for the low blood pressure. Additionally, low sodium levels can cause bursting of red blood cells, a condition known as hemolysis.

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103. Which of the following occurs when the machine goes into bypass?

Explanation

When the machine goes into bypass, the RTD clock stops. This means that the clock used to measure the duration of the treatment stops running. The other options, such as cleaning continuing, UF clock stopping, and blood pump stopping, do not occur when the machine goes into bypass.

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104. Make sure access is stabilized and always remains _____

Explanation

The word "stabilized" suggests that there may have been some instability or fluctuation in the access. To stabilize access means to make it consistent and reliable. The word "uncovered" implies that the access was previously lacking or incomplete, and therefore, it needed to be stabilized to ensure that it always remains in a complete and reliable state.

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105. "First use syndrome" is a hypersensitivity reaction to a dialyzer. It is characterized by:

Explanation

"First use syndrome" is a hypersensitivity reaction to a dialyzer, which is a medical device used in dialysis. It is characterized by symptoms such as back pain, anxiety, tachycardia (rapid heartbeat), wheezing, and circulatory collapse. These symptoms can occur during the first use of a new dialyzer and may indicate an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis. Prompt medical attention is required in such cases to prevent further complications.

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106. Symptoms that a patient may need more dialysis time include:

Explanation

The symptoms of hypotension, dehydration, and weakness are indicative of a patient needing more dialysis time. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can occur during dialysis due to fluid removal, and increasing dialysis time can help stabilize blood pressure. Dehydration can also be a result of excessive fluid removal during dialysis, and increasing dialysis time can help prevent this. Weakness can be a sign of inadequate dialysis, as waste products and excess fluid may not be adequately removed from the body. Therefore, increasing dialysis time can address these symptoms and improve the patient's condition.

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107. A patient asks the technician, "Why do I need ultrafiltration profiling?" The technician's response should be based on the understanding that the purpose of ultrafiltration profiling is to:

Explanation

Ultrafiltration profiling is a technique used during hemodialysis to remove excess fluid from the patient's body. By adjusting the rate at which fluid is removed, ultrafiltration profiling can help minimize the risk of hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure. This is important because hypotension can lead to dizziness, fainting, and other complications. Therefore, the purpose of ultrafiltration profiling is to minimize hypotension and ensure a safe and effective dialysis session for the patient.

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108. Report a blood pressure reading over _____ to the nurse

Explanation

The blood pressure reading of 180/100 is considered high and indicates hypertension. It is important to report this reading to the nurse because it may require immediate medical attention or adjustment of medication. High blood pressure can lead to serious health complications such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney problems. Monitoring and managing blood pressure levels is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing complications.

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109. During Dialysis, ultrafiltration occurs when:

Explanation

During dialysis, ultrafiltration occurs when a higher concentration of sodium causes water to move from body compartments into the dialysate. This is because of the principle of osmosis, where water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. In this case, the higher concentration of sodium in the dialysate creates a gradient that causes water to be pulled out of the blood and into the dialysate, allowing for the removal of excess fluid from the body during dialysis.

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110. Dialysate that has too much calcium can cause:

Explanation

Excessive calcium in the dialysate can lead to an imbalance in the body's electrolytes, causing symptoms such as vomiting, confusion, and irritability. This occurs because high levels of calcium can disrupt the normal functioning of the nervous system and affect the body's ability to regulate various processes.

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111. The transmembrane pressure has been gradually changing during the last 1-1/2 hours of dialysis. You suspect clotting in the dialyzer. The first action you should take is to:

Explanation

Changing the venous bloodline is the first action to take because clotting in the dialyzer can occur due to inadequate blood flow. Changing the venous bloodline helps to ensure proper blood flow and can help resolve the issue of clotting.

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112. What position should the transducer clamps be in before starting treatment? _____

Explanation

The transducer clamps should be in the open position before starting treatment. This is because the open position allows for easy placement and removal of the transducer, ensuring a smooth and efficient treatment process.

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113. Normal saline is used to remove _____ and _____ from the extracorporeal circuit.

Explanation

Normal saline is used to remove sterilant and air from the extracorporeal circuit. Sterilant refers to any substance or agent that is used to sterilize or disinfect equipment. In the extracorporeal circuit, it is important to remove any sterilant residue to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the circuit. Additionally, air bubbles can form in the circuit, which can disrupt the flow of blood or other fluids. Normal saline is used to flush out these air bubbles and ensure proper functioning of the circuit.

