2s071 Ure Volume 3 Edit Code 07
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who is responsible for establishing the condition and identity of items received, stored, issued, shipped, and transferred by the Logistics Readiness Squadron?
- A.
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.
- B.
AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.
- C.
Materiel Management Inspector.
- D.
Central Storage Personnel.
Correct Answer
C. Materiel Management Inspector.Explanation
The Materiel Management Inspector is responsible for establishing the condition and identity of items received, stored, issued, shipped, and transferred by the Logistics Readiness Squadron. They ensure that all items are properly accounted for and meet the necessary quality standards. They play a crucial role in the overall management and control of the squadron's inventory and logistics operations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) reduces the item record’s serviceable balance and creates an unserviceable detail (R920) record?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCH
- C.
FER
- D.
1SA
Correct Answer
A. FCCExplanation
The transaction identification code (TRIC) FCC reduces the item record's serviceable balance and creates an unserviceable detail (R920) record.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified serviceable items in storage?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCH
- C.
FER
- D.
1SA
Correct Answer
B. FCHExplanation
The correct answer is FCH. The FCH transaction identification code is used to correct misidentified serviceable items in storage.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) items?
- A.
FCC
- B.
FCH
- C.
FER
- D.
1SA
Correct Answer
D. 1SAExplanation
The transaction identification code (TRIC) 1SA is used to correct misidentified special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) items.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items are readily identified in stock by what Management Notice?
- A.
I023
- B.
I012
- C.
I008
- D.
I003
Correct Answer
B. I012 -
- 6.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?
- A.
ISU
- B.
DFM
- C.
TIN
- D.
TRM
Correct Answer
B. DFMExplanation
The correct answer is DFM. The question is asking for the transaction identification code (TRIC) used to load the warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit. Out of the given options, DFM is the most suitable answer as it is commonly used in logistics and supply chain management systems to handle warehouse location and inventory management.Rate this question:
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- 7.
As a minimum, shelf life items are inspected?
- A.
Bi-weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
C. QuarterlyExplanation
Shelf life items are inspected quarterly to ensure their quality and safety. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the items' condition, minimizing the risk of expired or spoiled products being used or sold. Inspecting these items on a quarterly basis strikes a balance between frequent enough checks to catch any potential issues and allowing enough time for the items to be used or sold before the next inspection.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?
- A.
FCC
- B.
ISU
- C.
MSI
- D.
TIN
Correct Answer
C. MSIExplanation
An inspector should use the transaction identification code (TRIC) MSI to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is responsible for providing materiel management inspectors with a list of items requiring extensive functional checks prior to installation?
- A.
Computer operations.
- B.
Chief of maintenance.
- C.
Maintenance contact point.
- D.
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) QualityAssurance Activity.
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance contact point.Explanation
The maintenance contact point is responsible for providing materiel management inspectors with a list of items requiring extensive functional checks prior to installation. This is because the maintenance contact point acts as a central point of contact for all maintenance-related matters and is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities. They have the necessary knowledge and information about the items that require extensive functional checks and can provide the inspectors with the relevant list.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?
- A.
FCD
- B.
FCH
- C.
FCK
- D.
FTR
Correct Answer
A. FCDExplanation
The correct answer is FCD. The transaction identification code (TRIC) FCD is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What product expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts and materiel within a specific time period and reduces the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment?
- A.
Time compliance technical orders (TCTO).
- B.
Inspection offline checklist (R32).
- C.
Functional check listing.
- D.
Shelf life listing.
Correct Answer
A. Time compliance technical orders (TCTO).Explanation
Time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are a product that expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts, and materiel within a specific time period. They also reduce the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment. TCTOs provide specific instructions and guidelines for implementing necessary changes or updates to ensure the safety, reliability, and compliance of the equipment or systems. By following TCTOs, organizations can efficiently make necessary modifications and reduce the risk of accidents or failures, ultimately improving the overall performance and reliability of the systems or equipment.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?
- A.
Receiving.
- B.
Inspector.
- C.
War readiness.
- D.
Procedures and analysis.
Correct Answer
B. Inspector.Explanation
The correct answer is Inspector. Materiel management personnel who are inspectors are responsible for identifying and controlling all items in stock that require compliance with technical orders (TO). They ensure that the items meet the necessary specifications and standards outlined in the TO, maintaining the quality and functionality of the stock. This role is crucial in maintaining inventory accuracy and ensuring that all items are in compliance with the required technical standards.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who forwards a copy of all time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publications with a cover letter to the inspection function?
