2S051 CDC Review

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Aisha Vargas
Aisha Vargas, Finance Professional
Aisha is a focused, detail-oriented finance professional dedicated to ensuring the lawful execution of an organization's financial transactions.
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 1,784
| Attempts: 1,784 | Questions: 200
Please wait...
Question 1 / 200
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual

Explanation

In AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, hyperlinks are identified by blue text.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
2S051 CDC Review - Quiz

The '2S051 CDC Review' quiz assesses knowledge vital for Materiel Management specialists in the Air Force, covering eligibility for logistics programs, responsibilities, and understanding of the Air Force Material Command and Defense Logistics Agency roles.

2. Who should help a driver back a vehicle into a position for offloading

Explanation

A spotter should help a driver back a vehicle into a position for offloading. A spotter is a person who assists the driver by providing guidance and ensuring that the vehicle is positioned correctly and safely. They help the driver navigate obstacles, avoid collisions, and ensure that the offloading process is carried out smoothly.

Submit
3. What are the two types of open storage areas

Explanation

The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." This answer suggests that there are two types of open storage areas: those that have been improved or developed in some way, and those that have not been improved or developed. This implies that improved storage areas may have features such as paved surfaces, structures, or other enhancements, while unimproved storage areas may be more basic or natural in their state.

Submit
4. What Air Force manual governs the US Air Force materiel management system

Explanation

Air Force manual 23-110 governs the US Air Force materiel management system.

Submit
5. What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual

Explanation

The largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is Volume.

Submit
6. How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in search of AFMAN 23-11, USAF Supply Manual

Explanation

The document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 in search of AFMAN 23-11, USAF Supply Manual would be identified as 020203.

Submit
7. Users can query the materiel management computer consolidation transaction history (CTH) records as far back as

Explanation

The correct answer is "one year or more". This means that users can query the material management computer consolidation transaction history (CTH) records for a period of one year or longer. This suggests that the system allows for a longer retention of transaction history, providing users with access to older records for analysis or reference purposes.

Submit
8. What personal computer based program is used to manage mobility bags

Explanation

MICAS is the correct answer because it is a personal computer-based program used to manage mobility bags. This program helps in tracking and organizing the inventory of mobility bags, which are used for individuals with mobility impairments. MICAS allows for efficient management and allocation of these bags, ensuring that they are readily available for those who need them.

Submit
9. Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker

Explanation

The receiving in-checker does not need to check the warehouse location because it is the responsibility of the warehouse staff to ensure that the items are stored in the correct location. The receiving in-checker's role is to verify the accuracy of the items received, such as the national stock number, unit of issue, and quantity, to ensure they match the documentation and specifications.

Submit
10. The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

Explanation

The receiving in-checker is responsible for inspecting the items that are being received. If they suspect that any item has been tampered with, they will send it to the inspector for further examination. The inspector's role is to thoroughly inspect the items and determine if they have been tampered with or damaged in any way. Therefore, the correct answer is inspector.

Submit
11. What protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions

Explanation

Drainage is the correct answer because it helps to protect items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions. When there is proper drainage, water is able to flow away from the storage area, preventing it from pooling and causing damage to the items. This can help to prevent water damage, mold, and other issues that can occur when items are exposed to wet ground conditions. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may also provide some level of protection, but drainage is specifically designed to address this issue.

Submit
12. Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

Explanation

When markings on containers do not apply to the materials currently packaged, it is necessary to obliterate them. This means removing or covering up the markings so that they are no longer visible. This is important to avoid confusion or misinterpretation of the markings, as they may no longer be relevant or accurate. Obliterating the markings ensures that only the correct and up-to-date information is displayed on the containers.

Submit
13. Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force

Explanation

The correct answer is Effect One: Enterprise view. This effect ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. It emphasizes the importance of considering the bigger picture and taking a holistic approach to logistics, rather than focusing solely on individual units or departments. By having an enterprise view, the Air Force can better coordinate and align its logistics efforts, leading to improved efficiency and effectiveness in supporting its mission.

Submit
14. Under the consolidation transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print

Explanation

The correct answer is Abbreviated format (Option A). This option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print. The term "abbreviated" suggests that the histories will be presented in a condensed or shortened format, providing a summary or key details rather than a comprehensive account. This can be useful when you need a quick overview or when space is limited. Option B, Option S, and Option L do not specifically mention an abbreviated format, so they are not the correct answer.

Submit
15. What type of receipt must be processed before all others

Explanation

Mission capability (MICAP) receipts must be processed before all others because they involve critical equipment or supplies that are needed for mission-critical tasks. These receipts are given the highest priority due to their importance in ensuring the smooth functioning and success of military operations or other critical missions. Processing MICAP receipts first helps to prioritize the allocation of limited resources and ensures that essential items are available when needed.

Submit
16. Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiel or pilferable items

Explanation

Segregated, specialized holding areas are necessary for items such as hazardous material or pilferable items for safety or security reasons. These items require extra precautions to prevent accidents, theft, or unauthorized access. By keeping them in separate areas, the risk of mishandling or theft is minimized, ensuring the safety of individuals and the security of the items.

Submit
17. Which storage method helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated

Explanation

First in, first out (FIFO) is a storage method that ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated. This means that the items that are received first are also the first ones to be used or issued. This method is commonly used in inventory management to prevent spoilage or obsolescence of products. By following the FIFO method, companies can reduce the risk of holding onto outdated or expired items and minimize potential losses.

Submit
18. What type of materiel management source document are not placed in a permanent document file

Explanation

Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file.

Submit
19. What is the main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG

Explanation

The main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG is the availability of real-time updates. This means that information and data are constantly updated and readily accessible, allowing for more accurate and up-to-date information. This can be particularly beneficial in situations where timely information is crucial for decision-making or when quick updates are needed to reflect changes in inventory or availability. With real-time updates, users can rely on the most current information, leading to improved efficiency and effectiveness in various processes and operations.

Submit
20. Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

Explanation

The correct answer is that the receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for. This means that before accepting a shipment, the representative needs to check that all containers that were supposed to be included in the shipment are actually present. This is important to ensure that nothing is missing or lost during the transportation process. By verifying that all containers are accounted for, the representative can ensure that the shipment is complete and accurate.

Submit
21. Which issue exception code identify health hazard items

Explanation

The exception code 8, 9, or M is used to identify health hazard items.

Submit
22. Which corrosive are incompatible and should be separate in storage

Explanation

Acids and alkalis are incompatible and should be stored separately because they react with each other to produce heat, which can lead to a dangerous and potentially explosive situation. Mixing acids and alkalis can result in the formation of salts and water, along with the release of heat. This reaction is exothermic and can cause a rapid increase in temperature, leading to the release of gases and potentially causing an explosion. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any accidental mixing and subsequent hazardous reactions.

Submit
23. What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction

Explanation

The transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction is 1AM.

Submit
24. Which type mobility bad contains chemical warfare defense equipment

Explanation

The correct answer is C because C is the only option that mentions chemical warfare defense equipment. The question asks for the type of mobility bad that contains this equipment, and option C is the only one that fits the criteria.

Submit
25. What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers

Explanation

FEDLOG is the correct answer because it is a CD-ROM based research system that allows users to cross-relate part numbers and stock numbers. It is commonly used in inventory management and logistics to track and manage stock levels efficiently. FEDLOG provides a comprehensive database that enables users to search and retrieve information about various parts and their corresponding stock numbers, helping streamline the supply chain process.

Submit
26. At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained

Explanation

A refrigerated storage chill space must be maintained between 32 and 50 degrees Fahrenheit in order to keep the stored items at a safe and optimal temperature. This temperature range ensures that the items are kept cold enough to prevent spoilage and bacterial growth, but not too cold to cause freezing or damage to the products.

