Command Post CDC Vol. 1

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Leehalo33
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 499
Questions: 100 | Attempts: 272

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?

    • A.

      Training noncommissioned officer

    • B.

      A certified controller

    • C.

      Chief of the command post

    • D.

      The trainee's shift supervisor

    Correct Answer
    B. A certified controller
    Explanation
    A certified controller must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluate feedback to ensure training remains effective. This individual has the necessary certification and expertise to provide the required training and assess its effectiveness. They are responsible for ensuring that all trainees receive the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively.

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  • 2. 

    Who periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?

    • A.

      Command Post trainer

    • B.

      Command Post training manager

    • C.

      Command Post certifying official

    • D.

      Command Post chief or superintendent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Command Post chief or superintendent.
    Explanation
    The Command Post chief or superintendent periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective. This individual is responsible for overseeing the training process and ensuring that trainees are progressing and meeting the necessary standards. They also play a crucial role in evaluating feedback from trainees and making any necessary adjustments to the training program to ensure its effectiveness.

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  • 3. 

    Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into:

    • A.

      Upgrade training

    • B.

      Certification

    • C.

      Proficiency training

    • D.

      Recurring training

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrade training
    Explanation
    After completing the initial training, individuals will also be enrolled in upgrade training. This additional training is designed to enhance their skills and knowledge in a specific area or to learn advanced techniques or technologies. Upgrade training helps individuals stay up-to-date with the latest industry trends and developments, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills to perform their job effectively. It is a way to continuously improve and progress in one's career.

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  • 4. 

    What are the three categories of recurring training?

    • A.

      Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training

    • B.

      Formal training, self-study training, and certification training

    • C.

      Self-study training, proficiency, and initial training.

    • D.

      Formal training, initial training, and evaluation training

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training
    Explanation
    The three categories of recurring training are formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training. Formal training refers to structured training programs conducted by an instructor or trainer. Self-study training involves individuals independently learning and acquiring knowledge through reading, online courses, or other resources. Proficiency training focuses on practicing and maintaining skills to ensure competency in a particular area. Certification training, initial training, and evaluation training are not mentioned as categories of recurring training in the given options.

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  • 5. 

    What do training managers use to outline that month's training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP)?

    • A.

      Master training plan

    • B.

      Plan of instruction

    • C.

      Unit training plan

    • D.

      Self-study letter

    Correct Answer
    D. Self-study letter
    Explanation
    Training managers use self-study letters to outline the month's training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP). Self-study letters provide employees with information on the specific training topics they need to cover independently during that month. This allows employees to take responsibility for their own learning and ensures that the training requirements outlined in the ATP are met.

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  • 6. 

    Proficiency training consists of:

    • A.

      Performance evaluations and scenario training.

    • B.

      Accomplishing all requirements on the self-study letter.

    • C.

      Emergency actions (EA) test and certification examinations.

    • D.

      Written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training.

    Correct Answer
    D. Written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training. This means that proficiency training includes both written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training. This suggests that individuals undergoing proficiency training are required to demonstrate their knowledge through written tests, as well as their practical skills through either performance evaluations or scenario training. This comprehensive approach ensures that individuals have a thorough understanding of the subject matter and are able to apply their knowledge in real-life situations.

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  • 7. 

    What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to certified personnel?

    • A.

      April and October.

    • B.

      June and December

    • C.

      February and August

    • D.

      March and September

    Correct Answer
    D. March and September
    Explanation
    Semiannual performance evaluations for certified personnel will be administered in the months of March and September.

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  • 8. 

    Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly written test?

    • A.

      Three

    • B.

      Four

    • C.

      Five

    • D.

      Six

    Correct Answer
    C. Five
    Explanation
    After failing a monthly written test, you are retested within five duty days. This means that you will have another opportunity to take the test and pass within five working days.

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  • 9. 

    If you receive an “UNSAT” on your performance evaluation, within how many calendar days are you reevaluated for failing an initial performance evaluation?

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      10.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      20.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10.
    Explanation
    Employees who receive an "UNSAT" on their performance evaluation are reevaluated within 10 calendar days. This means that they have a short period of time to address any performance issues and improve their performance before being reevaluated. This prompt action allows for timely feedback and the opportunity for employees to make necessary adjustments to meet the required standards.

