Prep Course Exam Review

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  • 1/140 Questions

    You must apply a tourniquet before cannulating which type of access?

    • Fistula
    • Graft
    • Central Venous Catheter (CVC)
    • All Access Types
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About This Quiz

The PREP Course Exam Review assesses knowledge on dialysis procedures, focusing on topics such as tourniquet application, dialysate pH, weight measurements, vascular access, machine disinfection, and dialysis functions. This quiz is essential for healthcare professionals specializing in dialysis care.

Prep Course Exam Review - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following pH measurements is safe for dialysate?

    • 6.1

    • 6.7

    • 7.0

    • 6.8

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.0
    Explanation
    A pH measurement of 7.0 is safe for dialysate because it is considered neutral. Dialysate is the fluid used in dialysis to help remove waste and excess fluid from the body. It is important for the pH of the dialysate to be balanced in order to maintain the proper chemical environment during the dialysis process. A pH measurement of 7.0 indicates that the dialysate is neither too acidic nor too alkaline, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the dialysis treatment.

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  • 3. 

    What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW)?

    • Available Weight

    • Body Weight

    • Weight Gain

    • Dry Weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Available Weight
    Explanation
    The term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW) is "Available Weight". This refers to the weight of a person's body that is available for treatment or evaluation, after subtracting the estimated amount of water weight. It helps in determining the actual weight of the body without the influence of excess fluid retention.

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  • 4. 

    Which vascular access needle(s) can be placed against the flow of blood?

    • Arterial needle only

    • Both arterial and venous needles

    • Neither arterial or venous needles

    • Venous needle only

    Correct Answer
    A. Arterial needle only
    Explanation
    An arterial needle can be placed against the flow of blood because it is inserted directly into an artery, which carries oxygenated blood away from the heart. On the other hand, a venous needle is inserted into a vein, which carries deoxygenated blood towards the heart. Therefore, a venous needle cannot be placed against the flow of blood.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is correct regarding machine disinfection?

    • Bleach disinfection is completed daily

    • Heat disinfection is completed biweekly

    •   Acid disinfection is completed daily

    • Heat disinfection is completed weekly

    Correct Answer
    A.   Acid disinfection is completed daily
  • 6. 

    Dialysis functions include which of the following?

    • Removal of excess fluid and waste form the blood

    • Preventing the spread of bacteria

    • Restoring kidney function

    • Lowering cholesterol levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of excess fluid and waste form the blood
    Explanation
    Dialysis is a medical procedure that helps to remove excess fluid and waste products from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly. It is used to treat individuals with kidney failure or chronic kidney disease. By filtering the blood, dialysis helps to maintain the balance of electrolytes and remove toxins that the kidneys would normally eliminate. Therefore, the correct answer is "Removal of excess fluid and waste from the blood."

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is INCORRECT about reinfusing blood during treatment termination?

    • The blood pump should be set at 150-200 ml/min during reinfusion

    • If the saline bag empties, it could cause an air embolism

    • Staff members can leave the patient’s chairside if the patient is alert

    • Arterial blood is returned first, then venous

    Correct Answer
    A. Staff members can leave the patient’s chairside if the patient is alert
  • 8. 

    Calculate the target weight for a patient with the following pre-treatment information: EDW 75.5kg. Pre-treatment weight 77.0kg. Prime & rinse 500ml.

    • 1.5 kg

    • 2.5 kg

    • 2.0 kg

    • 3.0 kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.0 kg
    Explanation
    The target weight for a patient is calculated by subtracting the pre-treatment weight from the EDW (Estimated Dry Weight), and then subtracting the volume of prime and rinse. In this case, the EDW is 75.5kg and the pre-treatment weight is 77.0kg. Subtracting 77.0kg from 75.5kg gives a difference of -1.5kg. Then, subtracting the volume of prime and rinse, which is 500ml, or 0.5kg, gives a final target weight of -2.0kg.

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  • 9. 

    What PPE should you wear while disinfecting a dialysis station or cleaning a blood spill?

    • Gloves, gown, and mask

    • Gloves, gown, face shield or mask and goggles

    • Gloves

    • Gloves and gown

    Correct Answer
    A. Gloves, gown, face shield or mask and goggles
    Explanation
    While disinfecting a dialysis station or cleaning a blood spill, it is important to wear personal protective equipment (PPE) to prevent exposure to potentially harmful pathogens. Gloves are necessary to protect the hands from direct contact with the contaminated surfaces. A gown provides full-body coverage and prevents any splashes or spills from reaching the clothing. A face shield or mask is necessary to protect the face and eyes from any splashes or aerosols. Goggles are also necessary to provide additional protection for the eyes. Therefore, the correct answer is gloves, gown, face shield or mask, and goggles.