Submit
27. When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization

Explanation

When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep the work area to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. By minimizing the work area, more space can be dedicated to storing goods, which can improve efficiency and maximize storage capacity. This allows for better organization and accessibility of inventory, ultimately leading to improved productivity and utilization of the warehouse space.

Submit
28. Mobility bags can be built ahead of time and stored using what concept

Explanation

Mobility bags can be built ahead of time and stored using the concept of tariff-sizing. Tariff-sizing refers to the process of determining the appropriate size or capacity of a tariff, which in this case refers to the bags used for mobility purposes. By determining the correct size of the bags, they can be built in advance and stored efficiently, ensuring that they are readily available when needed. This concept helps in optimizing storage space and ensuring that the bags are appropriately sized for their intended purpose.

Submit
29. How many characters is the descriptive nonmenclature field limited to on the item record

Explanation

The descriptive nomenclature field on the item record is limited to 32 characters.

Submit
30. Which class of supply includes weapons

Explanation

Class II includes weapons.

Submit
31. Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination of              the mission capability condition

Explanation

The correct answer is MICAP report (B9*). This report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, and mission capability condition of the MICAP (Mission Capable) status. The B9* code indicates that it is specifically a MICAP report.

Submit
32. An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the

Explanation

If the customer failed to cancel due out, it means that the customer did not cancel the order even though they were aware that the property was not suitable or the quantity issued was more than what they ordered. In this case, the responsibility for the organizational refusal falls on the customer because they had the opportunity to cancel the order but chose not to.

Submit
33. Which type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of the cost

Explanation

Classified discrepancy reports must be followed up on regardless of the cost because they involve sensitive information that could potentially compromise national security if left unaddressed. These reports could include breaches in classified information, unauthorized access to classified areas, or mishandling of classified materials. The potential risk and consequences associated with classified discrepancies make it necessary to prioritize and address them promptly, regardless of the financial implications.

Submit
34. What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location 

Explanation

The storage level in a warehouse location is identified by a single capital letter. This designator is used to distinguish different levels or floors within the warehouse, allowing for efficient organization and retrieval of goods. Using a single capital letter as the identifier simplifies the system and ensures clear communication when referring to specific storage levels within the warehouse.

Submit
35. In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource

Explanation

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, technology is not considered a resource. While financial, acquisition, and infrastructure are all resources that can be utilized in the implementation of eLog21, technology is not classified as a resource in this context. Instead, technology is seen as a tool or a means to facilitate and enhance the integration and efficiency of the logistics processes.

Submit
36. Which class of supply consists of ammunitions

Explanation

Class V supplies consist of ammunitions. Class V is a category in the military supply system that includes all types of ammunition, from small arms ammunition to missiles and bombs. This class is crucial for maintaining the military's combat readiness and firepower.

Submit
37.  Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations

Explanation

Miscellaneous file maintenance is the correct answer because this process involves updating various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. This process is responsible for making changes and updates to these files, ensuring that the information is accurate and up to date. It is an essential part of the maintenance process as it ensures the integrity and accuracy of the data stored in these files.

Submit
38. Which request should be input into Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen

Explanation

The correct answer is "A change to an allowance standard." This is because the question is asking which request should be inputted into the Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen. Out of the given options, a change to an allowance standard is the most appropriate request to be inputted into the system using this screen.

Submit
39. Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem on file and signed by the appointed custodian 

Explanation

Fault isolated spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance assets used to detect or isolate a fault or problem on file and signed by the appointed custodian. These spares are specifically designated for troubleshooting and repairing faulty equipment or systems. They are kept separate from regular inventory and are only used when a specific fault or problem needs to be addressed. By having dedicated fault isolated spares, maintenance personnel can quickly and efficiently diagnose and fix issues, minimizing downtime and improving overall operational effectiveness.

Submit
40. What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt

Explanation

The correct answer is to circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it. This action is necessary to indicate that there is an overage in the receipt and to provide the accurate quantity for record-keeping and reconciliation purposes. By circling the incorrect quantity, it is clear that there is an error, and by putting the correct quantity above it, the correct information is provided for further processing and documentation.

Submit
41. Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or

Explanation

The correct answer is "an approved supplement." This means that in order to schedule the production of all materiel management computer system reports and listings, it must be supported by an approved supplement. This supplement could be a document or a set of instructions that provides additional information or guidelines for the scheduling process. It is important to have this approved supplement in order to ensure that the scheduling is done correctly and in accordance with the regulations outlined in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual.

Submit
42. What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input

Explanation

To make an automated reverse-post input, the transaction serial number is needed to identify the specific transaction that needs to be reversed. The TTPC (Transaction Type Phase Code) is required to determine the type of transaction and the phase it belongs to. Lastly, the date is necessary to accurately record when the reverse-post input is being made.

Submit
43. A reason for performing and processing a cannibalization action would be to

Explanation

Performing and processing a cannibalization action involves removing parts or components from one asset to be used in another asset. This action can prevent a Material Condition Affecting Production (MICAP) situation from occurring by ensuring that the necessary parts are available to keep the asset operational. By cannibalizing parts, the need to initiate a MICAP request and wait for replacement parts is avoided, thus preventing a potential delay in production or operation.

Submit
44. Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code

Explanation

AF Form 601 is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. This form is specifically designed for this purpose within the Air Force.

Submit
45. What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets

Explanation

The correct answer is Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46). This listing is used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that the inventory of weapons and communications security equipment is accurately accounted for and matches the records. This reconciliation process helps in identifying any discrepancies or missing items, allowing for timely corrective actions to be taken.

Submit
46. Which Materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account

Explanation

Materiel management inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. These individuals are responsible for inspecting and assessing the condition of the materials and equipment in order to ensure that they meet the required standards and are fit for use. They are trained and knowledgeable in identifying any damages, defects, or issues with the property, and they play a crucial role in maintaining the quality and integrity of the supply account. In-checkers, storage personnel, and inventory personnel may have different roles and responsibilities within the materiel management process, but they are not specifically authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account.

Submit
47. When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancies on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report

Explanation

When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancies on a controlled item, it is important to promptly address the issue and submit a discrepancy report. The correct answer of 24 hours indicates that the activity must report the discrepancy within a day of its discovery. This ensures that any issues with the controlled item can be investigated and resolved in a timely manner, preventing further complications or delays in the supply chain.

Submit
48. What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas

Explanation

Popularity is the correct answer because when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, it implies that these items are not in high demand. Therefore, popularity is the storage factor used to determine the placement of these items. By storing them in areas farther away, it allows for more accessible storage space to be allocated to items that are in higher demand and have a faster turnover rate.

Submit
49. Within how many workdays should all Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects normally be processed

Explanation

All Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects should normally be processed within one workday. This means that any items that are rejected within the SBSS should be addressed and resolved within a single working day. This ensures that any issues or problems with the supply system are quickly identified and resolved, minimizing any disruptions or delays in the supply chain. Processing rejects promptly also helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the SBSS, ensuring that it continues to function smoothly.

Submit
50. How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation

Explanation

Three copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation. This is because each copy serves a different purpose. The first copy is for the turn-in location, the second copy is for the turn-in organization, and the third copy is for the turn-in requester. Having three copies ensures that all parties involved have the necessary documentation for the turn-in process.

Submit
51. What transaction identification code is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package to the user

Explanation

The correct answer is MSI. MSI stands for Mobility Spares Inventory, which is a transaction identification code used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package to the user. This code helps track and manage the distribution of assets, ensuring that they are properly allocated to the intended users.