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  • 10. 

    What training actions are required when controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days?

    • A.

      Receive recertification training.

    • B.

      Receive formal and initial training.

    • C.

      Take written and performance examinations.

    • D.

      Review controller information file (CIF) and recertify.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receive recertification training.
    Explanation
    When controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days, they are required to receive recertification training. This training is necessary to ensure that controllers are up to date with the latest procedures and protocols in their command. It helps refresh their knowledge and skills, ensuring that they are competent and capable of carrying out their duties effectively. By undergoing recertification training, controllers can maintain their proficiency and readiness in fulfilling their command and control responsibilities.

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  • 11. 

    What number of calendar days will controllers be entered into initial or recertification training prior to reporting for duty?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    D. 15.
    Explanation
    Controllers will be entered into initial or recertification training 15 calendar days before reporting for duty.

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  • 12. 

    How many calendar days do active duty and air reserve components personnel have to complete initial or recertification training?

    • A.

      20.

    • B.

      30.

    • C.

      60.

    • D.

      90.

    Correct Answer
    D. 90.
    Explanation
    Active duty and air reserve components personnel have 90 calendar days to complete initial or recertification training.

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  • 13. 

    What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions)?

    • A.

      70%.

    • B.

      85%.

    • C.

      90%.

    • D.

      92%.

    Correct Answer
    C. 90%.
    Explanation
    The minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions) is 90%. This means that in order to pass the certification tests, a candidate must score at least 90% on both phases of the test.

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  • 14. 

    Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?

    • A.

      Training manager

    • B.

      Director of operations

    • C.

      MAJCOM commander

    • D.

      MAJCOM career field manager

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOM commander
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM commander is responsible for certifying controllers at the major command level. As the highest-ranking officer in the MAJCOM, they have the authority and expertise to ensure that controllers meet the necessary standards and qualifications for their roles. They oversee the certification process and make the final decision on whether an individual is qualified to serve as a controller at the MAJCOM level. The MAJCOM commander's certification is crucial in maintaining the effectiveness and safety of air traffic control operations within the command.

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  • 15. 

    Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orientation briefing?

    • A.

      60

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Upon arrival at a new duty station, it is expected that a work center orientation briefing will be conducted within 60 calendar days. This briefing is crucial for familiarizing individuals with their new work environment, responsibilities, and expectations. It allows them to acclimate to the new surroundings and understand the specific procedures and protocols of the work center.

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  • 16. 

    Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect an initial training evaluation?

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    C. 60
    Explanation
    Upon arrival at a new duty station, it is expected that an initial training evaluation will be conducted within 60 calendar days. This evaluation is likely to assess the individual's skills, knowledge, and abilities in order to determine their training needs and develop a suitable training plan.

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  • 17. 

    What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses (CDC) provide?

    • A.

      Job knowledge

    • B.

      Job proficiency

    • C.

      Job experience

    • D.

      Certification

    Correct Answer
    A. Job knowledge
    Explanation
    Career development courses (CDC) provide on-the-job training (OJT) in the form of job knowledge. This means that these courses aim to enhance the knowledge and understanding of individuals in their respective fields or industries. Through CDC, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of the theoretical concepts, principles, and best practices related to their job roles. This knowledge can then be applied in practical situations to improve job performance and contribute to overall career development.

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  • 18. 

    Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty?

    • A.

      Career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • B.

      Master training plan (MTP)

    • C.

      Annual training plan (ATP)

    • D.

      Unit training plan (UTP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is a training plan that identifies the life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty. It provides a comprehensive overview of the training needed for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary skills and knowledge they need to acquire. The CFETP helps to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate training and education throughout their career to perform their job effectively.

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  • 19. 

    What part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained?

    • A.

      AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    • B.

      Enlisted education and training path

    • C.

      Specialty training standard (STS)

    • D.

      Duty position table

    Correct Answer
    C. Specialty training standard (STS)
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Standard (STS) is the part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) that identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force Specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained. The STS outlines the specific knowledge and skills required for a particular job and serves as a guide for training and evaluating trainees. It provides a standardized framework for ensuring that all trainees receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 20. 

