Command Post CDC Vol. 1

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| By Leehalo33
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Leehalo33
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 515
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1. What training actions are required when controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days?

Explanation

When controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days, they are required to receive recertification training. This training is necessary to ensure that controllers are up to date with the latest procedures and protocols in their command. It helps refresh their knowledge and skills, ensuring that they are competent and capable of carrying out their duties effectively. By undergoing recertification training, controllers can maintain their proficiency and readiness in fulfilling their command and control responsibilities.

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About This Quiz
Professional Certification Quizzes & Trivia

Command Post CDC Vol. 1 assesses skills in operational command and control. It covers initial and recertification training, upgrade training, and recurring training categories. This quiz ensures effective... see moretraining evaluation and progress review, crucial for certified controllers and command post chiefs. see less

2. Which AF form can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor entry and exit from the command post (CP) area?

Explanation

The AF form 1109 can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor entry and exit from the command post (CP) area.

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3. What is the minimum classification of a computer password that permits access to Secret information?

Explanation

The minimum classification of a computer password that permits access to Secret information is "Secret." This means that in order to access Secret information, the password must be classified as Secret or higher. The other options listed, Top Secret, Unclassified, and Confidential, do not meet the minimum classification requirement for accessing Secret information.

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4. What connects computers and peripheral devices for sharing of hardware or information?

Explanation

A network is a system that connects computers and peripheral devices for the purpose of sharing hardware or information. It allows multiple devices to communicate and share resources such as printers, scanners, and files. This enables efficient collaboration and data sharing among users connected to the network.

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5. When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified paragraphs, what classification must be stamped on the top and bottom of the page?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Top Secret" because according to the question, the document's interior page contains all four classifications: Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified. When a document contains information of different classifications, the highest level of classification should be stamped on the top and bottom of the page, which in this case is "Top Secret".

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6. Even though an individual has a valid security clearance that individual may not be automatically granted access to specific classified information, what method is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed?

Explanation

The "need to know (NTK)" rule is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed, even if an individual has a valid security clearance. This means that just having a security clearance is not enough to access classified information; the individual must also have a specific need to know that information in order to be granted access. This rule ensures that classified information is only shared with those who have a legitimate and necessary reason to access it, minimizing the risk of unauthorized disclosure.

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7. Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orientation briefing?

Explanation

Upon arrival at a new duty station, it is expected that a work center orientation briefing will be conducted within 60 calendar days. This briefing is crucial for familiarizing individuals with their new work environment, responsibilities, and expectations. It allows them to acclimate to the new surroundings and understand the specific procedures and protocols of the work center.

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8. When reproducing classified information, reproduction of the information must be keep to

Explanation

The correct answer is "a minimum consistent with mission requirements." When reproducing classified information, it is important to limit the number of copies to only what is necessary for the mission. This helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access or dissemination of the classified information. Keeping the reproduction to a minimum ensures that there are fewer opportunities for the information to be mishandled or compromised.

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9. What action is required when conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material?

Explanation

When conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material, it is necessary to physically locate each item listed on the inventory before checking it off. This ensures that all items are accounted for and helps prevent any potential loss or unauthorized access to sensitive information. Simply checking the items used for the shift only, physically checking the accountable critical items only, or making a daily inventory by checking with the previous shift may not provide a comprehensive and accurate assessment of the COMSEC material inventory.

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10. When you determine an individual''s trustworthiness, what program helps by providing official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to classified information?

Explanation

The USAF Personnel Security Program helps determine an individual's trustworthiness by providing official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to classified information. This program focuses specifically on evaluating the background, character, and conduct of individuals to ensure they meet the necessary requirements for handling sensitive information. It includes processes such as background checks, interviews, and investigations to assess an individual's reliability and suitability for accessing classified information.

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11. What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions)?

Explanation

The minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions) is 90%. This means that in order to pass the certification tests, a candidate must score at least 90% on both phases of the test.

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12. Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty?

Explanation

The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is a training plan that identifies the life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty. It provides a comprehensive overview of the training needed for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary skills and knowledge they need to acquire. The CFETP helps to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate training and education throughout their career to perform their job effectively.

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13. Which pubication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field. These instructions outline specific steps and procedures that must be followed in order to effectively carry out Air Force policies. They serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel, providing them with the necessary guidance and direction to ensure policy compliance and successful implementation of procedures.

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14. How do you transmit numbers?

Explanation

Numbers can be transmitted by sending each digit individually, which is known as transmitting digit by digit. This method involves sending one digit at a time, allowing for accurate and precise transmission of numerical information. This approach is commonly used in various communication systems, such as telecommunication networks and digital data transmission.

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15. Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions

Explanation

Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure that oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions before assuming duty. This means that the checklist is meant to be completed before the start of their shift, ensuring that they are fully prepared and aware of all necessary tasks and responsibilities. By completing the checklist prior to assuming duty, the CP controllers can ensure a smooth transition and minimize any potential gaps or errors in their duties.

