# NCCT - Medical Procedures - Part D - Electrocardiography & Ua

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NCCT - MEDICAL PROCEDURES - PART D - DIAGNOSTIC TESTING & LABORATORY PROCEDURES - ELECTROCARDIOGRAPHY & UA

• 1.

### IN THE POSITIONING OF THE ELECTRODES, IF THE ELECTRODES ARE PLACED TOO CLOSE TOGETHER, THE AMPLITUDE WILL BE?

• A.

SMALL

• B.

LARGE

• C.

ROUND

• D.

SQUARE

A. SMALL
Explanation
If the electrodes are placed too close together in the positioning, the amplitude will be small. This is because when the electrodes are close, the electrical current has a shorter distance to travel, resulting in a smaller amplitude.

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• 2.

### THE LARGE SQUARES ON THE ECG PAPER ARE EQUAL TO?

• A.

0.10 SEC

• B.

0.20 SEC

• C.

0.04 SEC

• D.

0.09 SED

B. 0.20 SEC
Explanation
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to 0.20 seconds. This is because the ECG paper is standardized, with each large square representing a specific time interval. In this case, each large square represents 0.20 seconds. This is important for accurately measuring the duration of various ECG waveforms and intervals.

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• 3.

### A "V WAVE" WILL __________ BE SEEN IN A NORMAL EKG?

• A.

ALWAYS

• B.

SOMETIMES

• C.

NEVER

• D.

USUALLY

C. NEVER
Explanation
A "V wave" refers to a prominent upward deflection in the atrial waveform on an electrocardiogram (EKG). This waveform is typically seen in conditions such as tricuspid regurgitation or right ventricular dysfunction. However, in a normal EKG, a "V wave" is not expected to be seen. Therefore, the correct answer is "NEVER".

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• 4.

### THE __________ SWITCH CONTROLS THE GAIN OR AMPLITUDE ON THE EKG?

• A.

MAJOR

• B.

SENSITIVITY

• C.

RED

• D.

TICKER

B. SENSITIVITY
Explanation
The sensitivity switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG. This means that it adjusts the level of amplification of the electrical signals picked up by the electrodes on the patient's body. By adjusting the sensitivity, the EKG machine can display a larger or smaller waveform, allowing for better visualization and analysis of the electrical activity of the heart.

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• 5.

### WHEN PREPARING FOR LEAD PLACEMENT YOU SHOULD FIRST CARE FOR?

• A.

SKIN PREPARATION

• B.

APPLICATION OF ELECTRODE WIRES

• C.

APPLICATION OF ELECTRODES

• D.

POSITIONING OF ELECTRODES

A. SKIN PREPARATION
Explanation
When preparing for lead placement, the first thing to care for is skin preparation. This involves cleaning and preparing the skin where the electrodes will be placed. Proper skin preparation ensures good electrode contact with the skin, which is essential for accurate and reliable readings. It also helps to remove any oils, dirt, or dead skin cells that could interfere with the electrical signal transmission. By prioritizing skin preparation, healthcare professionals can ensure optimal lead placement and improve the overall quality of the electrocardiogram (ECG) or other electrical measurements.

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• 6.

### CONVERSION OF A DYSRHYTHMIA TO A NORMAL RHYTHM BY APPLYING ELECTRIC SHOCK TO THE CHEST IS CALLED?

• A.

CARDICA ARREST

• B.

PACEMAKER IMPLANT

• C.

DEFIBRILLATION

• D.

ENDARTERECTOMY

C. DEFIBRILLATION
Explanation
Defibrillation is the correct answer because it involves the use of electric shock to restore a normal heart rhythm in cases of cardiac dysrhythmia or cardiac arrest. This procedure is performed by delivering a high-energy shock to the chest using a defibrillator, which helps to reset the heart's electrical activity and allow it to resume a normal rhythm. Cardiac arrest refers to the sudden loss of heart function, while pacemaker implant and endarterectomy are unrelated to the conversion of dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm.

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• 7.

### WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CRITERIA FOR SKIN PERPARATION FOR LEAD PLACEMENT?

• A.

CLEAN THE SKIN WITH AN ALCOHOL SWIPE

• B.

MAKE SURE THE SKIN IS DAMP WHEN APPLYING THE ELECTRODE

• C.

SHAVE THE HAIR FROM THE SKIN

• D.

ROUGHEN THE SKIN FOR BETTER DERMIS CONTACT

B. MAKE SURE THE SKIN IS DAMP WHEN APPLYING THE ELECTRODE
Explanation
The correct answer is "MAKE SURE THE SKIN IS DAMP WHEN APPLYING THE ELECTRODE". This is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement. The other options, such as cleaning the skin with an alcohol swipe, shaving the hair from the skin, and roughening the skin for better dermis contact, are all important steps in preparing the skin for lead placement.

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• 8.

### THE ELECTRODE SITE SHOULD BE?

• A.

CLEAN, SMOOTH, AND DRY

• B.

HAIRY

• C.

HAVE PLENTY OF SKIN OIL PRESENT

• D.

MOIST

A. CLEAN, SMOOTH, AND DRY
Explanation
The electrode site should be clean, smooth, and dry in order to ensure proper adhesion and conduction of electrical signals. A clean surface eliminates any dirt or oils that could interfere with the electrode's ability to stick to the skin. A smooth surface allows for better contact between the electrode and the skin, ensuring accurate readings. Lastly, a dry surface prevents moisture from interfering with the electrical signal and potentially causing inaccurate readings.

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• 9.

### AN ECG TRACING MEASURES THE AMOUNT OF VOLTAGE AND THE __________ IT TAKES FOR THE VOLTAGE TO TRAVEL THROUGHOUT THE HEART?

• A.

TIME

• B.

ROUTE

• C.

WAVES

• D.

LINES

A. TIME
Explanation
An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the time it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart. This is because the electrical activity of the heart generates waves that can be detected and measured by electrodes placed on the body. By analyzing the time intervals between these waves, healthcare professionals can assess the electrical conduction system of the heart and identify any abnormalities or irregularities. Therefore, time is an essential factor in determining the functioning and health of the heart through an ECG tracing.

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• 10.

### IN THE APPLICATION OF ELECTRODES, SECURE THE ELECTRODE BY RUBBING YOUR FINGER AROUND THE __________ AREA?

• A.

CENTER

• B.

GEL

• C.

• D.

PERIPHERAL

Explanation
In the application of electrodes, securing the electrode by rubbing your finger around the adhesive area ensures that the electrode stays in place. The adhesive is responsible for sticking the electrode to the skin, and rubbing around the adhesive area helps to activate and strengthen the adhesive, providing a more secure attachment. This helps to ensure that the electrode does not come loose during use, allowing for accurate and reliable readings or treatments.

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• 11.

### WHEN THERE IS NO VARIATION OF R-R INTERVALS IT IS CALLED?

• A.

IRREGULAR WITH A PATTERN

• B.

ABSOLUTELY REGULAR

• C.

ESSENTIALLY REGULAR

• D.

TOTALLY REGULAR

B. ABSOLUTELY REGULAR
Explanation
When there is no variation of R-R intervals, it is called "absolutely regular." This means that the time between each R wave in the ECG is consistent and does not deviate. There is no irregularity or pattern in the intervals, indicating a steady and predictable heart rhythm.

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• 12.

### VENTRICULAR DEPOLARIZATION PRODUCES AN ELECTRICAL FORCE OR VECTOR WITH 2 COMPONENTS: (1) MAGNITUDE OR FORCE, AND (2) __________?

• A.

AMPLITUDE

• B.

GROUND ELECTRODE

• C.

DIRECTION OR SHAPE

• D.

POLARIZATION

C. DIRECTION OR SHAPE
Explanation
Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with two components: magnitude or force, and direction or shape. The magnitude or force represents the strength of the electrical force, while the direction or shape represents the orientation or pattern of the force vector. This means that the electrical force generated during ventricular depolarization not only has a certain strength but also a specific direction or shape, which is important in understanding the electrical activity of the heart.

