2s071 Ure Volume 1 Edit Code 07

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1. What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities?

Explanation

Degraded operation refers to the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities. This term implies that the system is still functioning but at a reduced capacity or capability. It suggests that there may be limitations or restrictions in place, but the system is still operational to some extent.

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About This Quiz
2s071 Ure Volume 1 Edit Code 07 - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in materiel management within the Air Force, focusing on unit type codes, career broadening programs, and logistical responsibilities. It is designed for personnel preparing for the 2S071 URE Volume 1 Edit Code 07, enhancing skills in deployment, distribution, and sustainment operations.

2. Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

Explanation

All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that every individual working in the Air Force is responsible for taking care of government property and can be held accountable if any harm is caused due to their actions or negligence. It emphasizes the collective responsibility of all members and employees to ensure the proper handling and protection of government property.

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3. Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

Explanation

The correct answer is R. The "R" flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is requesting information related to the requirements of the stock number, such as the quantity needed, the due date, and any outstanding orders or backorders. This flag helps to streamline the inquiry process and provide a concise summary of the stock number's requirements.

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4. Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Check in and out with the flight chief." This is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function because checking in and out with the flight chief ensures that the visit is properly documented and that the necessary permissions and protocols are followed. It also helps in maintaining accountability and coordination with the responsible authority during the visit.

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5. Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?

Explanation

Reject monitors may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program. They are responsible for monitoring and managing rejected items or materials in a system. As part of their role, they have the authority to delete rejects using the reject processor program to ensure that the system remains accurate and up to date. The other options mentioned, such as the accountable officer, quality assurance personnel, and management and system officer, may have different roles and responsibilities within the system but do not specifically have the authority to force-delete rejects using the reject processor program.

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6. Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?

Explanation

The flight responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property is the Deployment and distribution flight. This flight is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the movement of resources and personnel during deployments, ensuring that everything is properly distributed and delivered to the designated locations. They play a crucial role in the logistical operations of the organization, ensuring that all necessary supplies and personnel are efficiently deployed and distributed as needed.

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7. Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

Explanation

The program in the Materiel Management System that takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction is the "Reject" program. This program is designed to identify and handle errors by stopping the processing of the transaction and providing appropriate feedback or notifications to the user. It ensures that erroneous transactions are not processed further, preventing any potential negative impact on the system or data integrity.

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8. Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as ?

Explanation

The correct answer is one year. This means that users can query the consolidated transaction history (CTH) records of the material management computer system for a period of up to one year. This allows them to access and retrieve transaction data that occurred within the past twelve months.

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9. Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support?

Explanation

The correct answer is JFBBS. This materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support.

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10. Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item?

Explanation

The receiving activity must submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item within 24 hours. This ensures that any discrepancies in the supply of controlled items are promptly reported and addressed, allowing for timely resolution and preventing any potential disruptions in the supply chain.

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11. What best describes supply class VII items?

Explanation

Supply class VII items are best described as major end items. This means that they are the primary equipment or systems used by the military, such as aircraft, tanks, or ships. These items are typically expensive and have a long lifespan. Construction, subsistence, and ammunition are not classified as supply class VII items as they do not fall under the category of major end items.

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12. Which is a common material management indicator?

Explanation

A common material management indicator is warehouse refusal. This refers to the situation where a warehouse refuses to accept or store certain materials due to various reasons such as lack of space, improper packaging, or unsuitability for storage. This indicator helps in identifying issues with material handling, storage, and inventory management within the warehouse, allowing for improvements to be made to ensure efficient material management.

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13. A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected ?

Explanation

A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that identifies a non-critical issue or problem with a system or equipment. These reports do not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that the correction for the reported problem will be included in the next update or release of the system or equipment. It indicates that the issue will be resolved in a timely manner, but not immediately or on-demand.

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14. What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms?

Explanation

Trend analysis involves comparing current data with established factors, standards, and norms to identify favorable or unfavorable deviations. This type of analysis helps to track patterns and identify any significant changes or trends over time. By analyzing trends, organizations can gain insights into their performance and make informed decisions to improve their operations. Therefore, trend analysis is the most suitable option for identifying favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms.

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15. What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information. This system provides hazardous material managers with oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure that only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that the material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose. It helps in maintaining safety and occupational health standards by monitoring and controlling the use of hazardous materials.

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16. Which supply class includes ammunition?

Explanation

Supply class V includes ammunition.

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17. What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?

Explanation

Quality assurance is the organization that serves as the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. They are responsible for ensuring that products and services meet the required standards and specifications. They assess and monitor the quality of processes, procedures, and products to identify any deficiencies and recommend improvements. By being the primary point of contact, quality assurance can effectively address any special topics or concerns related to materiel management or logistics readiness.