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16. Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into:

Explanation

After completing the initial training, individuals will also be enrolled in upgrade training. This additional training is designed to enhance their skills and knowledge in a specific area or to learn advanced techniques or technologies. Upgrade training helps individuals stay up-to-date with the latest industry trends and developments, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills to perform their job effectively. It is a way to continuously improve and progress in one's career.

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17. Why must the Top Secret register page for any given year must remain active?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the Top Secret register page must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of. This is important because the register serves as a record of all the top-secret documents that have been entered into the system. By keeping the register active until each document is disposed of, it ensures that there is a complete and accurate record of all the documents and their status. This helps with accountability and tracking of the documents throughout their lifecycle.

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18. What are the categories of Air Force publications?

Explanation

Air Force publications are categorized into two main types: directive and nondirective. Directive publications provide specific instructions and guidance on how to carry out tasks and procedures within the Air Force. These publications are mandatory and must be followed by all personnel. On the other hand, nondirective publications provide information, background, and general guidance on various topics without imposing specific requirements. These publications are informative and serve as a resource for personnel to enhance their knowledge and understanding. Therefore, the correct answer is "Directive and nondirective."

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19. What action must you take when you receive an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication?

Explanation

When you receive an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication, the correct action to take is to re-challenge. This means that you should repeat the authentication process by posing the challenge again to the person or system being authenticated. Re-challenging allows for another attempt to verify the identity and ensure the security of the communication.

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20. What measures are used to uniformly heighten or reduce our defensive posture to defend against computer network attacks?

Explanation

INFOCON measures are used to uniformly heighten or reduce our defensive posture to defend against computer network attacks. These measures involve adjusting the level of information security and defensive measures based on the current threat level. By implementing INFOCON measures, organizations can ensure that appropriate actions are taken to protect their computer networks from attacks.

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21. What facility operator activates the secondary crash alarm circuit?

Explanation

Base Operations is the facility operator that activates the secondary crash alarm circuit. This suggests that Base Operations is responsible for monitoring and responding to any secondary crashes that may occur. The other options, such as Fire Station, Control Tower, and Command Post, are not mentioned as being responsible for activating the secondary crash alarm circuit.

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22. How should file folders containing classified materials be marked?

Explanation

File folders containing classified materials should be marked with the highest classification of any document kept in the folder. This ensures that individuals handling the folder are aware of the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the materials inside. By marking the folder with the highest classification, it helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that proper security measures are taken to protect the information.

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23. Which documents require destruction records when being destroyed by two authorized people?

Explanation

Top Secret documents require destruction records when being destroyed by two authorized people. This is because Top Secret documents contain highly sensitive information that could pose a significant risk if it falls into the wrong hands. Therefore, a strict protocol is followed to ensure proper destruction and to maintain a record of the process. Destroying these documents with the involvement of two authorized individuals helps to ensure accountability and prevent any unauthorized access or misuse of the information.

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24. Which entry control technique is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control?

Explanation

Personal recognition is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control because it allows for individual identification and verification. In situations where there are only a few people to monitor, it is easier for security personnel to personally recognize and identify individuals, ensuring that only authorized persons are granted access. This technique may be more efficient and practical compared to using entry authority lists or badge procedures, which may be more suitable for larger groups or organizations.

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25. What type of controlled unclassified information contains facts about our intentions, capabilities, and activities?

Explanation

Critical Information (CI) is the correct answer because it refers to controlled unclassified information that contains facts about our intentions, capabilities, and activities. CI is a category used to protect sensitive information that could potentially harm national security if disclosed. It includes information related to military operations, plans, and strategies, as well as intelligence activities. By classifying this information as CI, it ensures that only authorized individuals have access to it and prevents potential adversaries from gaining valuable insights into our intentions, capabilities, and activities.

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26. What classified material, if any, always requires a hand receipt for an in-person transfer?

Explanation

Top Secret classified material always requires a hand receipt for an in-person transfer. This is because Top Secret information is the highest level of classified material, and its transfer must be carefully documented and tracked to ensure accountability and prevent unauthorized access. Hand receipts provide a record of who has custody of the material, making it easier to trace any discrepancies or security breaches.

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27. Which security incident is used to describe when classified information has been disclosed to a person not authorized access to the information?

Explanation

The term "compromise" is commonly used in the field of cybersecurity to describe a security incident where classified information is disclosed to an unauthorized person. It refers to a breach or violation of security measures that results in the unauthorized access or exposure of sensitive data. In this context, compromise accurately describes the situation where classified information is accessed by someone who does not have the necessary authorization.

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28. Which form is used to record daily security checks?

Explanation

Standard Form 701 is used to record daily security checks.

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29. What is the highest procedence in the telephone priority system?

