Computed Tomography Quiz On Patient care!

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Computed Tomography Quiz On Patient care! - Quiz

A patient's health is the first and foremost concern of the doctor. Regular checkups and diagnosis are mandatory for any patient. This quiz has been designed to test your knowledge about the different techniques and measures taken in CT Scan. A CT scan uses an X-ray machine to create cross-sectional images of the body which provides detailed information and assists in showing soft tissues and bones of the body like shoulders, spine, abdomen. So, let's try out the quiz. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following sets of values would be considered normal levels of creatinine and BUN respectively?

    • A.

      3.1 to 1.2 mg/dl

    • B.

      1.2 to 14 mg/dl

    • C.

      .7 to 29 mg/dl

    • D.

      5.2 to 12 mg/dl

    Correct Answer
    B. 1.2 to 14 mg/dl
    Explanation
    Creatinine and BUN are both blood tests used to assess kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys, and BUN (blood urea nitrogen) is a measure of the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, which also reflects kidney function. Normal levels of creatinine in the blood typically range from 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dl, while normal BUN levels range from 7 to 20 mg/dl. Therefore, the set of values given in the answer, 1.2 to 14 mg/dl, falls within the normal range for both creatinine and BUN.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following must be included when obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure. 1. Explanation of the examination techniques 2. The possible risk and benefits of the examination 3. Alternatives to the procedure

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      1 and 2

    • C.

      1 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    D. 1, 2, and 3
    Explanation
    When obtaining informed consent for an invasive procedure, it is necessary to include all three options: explanation of the examination techniques, the possible risks and benefits of the examination, and alternatives to the procedure. This ensures that the patient fully understands the nature of the procedure, the potential outcomes, and any other options available to them. By including all three elements, the patient can make an informed decision about their healthcare.

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  • 3. 

    Contrast materials that dissociate into charged particles when placed in a solution

    • A.

      Positive

    • B.

      Non-ionic

    • C.

      Ionic

    • D.

      Negative

    Correct Answer
    C. Ionic
    Explanation
    Ionic contrast materials are substances that dissociate into charged particles when placed in a solution. This means that they break apart into positively and negatively charged ions. In contrast, non-ionic contrast materials do not dissociate into charged particles and remain electrically neutral. Therefore, the correct answer is "ionic" because it accurately describes the type of contrast material that dissociates into charged particles when placed in a solution.

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  • 4. 

    What is the correct angle when placing a butterfly needle in the vein.

    • A.

      5 degrees

    • B.

      15 degrees

    • C.

      45 degrees

    • D.

      60 degrees

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 degrees
    Explanation
    The correct angle for placing a butterfly needle in the vein is 15 degrees. This angle allows for proper insertion of the needle into the vein while minimizing the risk of puncturing through the vein or causing discomfort to the patient. It is important to maintain a steady hand and carefully insert the needle at the correct angle to ensure successful venipuncture.

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  • 5. 

    What is the correct order for the stages of infection?

    • A.

      Incubation, prodromal, active, convalescence

    • B.

      Convalescence, active, prodromal, incubation

    • C.

      Prodromal, incubation, convalescence, active

    • D.

      Incubation, convalescence, prodromal, active

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation, prodromal, active, convalescence
    Explanation
    The correct order for the stages of infection is incubation, prodromal, active, convalescence. During the incubation stage, the virus or bacteria enters the body and starts to multiply. In the prodromal stage, the person may start to experience mild symptoms such as fatigue or headache. The active stage is when the infection is at its peak, and the person experiences the full range of symptoms. Finally, during the convalescence stage, the person starts to recover and the symptoms gradually subside.

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  • 6. 

    The normal range for systolic BP for an adult is

    • A.

      40-60 mm hg

    • B.

      60-90 mm hg

    • C.

      80-120 mm hg

    • D.

      95-140 mm hg

    Correct Answer
    D. 95-140 mm hg
    Explanation
    The normal range for systolic blood pressure (BP) for an adult is 95-140 mm Hg. Systolic BP is the top number in a blood pressure reading and represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats and pumps blood. This range is considered normal because it indicates that the heart is functioning properly and supplying enough oxygenated blood to the body. Any reading below or above this range may indicate low or high blood pressure, which can be a sign of underlying health conditions.

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  • 7. 

    After the intrathecal injection of iodinated contrast for a post myelographic CT study of the L-SP, the PT should be instructed

    • A.

      Take a cleansing enema

    • B.

      Resume normal activity

    • C.

      Rest for 8-24 hours with the head slightly elevated

    • D.

      Rest for 8-24 hours in the Trendelenburg position

    Correct Answer
    C. Rest for 8-24 hours with the head slightly elevated
    Explanation
    After the intrathecal injection of iodinated contrast for a post myelographic CT study of the L-SP, the PT should be instructed to rest for 8-24 hours with the head slightly elevated. This is because the contrast injection can cause headaches and dizziness, and resting with the head slightly elevated can help alleviate these symptoms. It is important to rest to allow the contrast to distribute evenly in the spinal canal and to minimize the risk of complications. Taking a cleansing enema, resuming normal activity, or resting in the Trendelenburg position are not necessary or recommended after this procedure.