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• 13.

### A DOWNWARD OR NEGATIVE WAVE OF AN ELECTROCARDIOGRAM FOLLOWING THE P WAVE IS THE?

• A.

R WAVE

• B.

T WAVE

• C.

Q WAVE

• D.

S WAVE

C. Q WAVE
Explanation
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is called the Q wave.

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• 14.

### A PREMATURE VENTRICULAR CONTRACTION (PVC) WHERE THE QRS HAVE THE SAME CONFIGURATION EACH TIME THEY APPEAR IS CALLED?

• A.

UNIFORM

• B.

MALIGNANT

• C.

FUSED

• D.

BIGEMINY

A. UNIFORM
Explanation
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is a type of abnormal heart rhythm where the ventricles contract earlier than they should. In this case, a PVC is considered "uniform" when the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity in the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears. This means that the abnormal beats are consistent in their appearance, making them easier to identify and classify.

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• 15.

• A.

DIRECTLY LATERAL TO V4 AT THE ANTERIOR AXILLARY LINE

• B.

THE FOURTH INTERCOSTAL SPACE RIGHT STERNAL BORDER

• C.

LATERAL TO V5 AT MIDAXILLARY LINE

• D.

FIFTH INTERCOSTAL SPACE MIDCLAVICULAR LINE

B. THE FOURTH INTERCOSTAL SPACE RIGHT STERNAL BORDER
Explanation
The correct answer is "THE FOURTH INTERCOSTAL SPACE RIGHT STERNAL BORDER." This is because the V1 lead is placed in the fourth intercostal space, which is the space between the ribs, on the right sternal border. This placement allows for accurate recording of electrical activity in the heart's right ventricle.

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• 16.

### WHICH FACT IS TRUE ABOUT THE P WAVE?

• A.

DURATION OF THE P WAVE IS NOT GREATER THAN 0.11 SEC

• B.

HEIGHT-DEFLECTION IS SMALL, NOT MORE THAN 3mm

• C.

BOTH A & B

• D.

C. BOTH A & B
Explanation
The correct answer is BOTH A & B. This means that both statements A and B are true about the P wave. Statement A states that the duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 seconds, while statement B states that the height-deflection of the P wave is small, not more than 3mm. Therefore, both the duration and height-deflection of the P wave are limited within the given values.

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• 17.

### WHEN PVC's FALL ON THE T WAVE, OCCUR IN PAIRS, RUNS OF 3 OR MORE, OR ARE MULTIFORM IN NATURE, THESE CONDITIONS ARE CALLED?

• A.

FUSED

• B.

MULTIFORM

• C.

LIFE THREATENING

• D.

UNIRFOR

C. LIFE THREATENING
Explanation
When PVCs (Premature Ventricular Contractions) fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are considered life-threatening. This is because these patterns can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to potentially dangerous arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. These arrhythmias can significantly impair the heart's ability to pump blood effectively, which can be life-threatening if not promptly treated.

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• 18.

### WHEN A VECTOR TRAVELS AWAY FROM THE POSITIVE ELECTRODE, A __________ DEFLECTION RESULTS.

• A.

POSITIVE

• B.

VARIATION

• C.

T WAVE

• D.

NEGATIVE

D. NEGATIVE
Explanation
When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a negative deflection results. This means that the vector is moving in the opposite direction of the positive electrode.

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• 19.

### THE COMBINATION OF SENSORS OR ELECTRODES USED FOR LEAD #1 IS?

• A.

RIGHT ARM, LEFT LEG

• B.

RIGHT ARM, RIGHT LEG

• C.

LEFT ARM, RIGHT ARM

• D.

LEFT ARM, LEFT LEG

C. LEFT ARM, RIGHT ARM
Explanation
The correct combination of sensors or electrodes used for Lead #1 is left arm and right arm. This is a standard placement for Lead #1 in a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) where the left arm is the positive electrode and the right arm is the negative electrode.

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• 20.

