CDC 2S051 Volume 1 Multiple Choice Quiz

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  • 1/43 Questions

    (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for

    • Providing support to maintenance activities.
    • Researching and identifying materiel requirements.
    • Performing materiel management systems control functions.
    • Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This CDC 2S051 Volume 1 Multiple Choice Quiz assesses knowledge crucial for Air Force materiel management specialists, covering logistics, system management, and supply responsibilities. It prepares candidates for roles in Air Force logistics, emphasizing decision-making and resource management.

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  • 2. 

    (002) To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service?

    • 9

    • 11

    • 13

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than 15 years time-in-service. This means that individuals who have served in the Air Force for 15 years or more are not eligible for the program.

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  • 3. 

    (003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

    • Effect One: Enterprise view

    • Effect Two: Integrated processess

    • Effect Three: Optimized resources

    • Effect Four: Integrated technology

    Correct Answer
    A. Effect One: Enterprise view
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Effect One: Enterprise view. This effect ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. It emphasizes the importance of taking a holistic approach to logistics, considering the needs and priorities of the entire organization rather than just individual units or departments. By adopting an enterprise view, the Air Force can better coordinate and align its logistics efforts, leading to more efficient and effective operations.

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  • 4. 

    (003) In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?

    • Financial

    • Acquisition

    • Technology

    • Infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. Technology
    Explanation
    In the context of supporting the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, the resources mentioned are financial, acquisition, and infrastructure. These resources are essential for the successful implementation of eLog21. However, technology is not considered a resource in this case. This suggests that technology is already integrated into the eLog21 processes and is not treated as a separate resource but rather as an inherent part of the overall system.

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  • 5. 

    (004) What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    • General Services Administration (GSA).

    • Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) is responsible for the cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system. This means that they oversee the entire lifecycle of the weapon system, from its initial development and acquisition to its maintenance, sustainment, and eventual disposal. The AFMC ensures that the weapon systems are properly managed and supported throughout their lifespan, including any necessary repairs, upgrades, or replacements. They work closely with other organizations and agencies to ensure the efficient and effective management of Air Force weapon systems.

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  • 6. 

    (004) Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all of the military services and some of the civilian agencies?

    • Local manufacturers.

    • Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • General Services Administration (GSA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) is the correct answer because it is the source of supply that manages and purchases common consumable items used by all of the military services and some civilian agencies. The DLA is responsible for providing logistics support to the Department of Defense and other federal agencies, including procurement, storage, and distribution of a wide range of consumable items such as food, fuel, clothing, medical supplies, and more. The other options, local manufacturers, Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC), and General Services Administration (GSA), do not have the same scope or responsibility as the DLA in managing and purchasing common consumable items for multiple military services and civilian agencies.

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  • 7. 

    (005) Which class of supply includes weapons?

    • II.

    • IV.

    • VI.

    • VIII.

    Correct Answer
    A. II.
    Explanation
    Class II includes weapons.

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  • 8. 

    (005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

    • III.

    • V.

    • VII.

    • IX.

    Correct Answer
    A. V.
    Explanation
    Class V consists of ammunition.

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  • 9. 

    (006) What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks?

    • Readiness.

    • Traffic management.

    • Materiel management.

    • Management and systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Readiness.
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight that provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks is the Readiness flight. This flight is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and prepared for deployment, including managing deployment exercises, coordinating transportation and logistics support, and providing training on deployment procedures and tasks.

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  • 10. 

    (006) Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance?

    • Management and systems.

    • Command section.

    • Mission readiness.

    • Sustainment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Management and systems.
    Explanation
    The division responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance is Management and Systems. This division is in charge of overseeing and managing all aspects of the supply chain, including the use of information systems, developing and implementing procedures, managing stock funds, planning for contingencies, analyzing operations, and maintaining records. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient functioning of the supply chain and overall logistics operations.

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  • 11. 

    (007) Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Standard Base Supply Systems (SBSS)?

    • Administration.

    • Item accounting.

    • File maintenance.