- A.
TCTO kit manager.
- B.
Maintenance Quality Assurance.
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Quality Assurance Section.
- D.
Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail Quality Assurance Activity.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance Quality Assurance.Explanation
Maintenance Quality Assurance forwards a copy of all time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publications with a cover letter to the inspection function.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What does the time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit manager use to control shelf life items in the kits?
- A.
D043B system.
- B.
Kit stock numbers.
- C.
TCTO publications.
- D.
TCTO kit jacket file.
Correct Answer
B. Kit stock numbers.Explanation
The kit stock numbers are used by the time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit manager to control shelf life items in the kits. This suggests that the kit stock numbers serve as a way to track and manage the inventory of shelf life items within the TCTO kits.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Items that could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment if used before inspection for verification of serviceability are identified as what type of item?
- A.
Functional check.
- B.
Suspect/unsuitable.
- C.
Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).
- D.
Time change technical order (TCTO).
Correct Answer
B. Suspect/unsuitable.Explanation
Items that could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment if used before inspection for verification of serviceability are identified as "suspect/unsuitable." This means that these items are not deemed safe or suitable for use until they have been inspected and verified for serviceability. Using such items without proper inspection can pose risks and potentially lead to accidents, damage, or harm.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
- A.
FCC with an “F” in position 48.
- B.
FCD with an “F” in position 48.
- C.
FCC with an “S” in position 48.
- D.
FCD with an “S” in position 48.
Correct Answer
D. FCD with an “S” in position 48. -
- 17.
What management notice is produced anytime a receipt or return is processed against a stock number that has a suspect materiel flag loaded against it?
- A.
I302.
- B.
I012.
- C.
F111.
- D.
F112.
Correct Answer
A. I302.Explanation
The correct answer is I302. This notice is produced by management whenever a receipt or return is processed against a stock number that has a suspect material flag loaded against it. This notice serves as a notification to management that there may be an issue or concern with the material associated with the stock number, prompting further investigation or action if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What type of item is identified on the item record with a type cargo code 3?
- A.
Functional check.
- B.
Suspect/unsuitable.
- C.
Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).
- D.
Time change technical order (TCTO).
Correct Answer
C. Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).Explanation
The correct answer is Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD). This is because a cargo code 3 refers to items that are classified as electrostatic sensitive devices. These devices are susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge and require special handling and storage procedures to prevent any potential damage. Therefore, the item identified on the item record with a type cargo code 3 would be an electrostatic sensitive device.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is responsible for maintaining a list of organization’s precious metals recovery program (PMRP) monitor’s name and contact information (including location), along with the type of recovery equipment, type of precious metals scrape generated, and the kind of precious metals and high precious metals content items used?
- A.
Item manager.
- B.
Maintenance commander.
- C.
Materiel management flight chief inspector.
- D.
Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
Correct Answer
C. Materiel management flight chief inspector.Explanation
The Materiel Management Flight Chief Inspector is responsible for maintaining a list of the organization's precious metals recovery program monitor's name and contact information, along with other relevant details such as the type of recovery equipment, type of precious metals scrape generated, and the kind of precious metals and high precious metals content items used.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The precious metals recovery program (PMRP) manager reviews an organization’s PMRP operations, documentation, and adherence to the overall program requirements every
- A.
32 months
- B.
24 months
- C.
12 months
- D.
6 months
Correct Answer
B. 24 monthsExplanation
The correct answer is 24 months. The PMRP manager is responsible for reviewing an organization's PMRP operations, documentation, and adherence to program requirements. This review is conducted every 24 months, which allows for regular assessments of the program's effectiveness and ensures that the organization is meeting the necessary standards. A 24-month timeframe strikes a balance between frequent evaluations and giving the organization enough time to implement any necessary changes based on the review findings.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed?
- A.
Facility design plan.
- B.
Facility layout guide.
- C.
Warehouse design plan.
- D.
Warehouse layout plan.
Correct Answer
D. Warehouse layout plan.Explanation
The correct answer is "Warehouse layout plan." A warehouse layout plan refers to the framework or blueprint that is used to develop the overall materiel storage space in a warehouse. It includes the arrangement of aisles, racks, shelves, and other storage systems to optimize space utilization, ease of movement, and efficient material handling operations within the warehouse. The layout plan takes into consideration factors such as product flow, accessibility, safety, and operational requirements to ensure an organized and effective storage space.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the
- A.
Reference point.
