CDC 2s071 Materiel Management Craftsman Volume 2. Customer Support And Readiness (Edit Code 08)

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CDC 2s071 Materiel Management Craftsman Volume 2. Customer Support And Readiness (Edit Code 08) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the request was first demand for the item?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. This suggests that the MICAP cause code A indicates that the request for the item was the first demand.

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  • 2. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates past recurring demand or reparable generation experience, but air Force (AF) stockage policy precluded establishment of a demand-based stock level?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    Cause code B indicates that there has been past recurring demand or reparable generation experience, but the air Force stockage policy did not allow for the establishment of a demand-based stock level. This means that although there has been a history of needing the item or repair, the policy in place prevented the stock level from being adjusted accordingly.

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  • 3. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates base decision not to stock an item?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    D. D
    Explanation
    MICAP cause code D indicates that the base has made a decision not to stock an item. This means that the base has determined that they do not need to keep this item in stock for their operations.

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  • 4. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      G

    • C.

      H

    • D.

      J

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    MICAP cause code F indicates that the depth of stock was insufficient to meet MICAP/due-out requirements.

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  • 5. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates the number of recoverable items in need of repair is equal to or greater than the authorized stock level?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      G

    • C.

      H

    • D.

      J

    Correct Answer
    B. G
    Explanation
    The correct answer is G. This cause code indicates that the number of recoverable items in need of repair is equal to or greater than the authorized stock level. This means that there are enough items in need of repair to meet the authorized stock level, indicating a high demand for repairs.

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  • 6. 

    What mission capable (MICAP) cause code indicates stock replenishment of requisition exceeds priority group Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) standards?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      G

    • C.

      H

    • D.

      J

    Correct Answer
    C. H
    Explanation
    Cause code H indicates that stock replenishment of requisition exceeds priority group UMMIPS standards.

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  • 7. 

    What product expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts and materiel within a specific time period and reduces the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment?

    • A.

      Time compliance technical orders (TCTO)

    • B.

      Inspection offline checklist (R32)

    • C.

      Functional check listing

    • D.

      Shelf life Listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Time compliance technical orders (TCTO)
    Explanation
    Time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are the correct answer because they are specifically designed to expedite retrofit changes to end items, parts, and materiel within a specific time period. TCTOs ensure that necessary modifications or updates are made to systems or equipment, reducing the probability of accidents and increasing reliability. TCTOs are an essential tool for maintaining the safety and functionality of military equipment and systems.

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  • 8. 

    Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?

    • A.

      Receiving

    • B.

      Inspectors

    • C.

      War readiness

    • D.

      Procedures and analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspectors
    Explanation
    Inspectors are the materiel management personnel who identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO). They are responsible for inspecting the items in stock and ensuring that they meet the necessary technical requirements outlined in the TO. This includes verifying the quality and condition of the items, as well as ensuring that they are properly stored and accounted for. Inspectors play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and compliance of the stock and ensuring that all items are ready for use when needed.

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  • 9. 

    What MICAP cause code indicates less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed UMMIPS time standards by priority groups, and awaiting parts (AWP) assets are on order at time of MICAP?

    • A.

      X

    • B.

      T

    • C.

      S

    • D.

      R

    Correct Answer
    B. T
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T. The T MICAP cause code indicates that there is less-than-full base stock, stock replenishment does not exceed UMMIPS time standards by priority groups, and awaiting parts (AWP) assets are on order at the time of MICAP. This means that there is a shortage of stock, but the stock replenishment is still within the acceptable time standards based on priority groups. Additionally, there are parts that have been ordered and are currently awaiting delivery to fulfill the MICAP.

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  • 10. 

    What MICAP delete code indicates an item was received from an Air Logistics Complex (ALC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    MICAP delete code 1 indicates that an item was received from an Air Logistics Complex (ALC).

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  • 11. 

    What MICAP delete code indicates an item received from Defense Logistics Agency (DLA/other services?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
  • 12. 