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18. In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following, except?

Explanation

To qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following criteria: have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), have less than 15 years time in service, and possess the rank of TSgt or MSgt. The only exception is that they do not need to be recommended by their wing commander.

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19. How often are supply inventories completed?

Explanation

Supply inventories are completed once per fiscal year. A fiscal year is a financial year that may not necessarily align with the calendar year. This means that the frequency of completing supply inventories is based on the organization's financial cycle rather than the traditional calendar year.

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20. In addition to management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected?

Explanation

Training reports can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected because they provide insights into the effectiveness of training programs and the performance of employees. By analyzing training reports, management can identify any gaps in employee knowledge or skills that may be contributing to problems or issues within the organization. This information can then be used to make informed decisions and implement targeted training initiatives to address these problems.

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21. Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because ?

Explanation

Storing all SIFS images for backup into a local user file is considered a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because SIFS already has its own built-in recovery and contingency procedures. This means that in case of any system failure or data loss, SIFS is capable of restoring the images without the need for additional backups stored in a local user file. Therefore, duplicating the backup process by storing images locally is unnecessary and wasteful of system resources.

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22. How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?

Explanation

After the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR), it will take anywhere between 55 to 109 days for the discrepancy details to appear on the SDR listing.

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23. Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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24. An effective analysis program must be based on ?

Explanation

An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives. This means that the program should align with the goals and targets set by the organization. By focusing on organizational objectives, the analysis program can ensure that it addresses the specific needs and priorities of the organization, leading to more relevant and impactful results. It allows the program to be tailored to the organization's unique circumstances and requirements, ultimately enhancing its effectiveness in driving desired outcomes.

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25. What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?

Explanation

D818 is the correct answer because it is the supply management listing that reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject. The other options (D20, D11, and D04) do not provide the same information as D818.

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26. What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty report?

Explanation

The AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports. This organization ensures that any issues or problems with equipment or processes are reported and addressed in a timely manner. They play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and reliability of the organization's operations by monitoring and resolving difficulties as they arise.

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27. What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?

Explanation

The correct answer is Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS). This system is responsible for preparing supply data reports for off-base distribution. It automates the process of submitting reports, ensuring accuracy and efficiency in the supply chain. The other options, Supply Interface System (SIFS), ADRSS II, and SIFS outside, are not mentioned as systems that prepare supply data reports for off-base distribution.

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28. In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements?

Explanation

A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirement is referred to as a "business area" in Discoverer. This allows users to easily access and analyze the relevant data for their specific needs. Business areas provide a way to organize and structure the database tables and views, making it easier for users to navigate and find the information they need.

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29. What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations?

Explanation

Deployed kit personnel rely on the accuracy of the R43 list to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations. This list provides them with the necessary information about the items that have been deployed, ensuring that they have the correct equipment and supplies. By relying on the R43 list accuracy, personnel can ensure that they have the right resources available to them, minimizing confusion and allowing them to carry out their duties effectively.

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30. Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?

Explanation

Residue type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure that any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner. These files contain images that have not been processed or have been partially processed, and they need to be addressed to prevent any delays or issues in the supply chain. The residue files help in identifying and resolving any outstanding or unresolved items, ensuring smooth operations and timely clearance of images.

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31. A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?

Explanation

A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time for the function to review the report and provide a response. It ensures that any necessary actions or follow-ups can be taken in a timely manner.

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32. Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities?

Explanation

AF Sustainment is the specialized center that serves as the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities. This center is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and supply chain activities to ensure efficient and effective operations. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary resources and support are available to sustain the operations of the Air Force.

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33. What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, and non-unit cargo (excluding bulk petroleum, oils, and lubricants) and passengers; medical patients; and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across the range of military operations?

Explanation

In-transit visibility (ITV) is the correct answer because it accurately describes the tool that provides the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, non-unit cargo, passengers, medical patients, and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across military operations. The other options, Global Transportation Network (GTN), Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS), and Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES), do not encompass all the mentioned aspects of tracking and visibility.

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34. Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will ?

Explanation

Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will corrupt it. This means that any changes or modifications made to the file will result in its data becoming damaged or unusable. The word "corrupt" implies that the integrity of the file will be compromised, potentially rendering it unreadable or causing errors when accessed.

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35. Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Customer support." In the context of supply discrepancy reports (SDR), customer support is responsible for keeping all the suspense copies. This suggests that customer support plays a crucial role in handling and managing SDRs, ensuring that all relevant documentation is properly maintained and organized. This responsibility may involve tracking and resolving any discrepancies in the supply chain, ensuring smooth logistics operations.

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36. Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visit of a function?