Explanation

In the telephone priority system, the highest precedence is given to Flash calls. Flash calls are emergency calls that require immediate attention and are typically used in situations where there is a threat to life or property. These calls take precedence over all other types of calls, including Priority, Immediate, and Routine calls.

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30. What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses (CDC) provide?

Explanation

Career development courses (CDC) provide on-the-job training (OJT) in the form of job knowledge. This means that these courses aim to enhance the knowledge and understanding of individuals in their respective fields or industries. Through CDC, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of the theoretical concepts, principles, and best practices related to their job roles. This knowledge can then be applied in practical situations to improve job performance and contribute to overall career development.

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31. Which type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?

Explanation

Directive publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force. Directive publications provide specific instructions and guidance that must be followed, ensuring compliance with regulations and promoting consistency within the organization. These publications outline the policies, procedures, and actions that individuals and units are required to adhere to, helping to maintain order, efficiency, and effectiveness in the Air Force operations.

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32. What system uses a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security?

Explanation

The correct answer is Secure terminal equipment (STE). STE is a system that utilizes a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security. The FORTEZZA plus card is a cryptographic device that is used for secure communication and data protection. It is specifically designed for use in secure terminal equipment, which includes devices such as secure telephones and secure fax machines. By using the FORTEZZA plus card, the STE system ensures that the communication and data exchanged are protected from unauthorized access and interception.

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33. During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications are limited. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist does not exceed

Explanation

During quick reaction checklist construction, there is a limit on the number of telephone notifications that can be made. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist is ten per controller. This means that the controller can make up to ten phone calls to notify others during the checklist construction process.

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34. In radio communications, which proword would you use tell some to "proceed with your message"?

Explanation

In radio communications, the proword "GO AHEAD" is used to tell someone to proceed with their message. This term indicates that the person can continue speaking and that the channel is clear for them to transmit their message.

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35. Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly written test?

Explanation

After failing a monthly written test, you are retested within five duty days. This means that you will have another opportunity to take the test and pass within five working days.

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36. What program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives?

Explanation

A self-inspection program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives. This program involves regularly assessing and evaluating the organization's processes, procedures, and practices to identify any deficiencies or areas for improvement. By conducting self-inspections, the organization can proactively address any issues and ensure compliance with the governing directives. This program helps maintain and enhance the efficiency, effectiveness, and integrity of the organization's operations.

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37. If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is

Explanation

If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, it means that these checklists already provide all the necessary instructions for performing a specific action. Therefore, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is not required because the QRC already includes all the necessary information.

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38. What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?

Explanation

The unauthorized disclosure of Secret classified information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. Secret information is considered to be of higher sensitivity than Confidential or For Official Use Only (FOUO) information, and its unauthorized disclosure could potentially compromise national security interests. While Top Secret information is generally considered to be the highest level of classification, the question specifically asks for information that could cause serious damage, which is more likely to be associated with Secret information.

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39. What facility operator activates the primary crash alarm circuit?

Explanation

The control tower is responsible for activating the primary crash alarm circuit. This makes sense as the control tower is the central hub for monitoring and managing all activities within an airport or airfield. In the event of a crash, the control tower needs to be immediately notified so that appropriate emergency response can be initiated. Therefore, it is the control tower's responsibility to activate the primary crash alarm circuit to alert relevant personnel and emergency services.

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40. What are the categories of classified information?

Explanation

The categories of classified information are Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential. These categories are used to designate the level of sensitivity and importance of the information. Top Secret is the highest level, followed by Secret, and then Confidential. Each category has specific criteria and protocols for handling and protecting the information to ensure national security and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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41. Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?

Explanation

A certified controller must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluate feedback to ensure training remains effective. This individual has the necessary certification and expertise to provide the required training and assess its effectiveness. They are responsible for ensuring that all trainees receive the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively.

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42. What type of radio system is used as a backup for communication with higher headquarters?

Explanation

High-frequency (HF) radios are used as a backup for communication with higher headquarters. HF radios operate in the high-frequency range of the electromagnetic spectrum, allowing for long-range communication over large distances. They are particularly useful in situations where other forms of communication may be unreliable or unavailable, such as in remote or austere environments. By using HF radios as a backup, military personnel can ensure that they have a reliable means of communication with higher headquarters even in challenging or adverse conditions.

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43. What are the three categories of recurring training?

Explanation

The three categories of recurring training are formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training. Formal training refers to structured training programs conducted by an instructor or trainer. Self-study training involves individuals independently learning and acquiring knowledge through reading, online courses, or other resources. Proficiency training focuses on practicing and maintaining skills to ensure competency in a particular area. Certification training, initial training, and evaluation training are not mentioned as categories of recurring training in the given options.

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44. Which type of communications security (COMSEC) incident has occured if an individual who has access to COMSEC information defects?

Explanation

A COMSEC incident occurs when an individual who has access to COMSEC information defects. This means that the person with authorized access to sensitive communication security information has chosen to leave or betray their responsibilities. This type of incident is categorized as a personnel issue because it involves the actions or behavior of an individual rather than a physical breach or a cryptographic failure.