    What are the categories of Air Force publications?

    • A.

      Nondirective and departmental

    • B.

      Directive and departmental

    • C.

      Directive and nondirective

    • D.

      Departmental and field

    Correct Answer
    C. Directive and nondirective
    Explanation
    Air Force publications are categorized into two main types: directive and nondirective. Directive publications provide specific instructions and guidance on how to carry out tasks and procedures within the Air Force. These publications are mandatory and must be followed by all personnel. On the other hand, nondirective publications provide information, background, and general guidance on various topics without imposing specific requirements. These publications are informative and serve as a resource for personnel to enhance their knowledge and understanding. Therefore, the correct answer is "Directive and nondirective."

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  • 21. 

    Which type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?

    • A.

      Operating Instructions

    • B.

      Nondirective

    • C.

      Departmental

    • D.

      Directive

    Correct Answer
    D. Directive
    Explanation
    Directive publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force. Directive publications provide specific instructions and guidance that must be followed, ensuring compliance with regulations and promoting consistency within the organization. These publications outline the policies, procedures, and actions that individuals and units are required to adhere to, helping to maintain order, efficiency, and effectiveness in the Air Force operations.

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  • 22. 

    Which pubication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field?

    • A.

      Air Force Pamplets (AFP)

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions (AFI)

    • C.

      Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

    • D.

      Air Force Doctrine Documents (AFDD)

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Instructions (AFI)
    Explanation
    Air Force Instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field. These instructions outline specific steps and procedures that must be followed in order to effectively carry out Air Force policies. They serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel, providing them with the necessary guidance and direction to ensure policy compliance and successful implementation of procedures.

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  • 23. 

    Air Force activities add organizations-specific guidance to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing

    • A.

      Revised publications

    • B.

      Basic publications

    • C.

      Supplements

    • D.

      Changes

    Correct Answer
    D. Changes
    Explanation
    Air Force activities contribute to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing changes. This means that they update and modify existing publications to reflect any new information or guidance specific to their organization. These changes could include updates to procedures, policies, or any other relevant information. By issuing changes, Air Force activities ensure that the higher headquarters publications remain up-to-date and aligned with their organization's specific guidance.

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  • 24. 

    If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is

    • A.

      Obsolete

    • B.

      Revised

    • C.

      Required

    • D.

      Not required

    Correct Answer
    D. Not required
    Explanation
    If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, it means that these checklists already provide all the necessary instructions for performing a specific action. Therefore, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is not required because the QRC already includes all the necessary information.

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  • 25. 

    During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications are limited. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist does not exceed

    • A.

      Five per controller

    • B.

      Six per controller

    • C.

      Eight per controller

    • D.

      Ten per controller

    Correct Answer
    D. Ten per controller
    Explanation
    During quick reaction checklist construction, there is a limit on the number of telephone notifications that can be made. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist is ten per controller. This means that the controller can make up to ten phone calls to notify others during the checklist construction process.

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  • 26. 

    Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions

    • A.

      Before the end of their shift.

    • B.

      Prior to assuming duty.

    • C.

      After assuming duty.

    • D.

      In a timely manner.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prior to assuming duty.
    Explanation
    Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure that oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions before assuming duty. This means that the checklist is meant to be completed before the start of their shift, ensuring that they are fully prepared and aware of all necessary tasks and responsibilities. By completing the checklist prior to assuming duty, the CP controllers can ensure a smooth transition and minimize any potential gaps or errors in their duties.

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  • 27. 

    What publication contains complete information to accomplish a specific task involved and references all applicable publications and background materials (policy directives, instructions, operator's manuals, etc.)?

    • A.

      Mission directives.

    • B.

      Operating instruction (OI).

    • C.

      Air Force instruction (AFI).

    • D.

      Quick reaction checklist (QRC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating instruction (OI).
    Explanation
    An operating instruction (OI) is a publication that contains complete information to accomplish a specific task involved and references all applicable publications and background materials. It serves as a comprehensive guide that provides step-by-step instructions and procedures for carrying out a particular operation. It includes policy directives, instructions, operator's manuals, and other relevant materials to ensure that the task is performed correctly and efficiently. Therefore, an operating instruction (OI) is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 28. 