### CONCERNING ECG's, FOR IRREGULAR RHYTHMS, ANY METHOD OF RATE CALCULATION THAT DEPENDS ON INTERVALS BETWEEN COMPLEXES IS?

• A.

ACCEPTABLE

• B.

COMPUTED USING 1/2 AS FAST: 300/2 = 150/MINUTE

• C.

UNRELIABLE

• D.

COMPUTED BY COUNTING THE NUMBER OF COMPLEXES IN A SPAN OF 30 LARGE BOXES

C. UNRELIABLE
Explanation
The given question is asking about the reliability of any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes for irregular rhythms in ECGs. The correct answer is "UNRELIABLE" because relying on intervals between complexes may not accurately reflect the true heart rate in irregular rhythms. Irregular rhythms can have variations in the duration of intervals between complexes, making it difficult to calculate the rate accurately. Therefore, any method that relies on these intervals for rate calculation is considered unreliable.

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• 21.

### THE __________ WAVE REPRESENTS ATRIAL POLARIZATION?

• A.

S

• B.

P

• C.

R

• D.

U

B. P
Explanation
The correct answer is P. In an electrocardiogram (ECG), the P wave represents atrial polarization. It represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the electrical activation of the atrial muscle cells. This wave is followed by the QRS complex, which represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave, which represents ventricular repolarization. The P wave is important in diagnosing various cardiac conditions and abnormalities.

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• 22.

### WHILE THE DURATION OF THE ST SEGMENT IS NOT GENERALLY OF CLINICAL SIGNIFICANCE, IT IS AN EXCEEDINGLY IMPORTANT PORTION OF THE ECG BECAUSE OF?

• A.

THE FACT THAT IT FOLLOWS THE QRS COMPLEX

• B.

SHIFTS UP OR DOWN FROM THE BASELINE

• C.

UPWARD DEFLECTION FROM THE BASELINE

• D.

THE SHIFT AWAY FROM THE ISCHEMIC AREA

B. SHIFTS UP OR DOWN FROM THE BASELINE
Explanation
The ST segment on an ECG is important because it represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization. It should be a flat line at the baseline, but if it shifts up or down from the baseline, it can indicate various cardiac conditions. This shift can be indicative of myocardial ischemia or injury, electrolyte imbalances, or other cardiac abnormalities. Therefore, the fact that the ST segment shifts up or down from the baseline is important in diagnosing and monitoring these conditions.

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• 23.

### A QRS MEASUREMENT OF LESS THAN __________ SECONDS INDICATES A SUPRAVENTRICULAR PACEMAKER?

• A.

0.13

• B.

0.14

• C.

0.16

• D.

0.12

D. 0.12
Explanation
A QRS measurement of less than 0.12 seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker. This means that the electrical signal responsible for the contraction of the ventricles is originating from above the ventricles, in the atria or the AV node. A shorter QRS duration suggests a faster conduction through the ventricles, which is typically seen in supraventricular pacemakers.

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• 24.

### THE AREA BETWEEN WAVES IS REFERRED TO AS?

• A.

BACK SPACES

• B.

INTERVALS

• C.

SEGMENTS

• D.

CYCLES

B. INTERVALS
Explanation
The area between waves is referred to as intervals. Intervals are the spaces or gaps between consecutive waves. They represent the distance or time between two successive occurrences of a wave. In music theory, intervals also refer to the distance between two pitches or notes. Therefore, in the context of waves or music, intervals accurately describe the area between waves.

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• 25.

### A TERMINAL LETHAL DYSRHYTHMIA, A DYING HEART, IS CALLED?

• A.

AGONAL

• B.

ASYSTOLE

• C.

AGONIST

• D.

AGOGUE

A. AGONAL
Explanation
Agonal refers to the final moments before death, specifically in relation to the heart's rhythm. A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, which is a dying heart rhythm, is called agonal. This term is used to describe the abnormal and irregular heart rhythm that occurs during the dying process. It is characterized by a slow and weak heartbeat, and it is often a sign that the heart is failing and death is imminent.