Submit
52. What section stores small arms for mobility use

Explanation

The correct answer is Mobility because this section is responsible for storing small arms that are necessary for quick and easy movement. This section focuses on providing weapons that can be easily carried and used during mobility operations. The other options, such as Readiness, War Readiness, and Security Forces, do not specifically mention the storage of small arms for mobility use.

Submit
53. Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fixed." This type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns. By setting a fixed stock level, the organization can maintain a consistent level of inventory for the item, regardless of changes in demand. This helps to ensure that there is always enough stock available to meet customer needs without excessive overstocking or understocking.

Submit
54. Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and activity code

Explanation

Readiness based level details are identified by type detail L and activity code A. This means that when determining the readiness level of a particular activity, type detail L and activity code A are used as identifiers. This combination helps in categorizing and organizing the readiness levels for different activities, ensuring that they are properly tracked and managed.

Submit
55. Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

Explanation

Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is deleted. This means that the record of the items that were expected to arrive but did not is removed from the system. Deleting the record helps to keep the inventory information accurate and up to date.

Submit
56. What scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal because the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is unable to provide the requested quantity of the item, leading to a refusal to fulfill the request.

Submit
57. What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provided logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment task

Explanation

The correct answer is Readiness. The question is asking which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provided logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks. The term "readiness" suggests that this flight is responsible for ensuring that personnel are prepared and equipped for deployment. This could include training on logistics processes, procedures, and systems, as well as coordinating the movement of personnel and materiel. Traffic management, materiel management, and management and systems may all be components of the LRS's responsibilities, but "readiness" encompasses the overall goal of preparing personnel for deployment.

Submit
58. What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt

Explanation

The partial quantity flag "P" is used to indicate a partial receipt. This means that when a product or item is received, it is not received in its full quantity but only partially. The "P" flag is commonly used in inventory management systems to track and record partial receipts, allowing for accurate inventory counts and management.

Submit
59. The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is

Explanation

The physical state of an item plays a crucial role in determining its usefulness to carry out its designed or intended purpose. The condition of an item refers to its overall state, including its level of wear and tear, functionality, and any damages or defects. If an item is in good condition, it is more likely to be effective and reliable in performing its intended function. On the other hand, if an item is in poor condition, it may not be able to fulfill its purpose effectively, making it less useful. Therefore, the condition of an item is an important factor in determining its usefulness.

Submit
60. To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service

Explanation

To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than 15 years time-in-service. This means that anyone who has served in the Air Force for 15 years or more would not be eligible for the program. The program is likely designed for individuals who have less experience in the military and are looking to enter the logistics field.

Submit
61. What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system

Explanation

The Air Force Material Command (AFMC) is responsible for the cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system. This means that AFMC oversees the entire lifecycle of these systems, from their initial development and acquisition to their eventual retirement and disposal. AFMC is tasked with ensuring that these weapon systems are properly maintained, upgraded, and repaired throughout their lifespan, as well as managing their logistical support and supply chain. This includes everything from inventory management and distribution to the disposal of retired or obsolete systems.

Submit
62. Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and record maintenance

Explanation

The division responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and record maintenance is Management and Systems. This division oversees the management and maintenance of information systems, procedures, and records related to supply operations. They also handle stock fund management, contingency planning, and operational analysis to ensure efficient and effective supply management.

Submit
63. Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)

Explanation

The correct answer is Administration. In the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS), the four major processes are item accounting, file maintenance, accounting and finance. Administration is not included as one of the major processes in SBSS.

Submit
64. All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail

Explanation

When shipments and transfers are processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron, they produce a type of detail called Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC). This means that there may be some shipments or transfers that are still in suspense or have not been properly credited. This detail helps in tracking and managing these shipments and transfers to ensure that they are properly accounted for and credited.

Submit
65.  What term is used to describe selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair

Explanation

Depot-level reparables refers to selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair. These items are typically sent to a depot-level repair facility for maintenance and repair, rather than being repaired at a lower level such as a shop or equipment level. This term is used to describe the specific category of items that require more extensive repair and are handled at a higher level of maintenance.

Submit
66. Which type of redistribution describes when item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DICA2* or A4*) formats

Explanation

Directed redistribution describes when item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DICA2* or A4*) formats. This type of redistribution involves specific instructions or guidance from the managers to transfer or redistribute items.

Submit
67. What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers

Explanation

The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

Submit
68. Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status has the worst effect on an account

Explanation

Cancellation status in military standard requisitioning and issue procedures has the worst effect on an account because it indicates that the requested item or service has been canceled. This means that the account will not receive the requested item, leading to potential delays or disruptions in operations. Additionally, cancellation status may also result in wasted resources and inefficiencies in the procurement process. Therefore, cancellation status has a negative impact on an account's ability to fulfill its military requirements effectively.

Submit
69. Organizations may identify their issue request to Base Supply using either a

Explanation

Organizations can submit their issue requests to Base Supply by providing either a stock number or a part number. This means that the organizations have the flexibility to use either of these identifiers to request the required items from Base Supply. The stock number refers to the unique identification number assigned to a specific item in the inventory, while the part number is a specific identifier for a particular part or component. By accepting both of these identifiers, Base Supply ensures that organizations can easily communicate their requirements using the most suitable identifier for their specific needs.

Submit
70. When does the repair cycle of an asset begin

Explanation

The repair cycle of an asset begins with the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment. This is when the asset is identified as needing repair and is taken out of service for the necessary repairs to be conducted. After the item is removed, it can then be sent to the appropriate repair facility or department for evaluation and repair. The other options mentioned in the question (repair on base, turning in faulty part to LRS, and submitting a replacement request to LRS) are all steps that may occur during the repair cycle, but they do not mark the beginning of the cycle.

Submit
71. Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decision are made by

Explanation

Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports. This can have negative consequences for buy, repair, and distribution decisions made by HQ AFMC. It is important for HQ AFMC to have accurate and up-to-date information in order to make informed decisions regarding stock levels and distribution.

Submit
72. During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belong with

Explanation

During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belongs with the home base. This means that the home base is responsible for keeping track of the equipment assets during the deployment period. The gaining base refers to the location where the deployment is taking place, HQ USAF refers to the Headquarters of the United States Air Force, and the MAJCOM refers to the Major Command responsible for the deployment. However, in this specific scenario, the home base retains the accountability for the equipment assets.

Submit
73. What code reflected in the operations plan or time phased force deployment data define number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking

Explanation

The code reflected in the operations plan or time phased force deployment data that defines the number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking is UTC.

Submit
74. Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property

Explanation

Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This means that the TIN is processed before any other actions or steps are taken. It suggests that the TIN is a crucial part of the process and needs to be completed or verified before proceeding further. This method ensures that the property is only picked up after the TIN has been properly processed, minimizing any potential errors or issues.

Submit
75. What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information

Explanation

The computer system that provides interchangeable and substitute group information is D043B.

Submit
76. Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies

Explanation

Serviceable receipts is not a category of receipt discrepancies. Receipt discrepancies typically refer to issues or discrepancies related to the quantity, documentation, or identification of items received. Serviceable receipts, on the other hand, refer to receipts that are in good working condition and can be used or serviced as intended. Therefore, it does not fall under the category of receipt discrepancies.

Submit
77. What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location 05C045F056D

Explanation

In the given warehouse location code "05C045F056D", the "D" is used to identify a bin subdivision. The code is divided into different sections, with each section representing a specific subdivision within the warehouse. In this case, "D" represents a particular bin subdivision within the location.

Submit
78. When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transaction as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment System Group

Explanation

When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transactions correctly, the problem is reported to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment System Group using AF Form 1815.