    What program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives?

    • A.

      Field training program.

    • B.

      Self-inspection program.

    • C.

      Upgrade training program.

    • D.

      Certification and training program.

    Correct Answer
    B. Self-inspection program.
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives. This program involves regularly assessing and evaluating the organization's processes, procedures, and practices to identify any deficiencies or areas for improvement. By conducting self-inspections, the organization can proactively address any issues and ensure compliance with the governing directives. This program helps maintain and enhance the efficiency, effectiveness, and integrity of the organization's operations.

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  • 29. 

    When conducting self-inspections, you must perform major command (MAJCOM) approved self-inspections at least

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semi-annually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi-annually.
    Explanation
    When conducting self-inspections, it is necessary to perform major command (MAJCOM) approved self-inspections at least semi-annually. This means that these inspections should be carried out twice a year. This frequency allows for regular assessments of compliance and identification of any issues or areas that need improvement. By conducting self-inspections semi-annually, organizations can ensure that they are maintaining the required standards and taking corrective actions in a timely manner.

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  • 30. 

    What are the categories of classified information?

    • A.

      Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.

    • B.

      Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified.

    • C.

      Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and sensitive but unclassified (SBU

    • D.

      Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, special category (SPECAT), and for official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.
    Explanation
    The categories of classified information are Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential. These categories are used to designate the level of sensitivity and importance of the information. Top Secret is the highest level, followed by Secret, and then Confidential. Each category has specific criteria and protocols for handling and protecting the information to ensure national security and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 31. 

    What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?

    • A.

      Top Secret.

    • B.

      Secret.

    • C.

      Confidential.

    • D.

      For official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Secret.
    Explanation
    The unauthorized disclosure of Secret classified information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. Secret information is considered to be of higher sensitivity than Confidential or For Official Use Only (FOUO) information, and its unauthorized disclosure could potentially compromise national security interests. While Top Secret information is generally considered to be the highest level of classification, the question specifically asks for information that could cause serious damage, which is more likely to be associated with Secret information.

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  • 32. 

    What official information does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons?

    • A.

      Confidential information.

    • B.

      Cryptographic information.

    • C.

      Controlled unclassified information.

    • D.

      Secret information not requiring a receipt.

    Correct Answer
    C. Controlled unclassified information.
    Explanation
    Controlled unclassified information refers to official information that does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons. This means that while the information may not be classified as confidential or secret, there are still restrictions on its disclosure for other purposes, such as privacy concerns or the protection of sensitive business or government information.

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  • 33. 

    What type of controlled unclassified information contains facts about our intentions, capabilities, and activities?

    • A.

      Critical Information (CI)

    • B.

      Special Category (SPECAT)

    • C.

      Limited distribution (LIMDIS)

    • D.

      Encrypt for transmission only (EFTO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical Information (CI)
    Explanation
    Critical Information (CI) is the correct answer because it refers to controlled unclassified information that contains facts about our intentions, capabilities, and activities. CI is a category used to protect sensitive information that could potentially harm national security if disclosed. It includes information related to military operations, plans, and strategies, as well as intelligence activities. By classifying this information as CI, it ensures that only authorized individuals have access to it and prevents potential adversaries from gaining valuable insights into our intentions, capabilities, and activities.

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  • 34. 

    In a classified document, how is the classification level of subparagraphs indicated?

    • A.

      By the document's overall classification.

    • B.

      By placing the classification symbol at the end of each sentence.

    • C.

      Place the classificatio symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number.

    • D.

      Place the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph that are classified.

    Correct Answer
    C. Place the classificatio symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number.
    Explanation
    The classification level of subparagraphs in a classified document is indicated by placing the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number.

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  • 35. 

    When marking classified material, how is the classification of the information in the subject line indicated?

    • A.

      The use of a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the subject.

    • B.

      By the overall marking at the top and bottom of the title page.

    • C.

      It is indicated by the document's overall marking.

    • D.

      It is indicated by the overall page marking.