    What MICAP delete code indicates cannibalization has been used to preclude MICAP occurence?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    MICAP stands for "Mission Capable." In military terms, it refers to the ability of an aircraft or equipment to perform its intended mission. The MICAP delete code is used to indicate that cannibalization has been used to prevent a MICAP occurrence. Cannibalization is the practice of removing parts or components from one aircraft or equipment to be used in another to maintain mission capability. Therefore, the correct answer, 4, suggests that the MICAP delete code 4 indicates cannibalization has been used to prevent a MICAP occurrence.

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  • 13. 

    What MICAP delete code indicates request reported in error?

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      9

    Correct Answer
    D. 9
    Explanation
    The MICAP delete code "9" indicates that the request was reported in error. This means that the original request made for a Material in the Customer Asset Visibility (CAV) program was a mistake or was wrongly reported, and therefore needs to be deleted or removed from the system.

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  • 14. 

    What Transaction identification code (TRIC) notification is used to notify the IMDS of a change in the due-out status of an item?

    • A.

      DUO

    • B.

      DFM

    • C.

      ISU

    • D.

      1SH

    Correct Answer
    D. 1SH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1SH. This Transaction identification code (TRIC) notification is used to notify the IMDS of a change in the due-out status of an item.

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  • 15. 

    What due-out status code on the TRIC 1SH describes a cancellation?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The due-out status code 1 on the TRIC 1SH describes a cancellation.

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  • 16. 

    What due-out status code on the TRIC 1SH describes a release due-out release (DOR)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The given question is asking about the due-out status code on the TRIC 1SH that describes a release due-out release (DOR). The correct answer is 2. This means that the due-out status code 2 on TRIC 1SH represents a release due-out release.

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  • 17. 

    What listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation?

    • A.

      Q04

    • B.

      D19

    • C.

      D20

    • D.

      D23

    Correct Answer
    D. D23
  • 18. 

    What due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail records can be updated by the TRIC "DFM" input?

    • A.

      Memo and credit

    • B.

      Firm and credit

    • C.

      Firm and memo

    • D.

      Credit only

    Correct Answer
    C. Firm and memo
    Explanation
    The TRIC "DFM" input can be used to update the Firm and memo DIFM detail records. This means that when the DIFM detail records are updated using the "DFM" input, both the firm and memo fields can be modified. The other options, such as memo and credit, firm and credit, and credit only, do not allow for the update of both the firm and memo fields.

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  • 19. 

    Failure to process TRN data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete buy, repair, and distribution decisions from

    • A.

      HQ AFMC

    • B.

      CASO

    • C.

      GSA

    • D.

      DLA

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ AFMC
    Explanation
    Failure to process TRN data in a correct and timely manner can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete buy, repair, and distribution decisions from HQ AFMC. HQ AFMC is responsible for overseeing and managing the Air Force Materiel Command's operations, including procurement, maintenance, and distribution. If TRN data is not processed correctly and on time, it can hinder the ability of HQ AFMC to make informed decisions regarding stock levels and distribution, which can have negative impacts on the overall functioning of the command.

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  • 20. 

    What action is provided by maintenance to the FSC to update records on equipment failure, removal, and repair?

    • A.

      Calibration

    • B.

      Turnaround

    • C.

      Repair cycle

    • D.

      Cannibalization

    Correct Answer
    B. Turnaround
    Explanation
    Maintenance provides the action of "turnaround" to the FSC to update records on equipment failure, removal, and repair. Turnaround refers to the process of taking equipment out of service, conducting necessary repairs or maintenance, and then returning it to service. This action allows for accurate and up-to-date records to be maintained regarding equipment failures, removals, and repairs.

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  • 21. 

    Unserviceable assets are stored in the LRS warehouse until when?

    • A.

      Receipt of AF form 1348-1A

    • B.

      Receipt of disposition instructions

    • C.

      Receipt of AFTO form 350

    • D.

      Unserviceable assets are never stored in the LRS warehouse

    Correct Answer
    B. Receipt of disposition instructions
    Explanation
    Unserviceable assets are stored in the LRS warehouse until they receive disposition instructions. This means that once the assets are deemed unserviceable and cannot be used anymore, they are stored in the warehouse until further instructions are received on how to dispose of them. This ensures that the assets are properly managed and accounted for until a decision is made on their final disposition.

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  • 22. 

    When monitoring AWP end items, personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the UJC

    • A.

      "AB" only

    • B.

      "AR" only

    • C.