Submit
79. Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to Maintenance

Explanation

The term "Firm" in the given options suggests that it is the due-in from maintenance detail record that indicates an issue to Maintenance. This implies that when the maintenance is due, it is the responsibility of the Firm to notify Maintenance about the issue that needs to be addressed.

Submit
80. Supply uses what source of data to process turnaround transaction

Explanation

The correct answer is AFTO Form 350. The AFTO Form 350 is used as a source of data to process turnaround transactions. This form is specifically designed for aircraft maintenance and is used to document maintenance actions, inspections, and status of aircraft and equipment. It contains information such as the date and time of maintenance actions, the name of the technician performing the action, and the status of the aircraft or equipment after the maintenance. By using the AFTO Form 350, the supply department can accurately track and process turnaround transactions for aircraft maintenance.

Submit
81. What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
82. Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not ship

Explanation

Shipment exception code 1 is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped. This code indicates that there is a hold on the shipment due to some legal or regulatory issue, and it is not permissible to proceed with the shipment.

Submit
83. Which Air Force is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air Force-managed items

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
84. Illustrated parts breakdowns are normally identified and published by

Explanation

Illustrated parts breakdowns are typically identified and published by a series of technical orders, specifically the -4 series. This series of technical orders provides detailed information and diagrams about the parts and components of a particular system or equipment. By referring to the -4 series of technical orders, individuals can easily locate and identify the specific parts they need.

Submit
85. What code is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item, and it is not on that organization's accountable record

Explanation

The "+" symbol is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record.

Submit
86. Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status

Explanation

The correct answer is I004. I004 is the management notice that is a result of issue processing and reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantities. This notice is generated to inform the management about the quantities of products that have been issued, killed, or put on backorder due to various issues. It helps the management track and manage inventory levels effectively.

Submit
87. Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation

Explanation

The listing used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation is D23.

Submit
88. To account for all transaction during degraded operations, the proper paperwork must be filled out and maintained until input into the

Explanation

To account for all transactions during degraded operations, the proper paperwork must be filled out and maintained until input into the SBSS. SBSS stands for Standard Base Supply System, which is a computerized inventory management system used by the United States Air Force. It is responsible for tracking and managing the supply chain, including transactions and inventory levels. By inputting the paperwork into SBSS, the system can accurately reflect the transactions and ensure proper record-keeping even during degraded operations.

Submit
89. Whose responsibility is it to identify of a misidentified item

Explanation

The responsibility to identify a misidentified item lies with the inspector. The inspector is responsible for thoroughly examining and inspecting items to ensure they meet the required standards and specifications. They play a crucial role in identifying any discrepancies or misidentifications in the items. The inspector's expertise and attention to detail are essential in maintaining quality control and ensuring that the correct items are identified and processed correctly.

Submit
90. What computer input is processed to initiate a condition change

Explanation

In this question, the correct answer is "fcc". The other options, "fch", "fcu", and "fci" are not valid inputs for initiating a condition change in a computer. The letters "fch", "fcu", and "fci" do not have any specific meaning or relevance in the context of computer input and condition changes. Therefore, the correct answer is "fcc", which is the only option that can be considered as a valid input for initiating a condition change.

Submit
91. Materiel Management specialist are not responsible for

Explanation

Materiel Management specialists are responsible for providing support to maintenance activities, researching and identifying materiel requirements, and preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. However, they are not responsible for performing materiel management systems control functions. This task is likely assigned to a different role or department within the organization.

Submit
92. What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and urgency justification codes on issue request

Explanation

By challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and urgency justification codes on issue requests, the benefit that can occur is a reduction in the number of UMMIPS violations. UMMIPS violations refer to instances where the urgency of need for a particular item is falsely or inaccurately represented, leading to improper prioritization and potentially causing delays or inefficiencies in the supply chain. By challenging and addressing these inflated designators and codes, the number of UMMIPS violations can be minimized, ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately and efficiently.

Submit
93. Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to for help

Explanation

Unresolved supply discrepancy reports are forwarded to the MAJCOM for help. The MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for overseeing and managing the supply chain operations within a specific geographic area or functional area. They have the authority and resources to address and resolve supply discrepancies, ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to rectify any issues and maintain a smooth supply chain process.

Submit
94. How often is AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual published

Explanation

AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is released every three months. Publishing the manual quarterly allows for regular updates and revisions to be made, ensuring that the information within the manual remains current and accurate. This frequency also allows for any changes or developments in supply procedures and policies to be promptly communicated to the relevant personnel within the United States Air Force.

Submit
95. What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number

Explanation

The "R" releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the system will provide a detailed report on the stock number, including information such as current stock levels, demand history, and projected requirements. It allows users to quickly assess the status of a particular stock number and make informed decisions regarding supply and demand.

Submit
96. Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair

Explanation

The code "1" indicates that an item is not authorized for base level repair.

Submit
97. Issues from a supply point are considered

Explanation

Over-the-counter refers to a type of transaction that takes place directly between two parties without the involvement of a formal exchange or marketplace. In the context of the given question, "issues from a supply point are considered over-the-counter" means that the issues or problems arising from the supply point are dealt with directly and immediately, without any formal procedures or intermediaries. This suggests that the issues are resolved quickly and efficiently, without the need for complex processes or bureaucracy.

Submit
98. Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are identified by which expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator

Explanation

Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are identified by NF1. This code represents the expandability, recoverability, reparability, and cost designator of the equipment items. It is used to categorize and track these items in the inventory system.

Submit
99. How many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other storage facilities

Explanation

Flammable storage facilities must be separated by at least 50 feet from other storage facilities. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of fire spreading from the flammable materials to other storage areas. By maintaining this separation, the chances of a fire incident causing extensive damage or endangering nearby facilities can be significantly reduced.

Submit
100. The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

Explanation

The correct answer is "storage space" because it is the fundamental resource required for any material management and distribution operation. Without adequate storage space, it would be impossible to store and organize the materials efficiently. The layout and plan of the storage space are important factors, but the actual availability of storage space is the essential requirement for the operation to function effectively.

Submit
101. What identifies the storage level in warehouse location 01A002B003G

Explanation

The letter "B" in the warehouse location 01A002B003G identifies the storage level.

Submit
102. Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity

Explanation

The correct answer is Equipment management element. The equipment management element is responsible for conducting reviews and authorizations related to base equipment. They oversee the management and maintenance of equipment, ensuring it is properly accounted for and authorized for use. This includes reviewing requests for equipment, conducting inspections, and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies. The equipment management element plays a crucial role in ensuring that base equipment is properly managed and authorized for use.

Submit
103. Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using the activity code

Explanation

Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using the activity code "E". This means that when equipment is returned or turned in, it is recorded and managed using the activity code "E". This code helps to track and manage the inventory of equipment that is being returned or turned in by individuals or departments.

Submit
104. What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets

Explanation

The transaction exception code that is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets is 1, 8, H, U, X or . (period).

Submit
105. What purpose does the part number detail record serve

Explanation

The part number detail record serves the purpose of automating the part number to stock number cross-reference file. This means that it helps in automatically linking the part number to the corresponding stock number, making it easier and more efficient to find and track specific parts. This automation eliminates the need for manual research and searches in federal logistics, and also provides a record of past part number requirements.

Submit
106. Which DD form is red and is used to identify property this is unserviceable and unconditional to repair

Explanation

DD Form 1577 is the correct answer. This form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and beyond repair. It is typically used for items that are to be turned in for disposal or salvage. This form helps in accurately tracking and documenting unserviceable property within the military system.

Submit
107. What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tape

Explanation

The correct answer is Consolidated Transaction (M19). This register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tape. This suggests that the register is created by consolidating and combining transaction data from various sources, which are stored and accessed using magnetic tape technology. The other options, Daily Transaction (D06), Daily Document Control (D04), and Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10), do not mention the use of magnetic tape or the merging of transaction histories.