- B.
Identification point.
- C.
Authorization point.
- D.
Implementation point.
Correct Answer
D. Implementation point.Explanation
When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is referred to as the "implementation point." This term suggests that the space is being considered for actual implementation or execution in the facility design. It implies that this is the point where the plans will be put into action and the storage space will be utilized. The other options, such as reference point, identification point, and authorization point, do not accurately capture the concept of the total or gross storage space being planned for implementation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What storage factor is used when fast moving items of great demand are stored in easily accessible locations with little handling as possible and slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations?
- A.
Item quantity.
- B.
Item similarity.
- C.
Item popularity.
- D.
Item size and weight.
Correct Answer
C. Item popularity.Explanation
This storage factor is used to prioritize the placement of items based on their popularity. Fast-moving items of high demand are stored in easily accessible locations with minimal handling, ensuring quick and efficient retrieval. On the other hand, slow-moving items are stored in less convenient locations, as they are not in as high demand and do not require frequent access. By organizing the storage based on item popularity, it helps optimize the overall efficiency of the storage system.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Increasing the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location describes what type of storage factor?
- A.
Item quantity.
- B.
Item similarity.
- C.
Item popularity.
- D.
Item size and weight.
Correct Answer
A. Item quantity.Explanation
Increasing the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location describes the storage factor known as item quantity. This means that the storage space is being adjusted to accommodate a larger quantity of items, preventing them from overflowing into other locations. The other options, item similarity, item popularity, and item size and weight, do not directly relate to the concept of adjusting space to prevent overflow.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse?
- A.
Main
- B.
Service
- C.
Working
- D.
Personnel
Correct Answer
D. PersonnelExplanation
The aisle that can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse is the Personnel aisle. This is because personnel aisles are typically used by employees to access various areas of the warehouse, including storage areas and inventory. If there are inadequate security measures in place or if there is limited supervision in the personnel aisle, employees may have more opportunities to engage in theft or pilferage.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the?
- A.
Gross space available.
- B.
Storage space layout.
- C.
Storage space.
- D.
Storage plan.
Correct Answer
C. Storage space.Explanation
The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the storage space. This refers to the physical area where goods are stored before being distributed or sold. Without sufficient storage space, it would be difficult to store and organize the inventory effectively, leading to inefficiencies in the supply chain. Therefore, having an adequate storage space is crucial for the smooth functioning of supply and distribution operations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
At a minimum, how much clearance space must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads in a storage space when stack heights exceed 15 feet?
- A.
12 inches
- B.
18 inches
- C.
24 inches
- D.
36 inches
Correct Answer
D. 36 inchesExplanation
In storage spaces where stack heights exceed 15 feet, a minimum clearance space of 36 inches must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads. This is necessary to ensure that the sprinkler heads have enough space to effectively distribute water in case of a fire. By having a clearance of 36 inches, the sprinkler heads are less likely to be obstructed by any stored materials, allowing them to function properly and provide adequate fire protection.Rate this question:
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- 28.
In a storage space, the total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific amount of floor space is known as
- A.
Scale load.
- B.
Weight limit.
- C.
Floor load limit.
- D.
Weight restriction.
Correct Answer
C. Floor load limit.Explanation
The correct answer is "floor load limit." In a storage space, the floor load limit refers to the maximum amount of weight that can be safely supported by the floor. It is a measure of the structural capacity of the floor to bear the weight of stored items without causing damage or collapse. This limit ensures the safety and integrity of the storage space by preventing overloading and potential accidents.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
- A.
First in, last out.
- B.
First in, first out.
- C.
Stock by serial number.
- D.
Stock using national stock number (NSN).
Correct Answer
B. First in, first out.Explanation
First in, first out (FIFO) is a method of storage where the oldest items are issued before they become outdated. This means that the items that were received or stored first will be used or issued first, ensuring that they are used before they become outdated or expire. This method is commonly used in industries such as food and beverage, where perishable items need to be used before their expiration date. By following the FIFO method, companies can minimize waste and ensure that their inventory is managed efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Top Secret materiel is stored in what class of storage vault?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. AExplanation
Top Secret materiel is stored in Class A storage vaults. Class A storage vaults are specifically designed and equipped to provide the highest level of security and protection for sensitive and classified materials. These vaults have advanced security measures such as biometric access controls, reinforced walls and doors, and 24/7 surveillance systems. They are designed to prevent unauthorized access and protect the confidentiality of Top Secret information.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Secret and Confidential materiel is stored in what class of storage vault?