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  • 10. 

    What do you use to prime the extracorporeal circuit?

    • Tap water

    • Bicarbonate

    • Purified water

    • Normal Saline (NS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal Saline (NS)
    Explanation
    Normal Saline (NS) is used to prime the extracorporeal circuit. Priming refers to the process of filling the circuit with a fluid before it is used for a medical procedure. Normal Saline is a sterile solution of 0.9% sodium chloride in water. It is commonly used in medical settings as it closely resembles the electrolyte composition of the body's fluids. Using Normal Saline as the priming fluid helps to maintain the electrolyte balance and prevent any adverse reactions or complications during the procedure.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is true about hand hygiene?

    • Hand hygiene with hand sanitizer should be at least 1 minute

    • Hand hygiene with soap and water should be 20-30 seconds

    • Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds

    • Hand hygiene with hand sanitizer should be 10-20 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds
    Explanation
    Hand hygiene with soap and water for 40-60 seconds is the correct answer because it is the recommended duration for effective handwashing. Washing hands with soap and water for this length of time ensures that all surfaces of the hands are thoroughly cleaned and any potential pathogens are removed. This duration allows enough time for proper lathering, rubbing, and rinsing of the hands, which is essential for effective hand hygiene.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is included in Fresenius Medical Care’s mission statement?

    • Increasing financial stability of Fresenius Medical Care

    • Developing the best dialysis products

    • Adopting the practices of other successful medical facilities

    • Improving the quality of life of patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Improving the quality of life of patients
    Explanation
    Fresenius Medical Care's mission statement includes the goal of improving the quality of life of patients. This implies that the company is focused on providing healthcare solutions and services that enhance the well-being and overall quality of life for their patients. This aligns with the core purpose and values of the organization, emphasizing the importance of patient care and welfare.

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  • 13. 

    You should check both arms for a fistula or graft before taking which vital sign?

    • Respirations

    • Blood Pressure

    • Temperature

    • Weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Pressure
    Explanation
    Before taking the vital sign of blood pressure, it is important to check both arms for a fistula or graft. This is because a fistula or graft can affect blood flow and subsequently impact the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Therefore, checking both arms for a fistula or graft ensures that the blood pressure measurement is reliable and accurate.

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  • 14. 

    Which vascular access needle(s) can be placed with the flow of blood?

    • Arterial needle only

    • Neither arterial or venous needles

    • Both arterial and venous needles

    • Venous needle only

    Correct Answer
    A. Both arterial and venous needles
    Explanation
    Both arterial and venous needles can be placed with the flow of blood. The arterial needle is used to access the arterial blood supply, while the venous needle is used to access the venous blood supply. Placing both needles with the flow of blood ensures that the blood can be properly accessed and utilized for medical procedures or treatments.

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  • 15. 

    When is hand sanitizer okay to use?

    • When hands are visibly soiled

    • After using the restroom

    • When leaving the patients station

    • During treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. When leaving the patients station
    Explanation
    Hand sanitizer is okay to use when leaving the patient's station because it helps to kill germs and prevent the spread of infection. It is important to use hand sanitizer in healthcare settings to maintain proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of transmitting pathogens. Using hand sanitizer after leaving the patient's station helps to ensure that any potential contaminants on the hands are eliminated before moving on to another patient or task.

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  • 16. 

    During treatment transducer protectors must be kept _____and_____.

    • Wet and unclamped

    • Dry and unclamped

    • Dry and clamped

    • Wet and clamped

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry and unclamped
    Explanation
    During treatment, transducer protectors must be kept dry and unclamped to ensure proper functioning and prevent any damage to the equipment. Keeping them dry helps to prevent any moisture or liquid from entering the transducer, which could potentially cause malfunction or electrical damage. Additionally, keeping them unclamped allows for proper airflow and ventilation, which is important for preventing overheating and ensuring optimal performance.

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  • 17. 

    What is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease?

    • Infection

    • Alcohol abuse

    • Diabetes

    • Obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is the number one cause of chronic kidney disease. High blood sugar levels in diabetes can damage the blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage over time. This can eventually progress to chronic kidney disease. Infection, alcohol abuse, and obesity can also contribute to kidney damage, but diabetes is the primary cause.