    • Accounting and finance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administration.
    Explanation
    The question asks which process is not one of the four major processes in the Standard Base Supply Systems (SBSS). The four options given are Administration, Item accounting, File maintenance, and Accounting and finance. The correct answer is Administration. This means that Administration is not one of the four major processes in SBSS.

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  • 12. 

    (007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

    • Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG).

    • Miscellaneous file maintenance.

    • Follow-up.

    • Status.

    Correct Answer
    A. Miscellaneous file maintenance.
    Explanation
    Miscellaneous file maintenance is the correct answer because this process involves updating various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. This process ensures that all necessary information is accurate and up to date in the system, allowing for smooth operations and effective decision-making.

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  • 13. 

    (007) How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system?

    • Five.

    • Six.

    • Seven.

    • Eight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Five.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Five" because the question asks for the number of different types of reports that can be processed through the materiel management computer system. Since the answer options provide a range of numbers, we can conclude that there are five different types of reports that can be processed through the system.

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  • 14. 

    (008) What Air Force manual governs the US Air Force materiel management system?

    • 23-11.

    • 23-110.

    • 32-10.

    • 32-111.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-110.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-110. This Air Force manual governs the US Air Force materiel management system.

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  • 15. 

    (008) How often is AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual published?

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released every three months. The manual provides guidance and instructions for supply management within the United States Air Force. By publishing it on a quarterly basis, the Air Force ensures that the information within the manual is up to date and reflects any changes or updates in supply procedures. This regular publication schedule allows for timely dissemination of information to personnel involved in supply operations.

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  • 16. 

    (008) What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

    • Part.

    • Section.

    • Volume.

    • Paragraph.

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume.
    Explanation
    The largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is the Volume. A volume typically contains multiple sections and parts, and it is used to organize and categorize the content of the manual. Each volume focuses on a specific area or aspect of the supply manual, providing detailed information and guidelines related to that particular subject. Therefore, in this context, volume is the correct answer as it represents the highest level of subdivision within the manual.

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  • 17. 

     (008) How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

    • Toolbars.

    • Blue text.

    • Dark red text.

    • Solid black line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue text.
    Explanation
    In AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, hyperlinks are identified by blue text.

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  • 18. 

    (008) How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

    • 0223.

    • 02023.

    • 020203.

    • 0202030.

    Correct Answer
    A. 020203.
    Explanation
    In a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 would be identified as 020203.

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  • 19. 

    (009) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

    • C.

    • D.

    • F.

    • R.

    Correct Answer
    A. R.
    Explanation
    The releveling flag "R" is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is requesting information related to releveling, which is the process of adjusting stock levels to meet specific requirements. By using this flag, the system will provide a summary of the stock number's releveling information, such as current stock levels, demand forecasts, and any adjustments that may be needed to maintain optimal stock levels.

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  • 20. 

    (010) Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as

    • One month.

    • Three months.

    • Six months.

    • One year or more.

    Correct Answer
    A. One year or more.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one year or more. This means that users can access the consolidated transaction history (CTH) records from the materiel management computer system for a period of at least one year or longer. This allows users to retrieve and view transaction data that occurred within this extended timeframe, providing them with a comprehensive and extensive record of past transactions.

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  • 21. 

    (010) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type of inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?

    • Stock number.

    • Transaction serial number.

    • Batch miscellaneous option.

    • Batch transaction date and serial number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stock number.
    Explanation
    Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, the type of inquiry that allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date is the stock number. This means that you can search for specific records by entering the stock number and the transaction date, which helps in retrieving the desired information efficiently.

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  • 22. 

    (010) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?

    • Abbreviated format (Option A).

    • Short format (Option B).

    • Short format (Option S).

    • Long format (Option L).

    Correct Answer
    A. Abbreviated format (Option A).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Abbreviated format (Option A). The consolidated transaction history (CTH) system allows users to view a summary of transaction histories. The abbreviated format displays a condensed version of these histories on the user's terminal screen or in print. This format provides a concise overview of the transactions, making it easier for users to quickly review and analyze the information.