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
The correct answer is B. The reason is that Class B storage vaults are specifically designed to store secret and confidential material. These vaults have enhanced security measures and strict access controls to ensure that sensitive information is protected and only accessible to authorized personnel. Class B vaults are equipped with advanced security systems such as biometric authentication, surveillance cameras, and intrusion detection systems to prevent unauthorized access and safeguard the confidentiality of the stored material.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them highly susceptible to theft?
- A.
Sensitive.
- B.
Pilferable.
- C.
Protective.
- D.
Critical.
Correct Answer
B. Pilferable.Explanation
The correct answer is "Pilferable" because it refers to items that have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them highly susceptible to theft. The term "pilferable" suggests that these items are easily stolen due to their value or usefulness to individuals.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which Standard Form (SF) must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?
- A.
SF 700.
- B.
SF 701.
- C.
SF 702.
- D.
SF 703.
Correct Answer
C. SF 702.Explanation
The correct answer is SF 702 because it is the standard form that must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified material. The other options (SF 700, SF 701, SF 703) are not applicable for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?
- A.
Inspection Section personnel.
- B.
Inventory Section personnel.
- C.
Account storage personnel.
- D.
Accountable officer.
Correct Answer
C. Account storage personnel.Explanation
Account storage personnel are responsible for conducting a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts. This involves checking the accuracy and integrity of the inventory records and ensuring that the physical location of items matches the recorded location. This validation process helps to maintain the overall efficiency and effectiveness of warehouse operations.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the storage activity perform prior to the start of an inventory cycle to ensure property is accurately stored and matches the item record?
- A.
Warehouse location validation.
- B.
Surveillance inspection.
- C.
Organizational review.
- D.
Special inventory.
Correct Answer
A. Warehouse location validation.Explanation
The storage activity performs warehouse location validation prior to the start of an inventory cycle to ensure that the property is accurately stored and matches the item record. This process involves verifying the physical location of the items in the warehouse against the recorded location in the inventory system. By conducting this validation, any discrepancies or errors in the storage location can be identified and corrected, ensuring the accuracy of the inventory records and preventing any potential issues during the inventory cycle.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations is provided by
- A.
Discoverer Plus.
- B.
Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S).
- C.
Enterprise Data Collection Layer (EDCL).
- D.
Interactive Communications Interface (ICI).
Correct Answer
B. Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S).Explanation
The correct answer is Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S). This is because ES-S is a comprehensive software solution that provides various functionalities related to warehouse management, including the ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations. Discoverer Plus is a reporting tool, Enterprise Data Collection Layer (EDCL) is a component of ES-S that facilitates data collection, and Interactive Communications Interface (ICI) is a communication platform.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to delete a dead location?
- A.
FSC
- B.
FID
- C.
FIC
- D.
FCS
Correct Answer
D. FCSExplanation
The transaction identification code (TRIC) used to delete a dead location is FCS.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a timely manner contributes to out-of-balance conditions, erroneous stock records, and
- A.
Zero demand levels.
- B.
Warehouse refusals.
- C.
Out of cycle inventories.
- D.
Mission capabilities (MICAP).
Correct Answer
B. Warehouse refusals.Explanation
Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a timely manner can lead to warehouse refusals. This means that when property is found to be in the wrong location, the warehouse may refuse to accept it or process it further. This can contribute to out-of-balance conditions and erroneous stock records, as the property is not where it is supposed to be. Additionally, this can result in zero demand levels, as the property cannot be accessed or utilized effectively.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What listing is used to identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than 3 days?
- A.
R28
- B.
R36
- C.
R37
- D.
R38
Correct Answer
B. R36Explanation
R36 is the correct answer because it is the listing used to identify items that have a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than 3 days. This means that R36 is a specific report or record that helps track and manage items that are still in stock but do not have a designated location within the warehouse and have not been used or sold for more than 3 days.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What listing is used to control auditable transactions processed by the materiel management system and provides a comprehensive means to review normal transactions on a daily basis?
- A.
D04
- B.
M04
- C.
R36
- D.
S04
Correct Answer
A. D04Explanation
The listing used to control auditable transactions processed by the materiel management system and provides a comprehensive means to review normal transactions on a daily basis is D04.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Warehouse personnel use the Daily Document Register (D04) to verify successful processing for transactions on warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes and
- A.
Organizational refusals.
- B.
Hazardous item changes.
- C.
Controlled item changes.
- D.