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114. How long should you wait to initiate treatment after administering a heparin bolus? _____

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 to 5 minutes. After administering a heparin bolus, it is important to wait for 3 to 5 minutes before initiating treatment. This waiting period allows the heparin to take effect and start working in the body. By waiting for this duration, the healthcare provider ensures that the heparin has enough time to circulate and exert its anticoagulant effects, which can prevent blood clots from forming or getting larger. Initiating treatment too soon may not allow the heparin to fully take effect, potentially compromising its efficacy.

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115. The initial dosage of a medication should be based on the patient's _____.

Explanation

When determining the initial dosage of medication, a patient's weight is crucial. Many medications are dosed based on weight to ensure efficacy and safety, as body mass can significantly affect how a drug is metabolized and distributed in the body. Accurate dosing minimizes the risk of underdosing or overdosing.

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116. The adequacy of a dialysis treatment may be compromised by inadequate _____

Explanation

Heparinization is the process of administering heparin, an anticoagulant, during dialysis treatment. It prevents blood clotting in the dialysis machine and allows for smooth blood flow. If heparinization is inadequate or not administered properly, blood clotting can occur within the machine, compromising the effectiveness of the dialysis treatment. This can lead to inadequate removal of waste products and excess fluid from the body, negatively impacting the overall adequacy of the treatment.

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117. Access _____ can jeopardize the adequacy of a dialysis treatment.

Explanation

Recirculation refers to the process in which the dialyzed blood is returned back to the patient without being adequately filtered. This can occur when there is a problem with the dialysis machine or the dialyzer, causing the blood to bypass the filtration process. As a result, toxins and waste products that should have been removed from the blood during dialysis are not effectively eliminated, compromising the effectiveness of the treatment. Therefore, recirculation can jeopardize the adequacy of a dialysis treatment.

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118. A red and warm vascular access may be a sign of _____

Explanation

A red and warm vascular access may be a sign of an infection because these symptoms are commonly associated with inflammation and increased blood flow to the affected area, which are typical immune responses to an infection. Infections can cause the blood vessels near the access site to dilate and become more visible, leading to redness. The increased blood flow can also cause the area to feel warm to the touch. Therefore, these signs suggest that there may be an infection present at the vascular access site.

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119. Improperly primed dialyzers and bloodlines can increase the risk of _____ and _____ in the dialyzer.

Explanation

Improperly primed dialyzers and bloodlines can increase the risk of air embolism and clotting in the dialyzer. Air embolism refers to the presence of air bubbles in the bloodstream, which can obstruct blood flow and potentially cause serious complications. Clotting, on the other hand, refers to the formation of blood clots within the dialyzer, which can impair its function and lead to inadequate dialysis treatment. Both air embolism and clotting pose significant risks to patients undergoing dialysis, highlighting the importance of proper priming of dialyzers and bloodlines to minimize these risks.

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120. During dialysis, the patient's _____ and _____ must be uncovered.

Explanation

During dialysis, the patient's access and face must be uncovered. Access refers to the site where the dialysis machine is connected to the patient's bloodstream, typically through a surgically created fistula or graft. It is important for the access site to be uncovered during dialysis to allow easy access for the healthcare provider to connect the machine and monitor the procedure. Additionally, the patient's face must be uncovered to ensure proper ventilation and comfort during the dialysis session.

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121. In which direction of blood flow should you place the venous needle? _____

Explanation

The orientation of the venous needle is not a matter of contention, as it is responsible for returning blood to the body and should consistently align with the direction of blood flow (antegrade).

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122. When cannulating a new A-V Fistula: always apply a _____; stay at least _____ from the anastomosis.

Explanation

When cannulating a new A-V Fistula, it is important to always apply a tourniquet and stay at least 1.5 - 2 inches from the anastomosis. The tourniquet helps to constrict the blood vessels, making it easier to locate and access the fistula for cannulation. By staying at least 1.5 - 2 inches away from the anastomosis, the risk of damaging or disrupting the connection between the artery and vein is minimized. This ensures the longevity and proper functioning of the A-V Fistula for dialysis treatments.

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123. Before cannulating a patient's access, you should clean the site for at least how long? _____

Explanation

Before cannulating a patient's access, it is recommended to clean the site for at least 30 seconds in a circular motion. This duration ensures thorough cleaning of the area, reducing the risk of infection and ensuring proper hygiene. Cleaning the site in a circular motion helps to cover a larger area and remove any potential contaminants effectively. By following this protocol, healthcare professionals can minimize the chances of complications and promote safe and successful cannulation.