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  • 18. 

    What concentration of bleach is used to clean up a blood spill greater than 10ml?

    • 1:100 followed by 1:100

    • 1:10 only

    • 1:10 followed by 1:100

    • 1:100 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:10 followed by 1:100
    Explanation
    To clean up a blood spill greater than 10ml, a concentration of bleach is required. The correct answer suggests using a concentration of 1:10 followed by 1:100. This means that the bleach should be diluted with water at a ratio of 1 part bleach to 10 parts water, and then further diluted at a ratio of 1 part diluted bleach to 100 parts water. This two-step dilution process ensures that the bleach is at an appropriate concentration to effectively clean up the blood spill.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is true about sharp containers?

    • Unused needles do not have to be placed in sharps container

    • They can be shaken to condense contents

    • They do not require a lid

    •  They should be emptied when 2/3 - 3/4 full 

    Correct Answer
    A.  They should be emptied when 2/3 - 3/4 full 
    Explanation
    Sharp containers should be emptied when they are 2/3 - 3/4 full to prevent overfilling and potential injuries. This ensures that there is enough space for additional sharps and reduces the risk of needlestick injuries during disposal.

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  • 20. 

    When should you replace the venous line during a treatment?

    • If the venous pressure is half the BFR

    • If the arterial pressure goes to -250mmHg

    • If a large clot is seen in the venous line

    • It should never be replaced during treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. If a large clot is seen in the venous line
    Explanation
    If a large clot is seen in the venous line, it is necessary to replace the line during the treatment. This is because a clot can obstruct the flow of blood and prevent the treatment from being effective. Replacing the line ensures that the treatment can continue without any interruptions or complications caused by the clot.

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  • 21. 

    Which vital sign should you report to the nurse?

    • BP 165/102

    • Respirations 14

    • Temperature 98.9

    • Pulse 62

    Correct Answer
    A. BP 165/102
    Explanation
    A blood pressure reading of 165/102 is considered high and could indicate hypertension. It is important to report this reading to the nurse because it could be a sign of an underlying health issue that needs to be addressed. The other vital signs, such as respirations, temperature, and pulse, are within normal ranges and do not require immediate attention.

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  • 22. 

    Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the cause of an arterial alarm?

    • From the venous chamber to the venous needle

    • The dialyzer only

    • The blood pump only

    • From the arterial needle to the blood pump

    Correct Answer
    A. From the arterial needle to the blood pump
    Explanation
    To determine the cause of an arterial alarm in the extracorporeal circuit, you should look from the arterial needle to the blood pump. This is because the arterial alarm is typically related to issues in the arterial line, such as a blockage or clot, and checking this section of the circuit will help identify and address the problem.

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  • 23. 

    Where in the extracorporeal circuit should you look to determine the cause of a venous alarm?

    • From the venous chamber to the venous needle

    • The dialyzer only

    • The blood pump only

    • From the arterial needle to the blood pump

    Correct Answer
    A. From the venous chamber to the venous needle
    Explanation
    To determine the cause of a venous alarm, you should look from the venous chamber to the venous needle in the extracorporeal circuit. This is because the venous chamber is the last component before the blood returns to the patient, so any issues or blockages in this section can cause the alarm. By inspecting this part of the circuit, you can identify any potential problems that may be causing the venous alarm.

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  • 24. 

    After treatment, a patient’s blood pressure has dropped from 135/90 to 94/68. What should you do?

    • Tell the patient to go weigh on their own

    • Tell the preceptor to take the patient to the scale

    • Ask the patient if they feel well enough to go home; then send the patient home

    • Notify the nurse to assess the patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the nurse to assess the patient
    Explanation
    The patient's blood pressure has dropped significantly after treatment, which may indicate a potential issue or complication. It is important to notify the nurse to assess the patient and determine the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure. The nurse will be able to provide appropriate medical intervention or further treatment if necessary.

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  • 25. 

    What must you do when you are leaving a dirty area and going to a clean area to get supplies?

    • Remove used gloves and put on new gloves without hand hygiene

    • Remove gloves and complete hand hygiene

    • Remove only 1 glove

    • Remove used gloves only

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove gloves and complete hand hygiene
    Explanation
    When leaving a dirty area and going to a clean area to get supplies, it is important to remove gloves and complete hand hygiene. This is necessary to prevent the spread of any potential contaminants from the dirty area to the clean area. Removing the gloves ensures that any dirt or germs on the gloves are not transferred to the clean area, and completing hand hygiene, such as washing hands or using hand sanitizer, further reduces the risk of contamination.