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  • 23. 

    (011) The TRACE inquiry determines what a specified

    • Transaction was doing at the time the system error occurred.

    • Transaction was doing when the TRACE input was processed.

    • Stock number was doing when the TRACE input was processed.

    • Stock number was doing at the time the specified error occurred.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transaction was doing at the time the system error occurred.
    Explanation
    The TRACE inquiry is used to determine the actions of a specific transaction at the time when a system error occurred. It helps to identify what the transaction was doing and what led to the error. This information is crucial for troubleshooting and resolving the issue effectively.

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  • 24. 

    (011) The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the

    • Calc Key.

    • Area Key.

    • Trace Key.

    • Record Key.

    Correct Answer
    A. Area Key.
    Explanation
    In a TRACE inquiry, the database key consists of the area name and the Area Key. The area name helps identify the specific area or section of the database being accessed, while the Area Key provides a unique identifier for the records within that area. This combination allows for efficient and accurate retrieval of data from the database.

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  • 25. 

    (012) Within how many workdays should all Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects normally be processed?

    • Seven.

    • Five.

    • Three.

    • One.

    Correct Answer
    A. One.
    Explanation
    All Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects should normally be processed within one workday. This means that any rejected items in the SBSS should be addressed and resolved within a 24-hour period. This ensures that any issues or discrepancies with the supply system are quickly identified and corrected, allowing for a smooth and efficient supply chain process.

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  • 26. 

    (012) Which term indicates that any update the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone?

    • Rollback (RB) code.

    • Error function.

    • RB function.

    • Error code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rollback (RB) code.
    Explanation
    The term "Rollback (RB) code" indicates that any update the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone. This means that any changes or modifications made to the system will be reversed or rolled back to its previous state. The RB code ensures that the system can revert back to a previous version if needed.

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  • 27. 

    (013) Who reviews part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security Violation List?

    • Management and systems officer.

    • Computer operations supervisor.

    • Individual flight chief.

    • Accountable officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Management and systems officer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Management and systems officer. This individual is responsible for reviewing part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security Violation List. They are in charge of overseeing the management and systems of the organization, which includes ensuring security protocols are followed and any violations are addressed. The computer operations supervisor may be responsible for other aspects of computer operations, but not specifically reviewing this report. The individual flight chief and accountable officer may have other duties, but not specifically reviewing this report.

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  • 28. 

    (014) Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or

    • A flight request.

    • A job order number.

    • A cumulative reject.

    • An approved supplement.

    Correct Answer
    A. An approved supplement.
    Explanation
    The production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by an approved supplement. This means that in order to schedule the production of these reports and listings, there must be a specific supplement that has been approved. This supplement could provide the necessary instructions, guidelines, or requirements for the production scheduling process. Without an approved supplement, the production scheduling cannot be supported.

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  • 29. 

    (014) Which functional area is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings?

    • Flight line services.

    • Computer operations.

    • Procedures and analysis.

    • Management and systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer operations.
    Explanation
    Computer operations is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings. This functional area handles the processing and management of data, ensuring that information is captured correctly and presented accurately in reports and listings. They are responsible for maintaining the integrity of the data and ensuring that it is reliable for decision-making purposes.

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  • 30. 

    (015) Who establishes a supply management activity group?

    • Office of Management and Budget (OMB).

    • Secretary of the Air Force.

    • Secretary of Defense.

    • Congress

    Correct Answer
    A. Congress
    Explanation
    Congress establishes a supply management activity group. The supply management activity group is responsible for overseeing and managing the supply chain and logistics operations within an organization. This group ensures that the organization has the necessary resources and materials to carry out its operations effectively. Congress, as the legislative body, has the authority to establish and allocate resources for various government activities, including supply management.

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  • 31. 

    (015) The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?

    • Four.

    • Five.

    • Six.

    • Seven.

    Correct Answer
    A. Six.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is six. This suggests that the Air Force supply management activity group is divided into six divisions.

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  • 32. 