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• 26.

### WHEN THE HEART RHYTHM IS ABNORMAL IT IS REFERRED TO AS?

• A.

PATENT DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS

• B.

AN ARRHYTHMIA

• C.

AN ANEURYSM

• D.

AN EMBOLISM

B. AN ARRHYTHMIA
Explanation
An arrhythmia refers to an abnormal heart rhythm. This means that the heart beats too fast, too slow, or irregularly. It can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, or certain medications. It can lead to symptoms like palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Treatment options for arrhythmias include medications, lifestyle changes, and medical procedures like cardioversion or ablation.

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• 27.

### A RAPID, IRREGULAR SUCCESSION OF CHAOTIC BIZARRE WAVES; WIDE, IRREGULAR OSCILLATIONS OF THE BASELINE IS CALLED THE VENTRICULAR?

• A.

FIBRILLATION

• B.

STANDSTILL

• C.

TACHYCARDIA

• D.

RHYTHM

A. FIBRILLATION
Explanation
Ventricular fibrillation is a condition characterized by rapid, irregular, and chaotic waves of electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart. This results in a wide, irregular oscillation of the baseline on an electrocardiogram (ECG). It is a life-threatening arrhythmia that can lead to cardiac arrest if not treated immediately.

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• 28.

### THE ABSENCE OF ONE OR MORE COMPLETE CARDIAC CYCLES WHERE THE RHYTHM IS INTERRUPTED IS REFERRED TO AS?

• A.

ATRIAL FLUTTER

• B.

SINUS ARREST

• C.

VENTRICULAR ARRHYTHMIA

• D.

SINUS WENCKEBACH

B. SINUS ARREST
Explanation
Sinus arrest refers to the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted. During sinus arrest, the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart rhythm, temporarily stops functioning. This interruption can lead to a pause in the heartbeat, causing a temporary cessation of blood flow. Sinus arrest can be caused by various factors, including certain medications, heart disease, and electrolyte imbalances. It is important to diagnose and treat sinus arrest promptly to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or cardiac arrest.

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• 29.

### A SPECIAL DEVICE CALLED A "REGULATOR" OR "FLOW METER" IS NECESSARY WHEN USING?

• A.

AN ELECTRIC THERMOMETER

• B.

• C.

OXYGEN

• D.

A SPHYGMOMANOMETER

C. OXYGEN
Explanation
A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using oxygen because it helps control the flow rate of oxygen from the oxygen source to the user. This is important because too high or too low flow rates can be harmful to the user. The regulator ensures that the oxygen is delivered at a safe and appropriate rate for the individual's needs.

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• 30.

### OXYGEN IS ADMINISTERED TO THE PATIENT BY WAY OF A?

• A.

CATHETER

• B.

CANNULA

• C.

TENT

• D.

ALL CHOICES

D. ALL CHOICES
Explanation
Oxygen can be administered to a patient through various methods, including a catheter, cannula, or a tent. All of these options are valid ways to deliver oxygen to a patient. A catheter is a thin tube that is inserted into a body cavity or blood vessel, while a cannula is a flexible tube that is inserted into the nostrils. A tent is a small enclosure that covers the patient's head and upper body, delivering oxygen through a mask or hood. Therefore, all choices are correct options for administering oxygen to a patient.

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• 31.

### THE CLEAN-CATCH URINE SPECIMEN IS ALSO CALLED?

• A.

CLEAN-VOIDED SPECIMEN

• B.

24-HR URINE SPECIMEN

• C.

MID-STREAM SPECIMEN

• D.

BOTH A & C

D. BOTH A & C
Explanation
The correct answer is BOTH A & C. The clean-catch urine specimen is also known as both a clean-voided specimen and a mid-stream specimen. This method of collection involves cleaning the genital area before urinating and then collecting the middle portion of the urine stream to minimize contamination from the initial and final urine. Both terms, clean-voided and mid-stream, refer to the same technique of specimen collection.

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• 32.

### A 24-HOUR SPECIMEN SHOULD BE?

• A.