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124. After cannulating an access, you should place the tape directly over the: _____

Explanation

After cannulating an access, placing the tape directly over the butterfly wings of the needle is important because it helps to secure the needle in place and prevent accidental dislodgement. The butterfly wings are the part of the needle that allows for easy handling and control during the cannulation process. By taping over the wings, healthcare professionals ensure that the needle remains in position and reduces the risk of complications or injury to the patient.

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125. The low arterial pressure alarm sounds. The staff member should look for a possible cause in the circuit from the _____ through to the _____

Explanation

When the low arterial pressure alarm sounds, the staff member should investigate the circuit from the arterial needle to the blood pump. This means they should check for any possible issues or malfunctions in the connection between the arterial needle, which is used to access the patient's artery, and the blood pump, which is responsible for circulating the blood during dialysis. By examining this circuit, the staff member can identify any potential problems that may be causing the low arterial pressure alarm to sound.

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126. What three items of PPE are required when performing venipuncture? _____, ,

Explanation

When performing venipuncture, the three items of personal protective equipment (PPE) required are:

Gloves

Lab coat or gown

Safety goggles or face shield

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127. When the high venous pressure alarm sounds; you should look from the top of the _____through to the end of the _____ to determine the cause.

Explanation

When the high venous pressure alarm sounds, you should look from the top of the venous chamber through to the end of the venous needle to determine the cause. This means that you need to inspect both the venous chamber and the venous needle to identify the reason for the alarm. The high venous pressure alarm could be triggered by issues such as a kinked needle, a clot in the needle, or a blockage in the venous chamber. By examining both components, you can identify and address the specific cause of the alarm.

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128. Pre-treatment evaluation of an internal vascular access includes: patient ________________ assessment.

Explanation

This step is crucial to identify any underlying conditions, previous vascular access issues, and current medications that might affect the procedure. It ensures that the healthcare provider can plan appropriately, minimize risks, and choose the best site for the vascular access.

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129. Damage to the intimal lining of the vessel is likely to occur when: _____

Explanation

When the needle is flipped after insertion, it can cause damage to the intimal lining of the vessel. Flipping the needle can disrupt the delicate inner lining of the blood vessel, leading to potential injury or damage. This can result in bleeding, hematoma formation, or even more serious complications such as thrombosis or embolism. Therefore, it is important to ensure proper technique and handling of the needle during insertion to minimize the risk of damaging the vessel's intimal lining.

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130. The patient presents to the dialysis center with a pulse rate of 44/min but does not appear to be in any distress. What should be the dialysis technician's immediate action? _____

Explanation

The dialysis technician should immediately notify the Registered Nurse (RN) because a pulse rate of 44/min is considered bradycardia, which is abnormally slow. Even though the patient does not appear to be in distress, it is important to inform the RN so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated if necessary. Bradycardia can be a sign of underlying health issues or complications that require medical attention.

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131. The arterial chamber must be how full at the start of treatment? _____

Explanation

The arterial chamber must be 85%-95% full at the start of treatment. This range ensures that there is enough blood flow and pressure for the treatment to be effective. If the chamber is too full, it may lead to excessive pressure and potential damage to the arteries. On the other hand, if the chamber is not full enough, there may not be sufficient blood flow to deliver the necessary treatment. Therefore, maintaining the arterial chamber at 85%-95% full ensures optimal conditions for successful treatment.

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132. The venous chamber must be how full at the start of treatment? _____

Explanation

The venous chamber should be filled 75-85% at the start of treatment. This level ensures proper functioning of the dialysis machine by maintaining adequate pressure and preventing air from entering the system. It also allows for efficient blood flow and optimal dialysis treatment. Monitoring the venous chamber helps in avoiding complications and ensuring patient safety during the procedure.

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133. The patient's venous needle has infiltrated, and another needle needs to be inserted; _____ and _____to the area.

Explanation

When a patient's venous needle infiltrates, it means that the needle has gone through the vein and is now outside of it. To correct this, a new needle needs to be inserted above the infiltrate site, ensuring that it goes into the vein properly. Applying ice to the area can help reduce swelling and discomfort caused by the infiltration.

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134. When removing needles from an internal access, the needle should be _____

Explanation

The needle should be engaged while removing it from the patient's access to ensure that it is securely held in place and does not cause any damage or injury during the removal process. This helps to prevent any potential complications or accidents that may occur if the needle is not properly engaged.

