Command Post CDC Vol. 1

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Leehalo33
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  • 1/100 Questions

    What training actions are required when controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days?

    • Receive recertification training.
    • Receive formal and initial training.
    • Take written and performance examinations.
    • Review controller information file (CIF) and recertify.
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About This Quiz

Command Post CDC Vol. 1 assesses skills in operational command and control. It covers initial and recertification training, upgrade training, and recurring training categories. This quiz ensures effective training evaluation and progress review, crucial for certified controllers and command post chiefs.

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  • 2. 

    Which AF form can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor entry and exit from the command post (CP) area?

    • 1109

    • 1199-1

    • 1199-2

    • 1565

    Correct Answer
    A. 1109
    Explanation
    The AF form 1109 can be used as a visitor register log to control visitor entry and exit from the command post (CP) area.

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  • 3. 

    When a document's interior page contains Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified paragraphs, what classification must be stamped on the top and bottom of the page?

    • Secret

    • Top Secret

    • Confidential

    • Unclassified

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Top Secret" because according to the question, the document's interior page contains all four classifications: Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified. When a document contains information of different classifications, the highest level of classification should be stamped on the top and bottom of the page, which in this case is "Top Secret".

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  • 4. 

    Even though an individual has a valid security clearance that individual may not be automatically granted access to specific classified information, what method is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed?

    • Rank or position

    • Classified markings

    • The "need to know (NTK)" rule.

    • USAF exchange badge procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. The "need to know (NTK)" rule.
    Explanation
    The "need to know (NTK)" rule is used to limit disclosure of classified information to only the specific classified information needed, even if an individual has a valid security clearance. This means that just having a security clearance is not enough to access classified information; the individual must also have a specific need to know that information in order to be granted access. This rule ensures that classified information is only shared with those who have a legitimate and necessary reason to access it, minimizing the risk of unauthorized disclosure.

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  • 5. 

    What connects computers and peripheral devices for sharing of hardware or information?

    • Network.

    • Computer pool.

    • System software.

    • Application software.

    Correct Answer
    A. Network.
    Explanation
    A network is a system that connects computers and peripheral devices for the purpose of sharing hardware or information. It allows multiple devices to communicate and share resources such as printers, scanners, and files. This enables efficient collaboration and data sharing among users connected to the network.

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  • 6. 

    What is the minimum classification of a computer password that permits access to Secret information?

    • Secret

    • Top Secret

    • Unclassified

    • Confidential

    Correct Answer
    A. Secret
    Explanation
    The minimum classification of a computer password that permits access to Secret information is "Secret." This means that in order to access Secret information, the password must be classified as Secret or higher. The other options listed, Top Secret, Unclassified, and Confidential, do not meet the minimum classification requirement for accessing Secret information.

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  • 7. 

    Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orientation briefing?

    • 60

    • 80

    • 90

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Upon arrival at a new duty station, it is expected that a work center orientation briefing will be conducted within 60 calendar days. This briefing is crucial for familiarizing individuals with their new work environment, responsibilities, and expectations. It allows them to acclimate to the new surroundings and understand the specific procedures and protocols of the work center.

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  • 8. 

    When you determine an individual''s trustworthiness, what program helps by providing official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to classified information?

    • USAF Physical Security Program

    • USAF Industrial Security Program

    • USAF Personnel Security Program

    • USAF Information Security Program

    Correct Answer
    A. USAF Personnel Security Program
    Explanation
    The USAF Personnel Security Program helps determine an individual's trustworthiness by providing official assurance that a person may be deemed trustworthy for access to classified information. This program focuses specifically on evaluating the background, character, and conduct of individuals to ensure they meet the necessary requirements for handling sensitive information. It includes processes such as background checks, interviews, and investigations to assess an individual's reliability and suitability for accessing classified information.

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  • 9. 

    When reproducing classified information, reproduction of the information must be keep to

    • One copy only.

    • Two copies only.

    • A minimum consistent with mission requirements.

    • Extra copies in case the copier has a malfunction.