Submit
108. An I007 management notice will be produce when a

Explanation

The correct answer is "part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control." This means that when a request is made for a specific part number, but there is no corresponding stock number available, a management notice will be produced. This suggests that the program is unable to automatically convert the part number request into a stock number, indicating a potential issue with inventory management or availability.

Submit
109. Who selects the method for document distribution and creation

Explanation

The team chief is responsible for selecting the method for document distribution and creation. As the leader of the team, they have the authority to determine how documents should be distributed and created in order to ensure effective communication and collaboration within the team. They are in the best position to understand the needs and preferences of the team members and can make informed decisions regarding the most suitable methods for document distribution and creation.

Submit
110. What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item's security classification is increased on the item record

Explanation

When an item's security classification is increased on the item record, a warehouse change document known as a "Controlled item code" is produced. This document serves as a record of the change made to the item's security classification. It helps in maintaining control over the item and ensures that the necessary security measures are implemented. The controlled item code is used to track and manage the item throughout its lifecycle, ensuring that it is handled and stored appropriately according to its security classification.

Submit
111. What is the Air Force source for hazardous materiel data and pollution prevention information

Explanation

AF-EMIS stands for Air Force Environmental Management Information System. It is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system provides comprehensive and up-to-date information regarding hazardous materials, their handling, storage, and disposal, as well as pollution prevention strategies. It is a centralized database that allows Air Force personnel to access and manage environmental information effectively, ensuring compliance with regulations and promoting environmental stewardship.

Submit
112. Which TEX Code keeps the materiel management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input

Explanation

The TEX Code "Seven" keeps the material management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input.

Submit
113. What transaction identification code changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase-LP-items) fields on internal records

Explanation

The transaction identification code FCU is used to change the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack fields on internal records. This code is specifically for updating these fields, except for local purchase-LP-items.

Submit
114. Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen

Explanation

To access the receipt processing screen, you need to enter the system designator and due-in document number on the receipt inquiry screen. This is necessary because the system designator identifies the specific system being used, while the due-in document number refers to the document that indicates the expected receipt of goods. By entering these details, the system can locate and retrieve the relevant receipt information for further processing.

Submit
115. What happens to the quantity on a due-in detail record balance when a receipt is processed

Explanation

When a receipt is processed, the quantity on a due-in detail record balance decreases. This is because a receipt indicates that the goods or items have been received and are no longer pending. Therefore, the quantity that was previously recorded as due-in is reduced as it has now been accounted for.

Submit
116. Who establishes a supply management activity group

Explanation

Congress establishes a supply management activity group. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is responsible for assisting the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and supervising its administration. The Secretary of the Air Force and Secretary of Defense have specific roles within the military, but they do not establish supply management activity groups. The power to establish such a group lies with Congress, as they have the authority to create and regulate government agencies and programs.

Submit
117. What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status

Explanation

The correct answer is ISH. ISH stands for Issue Status History, which is a Standard Base Supply System output that notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status. This means that ISH provides information about any changes in the status of items that are due to be issued, ensuring that the core automated maintenance system is aware of these changes and can take appropriate action.

Submit
118. What code  is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has canceled a requisition

Explanation

The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has canceled a requisition.

Submit
119. Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filing the requisition exactly as it was requested

Explanation

Exception/other is the correct answer because it refers to situations where the supply source is unable to fulfill the requisition exactly as requested due to out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, or other conditions. This status indicates that there is a deviation from the standard requisitioning and issue procedures.

Submit
120. Which materiel management program is used to identify all claims receivable/claims payable detail that require a Report of Discrepancy or Supply discrepancy report and for those requiring followup

Explanation

NGV587 is the correct answer because it is the materiel management program used to identify all claims receivable/claims payable detail that require a Report of Discrepancy or Supply discrepancy report and for those requiring follow-up.

Submit
121. Which discrepancies are reported on a SF 364

Explanation

The SF 364 form is used to report discrepancies in various areas, including product quality deficiencies, transportation type discrepancies, and discrepancies involving local base or station deliveries. However, the correct answer states that the SF 364 is specifically used to report incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments, regardless of the dollar value. This means that regardless of the cost or value of the items involved, if there are any issues with incorrect materials, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments, they should be reported using the SF 364 form.

Submit
122. What daily supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file

Explanation

A document register is a daily supply product that is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file. It helps in keeping track of all the documents that enter or leave the warehouse, ensuring that there is proper documentation and record-keeping for each transaction. This helps in maintaining an organized and efficient system for managing the warehouse location suspense file.

Submit
123. How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit

Explanation

The correct answer is annually because scheduling a surveillance visit once a year is a reasonable timeframe to ensure that the necessary monitoring and assessment of the surveillance area is conducted. This allows for regular checks and updates while also allowing enough time for any potential changes or issues to arise and be addressed. Quarterly or semiannually may be too frequent and could be excessive for the purpose of surveillance visits. "As required" is not a specific timeframe and does not provide a clear schedule for conducting surveillance visits.

Submit
124. For long term deployments, what input transfer accountability of selected equipment items

Explanation

The correct answer is 1ET/FME. This means that for long-term deployments, the input transfer accountability of selected equipment items is handled by 1ET/FME.

Submit
125. Which codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply

Explanation

FAD, Urgency-of need designator codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply. These codes help in identifying the urgency and importance of the need for the requested item, allowing the source of supply to prioritize and fulfill the requisition accordingly.

Submit
126. Which interchangeable and substitution group relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions

Explanation

The correct answer is "S". In the context of interchangeable and substitution group relationship codes, "S" represents an item that can only be used in place of another item for a particular use or under certain conditions. This suggests that the item is specifically designed or designated as a substitute for another item, and cannot be used interchangeably with other items outside of those specific use cases or conditions.

Submit
127. How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered

Explanation

In a warehouse, storage bin rows are numbered in a way that odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle. This numbering system is likely implemented to provide a clear and organized structure within the warehouse. By assigning odd numbers to the left of the main aisle, it becomes easier for workers to navigate and locate specific storage bins. It also helps in maintaining a consistent and logical arrangement of the rows, making it more efficient for inventory management and retrieval processes.

Submit
128. Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at

Explanation

Flammable solids are substances that can catch fire easily when exposed to heat or flames. The correct answer is "100F or above" because it indicates that flammable solids are those that are solid at temperatures equal to or higher than 100 degrees Fahrenheit. This means that these substances have a low ignition temperature and can ignite at relatively low temperatures.

Submit
129. The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions

Explanation

The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into six divisions.

Submit
130. What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document

Explanation

The activity code "J" identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document.

Submit
131. What code found on the mission capability report (DIC B9x) identifies the reason for termination of the mission capability condition 

Explanation

The code found on the mission capability report that identifies the reason for termination of the mission capability condition is the "Delete code".

Submit
132. What report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when your base weapon assets are increased or decreased

Explanation

The correct answer is DSM because DSM stands for "Daily Status of Munitions." When the base weapon assets are increased or decreased, it is important to send a report to the Small Arms Registry to keep track of the changes. The DSM report provides a daily status update on the munitions, including any changes in the inventory.

Submit
133. Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisition

Explanation

The serial numbers used for off-line requisition are 9000-9899. This range of numbers is specifically designated for off-line requisitions, indicating that any requisitions falling within this range should be processed offline rather than online.

Submit
134. Which listing may be used instead of the D18 to review priority requirements

Explanation

R01 may be used instead of D18 to review priority requirements.