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45. Which security incident best describes an incident that involves the misuse or improper handling of classified material but does not fall in the category of a violation?

Explanation

A security infraction refers to the misuse or improper handling of classified material, which does not necessarily result in a violation. It implies that there has been a breach or failure to comply with security protocols or procedures, but it may not have reached the level of a full-fledged compromise where unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information has occurred. In other words, a security infraction represents a less severe incident compared to a compromise, probable compromise, or possible compromise.

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46. Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for certifying controllers at the major command level. As the highest-ranking officer in the MAJCOM, they have the authority and expertise to ensure that controllers meet the necessary standards and qualifications for their roles. They oversee the certification process and make the final decision on whether an individual is qualified to serve as a controller at the MAJCOM level. The MAJCOM commander's certification is crucial in maintaining the effectiveness and safety of air traffic control operations within the command.

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47. What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to certified personnel?

Explanation

Semiannual performance evaluations for certified personnel will be administered in the months of March and September.

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48. Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect an initial training evaluation?

Explanation

Upon arrival at a new duty station, it is expected that an initial training evaluation will be conducted within 60 calendar days. This evaluation is likely to assess the individual's skills, knowledge, and abilities in order to determine their training needs and develop a suitable training plan.

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49. What force protection condition (FPCON) is issued as a localized warning applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occured?

Explanation

Delta is the correct answer because Force Protection Condition (FPCON) Delta is issued when a terrorist attack has occurred or is imminent in the immediate area. It indicates a high risk of terrorist activity and requires strict security measures to be implemented, such as increased surveillance, restricted access, and heightened security measures. This FPCON level is localized to the specific area affected by the attack, ensuring that appropriate measures are taken to protect personnel and assets in that immediate vicinity.

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50.  What system is the primary authentication document used by the Air Force?

Explanation

The TRIAD authentication system is the primary authentication document used by the Air Force. This system is specifically designed to ensure the security and authenticity of users accessing Air Force systems. It involves a three-step process that includes user identification, password authentication, and a challenge and reply mechanism to further verify the user's identity. The TRIAD authentication system is crucial in protecting sensitive information and preventing unauthorized access to Air Force resources.

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51. Who assigns accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security (COMSEC) material?

Explanation

The originating agency is responsible for assigning accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security (COMSEC) material. This means that the agency that creates or generates the COMSEC material is the one that determines and assigns the ALC. This ensures that proper accountability and control measures are in place for the handling and storage of COMSEC material.

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52. What official information does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons?

Explanation

Controlled unclassified information refers to official information that does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons. This means that while the information may not be classified as confidential or secret, there are still restrictions on its disclosure for other purposes, such as privacy concerns or the protection of sensitive business or government information.

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53. What is established within a controlled area that contains no protection level (PL) resources when a construction project makes it impractical to apply normal circulation controls?

Explanation

A free zone is established within a controlled area that contains no protection level (PL) resources when a construction project makes it impractical to apply normal circulation controls. In this situation, a free zone allows for limited access and movement within the controlled area without compromising the security of the PL resources. It provides a designated area where individuals can freely move without strict circulation controls, ensuring that the construction project can proceed while maintaining security measures.

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54. When a security incident has occurred, who must take custody of  and protect the classified informationinvolved until it can be released to an appropriately cleared official?

Explanation

When a security incident occurs, the person who discovers the incident or violation must take custody of and protect the classified information involved until it can be released to an appropriately cleared official. This responsibility falls on the individual who first identifies the incident or violation, as they are in the best position to ensure the immediate protection and safeguarding of the classified information. This ensures that the information remains secure and is handled appropriately until it can be handed over to the appropriate authorities.

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55. What procedure is used verify a user has a right to access a computer system?

Explanation

Authentication is the process used to verify that a user has the right to access a computer system. It involves confirming the user's identity through the use of credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or security tokens. This ensures that only authorized individuals can gain access to the system and helps prevent unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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56. Each article of Top Secret material is accounted for by using an AF Form

Explanation

The AF Form 143 is used to account for each article of Top Secret material.

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57. When should you reset a security container's built-in combination locks to 50-25-50?

Explanation

Resetting the security container's built-in combination locks to 50-25-50 is necessary when the lock is taken out of service. This implies that the lock will no longer be used temporarily or permanently. Resetting the combination ensures that unauthorized individuals cannot access the container while it is not in use.

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58. What is the recommended minimum number of random antiterrorism measures (RAM) that should be implemented daily?

Explanation

The recommended minimum number of random antiterrorism measures (RAM) that should be implemented daily is three. This implies that implementing at least three random antiterrorism measures daily is considered necessary for effective security and prevention of terrorist activities.

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59. Who implements the emergency action plan by issuing the emergency action task cards?