      "AA" or "AB"

    • D.

      "AR" or "BR"

    Correct Answer
    D. "AR" or "BR"
    Explanation
    Personnel at bases submit requests for repair parts on a fill or back-order basis using the UJC. The correct answer is "AR" or "BR" because both options are valid for submitting requests for repair parts.

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  • 23. 

    What DIFM status code is assigned as a result of awaiting parts processing when the last AWP due out is released or canceled?

    • A.

      02P

    • B.

      03P

    • C.

      AWP

    • D.

      FWP

    Correct Answer
    D. FWP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FWP. The FWP status code is assigned as a result of awaiting parts processing when the last AWP (Awaiting Parts) due out is released or canceled. This status indicates that the parts required for the task are not available and the maintenance action cannot be completed until the parts are received.

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  • 24. 

    Who forwards a copy of all time compliance TCTO publications with a cover letter to the inspection function?

    • A.

      TCTO manager

    • B.

      QA section

    • C.

      Maintenance quality control

    • D.

      AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance quality control
    Explanation
    Maintenance quality control forwards a copy of all time compliance TCTO publications with a cover letter to the inspection function. This suggests that it is the responsibility of the maintenance quality control department to ensure that all TCTO publications are properly distributed to the inspection function.

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  • 25. 

    How often are on-the-shelf time compliance TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Semiannually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    On-the-shelf time compliance TCTO items are inspected monthly to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished. This regular inspection schedule allows for timely identification and resolution of any non-compliance issues, ensuring that the TCTO items are being properly maintained and adhered to. Inspecting these items on a monthly basis helps to minimize any potential risks or delays in completing the required compliance tasks.

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  • 26. 

    What is used to control shelf life items in the TCTO kits?

    • A.

      D043B system

    • B.

      Kit stock numbers

    • C.

      TCTO publications

    • D.

      TCTO kit jacket file

    Correct Answer
    B. Kit stock numbers
    Explanation
    Kit stock numbers are used to control shelf life items in the TCTO kits. These numbers help in tracking and managing the inventory of the kits, ensuring that items with limited shelf life are replaced or replenished as needed. By using kit stock numbers, the organization can effectively monitor and control the shelf life items, ensuring that they are in compliance with regulations and are available when needed.

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  • 27. 

    What are additional warehouses called if they are located within the activities they are supporting?

    • A.

      Supply Points

    • B.

      Warehouse

    • C.

      Storage

    • D.

      Vault

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply Points
    Explanation
    Additional warehouses located within the activities they support are called supply points. Supply points are strategically placed warehouses that are situated close to the areas where the goods or materials are needed. This allows for faster and more efficient distribution of the products, reducing transportation costs and improving overall supply chain management. By having supply points within the activities they support, organizations can ensure a steady and timely flow of goods to meet demand.

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  • 28. 

    Who maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply points?

    • A.

      AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance

    • B.

      LRS/Quality Assurance

    • C.

      AFMC SCM-R Stock Control activity

    • D.

      LRS/materiel management activity

    Correct Answer
    D. LRS/materiel management activity
    Explanation
    The LRS/materiel management activity maintains accountability and control of assets in a supply point. This means that they are responsible for keeping track of the assets, ensuring they are properly stored and accounted for, and managing any issues or discrepancies that may arise. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the assets are properly managed and accounted for in the supply chain process.

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  • 29. 

    Which activity and organization code is used when loading a supply point detail document number?

    • A.

      B, 005

    • B.

      B, 100

    • C.

      S, 005

    • D.

      S, 100

    Correct Answer
    C. S, 005
    Explanation
    When loading a supply point detail document number, the activity code "S" is used. This code represents the activity of loading a supply point detail document number. The organization code "005" is also used in this process, which represents the specific organization responsible for handling this task.

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  • 30. 

    What TRIC is processed when the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation?

    • A.

      DOC

    • B.

      DOR

    • C.

      ISU

    • D.

      SPR

    Correct Answer
    C. ISU
    Explanation
    When the on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity after a supply point reconciliation, the TRIC (Transaction Identification Code) that is processed is ISU. This means that an issue transaction is generated to account for the difference between the authorized quantity and the actual on-hand quantity. This helps to ensure accurate inventory management and tracking.