    Correct Answer
    A. A minimum consistent with mission requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a minimum consistent with mission requirements." When reproducing classified information, it is important to limit the number of copies to only what is necessary for the mission. This helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access or dissemination of the classified information. Keeping the reproduction to a minimum ensures that there are fewer opportunities for the information to be mishandled or compromised.

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  • 10. 

    What action is required when conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material?

    • Check the items used for the shift only.

    • Physically check the accountable critical items only.

    • Make daily inventory by checking with the previous shift.

    • Physically locate each item listed on the inventory before you check it off.

    Correct Answer
    A. Physically locate each item listed on the inventory before you check it off.
    Explanation
    When conducting an inventory of communications security (COMSEC) material, it is necessary to physically locate each item listed on the inventory before checking it off. This ensures that all items are accounted for and helps prevent any potential loss or unauthorized access to sensitive information. Simply checking the items used for the shift only, physically checking the accountable critical items only, or making a daily inventory by checking with the previous shift may not provide a comprehensive and accurate assessment of the COMSEC material inventory.

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  • 11. 

    Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into:

    • Upgrade training

    • Certification

    • Proficiency training

    • Recurring training

    Correct Answer
    A. Upgrade training
    Explanation
    After completing the initial training, individuals will also be enrolled in upgrade training. This additional training is designed to enhance their skills and knowledge in a specific area or to learn advanced techniques or technologies. Upgrade training helps individuals stay up-to-date with the latest industry trends and developments, ensuring that they are equipped with the necessary skills to perform their job effectively. It is a way to continuously improve and progress in one's career.

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  • 12. 

    What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions)?

    • 70%.

    • 85%.

    • 90%.

    • 92%.

    Correct Answer
    A. 90%.
    Explanation
    The minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions) is 90%. This means that in order to pass the certification tests, a candidate must score at least 90% on both phases of the test.

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  • 13. 

    Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty?

    • Career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • Master training plan (MTP)

    • Annual training plan (ATP)

    • Unit training plan (UTP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is a training plan that identifies the life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty. It provides a comprehensive overview of the training needed for individuals in a specific career field, outlining the necessary skills and knowledge they need to acquire. The CFETP helps to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate training and education throughout their career to perform their job effectively.

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  • 14. 

    Which pubication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field?

    • Air Force Pamplets (AFP)

    • Air Force Instructions (AFI)

    • Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

    • Air Force Doctrine Documents (AFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Instructions (AFI)
    Explanation
    Air Force Instructions (AFI) provide essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field. These instructions outline specific steps and procedures that must be followed in order to effectively carry out Air Force policies. They serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel, providing them with the necessary guidance and direction to ensure policy compliance and successful implementation of procedures.

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  • 15. 

    Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions

    • Before the end of their shift.

    • Prior to assuming duty.

    • After assuming duty.

    • In a timely manner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to assuming duty.
    Explanation
    Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure that oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions before assuming duty. This means that the checklist is meant to be completed before the start of their shift, ensuring that they are fully prepared and aware of all necessary tasks and responsibilities. By completing the checklist prior to assuming duty, the CP controllers can ensure a smooth transition and minimize any potential gaps or errors in their duties.

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  • 16. 

    How do you transmit numbers?

    • In sets.

    • In groups.

    • Digit by digit.

    • Phrase by phrase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Digit by digit.
    Explanation
    Numbers can be transmitted by sending each digit individually, which is known as transmitting digit by digit. This method involves sending one digit at a time, allowing for accurate and precise transmission of numerical information. This approach is commonly used in various communication systems, such as telecommunication networks and digital data transmission.

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  • 17. 

    What are the categories of Air Force publications?