Explanation

The senior person present is responsible for implementing the emergency action plan by issuing the emergency action task cards. This individual is likely to have the authority and knowledge to make decisions and take actions in emergency situations. The commander may have overall responsibility for the plan, but the senior person present is the one who carries out the specific tasks outlined in the plan. The superintendent and communication security responsible officer may have other roles and responsibilities, but they are not directly responsible for implementing the emergency action plan.

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60. When marking classified material, how is the classification of the information in the subject line indicated?

Explanation

The correct answer is the use of a classification symbol immediately following and to the right of the subject. This means that when marking classified material, the classification of the information is indicated by placing a specific symbol immediately after the subject line and to the right of it. This symbol represents the level of classification assigned to the document, such as "Confidential" or "Top Secret". This method allows for quick and easy identification of the document's classification status.

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61. By dispersin key facilities, command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems become more

Explanation

By dispersing key facilities, command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems become more survivable. This means that in the event of an attack or a natural disaster, the impact on these systems would be minimized. By spreading out the facilities, the risk of a single point of failure is reduced, and the systems are able to continue functioning even if some of the facilities are compromised. This increases the overall resilience and ability of the C4 systems to withstand and recover from disruptions, ensuring their survival and continuity of operations.

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62. What publication contains complete information to accomplish a specific task involved and references all applicable publications and background materials (policy directives, instructions, operator's manuals, etc.)?

Explanation

An operating instruction (OI) is a publication that contains complete information to accomplish a specific task involved and references all applicable publications and background materials. It serves as a comprehensive guide that provides step-by-step instructions and procedures for carrying out a particular operation. It includes policy directives, instructions, operator's manuals, and other relevant materials to ensure that the task is performed correctly and efficiently. Therefore, an operating instruction (OI) is the correct answer for this question.

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63. When you destroy classified waste such as handwritten notes or working paper, what action do you take to document the destruction of the classified waste?

Explanation

Destruction of classified waste does not require documentation because it is assumed that the waste has been properly destroyed and disposed of in a secure manner. The other options, AF Form 310, AF Form 143, and AF Form 1565, are not applicable in this scenario as they are not specifically designed for documenting the destruction of classified waste.

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64. What part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained?

Explanation

The Specialty Training Standard (STS) is the part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) that identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force Specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained. The STS outlines the specific knowledge and skills required for a particular job and serves as a guide for training and evaluating trainees. It provides a standardized framework for ensuring that all trainees receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

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65. In a classified document, how is the classification level of subparagraphs indicated?

Explanation

The classification level of subparagraphs in a classified document is indicated by placing the classification symbol immediately following the subparagraph letter or number.

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66. Proficiency training consists of:

Explanation

The correct answer is written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training. This means that proficiency training includes both written tests and either performance evaluations or scenario training. This suggests that individuals undergoing proficiency training are required to demonstrate their knowledge through written tests, as well as their practical skills through either performance evaluations or scenario training. This comprehensive approach ensures that individuals have a thorough understanding of the subject matter and are able to apply their knowledge in real-life situations.

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67. If not compromised, when must duress codes be changed?

Explanation

Duress codes are used to signal an emergency situation, such as when someone is being forced to act against their will. To ensure the effectiveness of these codes, it is important to change them regularly. Changing the duress codes every six months strikes a balance between maintaining security and convenience. Frequent changes reduce the risk of unauthorized individuals discovering the codes, while also allowing enough time for employees to adapt to new codes and preventing unnecessary disruptions in daily operations.

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68. When transferring classified material outside an Air Force installation, what must be identified on the inner wrapper?

Explanation

When transferring classified material outside an Air Force installation, it is necessary to identify the classification on the inner wrapper. This is important to ensure that the material is handled and protected according to its level of sensitivity. By clearly indicating the classification on the inner wrapper, it helps to prevent unauthorized access and maintain the confidentiality of the information being transferred.

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69. What command and control (C2) system mission is to aid unit commanders and their staff in the planning, execution, and reporting phases of their assigned peace and wartime missions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater battle management core systems unit level (TBMCS-UL). This command and control system is specifically designed to assist unit commanders and their staff in the planning, execution, and reporting phases of their assigned peace and wartime missions. It provides essential information processing capabilities to enhance situational awareness and decision-making at the unit level. The TBMCS-UL is a vital tool for effective command and control in military operations.

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70. What display do you use in Global Decision Support System (GDSS) allows a commander or user to follow mission progress step-by-step?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Sequence of events (SOE)". In a Global Decision Support System (GDSS), the SOE display allows a commander or user to track the progress of a mission in a step-by-step manner. This display provides a chronological sequence of events, enabling the user to understand the order of actions and decisions taken during the mission. It helps in monitoring and analyzing the mission progress effectively.

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71. What do training managers use to outline that month's training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP)?