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  • 31. 

    What is the minimum classification for a war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) extract?

    • A.

      Secret

    • B.

      Classified

    • C.

      Confidential

    • D.

      Based on the classification of the line item

    Correct Answer
    A. Secret
    Explanation
    The minimum classification for a war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) extract is Secret. This means that the information contained in the extract is considered highly sensitive and its unauthorized disclosure could cause serious damage to national security. The classification level ensures that only individuals with the appropriate security clearance and need-to-know have access to the information, maintaining its confidentiality and protecting it from potential threats or adversaries.

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  • 32. 

    Who conducts staff assistance visits to subordinate units to assess the health of the war reserve materiel (WRM) program?

    • A.

      MAJCOM

    • B.

      HQ USAF

    • C.

      CWRMO/NCO

    • D.

      AFMC/A4

    Correct Answer
    C. CWRMO/NCO
    Explanation
    The CWRMO/NCO conducts staff assistance visits to subordinate units to assess the health of the war reserve materiel (WRM) program.

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  • 33. 

    What type of WRM equipment is needed to be moved with a unit or is needed for deployment in an emergency or during wartime?

    • A.

      MAJCOM use

    • B.

      Mobility

    • C.

      Joint-use

    • D.

      Flex stocks

    Correct Answer
    B. Mobility
    Explanation
    In order to be able to move with a unit or be deployed in an emergency or during wartime, the type of WRM equipment needed is mobility. This means that the equipment should be easily transportable and able to be quickly set up in different locations as needed. This allows for flexibility and the ability to respond rapidly to changing situations on the battlefield or in emergency situations.

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  • 34. 

    How many sets compromise the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources component subsystems?

    • A.

      9

    • B.

      8

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    D. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. This suggests that there are 6 sets that make up the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources component subsystems.

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  • 35. 

    What BEAR component subsystem set supports 150 personnel in the open-the-base module?

    • A.

      B-150

    • B.

      B-550i

    • C.

      B-550f

    • D.

      B-IO

    Correct Answer
    A. B-150
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-150 because it is the only option that specifically mentions supporting 150 personnel. The other options (B-550i, B-550f, B-IO) do not provide any information about the number of personnel they can support. Therefore, B-150 is the most suitable choice for supporting 150 personnel in the open-the-base module.

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  • 36. 

    What BEAR component subsystem is a stand-alone set that provides a robust camp consisting of billeting, feeding, and hygiene to support 550 personnel?

    • A.

      B-150

    • B.

      B-550i

    • C.

      B-550f

    • D.

      B-IO

    Correct Answer
    B. B-550i
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B-550i. The B-550i is a BEAR component subsystem that provides a robust camp for 550 personnel. It offers billeting, feeding, and hygiene facilities, making it a self-contained and efficient solution for supporting a large number of people in a camp setting.

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  • 37. 

    How many personnel and fighter squadrons will a BEAR IO set support?

    • A.

      3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons

    • B.

      3,300 personnel/5 fighter squadrons

    • C.

      550 personnel/3 fighter squadrons

    • D.

      550 personnel/5 fighter squadrons

    Correct Answer
    A. 3,300 personnel/3 fighter squadrons
    Explanation
    A BEAR IO set will support 3,300 personnel and 3 fighter squadrons. This means that the set is capable of accommodating and providing resources for a large number of personnel and a moderate number of fighter squadrons.

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  • 38. 

    In join doctrinal terms, a force module is capable of sustaining forces for at least

    • A.

      20 days

    • B.

       30 days

    • C.

      60 days

    • D.

      90 days

    Correct Answer
    B.  30 days
    Explanation
    A force module in join doctrinal terms is designed to sustain forces for a certain period of time. The correct answer of 30 days suggests that a force module is capable of sustaining forces for at least a month. This means that it is equipped with the necessary resources and support to maintain and sustain operations for a prolonged period, ensuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the force module in carrying out its tasks and missions.

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  • 39. 

    There are how many types of readiness spares packages (RSP)?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    There are four types of readiness spares packages (RSP).

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  • 40. 

    What RSP is an air transportable package of readiness spares, repairs parts, and related maintenance supplies required to support planned wartime or contingency operations of a weapon system or support system for a specified period of time pending resupply?