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135. In which direction of blood flow should you place the patient's arterial needle? _____ or _____

Explanation

The correct answer is to place the patient's arterial needle in the direction of intergrade (with the flow) or retrograde (against the flow). This means that the needle should be inserted in the same direction as the flow of blood or against the flow of blood, depending on the specific situation.

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136. Prior to applying the blood pressure cuff on a new patient, the patient care technician should _____ for the presence of _____

Explanation

Before applying the blood pressure cuff on a new patient, it is important for the patient care technician to examine both the patient's arms for the presence of an access. This is necessary because if the patient has an access, such as a fistula or a catheter, in one arm, the blood pressure measurement should not be taken on that arm as it may interfere with the access or cause harm to the patient. By examining both arms, the technician ensures that the blood pressure measurement is taken on the appropriate arm without compromising the patient's access.

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137. Pre-pump arterial pressure should NOT exceed _____

Explanation

Pre-pump arterial pressure should not exceed -250 mm/Hg because this level of pressure is extremely low and can cause damage to the arterial system. Arterial pressure is the force exerted by blood against the walls of the arteries, and it is important to maintain a certain level of pressure to ensure proper blood flow and organ perfusion. Excessive negative pressure can lead to arterial collapse, decreased blood flow, and tissue hypoxia. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid exceeding -250 mm/Hg to prevent potential harm to the arterial system.

Submit
138. An arterial pressure reading of _____ can cause blood to Hemolyze.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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139. Report a pulse less than _____ or greater than [_____ to the nurse.

Explanation

The given answer states that any pulse rate less than 60bpm or greater than 100bpm should be reported to the nurse. This indicates that a pulse rate within the range of 60-100bpm is considered normal, while anything outside of this range may indicate a potential health issue. It is important to monitor and report abnormal pulse rates to ensure the well-being of the patient.

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140. Available weight gain is described as _____ minus _____

Explanation

The available weight gain is determined by subtracting the pre-treatment weight from the estimated dry weight (EDW). This means that the EDW represents the target weight that the individual should aim for, and any weight gained beyond the pre-treatment weight up to the EDW is considered as the available weight gain.