Explanation

Training managers use self-study letters to outline the month's training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP). Self-study letters provide employees with information on the specific training topics they need to cover independently during that month. This allows employees to take responsibility for their own learning and ensures that the training requirements outlined in the ATP are met.

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72. Who periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?

Explanation

The Command Post chief or superintendent periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective. This individual is responsible for overseeing the training process and ensuring that trainees are progressing and meeting the necessary standards. They also play a crucial role in evaluating feedback from trainees and making any necessary adjustments to the training program to ensure its effectiveness.

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73. If you receive an "UNSAT" on your performance evaluation, within how many calendar days are you reevaluated for failing an initial performance evaluation?

Explanation

Employees who receive an "UNSAT" on their performance evaluation are reevaluated within 10 calendar days. This means that they have a short period of time to address any performance issues and improve their performance before being reevaluated. This prompt action allows for timely feedback and the opportunity for employees to make necessary adjustments to meet the required standards.

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74. What are the methods of calling used in radio communications?

Explanation

The correct answer is full and abbreviated. In radio communications, full calling is used when the entire call sign or name is spoken out, while abbreviated calling involves using only a portion of the call sign or name. These methods are used to efficiently and effectively communicate in radio transmissions.

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75. When must you perform an inventory on a Top Secret account?

Explanation

An inventory on a Top Secret account must be performed annually to ensure the security and accuracy of the account. This periodic review helps to identify any discrepancies or unauthorized access, allowing for prompt action to be taken. By conducting an annual inventory, the organization can maintain control over the Top Secret account and mitigate potential risks.

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76. You should speak clearly and distinctly, but not too loud, when using

Explanation

High frequency (HF) radios should be used when speaking clearly and distinctly, but not too loud. HF radios operate in the frequency range of 3 to 30 MHz, which allows for long-distance communication. They are often used for long-range communication in aviation and maritime industries. Speaking clearly and distinctly ensures that the message is understood, while not speaking too loud prevents distortion or interference on the radio signal.

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77. The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command post (CP) is to

Explanation

The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command post (CP) is to ensure that the communications equipment is operational at all times. This is important because effective communication is crucial for the command post to function properly and coordinate activities. By conducting regular checks, any issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring that the equipment is ready and reliable when needed. This helps maintain seamless communication and enhances the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the command post operations.

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78. When would protection level (PL) 3 be assigned to a priority resource?

Explanation

Protection level (PL) 3 would be assigned to a priority resource if its compromise would damage the war-fighting capability of the United States. This means that the resource is crucial for the military's ability to engage in combat and carry out military operations effectively. Assigning PL 3 ensures that the necessary measures are taken to protect and safeguard this resource from potential threats or attacks that could undermine the war-fighting capability of the country.

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79. Which secure radio system is used mostly in theater operations?

Explanation

VINSON is the correct answer because it is a secure radio system that is commonly used in theater operations. It provides secure communication for military operations and offers features such as voice encryption and secure data transmission. The other options, KL-43, DSN, and STU-III, may also be used in secure communication, but VINSON is specifically known for its use in theater operations.

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80. What number of calendar days will controllers be entered into initial or recertification training prior to reporting for duty?

Explanation

Controllers will be entered into initial or recertification training 15 calendar days before reporting for duty.

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81. When conducting self-inspections, you must perform major command (MAJCOM) approved self-inspections at least

Explanation

When conducting self-inspections, it is necessary to perform major command (MAJCOM) approved self-inspections at least semi-annually. This means that these inspections should be carried out twice a year. This frequency allows for regular assessments of compliance and identification of any issues or areas that need improvement. By conducting self-inspections semi-annually, organizations can ensure that they are maintaining the required standards and taking corrective actions in a timely manner.

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82. How many calendar days do active duty and air reserve components personnel have to complete initial or recertification training?

Explanation

Active duty and air reserve components personnel have 90 calendar days to complete initial or recertification training.

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83. Which response is one of the four most important factors of speech?

Explanation

Rhythm is one of the four most important factors of speech because it refers to the pattern and flow of speech, including the timing and emphasis placed on different words and syllables. A good rhythm helps to make speech more engaging and easier to understand, as it creates a natural and balanced cadence. It also helps to convey emotions and intentions effectively, making communication more effective overall.

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84. Modular system designs and microelectronics give a command, control, communications and computer (C4) system more

Explanation

Modular system designs and microelectronics enable a command, control, communications and computer (C4) system to have greater mobility. This means that the system can be easily transported and deployed in different locations, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in various operational scenarios. The modular design also allows for quick and efficient upgrades or modifications to the system, enhancing its overall mobility and effectiveness.

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85. Containers used to store classified information are indentified by

Explanation

Containers used to store classified information are identified by affixing an identifying number or symbol in a conspicuous location on the outside. This ensures that the classification level of the material inside the container is clearly visible and easily identifiable. It allows for efficient and organized storage of classified information, as well as easy retrieval and access when needed. Marking the highest classification of the material inside the drawer or on the inside of the container may not be as effective, as it may not be immediately visible or easily noticed.

