2S051 CDC Review
Settings
- 1.Materiel Management specialist are not responsible for
- A.
Providing support to maintenance activities
- B.
Researching and identifying materiel requirements
- C.
Performing materiel management systems control functions
- D.
Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data
- 2.To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service
- A.
9
- B.
11
- C.
13
- D.
15
- 3.Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force
- A.
Effect One: Enterprise view
- B.
Effect Two: Integrated processes
- C.
Effect Three: Optimized resources
- D.
Effect Four: Integrated technology
- 4.In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource
- A.
Financial
- B.
Acquisition
- C.
Technology
- D.
Infrastructure
- 5.What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system
- A.
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)
- B.
General Services Administration (GSA)
- C.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
- D.
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
- 6.Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all the military services and some of the civilian agencies
- A.
Local manufacturers
- B.
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
- C.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC)
- D.
General Services Administraion (GSA)
- 7.Which class of supply includes weapons
- A.
II
- B.
IV
- C.
VII
- D.
IX
- 8.Which class of supply consists of ammunitions
- A.
III
- B.
V
- C.
VII
- D.
IX
- 9.What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provided logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment task
- A.
Readiness
- B.
Traffic management
- C.
Materiel management
- D.
Management and systems
- 10.Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and record maintenance
- A.
Management and systems
- B.
Command section
- C.
Mission readiness
- D.
Sustainment
- 11.Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)
- A.
Administration
- B.
Item accounting
- C.
File maintenance
- D.
Accounting and finance
- 12.Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations
- A.
Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG)
- B.
Miscellaneous file maintenance
- C.
Follow-up
- D.
Status
- 13.How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system
- A.
Five
- B.
Six
- C.
Seven
- D.
Eight
- 14.What Air Force manual governs the US Air Force materiel management system
- A.
23-11
- B.
23-110
- C.
32-10
- D.
32-111
- 15.How often is AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual published
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
- 16.What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual
- A.
Part
- B.
Section
- C.
Volume
- D.
Paragraph
- 17.How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual
- A.
Toolbar
- B.
Blue Text
- C.
Dark red text
- D.
Solid black line
- 18.How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in search of AFMAN 23-11, USAF Supply Manual
- A.
0223
- B.
02023
- C.
020203
- D.
0202030
- 19.What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to provide a summary of information about a given stock number
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
F
- D.
R
- 20.Users can query the materiel management computer consolidation transaction history (CTH) records as far back as
- A.
One month
- B.
Three months
- C.
Six months
- D.
One year or more
- 21.Under the consolidation transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print
- A.
Abbreviated format (Option A)
- B.
Short format (Option B)
- C.
Short format (Option S)
- D.
Short format (Option L)
- 22.The TRACE inquiry determines what a specified
- A.
Transaction was doing at the time the system error occurred
- B.
Transaction was doing when the TRACE input was processed
- C.
Stock number was doing when the TRACE input was processed
- D.
Stock number was doing at the time the specified error occured
- 23.The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the
- A.
CALC Key
- B.
Area Key
- C.
Trace Key
- D.
Record Key
- 24.Within how many workdays should all Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) rejects normally be processed
- A.
Seven
- B.
Five
- C.
Three
- D.
One
- 25.Which term indicates that any updats the Standard Base Supply System's (SBSS) application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone
- A.
Rollback (RB) code
- B.
Error function
- C.
RB function
- D.
Error code
- 26.Who reviews part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security violation List
- A.
Management and systems officer
- B.
Computer operations supervisor
- C.
Individual flight chief
- D.
Accountable officer
- 27.Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
- A.
A flight request
- B.
A job order number
- C.
A cumulative reject
- D.
An approved supplement
- 28.Which functional area is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings
- A.
Flight line and services
- B.
Computer operations
- C.
Procedures and analysis
- D.
Management and system
- 29.Who establishes a supply management activity group
- A.
Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
Secretary of Defense
- D.
Congress
- 30.The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
- 31.How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit
- A.