    (016) How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit?

    • As required.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Scheduling a surveillance visit annually means conducting the visit once a year. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the situation or activity being surveilled. Quarterly would mean every three months, which might be too frequent for some situations. Semiannually would mean every six months, which could be suitable for certain cases but might not provide enough time for significant changes to occur. "As required" is a vague response and does not provide a specific timeframe for scheduling surveillance visits.

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  • 33. 

    (017) When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transactions as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations Sustainment Systems Group?

    • AF Form 1810.

    • AF Form 1815.

    • AF Form 1820.

    • AF Form 1825.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1815.
    Explanation
    When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transactions as it should, the form used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations Sustainment Systems Group is AF Form 1815.

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  • 34. 

    (018) Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the materiel management analysis element?

    • Branch chief.

    • Training personnel.

    • Analysis supervisor.

    • Accountable officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountable officer.
    Explanation
    The accountable officer is responsible for determining the priority of projects to be performed by the materiel management analysis element. This individual is in charge of overseeing the overall management and accountability of resources, including the allocation of projects based on their importance and urgency. The branch chief, training personnel, and analysis supervisor may play a role in the decision-making process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the accountable officer.

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  • 35. 

    (019) What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office?

    • Four.

    • Five.

    • Six.

    • Seven.

    Correct Answer
    A. Six.
    Explanation
    The transaction exception "Six" is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office.

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  • 36. 

    (020) How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property?

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Document control performs a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property semiannually. This means that the revalidation process is conducted twice a year. This frequency ensures that the authorized individuals are regularly reviewed and their authorization is up to date. It allows for proper control and accountability of classified property within the organization.

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  • 37. 

    (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

    • Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU.

    • Source documents with file indicator D.

    • TRIC FCU.

    • TRIC FIC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Source documents with file indicator D.
    Explanation
    Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file. This means that these documents are not stored for long-term reference or record-keeping purposes. The other options, Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU, and TRIC FCU, do not provide any information about whether they are placed in a permanent document file or not. Therefore, the correct answer is Source documents with file indicator D.

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  • 38. 

    (021) What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?

    • Daily Transaction (D06).

    • Daily Document Control (D04).

    • Consolidated Transaction (M19).

    • Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).

    Correct Answer
    A. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Consolidated Transaction (M19). This register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes. It helps in tracking and managing the movement of materials within an organization.

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  • 39. 

    (022) All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail?

    • Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares.

    • Special purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM).

    • Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC).

    • Shipment inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC). This type of detail is produced for all shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron. It refers to items that are in transit or have been shipped but have not yet been credited to the receiving unit. This allows for tracking and accountability of these items until they are properly credited.

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  • 40. 

    (022) What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?

    • R04.

    • R23.

    • R40.

    • R43.

    Correct Answer
    A. R40.
    Explanation
    The listing used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details is R40.

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  • 41. 

    (023) Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action?

    • An organization refusal when the wrong property was issued and signed for, and later returned to base supply.

    • A funding error in which the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater.

    • A registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail.

    • A budget code 9 item processed in the previous year.

    Correct Answer
    A. A funding error in which the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater.
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that a transaction is authorized for reverse-post action when there is a funding error and the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater. This means that if there is a significant discrepancy in the price of an item compared to the original budgeted amount, the transaction can be reversed and corrected.

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  • 42. 

    (023) What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction?

    • 1AM.

    • 1CC.

    • 1TK.

    • 1WC.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1AM.
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction is 1AM.

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  • 43. 

    What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?

    • Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code.

    • Transaction serial number, quantity, and date.

    • Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date.

    • Quantity, TTPC, and date.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date.
    Explanation
    To make an automated reverse-post input, the following information is required: transaction serial number, TTPC (type transaction phrase code), and date. The transaction serial number is necessary to identify the specific transaction that needs to be reversed. The TTPC is needed to determine the type of transaction being reversed. Lastly, the date is important to ensure that the reverse-post input is applied to the correct date.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 16, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Diezeitgeist

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