Explanation

Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start the research by reviewing the directives that apply to the function. This is because directives provide specific instructions and guidelines that need to be followed during the surveillance visit. By understanding and familiarizing oneself with the applicable directives, one can ensure that the visit is conducted in accordance with the established procedures and requirements. This will help in effectively assessing the function and identifying any areas that may require improvement or corrective action.

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37. Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when required) expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location?

Explanation

JFBCW provides mobility support and expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location.

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38. Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies?

Explanation

Supply class IX includes all repair parts and components, including kits, assemblies, and subassemblies. This class is specifically designated for repair parts and components, making it the correct answer for this question.

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39. What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?

Explanation

Quality assurance needs statistics and source documents to perform an analysis. These documents provide the necessary data and information for the analysis process. Statistics help in quantifying and analyzing the performance and quality metrics, while source documents provide the relevant information and context for understanding the analysis. By using statistics and source documents, quality assurance can identify trends, patterns, and potential problems, and make informed decisions to improve the quality of products or services.

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40. What supply management listing shows all rejects that have been cleared?

Explanation

The supply management listing D20 shows all rejects that have been cleared.

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41. What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?

Explanation

Outer join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship. It includes all the rows from one table and the matching rows from the other table(s), and also includes the unmatched rows from one or both tables. In other words, it returns all the rows from one table and the matching rows from the other table(s), and if there is no match, it includes NULL values in the result set.

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42. Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?

Explanation

Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This means that the computer is unable to continue its normal operations due to the problem, but it does not result in any major data loss or corruption. This category indicates a significant issue that needs to be addressed, but it is not as severe as Category III or IV.

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43. Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies?

Explanation

Category IV is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies. This category is used for issues that do not significantly impact the functionality or usability of the program, but still need to be addressed. These minor deficiencies may include spelling errors, small formatting issues, or other minor bugs that do not affect the overall performance of the program. Category IV is typically used for low-priority issues that can be easily fixed and do not require immediate attention.

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44. What is identified as a web-based automated command and control information system that supports the family of transportation users and providers—both DOD and commercial, by providing an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Transportation Network (GTN). GTN is a web-based automated command and control information system that supports transportation users and providers, both military (DOD) and commercial. It provides an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities.

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45. What are the keys to deficiency identification?

Explanation

The keys to deficiency identification are analysis and special analysis program. This means that by conducting a thorough analysis of various factors, such as source documents, reports, training, and cross feed reports, one can identify deficiencies. Additionally, the use of a special analysis program can further enhance the identification process by providing a systematic and comprehensive approach to identifying and addressing deficiencies.

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46. How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

Explanation

After the first follow-up, if an action activity has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR), a second follow-up is sent 45 days later.

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47. What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

Explanation

The Global Decision Support System (GDSS) supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. GDSS is a command and control (C2) system within the Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level that provides decision support tools and capabilities for planning, scheduling, and executing airlift missions. It enables TACC to effectively manage and control the movement of cargo and personnel by providing real-time information, situational awareness, and analysis tools. GDSS helps optimize the allocation of resources, enhances mission planning, and improves overall mission execution for the AMC.

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48. What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

Explanation

The correct answer is Supply-chain operations reference. The supply-chain operations reference provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. It helps organizations to align their supply chain processes with industry standards and benchmarks, improving efficiency and effectiveness. This framework allows companies to identify areas for improvement, implement best practices, and measure their performance against industry standards.

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49. Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?

Explanation

The correct answer is I. In this category, problems related to system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating are addressed. This category is specifically assigned to address these types of issues.

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50. Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?

Explanation

The functional systems management section is responsible for reviewing the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure that users clear residue images in a timely manner. This section is in charge of managing and maintaining the functionality of the system, including monitoring and addressing any issues or discrepancies. They play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of the system and the timely resolution of any outstanding residue images.

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What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the...
Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of...
Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to...
Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an...
Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?
Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control,...
Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of...
Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated...
Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the...
Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply...
What best describes supply class VII items?
Which is a common material management indicator?
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and...
What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations...
What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders...
Which supply class includes ammunition?
What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics...
In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management...
How often are supply inventories completed?
In addition to management reports, what other sources of information...
Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of...
How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy...
Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management...
An effective analysis program must be based on ?
What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and...
What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and...
What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?
In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views...
What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and...
Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to...
A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply...
Which specialized center is the hub for integration and management of...
What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity,...
Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will ?
Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?
Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance...
Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and (when...
Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include...
What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?
What supply management listing shows all rejects that have been...
What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or...
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem...
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there...
What is identified as a web-based automated command and control...
What are the keys to deficiency identification?
How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to...
What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2)...
What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics,...
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when...
Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System...
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