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  • 26. 

    Dialysate with a high conductivity will cause _____; Dialysate with a low conductivity will cause _____.

    • Hemolysis; Crenation

    • Hyperkalemia; Crenation

    • Crenation; Hemolysis

    • Hemolysis; Hypokalemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Crenation; Hemolysis
    Explanation
    Dialysate with a high conductivity will cause crenation, which refers to the shrinking or shriveling of red blood cells due to the movement of water out of the cells. On the other hand, dialysate with a low conductivity will cause hemolysis, which is the rupture or destruction of red blood cells due to the movement of water into the cells.

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  • 27. 

    Where is the dialysis clinic can you dialyze a Hepatitis B surface antigen positive patient?

    • Lobby

    • Isolation room

    • Negative air pressure room

    • Anywhere in the clinic

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation room
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Isolation room" because a Hepatitis B surface antigen positive patient needs to be isolated to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients. Dialyzing the patient in an isolation room helps to minimize the risk of transmission and ensures the safety of other patients and healthcare providers.

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  • 28. 

    Where in the clinic can you put a Hepatitis B susceptible patient during treatment?

    • They can sit anywhere in the facility

    • The must sit in the buffer zone

    • They must sit outside of the buffer zone; away from the isolation room

    • They must sit in the isolation room

    Correct Answer
    A. They must sit outside of the buffer zone; away from the isolation room
    Explanation
    A Hepatitis B susceptible patient should be placed outside of the buffer zone and away from the isolation room during treatment. This is because the buffer zone is a designated area for patients with contagious diseases, and the isolation room is specifically for patients with airborne diseases. Placing the patient outside of the buffer zone helps to minimize the risk of transmission to other patients in the clinic.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following statements about clamps is correct?

    • Clamps do not require a doctor’s order

    • Clamps must be soaked in 1:100 bleach for 20 minutes after use

    • Clamps can be used for 30 minutes at a time

    • Two clamps can be used if the patient is unable to hold pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Clamps must be soaked in 1:100 bleach for 20 minutes after use
  • 30. 

    What is the term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW)?

    • Weight gain

    • Dry weight

    • Body weight

    • Available weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Available weight
    Explanation
    The term used for pre-treatment weight minus estimated dry weight (EDW) is called "Available weight".

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  • 31. 

    Arterial Pressure (AP) should be no more than ____?

    • -100mmHg

    • -300mmHg

    • -250mmHg

    • 50mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. -250mmHg
  • 32. 

    Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low conductivity dialysate can all cause which complication?

    • Hemolysis

    • Uremia

    • Crenation

    • Hypokalemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolysis
    Explanation
    Kinks in the blood lines, high dialysate temperature, and low conductivity dialysate can all cause hemolysis. Hemolysis refers to the rupture or destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. In this case, the mentioned factors can disrupt the normal flow and temperature of the dialysate, causing damage to the red blood cells and resulting in hemolysis.

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  • 33. 

    If a needle infiltrates, what should you do first?

    • Open up the saline line

    • Stop the blood pump

    • Place the patient in Trendelenburg position

    • Take a blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the blood pump
    Explanation
    If a needle infiltrates, the first thing you should do is stop the blood pump. This is because the needle may have punctured a blood vessel, causing bleeding. By stopping the blood pump, you can prevent further blood loss and potential complications. Opening up the saline line, placing the patient in Trendelenburg position, or taking a blood pressure may be necessary steps after stopping the blood pump, but they are not the first action to take in this situation.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following machine alarms does NOT stop the blood pump:

    • Conductivity

    • Arterial Pressure

    • Venous Pressure

    • Air detector

    Correct Answer
    A. Conductivity
    Explanation
    Conductivity is not a machine alarm that stops the blood pump. Conductivity is a measure of the ability of a solution to conduct an electric current, and it is used to monitor the concentration of electrolytes in the blood. It does not directly affect the operation of the blood pump. On the other hand, arterial pressure, venous pressure, and air detector are alarms that can indicate potentially dangerous situations and may cause the blood pump to stop to prevent further complications.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following occurs when the machine goes into bypass?