Submit
135. What is the purpose of AF form 2032

Explanation

AF form 2032 is used to update inspection data. This means that the form is used to record any changes or updates in the inspection data of a particular item or property. It is not used to identify condemned items, property turned over to Maintenance, or property in stock that has been suspended. The purpose of AF form 2032 is specifically to update inspection data, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained.

Submit
136. The central locator listing is maintained for how many days after a new directory is received

Explanation

The central locator listing is maintained for 30 days after a new directory is received. This means that the listing will be available for a month before it is updated or replaced with a new directory. This time frame allows for users to access and utilize the information in the central locator listing for a sufficient period before it is refreshed.

Submit
137. Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item

Explanation

Management notice I023 reflects the total base asset position of an item.

Submit
138. What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
139. Within an allowance standard what establishes the number of item s that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization

Explanation

The basis of issue refers to the criteria or factors that determine the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization within an allowance standard. It takes into account various considerations such as the purpose, need, and requirements of the recipient, as well as any limitations or restrictions in place. It serves as a guideline for determining the appropriate quantity of items to be issued, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively and efficiently.

Submit
140. Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code

Explanation

Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using activity code P.

Submit
141. Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions

Explanation

Q10 is the listing used to identify out-of-balance conditions.

Submit
142. What system does program control use to assign a requisition priority for each requisition

Explanation

The program control uses the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. This system is responsible for determining the order in which requisitions are processed and fulfilled, based on factors such as the urgency of the request and the availability of the requested materials. It helps ensure that critical needs are addressed first and that resources are allocated efficiently.

Submit
143.   What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action 

Explanation

The cancellation status code "ZC" indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action. This means that the cancellation request was initiated manually or through a non-online process, rather than through an automated or online system.

Submit
144. Which transaction identification code is used to change the stock number, expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator, equipment management code; routing identifier, or budget code on the item record

Explanation

The transaction identification code FIC is used to change various attributes on the item record such as stock number, expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator, equipment management code, routing identifier, or budget code. This code allows for modifications and updates to be made to these specific fields in the item record.

Submit
145. What are three things used in a identity form ?

Explanation

In an identity form, three important pieces of information are typically included: a reference number, a stock number, and an item description. The reference number helps to uniquely identify the form or document, while the stock number is used to identify the specific item or product being referenced. The item description provides additional details or specifications about the item.

Submit
146. The storage activity should complete schedule validation within how man workdays of the start of a cycle inventory

Explanation

The storage activity should complete schedule validation within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that the validation process should be finished within 10 working days from the beginning of the inventory cycle. This is important to ensure that the inventory is properly accounted for and any discrepancies or issues are identified and resolved in a timely manner. Completing the validation within this timeframe helps to maintain the accuracy and integrity of the inventory records.

Submit
147. How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter sent to the computer operations section for processing

Explanation

The warehouse validation parameter is sent to the computer operations section for processing one day before the start of the warehouse validation.

Submit
148. Which term indicates that any updats the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone

Explanation

The term "Rollback (RB) code" indicates that any updates made by the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program will be undone. This means that any changes made since starting the program or since executing the last FREE DMR command will be reverted back to their previous state. The RB code is used to initiate the rollback process and ensure that the system returns to its previous state.

Submit
149. Who must manually agree on the selection of property custodian

Explanation

The EME (Equipment Management Element) and organizational commanders must manually agree on the selection of property custodian. This means that both the EME and the commanders of the organization need to come to a mutual decision on who will be responsible for the custody and management of the property. This ensures that there is consensus and accountability in the selection process.

Submit
150. What section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the technical order

Explanation

The numerical index section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the technical order. This section allows the user to easily locate specific part numbers and their corresponding illustrations in the breakdown. It helps in identifying and ordering the correct parts needed for repairs or maintenance.

Submit
151. When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance the inspector does a follow up inspection in how many days

Explanation

When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector conducts a follow-up inspection after 10 days. This allows sufficient time for the warehouse to address and rectify any identified deficiencies before the inspector returns to ensure compliance with regulations and standards. A 10-day interval allows for proper corrective actions to be taken and ensures that the warehouse has had enough time to implement necessary improvements.

Submit
152. The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the

Explanation

In a TRACE inquiry, the database key consists of the area name and the Area Key. The area name helps to identify the specific area or section of the database, while the Area Key is a unique identifier within that area. By combining these two elements, the TRACE inquiry can accurately locate and retrieve the desired information from the database. The CALC Key, Trace Key, and Record Key are not mentioned in relation to the database key in a TRACE inquiry.

Submit
153. What product is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed

Explanation

The Daily Document Register is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed. This register keeps track of all the daily documents processed, ensuring that all necessary tasks have been completed within the specified time frame. By referring to this register, one can confirm that the turnaround processing has been successfully executed.

Submit
154. Mobility readiness spares packages assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary

Explanation

Mobility readiness spares packages assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for 60 days before resupply is necessary. This means that the assets and resources included in the packages are sufficient to sustain the weapon system's operation and maintenance for a period of two months without requiring additional supplies or support.

Submit
155. What program is used to perform the readiness spares packages reconciliation

Explanation

The program used to perform the readiness spares packages reconciliation is S05.

Submit
156. Which type of adjustment minimum level should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed 

Explanation

The minimum level adjustment that should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed is type A. This type of adjustment allows for a higher minimum level of inventory to be maintained, ensuring that there is always enough stock available to meet demand without the need for immediate replenishment. This is particularly useful in situations where lead times are longer or where there may be fluctuations in demand. By setting a higher minimum level, the organization can avoid stockouts and ensure smooth operations.

Submit
157. Which transaction identifier code identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change

Explanation

The transaction identifier code FIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change. This code is used to indicate that there has been a change in the data related to the warehouse, such as the location of items or the quantity of items stored. It is important to have a specific code like FIC to easily identify and track these changes in the warehouse system.

Submit
158. Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the material management analysis element

Explanation

The accountable officer is responsible for determining the priority of projects to be performed by the material management analysis element. They have the authority and oversight to make decisions regarding resource allocation and project sequencing based on organizational goals, budgetary constraints, and other relevant factors. As the individual ultimately responsible for the success and effectiveness of the material management analysis element, the accountable officer is in the best position to determine project priorities.

Submit
159. What transaction identification code is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package detail

Explanation

The transaction identification code FKD is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package detail.

Submit
160. The following factors are involved in the due-out release sequence: FAD, UJC, project code and

Explanation

The correct answer is "document number date." This is because the given factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and document number date. The document number date is an important factor in determining the release sequence as it helps in organizing and prioritizing the due-out releases based on the date of the document number.

Submit
161. What Transaction Identification Code establishes the part number record

Explanation

The Transaction Identification Code FIL or 1AA is used to establish the part number record.

Submit
162. The purpose of the E10 is to reconcile data between which system

Explanation

The purpose of the E10 is to reconcile data between the MASS and SBSS systems.

Submit
163. Which quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle

Explanation

The repair cycle quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle. This means that it is the quantity of inventory that needs to be available in order to fulfill repair demands and ensure that there are enough units to meet customer needs during the repair process.

Submit
164. Which stock leveling term identifies required quantities to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or of unpredictable increase in demands

Explanation

Safety level quantity identifies the required quantities to be on hand to allow for continuous operation during minor interruptions in normal replenishment or unpredictable increases in demand. This term refers to the buffer stock that is maintained to ensure that there are enough products available to meet unexpected fluctuations in demand or delays in replenishment. By having a safety level quantity, companies can minimize the risk of stockouts and ensure smooth operations even during disruptions.

Submit
165. What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office

Explanation

The correct answer is "Six". This transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office.

Submit
166. Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action

Explanation

This transaction is authorized for a reverse-post action because it involves a funding error where the unit price changes variance is 500 percent or greater. This means that there was a significant discrepancy in the price of the item, which would require the transaction to be reversed and corrected.