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You should check both arms for a fistula or graft before taking which...
If a needle infiltrates, what should you do first?
What is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease?
Why is BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab drawn pre and post treatment?
You must apply a tourniquet before cannulating which type of access?
Dialysis functions include which of the following?
The components of the dialysate treatment that affect clearance...
What must you do when you are leaving a dirty area and going to a...
What do you use to prime the extracorporeal circuit?
Where is the dialysis clinic can you dialyze a Hepatitis B surface...
Which of the following is true about sharp containers?
A hemodialysis patient tests positive for Hepatitis B surface antigen....
Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low...
What should you do with sharps containers in the event of a flood?
Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the...
Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the...
After treatment, a patient's blood pressure has dropped from 135/90 to...
Which of the following is true about air in the dialyzer?
How much saline should be kept in the saline bag at all times during...
When is hand sanitizer okay to use?
During treatment transducer protectors must be kept _____and_____.
Which of the following is included in Fresenius Medical Care's mission...
The normal range for a resting pulse rate in an adult is:
At Mrs. Chase's next treatment, the technician suspects that her...
Arterial Pressure (AP) should be no more than ____?
Which of the following would keep KECN values stable during treatment?
Which of the following is true about near misses?
Which of the following practices helps build a patient's immunity to...
At the end of a patient's treatment, which of these findings, if...
Which of the following is correct regarding machine disinfection?
Stenosis is a major cause of access failure which, unless corrected,...
The functional unit of the kidney, or the structure in the kidney that...
A semipermeable membrane is a porous barrier that:
Which of the following machine alarms does NOT stop the blood pump:
What type of access has the lowest complication rate?
Which of the following is true about hand hygiene?
Which of the following is INCORRECT about reinfusing blood during...
Dialysate is the fluid that helps remove waste products from the body....
The instrument used for measuring blood pressure is called a:
A rapid pulse of 104 beats/min would indicate that the patient has:
Which vital sign should you report to the nurse?
The leading cause of End-Stage Renal Disease for adults in the United...
What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry...
Dialysis treatment adequacy has been linked to patient outcomes....
What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry...
Legally, a treatment was performed but not charted in the patient's...
Which of the following statements about clamps is correct?
When should you replace the venous line during a treatment?
What is Fresenius Medical Care's goal for a spkt/v?
The endocrine functions of the kidney include:
What is the path of urine flow through the urinary tract?
A central venous catheter may be used as a vascular access when a:
Why are dialysis patients more likely to become infected with germs...
What PPE should you wear while disinfecting a dialysis station or...
Which of the following situations will cause an increase in venous...
Before a dialysis treatment, the patient tells the technician,...
Why do kidney patients often have bone disease?
Dialysate conductivity measures:?
What should you do first when drawing a post-BUN?
Which of the following pH measurements is safe for dialysate?
Which of the following is true about ultra low total chlorine testing?
What does a yellow AMP light indicate?
The water supply to the water treatment system is called:
A patient who is fluid overloaded will probably have which of the...
What term is defined as a failure to follow established procedure,...
Which of these parts of the water treatment system removes endotoxins?
A patient asks the technician, "What does uremia mean?" The...
What concentration of bleach is used to clean up a blood spill greater...
Which of the following could cause air to enter the blood lines and...
A patient begins to experience faintness, double vision, and clammy...
Which of the following is true about dialysate?
Which vascular access needle(s) can be placed against the flow of...
Normal body temperature taken orally is:
The technician is unsure which one of a patient's arteriovenous (AV)...
Diffusion is movement of particles:
Dialysate that has too much sodium may cause patient injury. Too much...
Two things that affect the dialyzer's ability to remove wastes from...
Which vascular access needle(s) can be placed with the flow of blood?
Where in the clinic can you put a Hepatitis B susceptible patient...
A patient asks the technician why a high venous pressure alarm is...
A patient who has diabetes mellitus should be observed for signs of...
Dialyzer performance can be affected by reuse. Which of the following...
According to the AAMI standards, the total microbial count of water...
A nephron is made up of:
Which of the following occurs when the dialysis machine alarms and...
At which point in the extracorporeal circuit is the blood usually...
Calculate the target weight for a patient with the following...
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of chemical reaction due to...
A patient asks the dialysis technician, "Why am I getting vitamin D...
Patients with kidney failure often complain of itching, which is...
Negative pressure is pressure created when:
What is the most important safety monitor during a dialysis treatment?
What must you do when using the emergency hand crank during a power...
What is the limit for total chlorine?
Which of the following will increase the amount of solutes that will...
Dialysate with a high conductivity will cause _____; Dialysate with a...
Seizures during dialysis may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
Which of the following is the first symptom that a patient developing...
The most common cause of a low conductivity alarm during hemodialysis...
AAMI standards recommend quality control activities before a...
Which of the following is CORRECT about online clearance (OLC)...
Dialysate that has too little sodium can cause:
Which of the following occurs when the machine goes into bypass?
Make sure access is stabilized and always remains _____
"First use syndrome" is a hypersensitivity reaction to a dialyzer. It...
Symptoms that a patient may need more dialysis time include:
A patient asks the technician, "Why do I need ultrafiltration...
Report a blood pressure reading over _____ to the nurse
During Dialysis, ultrafiltration occurs when:
Dialysate that has too much calcium can cause:
The transmembrane pressure has been gradually changing during the last...
What position should the transducer clamps be in before starting...
Normal saline is used to remove _____ and _____ from the...
How long should you wait to initiate treatment after administering a...
The initial dosage of a medication should be based on the...
The adequacy of a dialysis treatment may be compromised by inadequate...
Access _____ can jeopardize the adequacy of a dialysis treatment.
A red and warm vascular access may be a sign of _____
Improperly primed dialyzers and bloodlines can increase the risk of...
During dialysis, the patient's _____ and _____ must be uncovered.
In which direction of blood flow should you place the venous needle?...
When cannulating a new A-V Fistula: always apply a _____; stay at...
Before cannulating a patient's access, you should clean the site for...
After cannulating an access, you should place the tape directly over...
The low arterial pressure alarm sounds. The staff member should look...
What three items of PPE are required when performing venipuncture?...
When the high venous pressure alarm sounds; you should look from the...
Pre-treatment evaluation of an internal vascular access includes:...
Damage to the intimal lining of the vessel is likely to occur when:...
The patient presents to the dialysis center with a pulse rate of...
The arterial chamber must be how full at the start of treatment? _____
The venous chamber must be how full at the start of treatment? _____
The patient's venous needle has infiltrated, and another needle needs...
When removing needles from an internal access, the needle should be...
In which direction of blood flow should you place the patient's...
Prior to applying the blood pressure cuff on a new patient, the...
Pre-pump arterial pressure should NOT exceed _____
An arterial pressure reading of _____ can cause blood to Hemolyze.
Report a pulse less than _____ or greater than [_____ to the nurse.
Available weight gain is described as _____ minus _____
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