    • Nondirective and departmental

    • Directive and departmental

    • Directive and nondirective

    • Departmental and field

    Correct Answer
    A. Directive and nondirective
    Explanation
    Air Force publications are categorized into two main types: directive and nondirective. Directive publications provide specific instructions and guidance on how to carry out tasks and procedures within the Air Force. These publications are mandatory and must be followed by all personnel. On the other hand, nondirective publications provide information, background, and general guidance on various topics without imposing specific requirements. These publications are informative and serve as a resource for personnel to enhance their knowledge and understanding. Therefore, the correct answer is "Directive and nondirective."

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  • 18. 

    How should file folders containing classified materials be marked?

    • File folders should always be marked Secret.

    • With the highest classification of any document kept in the folder.

    • File folders should not be marked with a security classification.

    • The same classification as the safe or cabinet in which the folder is filed.

    Correct Answer
    A. With the highest classification of any document kept in the folder.
    Explanation
    File folders containing classified materials should be marked with the highest classification of any document kept in the folder. This ensures that individuals handling the folder are aware of the level of sensitivity and confidentiality of the materials inside. By marking the folder with the highest classification, it helps prevent unauthorized access and ensures that proper security measures are taken to protect the information.

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  • 19. 

    Why must the Top Secret register page for any given year must remain active?

    • It must remain active until an inventory inspection is conducted.

    • To determine if an annual audit/inventory has not been performed.

    • To indicate when the Top Secret control officer (TSCO) is reassigned

    • It must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of.

    Correct Answer
    A. It must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Top Secret register page must remain active until each document entered on the register has been disposed of. This is important because the register serves as a record of all the top-secret documents that have been entered into the system. By keeping the register active until each document is disposed of, it ensures that there is a complete and accurate record of all the documents and their status. This helps with accountability and tracking of the documents throughout their lifecycle.

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  • 20. 

    Which documents require destruction records when being destroyed by two authorized people?

    • For official use only (FOUO) documents.

    • Confidential documents.

    • Secret documents.

    • Top Secret documents.

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret documents.
    Explanation
    Top Secret documents require destruction records when being destroyed by two authorized people. This is because Top Secret documents contain highly sensitive information that could pose a significant risk if it falls into the wrong hands. Therefore, a strict protocol is followed to ensure proper destruction and to maintain a record of the process. Destroying these documents with the involvement of two authorized individuals helps to ensure accountability and prevent any unauthorized access or misuse of the information.

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  • 21. 

    What measures are used to uniformly heighten or reduce our defensive posture to defend against computer network attacks?

    • Information operations conditions (INFOCON) measures.

    • Force protection conditions (FPCON) measures.

    • Operations security (OPSEC) measures.

    • Information security measures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Information operations conditions (INFOCON) measures.
    Explanation
    INFOCON measures are used to uniformly heighten or reduce our defensive posture to defend against computer network attacks. These measures involve adjusting the level of information security and defensive measures based on the current threat level. By implementing INFOCON measures, organizations can ensure that appropriate actions are taken to protect their computer networks from attacks.

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  • 22. 

    What facility operator activates the secondary crash alarm circuit?

    • Fire Station.

    • Control tower.

    • Command Post.

    • Base Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Operations
    Explanation
    Base Operations is the facility operator that activates the secondary crash alarm circuit. This suggests that Base Operations is responsible for monitoring and responding to any secondary crashes that may occur. The other options, such as Fire Station, Control Tower, and Command Post, are not mentioned as being responsible for activating the secondary crash alarm circuit.

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  • 23. 

    What action must you take when you receive an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication?

    • Go to the next authentication table.

    • Terminate communications.

    • State, "standby."

    • Re-challenge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Re-challenge.
    Explanation
    When you receive an incorrect response during a challenge and reply authentication, the correct action to take is to re-challenge. This means that you should repeat the authentication process by posing the challenge again to the person or system being authenticated. Re-challenging allows for another attempt to verify the identity and ensure the security of the communication.

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  • 24. 

    What type of controlled unclassified information contains facts about our intentions, capabilities, and activities?