    • Cleaning continues

    • UF clock stops

    • Blood pump stops

    • RTD clock stops

    Correct Answer
    A. RTD clock stops
    Explanation
    When the machine goes into bypass, the RTD clock stops. This means that the clock used to measure the duration of the treatment stops running. The other options, such as cleaning continuing, UF clock stopping, and blood pump stopping, do not occur when the machine goes into bypass.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following could cause air to enter the blood lines and dialyzer?

    • Low arterial chamber level

    • Saline line double clamped

    • Tight connections between needles and blood lines

    • Clots in the venous chamber

    Correct Answer
    A. Low arterial chamber level
    Explanation
    If the arterial chamber level is low, it can cause air to enter the blood lines and dialyzer because there may not be enough pressure to prevent air from entering the system. As a result, air can be drawn into the blood lines and potentially enter the patient's bloodstream during dialysis.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is true about air in the dialyzer?

    • Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer

    • Air in the dialyzer will decrease the number of machine alarms

    • Air can assist with ultrafiltration

    • Air can improve the adequacy of the dialysis treatment

    Correct Answer
    A. Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer
    Explanation
    Air can cause clotting in the dialyzer because it can lead to the formation of air bubbles in the blood during dialysis. These air bubbles can obstruct blood flow and cause clotting in the dialyzer. This can lead to inadequate dialysis treatment and potential complications for the patient. Therefore, it is important to ensure that there is no air in the dialyzer to prevent clotting and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

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  • 38. 

    How much saline should be kept in the saline bag at all times during the dialysis treatment?

    • 100 mL

    • 200 mL

    • 50 mL

    • 300 mL

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 mL
    Explanation
    During the dialysis treatment, it is necessary to keep a sufficient amount of saline in the saline bag to ensure the proper functioning of the procedure. The correct answer is 300 mL because this amount is considered to be the standard volume needed for the treatment. This quantity of saline is necessary to maintain the balance of electrolytes and fluid levels in the patient's body during the dialysis process. It helps to prevent dehydration and maintain the stability of the patient's blood pressure.

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  • 39. 

    Why is BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab drawn pre and post treatment?

    • To determine if a patient needs a different type of dialysate

    • To evaluate the adequacy of a patient’s treatment

    • To help diabetic patients control their blood sugar

    • To determine the patient’s cholesterol level

    Correct Answer
    A. To evaluate the adequacy of a patient’s treatment
    Explanation
    BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) lab is drawn pre and post treatment to evaluate the adequacy of a patient's treatment. The BUN levels in the blood can indicate how well the kidneys are functioning and how effectively waste products are being filtered out of the body. By comparing the BUN levels before and after treatment, healthcare providers can assess whether the treatment is effectively managing the patient's condition and maintaining appropriate kidney function. This helps in determining if any adjustments or changes are needed in the treatment plan to ensure the patient receives optimal care.

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  • 40. 

    What should you do first when drawing a post-BUN?

    • Stop the blood pump

    • Wipe arterial sample port

    • Turn off ultrafiltration rate (UFR) and dialysate flow rate (DFR)

    • Increase venous chamber level

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn off ultrafiltration rate (UFR) and dialysate flow rate (DFR)
    Explanation
    When drawing a post-BUN, the first thing you should do is turn off the ultrafiltration rate (UFR) and dialysate flow rate (DFR). This is important because it allows you to stop the removal of fluid and dialysate from the patient's blood, ensuring that you have an accurate sample for the post-BUN measurement. By turning off the UFR and DFR, you can prevent any further changes in the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance, which could affect the accuracy of the post-BUN results.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following would keep KECN values stable during treatment?

    • Blood Flow Rate (BFR) set at prescribed rate

    • Missed heparin dose

    • Clotting in the dialyzer

    • Poor arterial flow from the access

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood Flow Rate (BFR) set at prescribed rate
    Explanation
    Keeping the Blood Flow Rate (BFR) at the prescribed rate during treatment would help in maintaining stable KECN values. The BFR determines the rate at which blood flows through the dialyzer, allowing for efficient removal of waste products and excess fluids. If the BFR is set too low, the dialysis treatment may not be effective in removing toxins from the blood, leading to unstable KECN values. On the other hand, if the BFR is set too high, it can cause hemodynamic instability and other complications. Therefore, maintaining the BFR at the prescribed rate is essential for stable KECN values during treatment.

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  • 42. 

    What should you do with sharps containers in the event of a flood?