Record reversal and corrections.
Correct Answer
C. Controlled item changes.Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is used by warehouse personnel to verify successful processing for various transactions. These transactions include warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes, organizational refusals, hazardous item changes, controlled item changes, and record reversal and corrections. Among these options, the correct answer is controlled item changes. This means that the D04 is specifically used to verify successful processing for changes made to controlled items within the warehouse.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which freeze code is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal?
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
I
- D.
Q
Correct Answer
C. IExplanation
The freeze code "I" is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal. This freeze code indicates that the item is inactive or unavailable for sale or distribution. It could be due to various reasons such as quality issues, damage, or expiration. By applying this freeze code, the system prevents the item from being sold or distributed until the issue is resolved or the item is removed from inventory.Rate this question:
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- 43.
All copies of warehouse refused documents are forwarded to what materiel management element?
- A.
Analysis.
- B.
Receiving.
- C.
Inventory.
- D.
Equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Inventory.Explanation
All copies of warehouse refused documents are forwarded to the inventory materiel management element. This means that when documents are refused in the warehouse, they are sent to the inventory department for further handling and processing. The inventory department is responsible for managing and tracking all the materials and goods in the warehouse, including those that have been refused or rejected. They will take appropriate actions such as updating inventory records, initiating return processes, or disposing of the refused items.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What flag must be entered in the master bench stock detail if the authorized level is not based on consumption?
- A.
Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ).
- B.
Authority for issue or economic order quantity (EOQ) consumption.
- C.
Maintenance priority or Mission Capable (MICAP) action.
- D.
Cumulative recurring demand or excess exception code.
Correct Answer
A. Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ).Explanation
If the authorized level is not based on consumption, the flag that must be entered in the master bench stock detail is the Minimum Reserve Authorization (MRA) or Maximum Authorized Quantity (MAQ). This flag indicates the maximum quantity that is authorized to be stocked in the bench stock, regardless of consumption levels.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A complete inventory and replenishment is done how many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
A complete inventory and replenishment is done 15 days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review. This timeframe allows for enough time to assess the current inventory levels, identify any shortages or excesses, and place orders for replenishment. It also ensures that the inventory is fully stocked and ready for the review, minimizing any disruptions or delays in the process.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What listing is used to calculate bench stock authorized quantities?
- A.
D04
- B.
M04
- C.
R36
- D.
S04
Correct Answer
B. M04Explanation
The correct answer is M04. The M04 listing is used to calculate bench stock authorized quantities.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What listing provides information on existing bench stock details for recommended changes and deletions and identifies possible additions based on consumption?
- A.
D04
- B.
M04
- C.
R36
- D.
S04
Correct Answer
B. M04Explanation
The correct answer is M04. This listing provides information on existing bench stock details for recommended changes and deletions and identifies possible additions based on consumption.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When is the S04 run in item number sequence?
- A.
At least annually.
- B.
After the M04 is processed.
- C.
After each semiannual review.
- D.
After items with deviations are added.
Correct Answer
C. After each semiannual review.Explanation
The S04 run occurs after each semiannual review. This suggests that the review process triggers the S04 run in the item number sequence. The other options, such as "at least annually," "after the M04 is processed," and "after items with deviations are added," do not provide a clear indication of when the S04 run takes place in the sequence. Therefore, the correct answer is after each semiannual review.Rate this question:
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- 49.
To ensure all items assigned a warehouse location and/or a detail record, the inventory schedule will be established by
- A.
5 days after validation.
- B.
15 days after validation.
- C.
The end of the fiscal year.
- D.
The end of the calendar year.
Correct Answer
C. The end of the fiscal year.Explanation
The correct answer is "the end of the fiscal year." This means that the inventory schedule will be established by the time the fiscal year ends. This is likely because the fiscal year is an important period for financial reporting and it makes sense to have an accurate inventory count by that time. By establishing the inventory schedule by the end of the fiscal year, the company can ensure that all items have been assigned a warehouse location and/or a detail record before the financial reporting period ends.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What type of inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis?
- A.
Sample
- B.
Special
- C.
Complete
- D.
Out-of-cycle
Correct Answer
B. SpecialExplanation
Special inventory refers to a type of inventory that is conducted by line item on an as-required basis. This means that instead of conducting a complete inventory of all items, only specific items or categories are counted when there is a specific need or requirement. This approach allows for more targeted and efficient inventory management, as it focuses on items that are of particular importance or urgency.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 24, 2016Quiz Created by
Mrvbur
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