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  • 8. 

    The embryo or fetus is most sensitive to ionizing radiation during.........

    • A.

      First trimester

    • B.

      Second trimester

    • C.

      Third trimester

    • D.

      Equally through all trimesters

    Correct Answer
    A. First trimester
    Explanation
    During the first trimester of pregnancy, the embryo or fetus is most sensitive to ionizing radiation. This is because during this period, the organs and tissues are developing rapidly, making them more vulnerable to the harmful effects of radiation. Exposure to ionizing radiation during the first trimester can increase the risk of birth defects, developmental abnormalities, and even miscarriage. Therefore, it is crucial to minimize radiation exposure during this critical stage of pregnancy.

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  • 9. 

    A PT has a vagal reaction to iodinated contrast material that includes bradycardia. Initial treatment may include

    • A.

      Atropine

    • B.

      Diazepam

    • C.

      Ranitidine hydrochloride

    • D.

      Alburterol sulfate

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine
    Explanation
    A vagal reaction to iodinated contrast material can cause bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Atropine is a medication that can be used to increase the heart rate by blocking the action of the vagus nerve, which slows down the heart. Therefore, atropine is an appropriate initial treatment for this condition. Diazepam is a sedative and would not directly address the bradycardia. Ranitidine hydrochloride is an antacid and would also not address the bradycardia. Albuterol sulfate is a bronchodilator and would not be effective in treating bradycardia.

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  • 10. 

    A PT is required to have the following examinations. Ct AB, gastrointestinal series, BE. What is the correct order

    • A.

      BE, gastrointestinal, CT AB

    • B.

      Gastrointestinal, CT AB, BE

    • C.

      Ct AB, gastrointestinal, BE

    • D.

      CT AB, BE, gastrointestinal

    Correct Answer
    D. CT AB, BE, gastrointestinal
    Explanation
    The correct order for the required examinations is CT AB, BE, gastrointestinal. This means that the CT AB examination should be done first, followed by the BE examination, and finally the gastrointestinal series.

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  • 11. 

    The term used to describe the ability of a fluid flow is

    • A.

      Density

    • B.

      Viscosity

    • C.

      Osmolality

    • D.

      Specific gravity

    Correct Answer
    B. Viscosity
    Explanation
    Viscosity is the correct answer to this question because it is the term used to describe the ability of a fluid to flow. It refers to the internal friction or resistance to flow within a fluid. Viscosity is influenced by factors such as temperature, pressure, and the molecular structure of the fluid. Different fluids have different viscosities, with thicker fluids having higher viscosities and flowing more slowly.

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  • 12. 

    The normal range of respirations for a child is

    • A.

      5-10 per min

    • B.

      12-20 per min

    • C.

      20-30 per min

    • D.

      35-50 per min

    Correct Answer
    C. 20-30 per min
    Explanation
    The normal range of respirations for a child is 20-30 per minute. This range indicates the average number of breaths a child takes in a minute, which is considered to be within the normal range for their age. It is important to monitor a child's respiratory rate as it can be an indicator of their overall health and any potential respiratory issues.

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  • 13. 

    The correct order for actions during CPR is

    • A.

      Airway, breathing, circulation

    • B.

      Breathing, airway, circulation

    • C.

      Circulation, breathing, airway

    • D.

      Airway, circulation, breathing

    Correct Answer
    A. Airway, breathing, circulation
    Explanation
    The correct order for actions during CPR is airway, breathing, circulation. This means that the first step is to ensure that the airway is clear and open, followed by providing breaths to the person in need, and then focusing on restoring circulation through chest compressions. This sequence is based on the principle that without a clear airway, breathing and circulation cannot be effectively restored. Therefore, clearing the airway is the first priority in order to maximize the chances of successful resuscitation.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following interactions between x-ray and matter results in the largest amount of occupational exposure

    • A.

      Characteristic effect

    • B.

      Compton effect

    • C.

      Bremsstrahlung effect

    • D.

      Photoelectric effect

    Correct Answer
    B. Compton effect
    Explanation
    The Compton effect is the correct answer because it involves the scattering of x-ray photons by outer shell electrons in matter. This interaction results in a loss of energy and a change in direction of the x-ray photon. The scattered photons can then continue to interact with other atoms, leading to a larger amount of occupational exposure. The characteristic effect, bremsstrahlung effect, and photoelectric effect also contribute to occupational exposure, but the Compton effect generally results in the largest amount of exposure.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following should be included in the instructions to the patient before beginning any CT exam

    • A.

      The examination to be performed, for example, what area of the body exam is to be studied should be described

    • B.

      The process of contrast administration should be explained

    • C.