KEPT AT BODY TEMPERATURE

• B.

LEFT OPEN TO THE AIR

• C.

KEPT AT ROOM TEMPERATURE

• D.

CHILLED/REFRIGERATED

D. CHILLED/REFRIGERATED
Explanation
A 24-hour specimen should be chilled/refrigerated because keeping it at a low temperature helps to preserve the integrity and stability of the specimen. This prevents any potential degradation or changes in the composition of the specimen, ensuring accurate and reliable test results. Additionally, refrigeration helps to inhibit the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms that could contaminate the specimen.

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• 33.

### THE FRESH-FRACTIONAL URINE SPECIMEN IS USED TO TEST URINE FOR?

• A.

T.B.

• B.

PNEUMONIA

• C.

SUGAR

• D.

HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE

C. SUGAR
Explanation
A fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for sugar levels. This type of specimen is collected by collecting the first portion of urine that is voided and discarding the rest. By testing this specific portion, it provides a more accurate representation of the sugar levels in the urine. This test is commonly used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as diabetes mellitus.

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• 34.

### ANOTHER TERM FOR ACETONE IN THE URINE IS?

• A.

SUGAR

• B.

PUS

• C.

KETONE BODIES (KETONES)

• D.

C. KETONE BODIES (KETONES)
Explanation
Acetone in the urine is commonly referred to as ketone bodies or ketones. This is because when the body does not have enough glucose for energy, it starts breaking down fat instead. This process produces ketones, including acetone, which are then excreted in the urine. Therefore, ketone bodies or ketones are the correct terms to describe acetone in the urine.

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• 35.

### WHICH TEST MEASURES BOTH SUGAR & ACETONE IN THE URINE?

• A.

ACETEST

• B.

CLINITEST

• C.

TESTAPE

• D.

KETO-DIASTIX

D. KETO-DIASTIX
Explanation
KETO-DIASTIX is the correct answer because it is a test that measures both sugar and acetone in the urine. Acetone is a byproduct of fat metabolism, and its presence in the urine can indicate the breakdown of fat for energy, which is a characteristic of ketosis. The test strip of KETO-DIASTIX contains reagents that react with both glucose and acetone, producing color changes that can be compared to a color chart to determine the levels of sugar and acetone in the urine.

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• 36.

### TO HELP CLASSIFY BACTERIA INTO TWO GROUPS; GRAM-POSITIVE & GRAM-NEGATIVE IS A SPECIAL STAIN CALLED?

• A.

GLASS STAIN

• B.

GRAM STAIN

• C.

GERMICIDE

• D.

BACTERIA STAIN

B. GRAM STAIN
Explanation
Gram stain is a special stain used to classify bacteria into two groups: gram-positive and gram-negative. It involves a series of steps including staining with crystal violet, iodine, alcohol decolorization, and counterstaining with safranin. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple, while gram-negative bacteria lose the stain and appear pink or red. This staining technique is widely used in microbiology to differentiate between different types of bacteria based on their cell wall composition.

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• 37.

### WHEN PREPARING A BLOOD SMEAR FROM A SKIN PUNCTURE YOU SHOULD __________ THE FIRST DROP.

• A.

COLLECT

• B.

USE

• C.

WIPEAWAY

• D.

WASH OFF

C. WIPEAWAY
Explanation
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is important to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluids or contaminants that can affect the accuracy of the smear. Wiping away the first drop ensures that the subsequent drops collected for the smear are clean and representative of the patient's blood.

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• 38.

### WHEN YOU PULL THE SECOND SLIDE APART FROM THE FIRST SLIDE, LET THEM?

• A.

STAND FOR ONE HOUR

• B.

STAND FOR FOUR MINUTES

• C.

AIR DRY

• D.

BLOW ON THEM TO DRY THEM

C. AIR DRY
Explanation
When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, the suggested action is to let them air dry. This means allowing the slides to dry naturally without using any external means such as blowing on them or using a drying agent. Air drying is a common practice in handling slides to prevent any potential damage or contamination that may occur from other methods of drying.