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the subject.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the use of a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the subject. This means that when marking classified material, the classification of the information is indicated by placing a specific symbol immediately after the subject line and to the right of it. This symbol represents the level of classification assigned to the document, such as "Confidential" or "Top Secret". This method allows for quick and easy identification of the document's classification status.

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  • 36. 

    When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified paragraphs, what classification must be stamped on the top and bottom of the page?

    • A.

      Secret

    • B.

      Top Secret

    • C.

      Confidential

    • D.

      Unclassified

    Correct Answer
    B. Top Secret
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Top Secret" because according to the question, the document's interior page contains all four classifications: Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified. When a document contains information of different classifications, the highest level of classification should be stamped on the top and bottom of the page, which in this case is "Top Secret".

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  • 37. 

    How should file folders containing classified materials be marked?

    • A.

      File folders should always be marked Secret.

    • B.

      With the highest classification of any document kept in the folder.

    • C.

      File folders should not be marked with a security classification.

    • D.

      The same classification as the safe or cabinet in which the folder is filed.

    Correct Answer
    B. With the highest classification of any document kept in the folder.
    Explanation
    File folders containing classified materials should be marked with the highest classification of any document kept in the folder. This ensures that individuals handling the folder are aware of the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the materials inside. By marking the folder with the highest classification, it helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that proper security measures are taken to protect the information.

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  • 38. 

    Which review requires a line-by-line examination of classified information requested under provisions of Executive Order (EO) 12958?

    • A.

      Systematic

    • B.

      Mandatory

    • C.

      Classification

    • D.

      Declassification

    Correct Answer
    B. Mandatory
    Explanation
    The review that requires a line-by-line examination of classified information requested under provisions of Executive Order (EO) 12958 is the "Mandatory" review. This means that it is required by law or regulation to carefully examine each line of the requested classified information in order to determine its classification status or eligibility for declassification.

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  • 39. 

    When you determine an individual''s trustworthiness, what program helps by providing official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to classified information?

    • A.

      USAF Physical Security Program

    • B.

      USAF Industrial Security Program

    • C.

      USAF Personnel Security Program

    • D.

      USAF Information Security Program

    Correct Answer
    C. USAF Personnel Security Program
    Explanation
    The USAF Personnel Security Program helps determine an individual's trustworthiness by providing official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to classified information. This program focuses specifically on evaluating the background, character, and conduct of individuals to ensure they meet the necessary requirements for handling sensitive information. It includes processes such as background checks, interviews, and investigations to assess an individual's reliability and suitability for accessing classified information.

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  • 40. 

    Even though an individual has a valid security clearance that individual may not be automatically granted access to specific classified information, what method is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed?

    • A.

      Rank or position

    • B.

      Classified markings

    • C.

      The "need to know (NTK)" rule.

    • D.

      USAF exchange badge procedure

    Correct Answer
    C. The "need to know (NTK)" rule.
    Explanation
    The "need to know (NTK)" rule is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed, even if an individual has a valid security clearance. This means that just having a security clearance is not enough to access classified information; the individual must also have a specific need to know that information in order to be granted access. This rule ensures that classified information is only shared with those who have a legitimate and necessary reason to access it, minimizing the risk of unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 41. 

    Each article of Top Secret material is accounted for by using an AF Form

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      143

    • C.

      144

    • D.

      310

    Correct Answer
    B. 143
    Explanation
    The AF Form 143 is used to account for each article of Top Secret material.

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  • 42. 

    Why must the Top Secret register page for any given year must remain active?

    • A.

      It must remain active until an inventory inspection is conducted.

    • B.

      To determine if an annual audit/inventory has not been performed.

    • C.

      To indicate when the Top Secret control officer (TSCO) is reassigned

    • D.

      It must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of.

    Correct Answer
    D. It must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Top Secret register page must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of. This is important because the register serves as a record of all the top-secret documents that have been entered into the system. By keeping the register active until each document is disposed of, it ensures that there is a complete and accurate record of all the documents and their status. This helps with accountability and tracking of the documents throughout their lifecycle.

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  • 43. 

    When must you perform an inventory on a Top Secret account?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    An inventory on a Top Secret account must be performed annually to ensure the security and accuracy of the account. This periodic review helps to identify any discrepancies or unauthorized access, allowing for prompt action to be taken. By conducting an annual inventory, the organization can maintain control over the Top Secret account and mitigate potential risks.