    • Critical Information (CI)

    • Special Category (SPECAT)

    • Limited distribution (LIMDIS)

    • Encrypt for transmission only (EFTO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical Information (CI)
    Explanation
    Critical Information (CI) is the correct answer because it refers to controlled unclassified information that contains facts about our intentions, capabilities, and activities. CI is a category used to protect sensitive information that could potentially harm national security if disclosed. It includes information related to military operations, plans, and strategies, as well as intelligence activities. By classifying this information as CI, it ensures that only authorized individuals have access to it and prevents potential adversaries from gaining valuable insights into our intentions, capabilities, and activities.

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  • 25. 

    Which form is used to record daily security checks?

    • Standard Form 701

    • Standard Form 702

    • Air Force Form 310

    • Air Force Form 145

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form 701
    Explanation
    Standard Form 701 is used to record daily security checks.

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  • 26. 

    Which security incident is used to describe when classified information has been disclosed to a person not authorized access to the information?

    • Possible compromise.

    • Inadvertent access.

    • Security Deviation.

    • Compromise.

    Correct Answer
    A. Compromise.
    Explanation
    The term "compromise" is commonly used in the field of cybersecurity to describe a security incident where classified information is disclosed to an unauthorized person. It refers to a breach or violation of security measures that results in the unauthorized access or exposure of sensitive data. In this context, compromise accurately describes the situation where classified information is accessed by someone who does not have the necessary authorization.

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  • 27. 

    What classified material, if any, always requires a hand receipt for an in-person transfer?

    • Top Secret.

    • Secret.

    • Confidential

    • For official use only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret.
    Explanation
    Top Secret classified material always requires a hand receipt for an in-person transfer. This is because Top Secret information is the highest level of classified material, and its transfer must be carefully documented and tracked to ensure accountability and prevent unauthorized access. Hand receipts provide a record of who has custody of the material, making it easier to trace any discrepancies or security breaches.

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  • 28. 

    Which entry control technique is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control?

    • Entry authority list (EAL).

    • Personal recognition.

    • Single badge procedure.

    • Exchange badge procedure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal recognition.
    Explanation
    Personal recognition is especially valuable where relatively small numbers of persons are under control because it allows for individual identification and verification. In situations where there are only a few people to monitor, it is easier for security personnel to personally recognize and identify individuals, ensuring that only authorized persons are granted access. This technique may be more efficient and practical compared to using entry authority lists or badge procedures, which may be more suitable for larger groups or organizations.

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  • 29. 

    What is the highest procedence in the telephone priority system?

    • Flash.

    • Priority.

    • Immediate.

    • Routine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flash.
    Explanation
    In the telephone priority system, the highest precedence is given to Flash calls. Flash calls are emergency calls that require immediate attention and are typically used in situations where there is a threat to life or property. These calls take precedence over all other types of calls, including Priority, Immediate, and Routine calls.

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  • 30. 

    Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly written test?

    • Three

    • Four

    • Five

    • Six

    Correct Answer
    A. Five
    Explanation
    After failing a monthly written test, you are retested within five duty days. This means that you will have another opportunity to take the test and pass within five working days.

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  • 31. 

    What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses (CDC) provide?

    • Job knowledge

    • Job proficiency

    • Job experience

    • Certification

    Correct Answer
    A. Job knowledge
    Explanation
    Career development courses (CDC) provide on-the-job training (OJT) in the form of job knowledge. This means that these courses aim to enhance the knowledge and understanding of individuals in their respective fields or industries. Through CDC, individuals can gain a deeper understanding of the theoretical concepts, principles, and best practices related to their job roles. This knowledge can then be applied in practical situations to improve job performance and contribute to overall career development.

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  • 32. 

    Which type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force?

    • Operating Instructions

    • Nondirective

    • Departmental

    • Directive

    Correct Answer
    A. Directive
    Explanation
    Directive publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force. Directive publications provide specific instructions and guidance that must be followed, ensuring compliance with regulations and promoting consistency within the organization. These publications outline the policies, procedures, and actions that individuals and units are required to adhere to, helping to maintain order, efficiency, and effectiveness in the Air Force operations.

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  • 33. 