      Any necessary breathing instructions should be given clearly and precisely

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The instructions to the patient before beginning any CT exam should include all of the above options. It is important to describe the examination to be performed, including the specific area of the body that will be studied. Additionally, the process of contrast administration should be explained to the patient. Lastly, any necessary breathing instructions should be given clearly and precisely to ensure that the patient understands how to cooperate during the exam.

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  • 16. 

    The high  osmolar contrast material has an average osmolatity of

    • A.

      100-300 mosm.kg

    • B.

      600-850 mosm kg

    • C.

      1000-2400 mosm kg

    • D.

      4000-7000 mosm kg

    Correct Answer
    C. 1000-2400 mosm kg
  • 17. 

    Which of the following sets of injection flow rates is a biphasic technique for spiral CT study of the liver?

    • A.

      2 ml/sec for 100ml with scanning during both peak enhancement and the equilibrium phase

    • B.

      3 ml/sec for 150ml with a 90 second delay before scanning

    • C.

      2 ml/sec for 50ml during the superior half of the liver

    • D.

      3 ml/sec for 50ml followed by 1.5ml/sec for 100ml

    Correct Answer
    D. 3 ml/sec for 50ml followed by 1.5ml/sec for 100ml
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 ml/sec for 50ml followed by 1.5ml/sec for 100ml. This technique involves injecting contrast at a higher flow rate initially (3 ml/sec for 50ml) to achieve peak enhancement in the liver. After that, the flow rate is reduced (1.5ml/sec for 100ml) to maintain contrast enhancement during the equilibrium phase. This biphasic technique ensures optimal visualization of both the arterial phase and the portal venous phase of liver vasculature.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following terms is used to describe a PT having difficulty swallowing?

    • A.

      Dyslexia

    • B.

      Dyspnea

    • C.

      Dysphagia

    • D.

      Dysphasia

    Correct Answer
    C. Dysphagia
    Explanation
    Dysphagia is the correct answer because it is the term used to describe a PT (patient) having difficulty swallowing. Dyslexia refers to a learning disorder affecting reading and writing skills, dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing, and dysphasia refers to difficulty with speech and language.

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  • 19. 

    The normal platelet count range for an adult is

    • A.

      30k-45k/mm blood

    • B.

      75k-125k/mm blood

    • C.

      150k-400lk/mm blood

    • D.

      450k-700k/mm blood

    Correct Answer
    C. 150k-400lk/mm blood
    Explanation
    The normal platelet count range for an adult is 150k-400lk/mm blood. Platelets are small blood cells that help in blood clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. A platelet count within this range indicates a healthy level of platelets in the blood, which is necessary for proper clotting. Platelet counts below or above this range may indicate a medical condition or disorder, such as thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) or thrombocytosis (high platelet count).

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  • 20. 

    IV contrast administration with an automatic injector during a CT exam is usually performed through

    • A.

      Infuse-a-port

    • B.

      Angiocatheters

    • C.

      Port-a-cath

    • D.

      Hickmans catheters

    Correct Answer
    B. Angiocatheters
    Explanation
    Angiocatheters are commonly used for IV contrast administration with an automatic injector during a CT exam. They are flexible catheters that can be easily inserted into a vein, allowing for the injection of contrast material. Infuse-a-port, port-a-cath, and Hickman's catheters are not typically used for this purpose.

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  • 21. 

    Later effects of radiation such as genetic mutations may occur with even small dose of radiation and are termed

    • A.

      Stochastic

    • B.

      Somatic

    • C.

      Nonstochastic

    • D.

      Chronic

    Correct Answer
    A. Stochastic
    Explanation
    Stochastic effects of radiation refer to the random occurrence of genetic mutations that may happen even with a small dose of radiation. These effects are not predictable and can vary from individual to individual. On the other hand, somatic effects are immediate and occur in the exposed individual, while nonstochastic effects have a threshold dose and are more predictable. Chronic effects, on the other hand, refer to long-term health issues that may arise from repeated exposure to radiation over time. Therefore, the term "stochastic" best describes the later effects of radiation such as genetic mutations.

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  • 22. 

    The choice of ionic versus non-ionic contrast administration should be based on 1 The allergic history 2 The cost of contrast 3 The age and physical condition of the PT

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      1 and 2

    • C.

      1 and 3

    • D.

      1, 2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 and 3
    Explanation
    The choice of ionic versus non-ionic contrast administration should be based on the allergic history and the age and physical condition of the patient. The allergic history is important to consider because some patients may have a known allergy to iodine, which is present in ionic contrast agents. In such cases, non-ionic contrast agents should be used instead. The age and physical condition of the patient are also important factors to consider because certain patients, such as those with compromised kidney function, may be more susceptible to adverse reactions from ionic contrast agents. Therefore, a careful assessment of these factors is necessary to determine the appropriate choice of contrast administration.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 09, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Leclark
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