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• 39.

### WHEN PREPARING A BLOOD SMEAR, THE SPREADER SLIDE MUST BE MADE OF?

• A.

FOIL

• B.

STEEL

• C.

PLASTIC

• D.

GLASS

D. GLASS
Explanation
When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of glass because glass slides provide a smooth and flat surface, which is essential for obtaining an even and consistent blood smear. Glass slides are also durable and easy to clean, making them ideal for repeated use in laboratory settings. Additionally, glass slides are transparent, allowing for clear visualization of the blood sample under a microscope. This transparency is important for accurate analysis and identification of blood cells and any abnormalities present.

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• 40.

### WHEN A DROP OF BLOOD IS PLACED ON A SLIDE, PLACE A SECOND SLIDE __________ THE FIRST SLIDE.

• A.

BESIDE

• B.

ON TOP

• C.

BENEATH

• D.

VERTICAL TO

B. ON TOP
Explanation
When a drop of blood is placed on a slide, placing a second slide on top of the first slide allows for the blood to spread evenly between the two slides. This technique is commonly used in microscopy to create a thin, even layer of the sample for better visualization and analysis.

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• 41.

### THE GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST IS A __________-TEST?

• A.

SALIVA

• B.

TIMED

• C.

FINGER STICK

• D.

DANGEROUS

B. TIMED
Explanation
The glucose tolerance test is a timed test because it measures the body's ability to metabolize glucose over a specific period of time. During the test, the individual consumes a high amount of glucose and their blood sugar levels are monitored at regular intervals to see how efficiently their body processes the glucose. The timing of these measurements is crucial in determining the person's glucose tolerance and potential for developing conditions like diabetes.

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• 42.

### WHILE ORDERING PROCEDURES MAY VARY, GENERALLY A TYPE AND RH ARE ORDERED ON ALL PREGNANT WOMEN. THIS NORMALLY IS CALLED A __________ SCREEN.

• A.

BLOOD

• B.

SERUM

• C.

PRENATAL

• D.

POSTNATAL

C. PRENATAL
Explanation
The correct answer is PRENATAL. When ordering procedures for pregnant women, it is common to order a type and RH screening. This is known as a prenatal screen, as it is done during pregnancy to assess the blood type and RH factor of the mother.

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• 43.

### CERTAIN TYPES OF CULTURES, SUCH AS DEEP WOUND CULTURES COULD CONTAIN ANAEROBIC PATHOGENS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS IS REQUIRED FOR THEIR GROWTH?

• A.

LIGHT & OXYGEN

• B.

ABSENCE OF OXYGEN

• C.

LIGHT & THE ABSENCE OF OXYGEN

• D.

B. ABSENCE OF OXYGEN
Explanation
Anaerobic pathogens are microorganisms that can survive and grow in the absence of oxygen. Therefore, the correct condition required for their growth is the absence of oxygen.

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• 44.

### TO OBTAIN A SPECIMEN FOR A THROAT CULTURE THE __________ MUST BE SWABBED.

• A.

NASOPHARYNX & TONSILLAR AREA

• B.

BACK OF THE TONGUE & EPIGLOTTIS

• C.

UNDER THE TONGUE & ALONG THE GUM LINE

• D.

A. NASOPHARYNX & TONSILLAR AREA
Explanation
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture, the nasopharynx and tonsillar area must be swabbed. This is because these areas are commonly affected by bacterial or viral infections, which can be identified through a throat culture. Swabbing the nasopharynx and tonsillar area allows for the collection of cells and secretions that may contain the infectious agents, providing a sample for laboratory analysis.

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• 45.

### A CLIA WAIVED PREGNANCY TEST IS BASED ON THE DETECTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

• A.

TESTOSTERONE

• B.

• C.

PROGESTERONE

• D.

ESTROGEN

Explanation
A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). This hormone is produced by the placenta shortly after implantation occurs, and its presence in the urine or blood is a reliable indicator of pregnancy. hCG levels rise rapidly in the early stages of pregnancy, making it an ideal marker for pregnancy testing. The test works by detecting the presence of hCG in a woman's urine or blood sample, providing a quick and accurate result.