    During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications are limited. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist does not exceed

    • Five per controller

    • Six per controller

    • Eight per controller

    • Ten per controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Ten per controller
    Explanation
    During quick reaction checklist construction, there is a limit on the number of telephone notifications that can be made. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist is ten per controller. This means that the controller can make up to ten phone calls to notify others during the checklist construction process.

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  • 34. 

    What system uses a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security?

    • KL-43

    • VINSON (KY-57)

    • Secure terminal equipment (STE).

    • Secure telephone unit III (STU-III).

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure terminal equipment (STE).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Secure terminal equipment (STE). STE is a system that utilizes a FORTEZZA plus card to provide security. The FORTEZZA plus card is a cryptographic device that is used for secure communication and data protection. It is specifically designed for use in secure terminal equipment, which includes devices such as secure telephones and secure fax machines. By using the FORTEZZA plus card, the STE system ensures that the communication and data exchanged are protected from unauthorized access and interception.

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  • 35. 

    In radio communications, which proword would you use tell some to "proceed with your message"?

    • GO.

    • OVER.

    • PROCEED.

    • GO AHEAD.

    Correct Answer
    A. GO AHEAD.
    Explanation
    In radio communications, the proword "GO AHEAD" is used to tell someone to proceed with their message. This term indicates that the person can continue speaking and that the channel is clear for them to transmit their message.

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  • 36. 

    If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is

    • Obsolete

    • Revised

    • Required

    • Not required

    Correct Answer
    A. Not required
    Explanation
    If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, it means that these checklists already provide all the necessary instructions for performing a specific action. Therefore, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is not required because the QRC already includes all the necessary information.

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  • 37. 

    What program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives?

    • Field training program.

    • Self-inspection program.

    • Upgrade training program.

    • Certification and training program.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-inspection program.
    Explanation
    A self-inspection program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives. This program involves regularly assessing and evaluating the organization's processes, procedures, and practices to identify any deficiencies or areas for improvement. By conducting self-inspections, the organization can proactively address any issues and ensure compliance with the governing directives. This program helps maintain and enhance the efficiency, effectiveness, and integrity of the organization's operations.

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  • 38. 

    What classified information's unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?

    • Top Secret.

    • Secret.

    • Confidential.

    • For official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Secret.
    Explanation
    The unauthorized disclosure of Secret classified information could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. Secret information is considered to be of higher sensitivity than Confidential or For Official Use Only (FOUO) information, and its unauthorized disclosure could potentially compromise national security interests. While Top Secret information is generally considered to be the highest level of classification, the question specifically asks for information that could cause serious damage, which is more likely to be associated with Secret information.

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  • 39. 

    What facility operator activates the primary crash alarm circuit?

    • Fire station.

    • Control tower.

    • Command post.

    • Base operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Control tower.
    Explanation
    The control tower is responsible for activating the primary crash alarm circuit. This makes sense as the control tower is the central hub for monitoring and managing all activities within an airport or airfield. In the event of a crash, the control tower needs to be immediately notified so that appropriate emergency response can be initiated. Therefore, it is the control tower's responsibility to activate the primary crash alarm circuit to alert relevant personnel and emergency services.

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  • 40. 

    Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective?

    • Training noncommissioned officer

    • A certified controller

    • Chief of the command post

    • The trainee's shift supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. A certified controller
    Explanation
    A certified controller must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training and evaluate feedback to ensure training remains effective. This individual has the necessary certification and expertise to provide the required training and assess its effectiveness. They are responsible for ensuring that all trainees receive the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively.

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  • 41. 

    What are the categories of classified information?

    • Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.

    • Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and Unclassified.

    • Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, and sensitive but unclassified (SBU

    • Top Secret, Secret, Confidential, special category (SPECAT), and for official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.
    Explanation
    The categories of classified information are Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential. These categories are used to designate the level of sensitivity and importance of the information. Top Secret is the highest level, followed by Secret, and then Confidential. Each category has specific criteria and protocols for handling and protecting the information to ensure national security and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 42. 