As required
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
- 32.When the Standard Base Supply System computer does not process or update transaction as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment System Group
- A.
AF Form 1810
- B.
AF Form 1815
- C.
AF Form 1820
- D.
AF Form 1825
- 33.Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the material management analysis element
- A.
Branch chief
- B.
Training personnel
- C.
Analysis supervisor
- D.
Accountable officer
- 34.What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
- 35.How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
- 36.What type of materiel management source document are not placed in a permanent document file
- A.
Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU
- B.
Source documents with file indicator D
- C.
TRIC FCU
- D.
TRIC FIC
- 37.What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tape
- A.
Daily Transaction (D06)
- B.
Daily Document Control (D04)
- C.
Consolidated Transaction (M19)
- D.
Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10)
- 38.All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail
- A.
Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail or special-spares
- B.
Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)
- C.
Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)
- D.
Shipment inventory
- 39.What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details
- A.
R04
- B.
R23
- C.
R40
- D.
R43
- 40.Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action
- A.
An organizational refusal when the wrong property was issued and signed for, and later returned to base supply
- B.
A funding error in which the unit price changes variance is 500 percent or greater
- C.
A registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail
- D.
A budget code 9 item processed int he previous year
- 41.What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction
- A.
1AM
- B.
1CC
- C.
1TK
- D.
1WC
- 42.What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input
- A.
Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phase code
- B.
Transaction serial number, quantity, and date
- C.
Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date
- D.
Quantity, TTPC, and date
- 43.Which code on an issue request is used by the Standard Base Supply System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction
- A.
System designator
- B.
Issue exception code
- C.
Transaction exception code
- D.
Transaction identification code
- 44.Organizations may identify their issue request to Base Supply using either a
- A.
Stock number or part number
- B.
Part number or document number
- C.
Part number or transportation control number number
- D.
Stock number or commercial and government entity number
- 45.What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and urgency justification codes on issue request
- A.
Increase the number of UMMIPS occurances
- B.
Reduce the number of UMMIPS violations
- C.
Increase the cost of priority requirements
- D.
Reduce the number of supply transaction
- 46.Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status
- A.
I004
- B.
I005
- C.
I007
- D.
I023
- 47.An I007 management notice will be produce when a
- A.
Stock number request cannot be converted to a part number
- B.
Stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers
- C.
Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control
- D.
Part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control
- 48.Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item
- A.
I004
- B.
I005
- C.
I007
- D.
I023
- 49.What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document
- A.
X
- B.
R
- C.
J
- D.
C
- 50.What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status
- A.
DUO
- B.
ISH
- C.
ISU
- D.
CSU
- 51.A reason for performing and processing a cannibalization action would be to
- A.
Establish a MICAP
- B.
Upgrade a MICAP
- C.
Prevent a MICAP
- D.
Verify a MICAP
- 52.What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out
- A.
N
- B.
M
- C.
F
- D.
D
- 53.What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement
- A.
I023
- B.
ISH
- C.
233
- D.
731
- 54.What code found on the mission capability report (DIC B9x) identifies the reason for termination of the mission capability condition
- A.
Reason why code
- B.
Report code
- C.
Delete code
- D.
Cause code
- 55.Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination of the mission capability condition
- A.
MICAP status report (E40)
- B.
MICAP report (B9*)
- C.
MICAP report (NOR)
- D.
MICAP report (D9*)
- 56.Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability termination
- A.
30
- B.
35
- C.
60
- D.
90
- 57.The purpose of the E10 is to reconcile data between which system
- A.
SBSS/ D165B
- B.
SBSS/D035C
- C.
MASS/SBSS
- D.
D035C/D165B
- 58.What mission capability ass sourcing system product provides a daily cleanup of the system's data base
- A.
E10
- B.
E20
- C.
E30
- D.
E40
- 59.What mission capability asset sourcing system/ Standard Base Supply System report provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents
- A.
E10
- B.
E20
- C.
E30
- D.
E40
- 60.
- A.
After the item is repaired on base
- B.