    • Put them in waterproof containers with medical records

    • Leave them on the machines

    • Lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room

    • Send them home with the patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room
    Explanation
    In the event of a flood, it is important to properly handle sharps containers. The correct answer is to lock, seal, and place them in a biohazard storage room. This is because sharps containers contain potentially infectious materials, and it is crucial to prevent any leakage or contamination. By locking and sealing the containers, the risk of exposure is minimized. Placing them in a biohazard storage room ensures that they are stored in a secure and designated area, further reducing the potential for harm.

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  • 43. 

    What type of access has the lowest complication rate?

    • Fistula

    • Loop graft

    • Central Venous Catheter (CVC)

    • Straight graft

    Correct Answer
    A. Fistula
    Explanation
    A fistula is a type of access for hemodialysis that involves connecting an artery to a vein, creating a high-flow pathway for blood to be removed and returned during dialysis. Compared to other types of access such as loop grafts, central venous catheters (CVCs), and straight grafts, fistulas have the lowest complication rate. Fistulas have a lower risk of infection, thrombosis, and other complications, making them the preferred choice for long-term hemodialysis access.

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  • 44. 

    What must you do when using the emergency hand crank during a power outage?

    • Remove the blood pump segment

    • Remove the arterial chamber

    • Rotate the dialyzer

    • Check that there is 300ml of normal saline (NS) in the bag

    Correct Answer
    A. Check that there is 300ml of normal saline (NS) in the bag
    Explanation
    When using the emergency hand crank during a power outage, it is important to check that there is 300ml of normal saline (NS) in the bag. This is necessary because the hand crank is used to manually pump the saline solution through the dialysis machine, providing the necessary fluid for the dialysis process. Without the proper amount of saline in the bag, the dialysis machine will not be able to function effectively. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that there is an adequate amount of normal saline in the bag before using the emergency hand crank.

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  • 45. 

    What term is defined as a failure to follow established procedure, treatment prescriptions, or an even that causes patient injury or death?

    • Adverse event

    • Good catch

    • Near miss

    • Incident or Occurrence

    Correct Answer
    A. Adverse event
    Explanation
    Adverse event is defined as a failure to follow established procedure, treatment prescriptions, or an event that causes patient injury or death. This term encompasses any negative outcome that occurs as a result of a deviation from standard protocols or guidelines. It includes errors in medication administration, surgical mistakes, and other preventable incidents that harm patients. Adverse events are important to identify and address in order to improve patient safety and prevent future harm.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is true about near misses?

    • They do not have to be reported if no patient injury is noted

    • They help identify risks to patient safety and reduce the risk of patient injury

    • They are not referred to as “good catches”

    • They help identify staff members who are more likely to make mistakes

    Correct Answer
    A. They help identify risks to patient safety and reduce the risk of patient injury
    Explanation
    Near misses are incidents that could have resulted in patient harm but did not. They are important because they help identify risks to patient safety and allow for proactive measures to be taken to reduce the risk of patient injury. Reporting near misses is crucial in order to learn from them and prevent similar incidents in the future. Therefore, near misses should be reported even if no patient injury is noted.

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  • 47. 

    A patient begins to experience faintness, double vision, and clammy hands. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

    • Hypoglycemia

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Hypertension

    • Hyperkalemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    The patient experiencing faintness, double vision, and clammy hands is most likely experiencing hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, blurred vision, and sweating. This can happen if the patient has not eaten for a long time or if they have taken too much insulin or diabetes medication. Hyperglycemia, on the other hand, is high blood sugar levels, and would not typically cause the symptoms described. Hypertension refers to high blood pressure, and hyperkalemia is high levels of potassium in the blood, neither of which would explain the patient's symptoms.

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  • 48. 

    What is the path of urine flow through the urinary tract?

    • Urine flows from the kidneys, to the urethra, to the bladder, to the ureters

    • Urine flows from the ureters, to the bladder, to the kidneys, to the urethra

    • Urine flows from the ureters, to the kidneys, to the urethra, to the bladder

    • Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Urine flows from the kidneys, to the ureters, to the bladder, to the urethra." This is the correct path of urine flow through the urinary tract. Urine is produced in the kidneys, then it travels through the ureters to reach the bladder, where it is stored. When it is time to urinate, the urine flows out of the bladder through the urethra and out of the body.

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  • 49. 

    What is Fresenius Medical Care’s goal for a spkt/v?

    • 1.3

    • 1.0

    • 1.5

    • 1.4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.4
    Explanation
    Fresenius Medical Care's goal for a spkt/v is 1.4.

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  • Nov 20, 2024
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  • Jun 05, 2020
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