    What type of radio system is used as a backup for communication with higher headquarters?

    • Intrabase radios.

    • High-frequency (HF) radios.

    • Frequency modulation (FM) radios.

    • Ultrahigh/very high frequency (UHF/VHF) radios.

    Correct Answer
    A. High-frequency (HF) radios.
    Explanation
    High-frequency (HF) radios are used as a backup for communication with higher headquarters. HF radios operate in the high-frequency range of the electromagnetic spectrum, allowing for long-range communication over large distances. They are particularly useful in situations where other forms of communication may be unreliable or unavailable, such as in remote or austere environments. By using HF radios as a backup, military personnel can ensure that they have a reliable means of communication with higher headquarters even in challenging or adverse conditions.

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  • 43. 

    What are the three categories of recurring training?

    • Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training

    • Formal training, self-study training, and certification training

    • Self-study training, proficiency, and initial training.

    • Formal training, initial training, and evaluation training

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training
    Explanation
    The three categories of recurring training are formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training. Formal training refers to structured training programs conducted by an instructor or trainer. Self-study training involves individuals independently learning and acquiring knowledge through reading, online courses, or other resources. Proficiency training focuses on practicing and maintaining skills to ensure competency in a particular area. Certification training, initial training, and evaluation training are not mentioned as categories of recurring training in the given options.

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  • 44. 

    What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to certified personnel?

    • April and October.

    • June and December

    • February and August

    • March and September

    Correct Answer
    A. March and September
    Explanation
    Semiannual performance evaluations for certified personnel will be administered in the months of March and September.

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  • 45. 

    Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level?

    • Training manager

    • Director of operations

    • MAJCOM commander

    • MAJCOM career field manager

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM commander
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM commander is responsible for certifying controllers at the major command level. As the highest-ranking officer in the MAJCOM, they have the authority and expertise to ensure that controllers meet the necessary standards and qualifications for their roles. They oversee the certification process and make the final decision on whether an individual is qualified to serve as a controller at the MAJCOM level. The MAJCOM commander's certification is crucial in maintaining the effectiveness and safety of air traffic control operations within the command.

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  • 46. 

    Which security incident best describes an incident that involves the misuse or improper handling of classified material but does not fall in the category of a violation?

    • Compromise.

    • Security Infraction.

    • Probable Compromise.

    • Possible Compromise.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Infraction.
    Explanation
    A security infraction refers to the misuse or improper handling of classified material, which does not necessarily result in a violation. It implies that there has been a breach or failure to comply with security protocols or procedures, but it may not have reached the level of a full-fledged compromise where unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information has occurred. In other words, a security infraction represents a less severe incident compared to a compromise, probable compromise, or possible compromise.

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  • 47. 

    Which type of communications security (COMSEC) incident has occured if an individual who has access to COMSEC information defects?

    • Physical.

    • Personnel.

    • Cryptographic.

    • Two-person integrity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel.
    Explanation
    A COMSEC incident occurs when an individual who has access to COMSEC information defects. This means that the person with authorized access to sensitive communication security information has chosen to leave or betray their responsibilities. This type of incident is categorized as a personnel issue because it involves the actions or behavior of an individual rather than a physical breach or a cryptographic failure.

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  • 48. 

    Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect an initial training evaluation?

    • 40

    • 50

    • 60

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    Upon arrival at a new duty station, it is expected that an initial training evaluation will be conducted within 60 calendar days. This evaluation is likely to assess the individual's skills, knowledge, and abilities in order to determine their training needs and develop a suitable training plan.

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  • 49. 

    What official information does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons?

    • Confidential information.

    • Cryptographic information.

    • Controlled unclassified information.

    • Secret information not requiring a receipt.

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled unclassified information.
    Explanation
    Controlled unclassified information refers to official information that does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons. This means that while the information may not be classified as confidential or secret, there are still restrictions on its disclosure for other purposes, such as privacy concerns or the protection of sensitive business or government information.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 05, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Leehalo33
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