Submit
167. What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out

Explanation

The mission capability flag "N" on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out. This flag indicates that the item is not mission capable and needs to be repaired or replaced in order to establish the required mission capability.

Submit
168. Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability termination

Explanation

Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for 90 days after a mission capability termination. This means that the supply computer will keep track of the Y-type details, such as inventory and stock levels, for a period of 90 days after the mission capability has ended. This allows for better record-keeping and management of supplies, ensuring that any necessary information can still be accessed and utilized within this timeframe.

Submit
169. Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item 

Explanation

The DIFM detail record is established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item. This record contains information about the item that needs to be repaired, such as its identification number, condition, and location. It is used to track the progress of the repair cycle and ensure that the item is properly repaired and returned to service.

Submit
170. What approach does agile logistics use with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon support

Explanation

Agile logistics uses the just-in-time approach with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon support. This means that the necessary repairs and maintenance are carried out only when they are needed, minimizing the amount of inventory and reducing costs. By adopting this approach, agile logistics can ensure that the weapon support is provided to the customers in a timely manner, without any unnecessary delays or excess inventory. This allows for greater efficiency and responsiveness in meeting customer needs.

Submit
171. What supply condition code and action code, respectively, is used to process a Product Quality/ Material Deficiency Report turn-in

Explanation

The supply condition code "Q" is used to indicate that the item being turned in is unserviceable and reparable, while the action code "C" is used to indicate that the item is being turned in for repair or reclamation. This means that when a Product Quality/ Material Deficiency Report turn-in is processed, the item is identified as unserviceable and in need of repair or reclamation.

Submit
172. What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment

Explanation

The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item being returned is damaged and requires special handling. It allows the system to track and manage the return process specifically for damaged items, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to resolve the issue and provide a replacement or refund to the customer.

Submit
173. What accountable receipt document may list more than one item and document number

Explanation

The DD Form 250 is an accountable receipt document that may list more than one item and document number. It is used to document the receipt, shipment, and transfer of government property and supplies. This form includes detailed information such as the date of shipment, the quantity and description of items, the unit price, and the total value. It is commonly used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies to track and manage inventory.

Submit
174. Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all the military services and some of the civilian agencies

Explanation

The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) is responsible for managing and purchasing common consumable items used by all the military services and some civilian agencies. This includes items such as food, fuel, clothing, medical supplies, and equipment. The DLA ensures that these items are available and distributed efficiently to support military operations and other government agencies. Local manufacturers, Air Force Material Command (AFMC), and General Services Administration (GSA) may have roles in the supply chain, but the DLA is specifically tasked with managing and purchasing these common consumable items.

Submit
175. Which transaction identification code is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorization maintenance detail

Explanation

The transaction identification code 1XA is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorization maintenance detail.

Submit
176. What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details

Explanation

The listing used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details is R40.

Submit
177. Which code replaces the cost designator in the expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator for an equipment item 

Explanation

The cost designator for an equipment item is replaced by the code "Equipment management". This code is responsible for managing the equipment, including its expandability, recoverability, reparability, and cost. It is likely that the cost designator is a part of the equipment management system and is used to track and allocate costs related to the equipment item.

Submit
178. What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items

Explanation

The Air Force Materiel Command system that computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items is the Defense European and Pacific Redistribution Activity (DEPRA).

Submit
179. What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually

Explanation

The transaction identification code used to transfer assets to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually is TRM.

Submit
180. Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs

Explanation

The Air Force Equipment Management System serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs. This system is designed to manage and control the acquisition, distribution, and maintenance of equipment within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for tracking and monitoring equipment inventory, budget allocation, and procurement processes. By utilizing this system, organizations can effectively plan and manage their equipment budget and purchasing programs, ensuring that they have the necessary resources to support their operational needs.

Submit
181. Which Materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports

Explanation

The materiel management function that evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports is Procedures. This involves the process of reviewing and assessing the reports of any discrepancies in the supplies received and implementing appropriate procedures to address and rectify these issues. It includes investigating the causes of the discrepancies, documenting the findings, and taking necessary actions to prevent future occurrences. This function plays a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy and quality of the incoming supplies and maintaining effective supply chain management.

Submit
182. When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing what item storage factor

Explanation

When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing the quantity item storage factor. This means that you are increasing the capacity or size of the storage area to accommodate more items and prevent them from overflowing into other locations. By doing so, you ensure that there is enough space to store a larger quantity of items without causing any disruptions or issues with the storage system.

Submit
183. Who acts as the focal point for all materiel management readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operation

Explanation

The readiness officer acts as the focal point for all materiel management readiness issues, including contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary resources and equipment are available and prepared for any potential contingencies or deployments. They coordinate and oversee the readiness of the organization, ensuring that all materiel management processes are in place and functioning effectively.

Submit
184. Which code on an issue request is used by the Standard Base Supply System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction

Explanation

The correct answer is Transaction identification code. The transaction identification code is used by the Standard Base Supply System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction. This code helps identify the specific transaction and ensures that it is processed correctly within the system.

Submit
185. How often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned

Explanation

A utility program should be run monthly to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned. Running the program on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring and identification of any hazardous items that may have slipped through without proper coding or flagging. This frequency strikes a balance between ensuring timely identification of hazards while also minimizing the burden of running the program too frequently.

Submit
186. Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data item 

Explanation

The correct answer is R15, Organizational visibility list. This listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data items. It helps in keeping track of these valuable items and ensuring their proper management and control within the organization.

Submit
187. The TRACE inquiry determines what a specified

Explanation

The correct answer is "transaction was doing at the time the system error occurred." This answer suggests that the TRACE inquiry is used to determine the activity or state of a specific transaction when a system error occurred. It implies that the TRACE inquiry helps in analyzing and identifying the cause of the error by examining the transaction's actions or behavior at the time of the error.

Submit
188. Which listing reflects awaiting parts due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail record

Explanation

The listing D19 reflects awaiting parts due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail record.

Submit
189. Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate of the current and past four quarters

Explanation

The correct answer is "Average percent of base repair". This term refers to the average percentage of the base repair rate over the current and past four quarters. It helps in identifying the repair rate of a particular stock level, which is crucial for managing inventory and ensuring optimal repair and maintenance processes.

Submit
190. Which standard base supply system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels

Explanation

The standard base supply system program used to review and validate adjusted stock levels is R35.

Submit
191. How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system

Explanation

The correct answer is five because the question asks for the number of different types of reports that can be processed through the materiel management computer system. Out of the given options, five is the only answer that corresponds to the question.

Submit
192. Which report provides a listing of all items authorization, on-hand, and due-out, for those organization authorization special-purpose recoverables authorization maintenance assets

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
193. How long is the locally developed checklist used to conduct inspections of chemical containers maintained

Explanation

The locally developed checklist used to conduct inspections of chemical containers is maintained for 1 year. This duration allows for regular and thorough inspections to ensure the safety and compliance of the containers. It also allows for timely identification and rectification of any issues or concerns related to the chemical containers. A longer duration might increase the risk of overlooking potential hazards or outdated safety measures, while a shorter duration might be too frequent and impractical for effective inspections. Therefore, maintaining the checklist for 1 year strikes a balance between regularity and efficiency.

Submit
194. How do we determine what equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain

Explanation

The correct answer is "Allowance standard." Allowance standard refers to the guidelines or criteria that determine what equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain. These standards are typically set by higher authorities or governing bodies and help ensure that organizations only acquire and maintain the necessary equipment items for their operations. This helps in managing resources effectively and avoiding unnecessary expenses.