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• 46.

### WHEN PERFORMING ANY CLIA WAIVED TEST IT IS IMPORTANT TO DO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

• A.

KEEP ALL CLIA WAIVED TESTS REFRIGERATED

• B.

DISCARD QUALITY CONTROL KITS IMMEDIATELY UPON OPENING THE BOX

• C.

PERFORM QUALITY CONTROL TESTING WITH EVERY NEW KIT & ROUTINELY THEREAFTER

• D.

C. PERFORM QUALITY CONTROL TESTING WITH EVERY NEW KIT & ROUTINELY THEREAFTER
Explanation
When performing any CLIA waived test, it is important to perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter. This ensures that the test results are accurate and reliable. Quality control testing helps to identify any issues or problems with the kit or the testing process, allowing for corrective actions to be taken. By regularly performing quality control testing, healthcare professionals can maintain the integrity of the testing process and ensure the validity of the results.

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• 47.

### PERFORMING ROUTINE MAINTENANCE ON LABORATORY EQUIPMENT IS CRITICAL. THE MAINTENANCE PLAN SHOULD INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

• A.

REGULARLY SCHEDULED CHECK-UPS

• B.

DAILY EXAMINATION OF EQUIPMENT FOR FRAYED CORDS OR BROKEN PARTS

• C.

ROUTINE CLEANING OF THE OUTSIDE OF THE EQUIPMENT WITH A DAMP CLOTH

• D.

Explanation
Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical to ensure its proper functioning and longevity. Regularly scheduled check-ups help identify any potential issues or malfunctions before they become major problems. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts is important to prevent accidents or damage. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth helps maintain cleanliness and prevent the buildup of dirt or contaminants. All of these actions are necessary for a comprehensive maintenance plan, making the statement "all answers are correct" accurate.

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• 48.

### WHEN PROVIDING A PATIENT INSTRUCTIONS ON THE COLLECTION OF A SAMPLE FOR OCCULT BLOOD TESTING, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS CORRECT?

• A.

DIETARY MODIFICATIONS MUST OCCUR FOR 48 HOURS PRIOR TO COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN

• B.

THE PATIENT SHOULD CONSUME 20 oz. OF RED MEAT IN THE 4 HOURS PRIOR TO THE COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN

• C.

THE PATIENT SHOULD LIMIT DAIRY

• D.

THERE ARE NO RESTRICTIONS ON MEDICATIONS - THE PATIENT SHOULD TAKE ALL MEDICATIONS AS PRESCRIBED

A. DIETARY MODIFICATIONS MUST OCCUR FOR 48 HOURS PRIOR TO COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN
Explanation
The correct answer is "DIETARY MODIFICATIONS MUST OCCUR FOR 48 HOURS PRIOR TO COLLECTION OF THE SPECIMEN." This statement is correct because occult blood testing requires the patient to avoid certain foods that may affect the results. Dietary modifications are necessary to ensure accurate test results by eliminating potential sources of blood in the stool. By avoiding specific foods for 48 hours prior to the collection of the specimen, the patient reduces the risk of false-positive results and improves the accuracy of the test.

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• 49.

### IN THE MEDICAL OFFICE THE MOST FREQUENTLY PERFORMED PULMONARY FUNCTION TEST IS?

• A.

NEBULIZATION

• B.

SPIROMETRY

• C.

SIGMOIDOSCOPY

• D.

MANTOUX TEST

B. SPIROMETRY
Explanation
Spirometry is the most frequently performed pulmonary function test in a medical office. This test measures the amount of air a person can inhale and exhale, as well as how quickly they can do so. It is a non-invasive procedure that helps diagnose and monitor respiratory conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and pulmonary fibrosis. By measuring lung capacity and airflow, spirometry provides valuable information about lung function and helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions regarding treatment plans for their patients.

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• Mar 19, 2023
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• Nov 06, 2010
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