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86. How long may classified working papers be maintained before they must be considered a finished document and marked accordingly?

Explanation

Classified working papers may be maintained for a maximum of 180 days before they must be considered a finished document and marked accordingly. This means that after 180 days, the papers should be finalized, labeled appropriately, and possibly archived or disposed of according to the organization's guidelines.

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87. What command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system component transforms information from formats that people can understand into formats that machines can understand?

Explanation

Terminal devices are components of command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems that convert information from human-readable formats into machine-readable formats. These devices act as an interface between users and machines, allowing users to input and receive information in a format that can be understood by the machines. Terminal devices include devices such as keyboards, monitors, and printers that enable users to interact with the C4 system and input or output information in a way that machines can process and understand.

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88. Normally recordings of command post (CP) communications are not retained in excess of

Explanation

Recordings of command post (CP) communications are typically not retained for long periods of time. This is because these recordings are primarily used for immediate review and analysis, such as during investigations or training exercises. Keeping the recordings for longer than necessary would require significant storage space and resources. Therefore, a retention period of 30 days is considered sufficient for most operational purposes, striking a balance between maintaining records and managing storage capacity.

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89. Which review requires a line-by-line examination of classified information requested under provisions of Executive Order (EO) 12958?

Explanation

The review that requires a line-by-line examination of classified information requested under provisions of Executive Order (EO) 12958 is the "Mandatory" review. This means that it is required by law or regulation to carefully examine each line of the requested classified information in order to determine its classification status or eligibility for declassification.

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90. What force protection condition (FPCON) is declared when there is a general warning of possible terrorist activity?

Explanation

The force protection condition (FPCON) Alpha is declared when there is a general warning of possible terrorist activity. This level indicates a general threat of possible terrorist activity and the need to implement general security measures to deter potential attacks. It is the lowest level of FPCON and is typically used during routine operations.

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91. One of the prime prerequisites for good voice communications is using

Explanation

Standard phraseology refers to a set of predefined words and phrases used in voice communications to ensure clarity, accuracy, and understanding. It helps to avoid confusion and misinterpretation during communication, especially in critical situations. By using standard phraseology, individuals can effectively convey their messages and understand the information being shared. It is an essential prerequisite for good voice communications as it promotes effective and efficient communication, particularly in professional or specialized contexts such as aviation, military, or emergency services.

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92. What category of classified material is based upon the limited use of receipts in transmitting documents between geographically separated units?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Secret" because this category of classified material is based on the limited use of receipts in transmitting documents between geographically separated units. This implies that the information contained in these documents is highly sensitive and requires a higher level of protection and control, which is characteristic of the Secret classification level.

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93. Which action is a specific objective of command, control, communications and comuter (C4) systems?

Explanation

The specific objective of command, control, communications, and computer (C4) systems is to properly position critical information. These systems are designed to ensure that important information is strategically placed and easily accessible to enhance decision-making and coordination in military operations. By properly positioning critical information, C4 systems help optimize the effectiveness and efficiency of command and control processes. This objective is crucial for ensuring smooth communication, coordination, and decision-making within military organizations.

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94. What proword would you use before transmitting numerals or numbers?

Explanation

The proword "FIGURES" is used before transmitting numerals or numbers. Prowords are standardized words or phrases used in communication to convey specific meanings. In this case, "FIGURES" indicates that the following transmission will consist of numerical values rather than letters or words. This helps to ensure clear and accurate communication, especially in situations where numbers need to be transmitted quickly and accurately, such as in military or aviation contexts.

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95. What command and control (C2) system provides preformatted report templates that controllers can use to prepare operational reports?

Explanation

The Theater Battle Management Core Systems Unit Level (TBMCS-UL) is the correct answer because it provides preformatted report templates that controllers can use to prepare operational reports. This system is specifically designed for command and control purposes, allowing for efficient and standardized reporting within military operations. The other options, such as the National Military Command System (NMCS), Global Command and Control System (GCCS), and Command and Control Information Processing System (C2IPS), may have different functionalities but do not specifically mention providing preformatted report templates for operational reports.

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96. Which computer security (COMPUSEC) objective ensures information is not made available to unauthorized individuals?

Explanation

Confidentiality is the computer security objective that ensures information is not made available to unauthorized individuals. This objective focuses on protecting sensitive data from being accessed, disclosed, or disclosed to unauthorized users. By implementing measures such as encryption, access controls, and secure communication channels, organizations can maintain the confidentiality of their information and prevent unauthorized individuals from accessing it.

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97. What are the types of calls used in readio communications?

Explanation

The types of calls used in radio communications are single, multiple, and collective. Single calls are used to communicate with one specific person or station. Multiple calls are used to communicate with a group of specific people or stations. Collective calls are used to communicate with all stations or all stations on a specific channel.