Submit
195. Which listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorization are maintained within prescribed allowances

Explanation

The allowance source code listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances. This listing provides information about the specific source codes that are allowed for equipment, ensuring that only authorized equipment is used and that it is within the prescribed allowances. The listing helps to track and manage equipment authorizations effectively, ensuring compliance with regulations and preventing any unauthorized or excessive use of equipment.

Submit
196. What transportation tracer list is used to decide if tracer action should begin or if a problem exist in the LRS

Explanation

The transportation tracer list is used to determine if tracer action should be initiated or if there is a problem in the LRS (Logistics Readiness Squadron). This list helps track transportation activities and identifies any issues or discrepancies that may arise during the transportation process. By referencing this list, the appropriate actions can be taken to resolve any problems or concerns that may affect the transportation operations.

Submit
197. Which code is assigned to identify the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution (I&S) grouping will be substituted or issue

Explanation

The code "Order of use" is assigned to identify the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution (I&S) grouping will be substituted or issued. This code helps in determining the sequence or priority in which the items will be used or issued, ensuring a systematic and organized approach to the process. It helps in maintaining consistency and efficiency in the substitution or issuing of items within the I&S grouping.

Submit
198. Whose responsibility is it establish and implement an effective program to return serviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system

Explanation

The accountable officer is responsible for establishing and implementing an effective program to return serviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system. This role involves ensuring that the items are properly accounted for and returned in a timely manner to maintain an efficient inventory system. The accountable officer is entrusted with the responsibility of overseeing the overall management and control of the items, making them the appropriate choice for this task.

Submit
199. What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations

Explanation

The correct answer is "Requisition objective." The requisition objective is the stock leveling term that represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. This term is used to determine the appropriate quantity to order or maintain in order to meet the demand and avoid stockouts or excess inventory. It helps in ensuring that the right amount of stock is available to support smooth operations without incurring unnecessary costs.

Submit
200. Which input is used to load, change, or delete supply point details

Explanation

The input used to load, change, or delete supply point details is FSP.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 08, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Aisha Vargas
Cancel
  • All
    All (200)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual
Who should help a driver back a vehicle into a position for offloading
What are the two types of open storage areas
What Air Force manual governs the US Air Force materiel management...
What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual
How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be...
Users can query the materiel management computer consolidation...
What personal computer based program is used to manage mobility bags
Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker
The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
What protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground...
Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged...
Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures...
Under the consolidation transaction history (CTH) system, which option...
What type of receipt must be processed before all others
Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such...
Which storage method helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued...
What type of materiel management source document are not placed in a...
What is the main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG
Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative...
Which issue exception code identify health hazard items
Which corrosive are incompatible and should be separate in storage
What is the transaction identification code for an automated...
Which type mobility bad contains chemical warfare defense equipment
What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part...
At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be...
When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept a...
Mobility bags can be built ahead of time and stored using what concept
How many characters is the descriptive nonmenclature field limited to...
Which class of supply includes weapons
Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to...
An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the
Which type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of...
What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse...
In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21)...
Which class of supply consists of ammunitions
 Which maintenance process updates various basic and support...
Which request should be input into Air Force Equipment Management...
Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance asset is...
What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage...
Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system...
What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input
A reason for performing and processing a cannibalization action would...
Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance...
What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile...
Which Materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the...
When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancies...
What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate...
Within how many workdays should all Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)...
How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for...
What transaction identification code is used to issue assets from a...
What section stores small arms for mobility use
Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure...
Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and...
Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
What scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal
What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provided logistics...
What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt
The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry...
To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program,...
What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of...
Which division is responsible for supply information systems...
Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the...
All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness...
 What term is used to describe selected XD items that are...
Which type of redistribution describes when item managers send...
What document identification code indicates a denial to a...
Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures...
Organizations may identify their issue request to Base Supply using...
When does the repair cycle of an asset begin
Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner...
During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment...
What code reflected in the operations plan or time phased force...
Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the...
What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group...
Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies
What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location...
When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or...
Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to...
Supply uses what source of data to process turnaround transaction
What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level
Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not ship
Which Air Force is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air...
Illustrated parts breakdowns are normally identified and published by
What code is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the...
Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects...
Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance...
To account for all transaction during degraded operations, the proper...
Whose responsibility is it to identify of a misidentified item
What computer input is processed to initiate a condition change
Materiel Management specialist are not responsible for
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated...
Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to for...
How often is AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual published
What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in...
Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level...
Issues from a supply point are considered
Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are...
How many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other...
The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution...
What identifies the storage level in warehouse location 01A002B003G
Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity
Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are...
What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and...
What purpose does the part number detail record serve
Which DD form is red and is used to identify property this is...
What materiel management register is prepared from transaction...
An I007 management notice will be produce when a
Who selects the method for document distribution and creation
What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item's...
What is the Air Force source for hazardous materiel data and pollution...
Which TEX Code keeps the materiel management computer from...
What transaction identification code changes the unit price, unit of...
Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you...
What happens to the quantity on a due-in detail record balance when a...
Who establishes a supply management activity group
What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated...
What code  is assigned to the item record to indicate the source...
Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures...
Which materiel management program is used to identify all claims...
Which discrepancies are reported on a SF 364
What daily supply product is used to clear the warehouse location...
How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit
For long term deployments, what input transfer accountability of...
Which codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority...
Which interchangeable and substitution group relationship code...
How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered
Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at
The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how...
What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated...
What code found on the mission capability report (DIC B9x) identifies...
What report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force...
Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisition
Which listing may be used instead of the D18 to review priority...
What is the purpose of AF form 2032
The central locator listing is maintained for how many days after a...
Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an...
What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to...
Within an allowance standard what establishes the number of item s...
Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are...
Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions
What system does program control use to assign a requisition priority...
  ...
Which transaction identification code is used to change the stock...
What are three things used in a identity form ?
The storage activity should complete schedule validation within how...
How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a...
Which term indicates that any updats the Standard Base Supply...
Who must manually agree on the selection of property custodian
What section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a sequential...
When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance...
The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the
What product is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed
Mobility readiness spares packages assets are designed to allow...
What program is used to perform the readiness spares packages...
Which type of adjustment minimum level should be used when one-for-one...
Which transaction identifier code identifies a warehouse change...
Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the...
What transaction identification code is used to assign a deployment...
The following factors are involved in the due-out release sequence:...
What Transaction Identification Code establishes the part number...
The purpose of the E10 is to reconcile data between which system
Which quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to...
Which stock leveling term identifies required quantities to be on hand...
What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations...
Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action
What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to...
Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply...
Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a...
What approach does agile logistics use with depot-level repair to meet...
What supply condition code and action code, respectively, is used to...
What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an...
What accountable receipt document may list more than one item and...
Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items...
Which transaction identification code is used to load, change, or...
What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details
Which code replaces the cost designator in the expandability,...
What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based level...
What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to...
Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment...
Which Materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming...
When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to...
Who acts as the focal point for all materiel management readiness...
Which code on an issue request is used by the Standard Base Supply...
How often must a utility program be run to identify potentially...
Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non...
The TRACE inquiry determines what a specified
Which listing reflects awaiting parts due-out detail records with...
Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate of the current...
Which standard base supply system program is used to review and...
How many different types of reports can be processed through the...
Which report provides a listing of all items authorization, on-hand,...
How long is the locally developed checklist used to conduct...
How do we determine what equipment items organizations are authorized...
Which listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorization are...
What transportation tracer list is used to decide if tracer action...
Which code is assigned to identify the order in which items within...
Whose responsibility is it establish and implement an effective...
What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should...
Which input is used to load, change, or delete supply point details
Alert!

Advertisement