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  • 44. 

    What category of classified material is based upon the limited use of receipts in transmitting documents between geographically separated units?

    • A.

      For official use only (FOUO)

    • B.

      Confidential

    • C.

      Secret

    • D.

      Top Secret

    Correct Answer
    C. Secret
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Secret" because this category of classified material is based on the limited use of receipts in transmitting documents between geographically separated units. This implies that the information contained in these documents is highly sensitive and requires a higher level of protection and control, which is characteristic of the Secret classification level.

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  • 45. 

    Containers used to store classified information are indentified by

    • A.

      Marking the highest classification of the material it contains on the outside.

    • B.

      Marking the highest classification of th material it contains inside th drawer.

    • C.

      Affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location on the outside.

    • D.

      Affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location inside the drawer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location on the outside.
    Explanation
    Containers used to store classified information are identified by affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location on the outside. This ensures that the classification level of the material inside the container is clearly visible and easily identifiable. It allows for efficient and organized storage of classified information, as well as easy retrieval and access when needed. Marking the highest classification of the material inside the drawer or on the inside of the container may not be as effective, as it may not be immediately visible or easily noticed.

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  • 46. 

    When should you reset a security container's built-in combination locks to 50-25-50?

    • A.

      When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service.

    • B.

      When a built-in combination lock is returned to service.

    • C.

      When a built-in combination lock has been compromised.

    • D.

      When a built-in combination lock is being used for the first time.

    Correct Answer
    A. When a built-in combination lock is taken out of service.
    Explanation
    Resetting the security container's built-in combination locks to 50-25-50 is necessary when the lock is taken out of service. This implies that the lock will no longer be used temporarily or permanently. Resetting the combination ensures that unauthorized individuals cannot access the container while it is not in use.

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  • 47. 

    Which form is used to record daily security checks?

    • A.

      Standard Form 701

    • B.

      Standard Form 702

    • C.

      Air Force Form 310

    • D.

      Air Force Form 145

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form 701
    Explanation
    Standard Form 701 is used to record daily security checks.

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  • 48. 

    Which documents require destruction records when being destroyed by two authorized people?

    • A.

      For official use only (FOUO) documents.

    • B.

      Confidential documents.

    • C.

      Secret documents.

    • D.

      Top Secret documents.

    Correct Answer
    D. Top Secret documents.
    Explanation
    Top Secret documents require destruction records when being destroyed by two authorized people. This is because Top Secret documents contain highly sensitive information that could pose a significant risk if it falls into the wrong hands. Therefore, a strict protocol is followed to ensure proper destruction and to maintain a record of the process. Destroying these documents with the involvement of two authorized individuals helps to ensure accountability and prevent any unauthorized access or misuse of the information.

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  • 49. 

    When you destroy classified waste such as handwritten notes or working paper, what action do you take to document the destruction of the classified waste?

    • A.

      Complete AF Form 310.

    • B.

      Complete AF Form 143.

    • C.

      Complete AF Form 1565.

    • D.

      Destruction of classified waste does not require documentation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Destruction of classified waste does not require documentation.
    Explanation
    Destruction of classified waste does not require documentation because it is assumed that the waste has been properly destroyed and disposed of in a secure manner. The other options, AF Form 310, AF Form 143, and AF Form 1565, are not applicable in this scenario as they are not specifically designed for documenting the destruction of classified waste.

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  • 50. 

    Which security incident best describes an incident that involves the misuse or improper handling of classified material but does not fall in the category of a violation?

    • A.

      Compromise.

    • B.

      Security Infraction.

    • C.

      Probable Compromise.

    • D.

      Possible Compromise.

    Correct Answer
    B. Security Infraction.
    Explanation
    A security infraction refers to the misuse or improper handling of classified material, which does not necessarily result in a violation. It implies that there has been a breach or failure to comply with security protocols or procedures, but it may not have reached the level of a full-fledged compromise where unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information has occurred. In other words, a security infraction represents a less severe incident compared to a compromise, probable compromise, or possible compromise.

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