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98. How often is your communications security responsible officer (CRO) required to review your communications security (COMSEC) requirements?

Explanation

The correct answer is semi-annually because reviewing communications security requirements every six months ensures that any changes or updates in technology, threats, or regulations are addressed in a timely manner. This frequency allows the responsible officer to stay proactive in maintaining the effectiveness and confidentiality of the organization's communications security measures.

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99. What command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system component is used to connect terminal devices?

Explanation

Transmissions media is the correct answer because it is the component of the command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system that is used to connect terminal devices. Transmissions media refers to the physical means through which data is transmitted, such as cables, wires, or wireless signals. It provides the necessary communication pathway between terminal devices, allowing them to exchange information within the C4 system.

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100. Air Force activities add organizations-specific guidance to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing

Explanation

Air Force activities contribute to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing changes. This means that they update and modify existing publications to reflect any new information or guidance specific to their organization. These changes could include updates to procedures, policies, or any other relevant information. By issuing changes, Air Force activities ensure that the higher headquarters publications remain up-to-date and aligned with their organization's specific guidance.

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What training actions are required when controllers have not performed...
Which AF form can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor...
What is the minimum classification of a computer password that permits...
What connects computers and peripheral devices for sharing of hardware...
When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret,...
Even though an individual has a valid security clearance that...
Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station...
When reproducing classified information, reproduction of the...
What action is required when conducting an inventory of communications...
When you determine an individual''s trustworthiness, what...
What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests...
Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training...
Which pubication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to...
How do you transmit numbers?
Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure...
Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into:
Why must the Top Secret register page for any given year must remain...
What are the categories of Air Force publications?
What action must you take when you receive an incorrect response...
What measures are used to uniformly heighten or reduce our defensive...
What facility operator activates the secondary crash alarm circuit?
How should file folders containing classified materials be marked?
Which documents require destruction records when being destroyed by...
Which entry control technique is especially valuable where relatively...
What type of controlled unclassified information contains facts about...
What classified material, if any, always requires a hand receipt for...
Which security incident is used to describe when classified...
Which form is used to record daily security checks?
What is the highest procedence in the telephone priority system?
What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses...
Which type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of...
What system uses a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security?
During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications...
In radio communications, which proword would you use tell some to...
Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly...
What program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of...
If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete...
What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could...
What facility operator activates the primary crash alarm circuit?
What are the categories of classified information?
Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification...
What type of radio system is used as a backup for communication with...
What are the three categories of recurring training?
Which type of communications security (COMSEC) incident has occured if...
Which security incident best describes an incident that involves the...
Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?
What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to...
Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station...
What force protection condition (FPCON) is issued as a localized...
 What system is the primary authentication document used by the...
Who assigns accounting legend codes (ALC) to communications security...
What official information does not require security safeguards, but...
What is established within a controlled area that contains no...
When a security incident has occurred, who must take custody of ...
What procedure is used verify a user has a right to access a computer...
Each article of Top Secret material is accounted for by using an AF...
When should you reset a security container's built-in combination...
What is the recommended minimum number of random antiterrorism...
Who implements the emergency action plan by issuing the emergency...
When marking classified material, how is the classification of the...
By dispersin key facilities, command, control, communications, and...
What publication contains complete information to accomplish a...
When you destroy classified waste such as handwritten notes or working...
What part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)...
In a classified document, how is the classification level...
Proficiency training consists of:
If not compromised, when must duress codes be changed?
When transferring classified material outside an Air Force...
What command and control (C2) system mission is to aid unit commanders...
What display do you use in Global Decision Support System (GDSS)...
What do training managers use to outline that month's training...
Who periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or...
If you receive an "UNSAT" on your performance evaluation, within how...
What are the methods of calling used in radio communications?
When must you perform an inventory on a Top Secret account?
You should speak clearly and distinctly, but not too loud, when using
The purpose of making periodic communications checks in the command...
When would protection level (PL) 3 be assigned to a priority resource?
Which secure radio system is used mostly in theater operations?
What number of calendar days will controllers be entered into initial...
When conducting self-inspections, you must perform major command...
How many calendar days do active duty and air reserve components...
Which response is one of the four most important factors of speech?
Modular system designs and microelectronics give a command, control,...
Containers used to store classified information are indentified by
How long may classified working papers be maintained before they must...
What command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system...
Normally recordings of command post (CP) communications are not...
Which review requires a line-by-line examination of classified...
What force protection condition (FPCON) is declared when there is a...
One of the prime prerequisites for good voice communications is using
What category of classified material is based upon the limited use of...
Which action is a specific objective of command, control,...
What proword would you use before transmitting numerals or numbers?
What command and control (C2) system provides preformatted report...
Which computer security (COMPUSEC) objective ensures information is...
What are the types of calls used in readio communications?
How often is your communications security responsible officer (CRO)...
What command, control, communications, and computer (C4) system...
Air Force activities add organizations-specific guidance to higher...
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