Command Post CDC Vol. 1
- 1.Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?
- A.
Training noncommissioned officer
- B.
A certified controller
- C.
Chief of the command post
- D.
The trainee's shift supervisor
- 2.Who periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?
- A.
Command Post trainer
- B.
Command Post training manager
- C.
Command Post certifying official
- D.
Command Post chief or superintendent.
- 3.Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into:
- A.
Upgrade training
- B.
Certification
- C.
Proficiency training
- D.
Recurring training
- 4.What are the three categories of recurring training?
- A.
Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training
- B.
Formal training, self-study training, and certification training
- C.
Self-study training, proficiency, and initial training.
- D.
Formal training, initial training, and evaluation training
- 5.What do training managers use to outline that month's training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP)?
- A.
Master training plan
- B.
Plan of instruction
- C.
Unit training plan
- D.
Self-study letter
- 6.Proficiency training consists of:
- A.
Performance evaluations and scenario training.
- B.
Accomplishing all requirements on the self-study letter.
- C.
Emergency actions (EA) test and certification examinations.
- D.
Written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training.
- 7.What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to certified personnel?
- A.
April and October.
- B.
June and December
- C.
February and August
- D.
March and September
- 8.Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly written test?
- A.
Three
- B.
Four
- C.
Five
- D.
Six
- 9.If you receive an “UNSAT” on your performance evaluation, within how many calendar days are you reevaluated for failing an initial performance evaluation?
- A.
5.
- B.
10.
- C.
15.
- D.
20.
- 10.What training actions are required when controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days?
- A.
Receive recertification training.
- B.
Receive formal and initial training.
- C.
Take written and performance examinations.
- D.
Review controller information file (CIF) and recertify.
- 11.What number of calendar days will controllers be entered into initial or recertification training prior to reporting for duty?
- A.
3.
- B.
5.
- C.
10.
- D.
15.
- 12.How many calendar days do active duty and air reserve components personnel have to complete initial or recertification training?
- A.
20.
- B.
30.
- C.
60.
- D.
90.
- 13.What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions)?
- A.
70%.
- B.
85%.
- C.
90%.
- D.
92%.
- 14.Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?
- A.
Training manager
- B.
Director of operations
- C.
MAJCOM commander
- D.
MAJCOM career field manager
- 15.Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orientation briefing?
- A.
60
- B.
80
- C.
90
- D.
100
- 16.Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect an initial training evaluation?
- A.
40
- B.
50
- C.
60
- D.
90
- 17.What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses (CDC) provide?
- A.
Job knowledge
- B.
Job proficiency
- C.
Job experience
- D.
Certification
- 18.Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty?
- A.
Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
- B.
Master training plan (MTP)
- C.
Annual training plan (ATP)
- D.
Unit training plan (UTP)
- 19.What part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained?
- A.
AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet
- B.
Enlisted education and training path
- C.
Specialty training standard (STS)
- D.
Duty position table
- 20.What are the categories of Air Force publications?
- A.
Nondirective and departmental
- B.
Directive and departmental
- C.
Directive and nondirective
- D.
Departmental and field
- 21.Which type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?
- A.
Operating Instructions
- B.
Nondirective
- C.
Departmental
- D.
Directive
- 22.Which pubication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field?
- A.
Air Force Pamplets (AFP)
- B.
Air Force Instructions (AFI)
- C.
Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)
- D.
Air Force Doctrine Documents (AFDD)
- 23.Air Force activities add organizations-specific guidance to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing
- A.
Revised publications
- B.
Basic publications
- C.
Supplements
- D.
Changes
- 24.If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is
- A.
Obsolete
- B.
Revised
- C.
Required
- D.
Not required
- 25.During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications are limited. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist does not exceed
- A.
Five per controller
- B.
Six per controller
- C.
Eight per controller
- D.
Ten per controller
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