    • A.

      In-place readiness spares package (IRSP)

    • B.

      Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP)

    • C.

      Consumable readiness spares package (CRSP)

    • D.

      Flexible consumable readiness spares package (FCRSP)

    Correct Answer
    B. Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP)
  • 41. 

    How often are mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) authorizations published?

    • A.

      Semianually

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    Mobility readiness spares packages (MRSP) authorizations are published on an annual basis. This means that the authorizations for these packages are released once a year.

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  • 42. 

    Which office publishes mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) authorizations?

    • A.

      HQ ACC/A4

    • B.

      HQ AMC/LGX

    • C.

      HQ USAF/LGX

    • D.

      HQ AFMC/A4

    Correct Answer
    C. HQ USAF/LGX
    Explanation
    HQ USAF/LGX is the correct answer because they are responsible for publishing mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) authorizations. The other options, HQ ACC/A4, HQ AMC/LGX, and HQ AFMC/A4, are not specifically responsible for this task.

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  • 43. 

    What document shows authorization for ware reserve materiel (WRM) items based entirely on formal wartime taskings?

    • A.

      The Defense Plannings Guidance (DPF)

    • B.

      Mission Capability (MICAP) report

    • C.

      Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-122

    • D.

      War and Mobilization plan

    Correct Answer
    D. War and Mobilization plan
    Explanation
    The War and Mobilization plan is the document that shows authorization for ware reserve materiel (WRM) items based entirely on formal wartime taskings. This plan outlines the specific procedures and requirements for mobilizing resources during times of war, including the allocation and authorization of WRM items. It serves as a guide for military personnel and organizations to ensure that they have the necessary resources and equipment to fulfill their wartime missions.

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  • 44. 

    Which program is an automated way of processing readiness spares package (RSP)authorizations?

    • A.

      S05

    • B.

      S07

    • C.

      SIFS

    • D.

      DIREP

    Correct Answer
    B. S07
    Explanation
    S07 is the correct answer because it is the program that is specifically designed for processing readiness spares package (RSP) authorizations in an automated way. The other options, S05, SIFS, and DIREP, do not have this specific functionality and therefore are not the correct answers.

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  • 45. 

    How are RSP data input authorization records received from major commands (MAJCOM)?

    • A.

      FKD

    • B.

      XSF

    • C.

      XVF

    • D.

      1EB

    Correct Answer
    C. XVF
  • 46. 

    When the accountability remains at the home station, what asset status flag is used to reflect that mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed?

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      F

    • C.

      M

    • D.

      T

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    When the accountability remains at the home station, the asset status flag used to reflect that mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) assets are deployed is D.

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  • 47. 

    What TRIC do you used to transfer mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) accountability to the gaining computer support base?

    • A.

      FKD

    • B.

      FME

    • C.

      1EB

    • D.

      1WD

    Correct Answer
    D. 1WD
  • 48. 

    What action code is used when transferring multiple quantities from a MRSP or WRM detail record?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      M

    • D.

      S

    Correct Answer
    C. M
    Explanation
    The action code "M" is used when transferring multiple quantities from a MRSP or WRM detail record. This indicates that there are multiple quantities being transferred, rather than just one.

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  • 49. 

    When processing TRIC 1KT, what occurs if the gaining detail record and the action quantity exceed the authorized quantity?

    • A.

      Reject

    • B.

      Back order

    • C.

      Management notice

    • D.

      Record reversal and correction actions

    Correct Answer
    A. Reject
    Explanation
    If the gaining detail record and the action quantity exceed the authorized quantity when processing TRIC 1KT, the system will reject the transaction. This means that the transaction will not be processed and the user will need to make the necessary adjustments or corrections before resubmitting the transaction.

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  • 50. 

    What program involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for RSP assets?

    • A.

      TAV

    • B.

      SIFS

    • C.

      COSIS

    • D.

      DIREPS

    Correct Answer
    C. COSIS
    Explanation
    COSIS is the program that involves shelf life controls and other inspection functions for RSP assets. This program is specifically designed to manage and monitor the shelf life of assets, ensuring that they are inspected and maintained according to the required standards. It helps in preventing the use of expired or faulty assets, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the products or materials.

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