When the faulty part is turned into LRS
- C.
When a replacement request is submitted to LRS
- D.
With the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment
- 61.Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item
- A.
File status record
- B.
DIFM detail record
- C.
Repair cycle record
- D.
Supply point detail record
- 62.Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to Maintenance
- A.
Credit
- B.
Firm
- C.
Issue
- D.
Memo
- 63.Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation
- A.
D19
- B.
D29
- C.
D23
- D.
Q04
- 64.Which listing reflects awaiting parts due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail record
- A.
D19
- B.
D20
- C.
D23
- D.
Q04
- 65.How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
- 66.Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair
- A.
F
- B.
1
- C.
8
- D.
A
- 67.What approach does agile logistics use with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon support
- A.
Just-in-time
- B.
Point-of-sale
- C.
Over-the-counter
- D.
Stocked inventory
- 68.What term is used to describe selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair
- A.
Shop reparables
- B.
Two-level reparables
- C.
Equipment reparables
- D.
Depot-level reparables
- 69.Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decision are made by
- A.
GSA
- B.
DLA
- C.
CASO
- D.
HQ AFMC
- 70.Supply uses what source of data to process turnaround transaction
- A.
AFTO Form 350
- B.
I122 management notice
- C.
AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request
- D.
DD From 1348-1A, Issue release/ receipt
- 71.What product is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed
- A.
Supply Point Listing
- B.
Daily Document Register
- C.
Base Supply Surveillance
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management List
- 72.What supply condition code and action code, respectively, is used to process a Product Quality/ Material Deficiency Report turn-in
- A.
Q ,C
- B.
A, B
- C.
H, 9
- D.
F,1
- 73.Which input is used to load, change, or delete supply point details
- A.
MSI
- B.
ISU
- C.
FSP
- D.
DFM
- 74.Issues from a supply point are considered
- A.
Multiple issues
- B.
Over-the-counter
- C.
One-for-one exchange
- D.
Serviceable for unserviceable
- 75.During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belong with
- A.
The gaining base
- B.
HQ USAF
- C.
The home base
- D.
The MAJCOM
- 76.For long term deployments, what input transfer accountability of selected equipment items
- A.
1ED/FME
- B.
1ET/FME
- C.
1EB/1UB
- D.
FKD/1WD
- 77.Mobility readiness spares packages assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
- 78.How are readiness spare package data input authorization records received from the MAJCOM
- A.
FKD
- B.
XSF
- C.
XVF
- D.
1EB
- 79.What program is used to perform the readiness spares packages reconciliation
- A.
Q05
- B.
S05
- C.
R07
- D.
S07
- 80.What transaction identification code is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package to the user
- A.
ISU
- B.
MSI
- C.
1EB
- D.
1UB
- 81.What transaction identification code is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package detail
- A.
FIL
- B.
FKD
- C.
FME
- D.
1WD
- 82.You would use what transaction identification code to transfer mobility readiness spares package accountability
- A.
FKD
- B.
FME
- C.
1EB
- D.
1WD
- 83.Who selects the method for document distribution and creation
- A.
Team chief
- B.
ELRS Commander
- C.
Accountable Officer
- D.
Person creating the document
- 84.To account for all transaction during degraded operations, the proper paperwork must be filled out and maintained until input into the
- A.
CPS
- B.
SBSS
- C.
PC-ASM
- D.
INMARSAT
- 85.Who acts as the focal point for all materiel management readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operation
- A.
Readiness officer
- B.
Accountable officer
- C.
War Readiness
- D.
Mobility function
- 86.What code reflected in the operations plan or time phased force deployment data define number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking
- A.
CIC
- B.
UTC
- C.
TRIC
- D.
TPFDL
- 87.What section stores small arms for mobility use
- A.
Mobility
- B.
Readiness
- C.
War Readiness
- D.
Security Forces
- 88.Which type mobility bad contains chemical warfare defense equipment
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- 89.Mobility bags can be built ahead of time and stored using what concept
- A.
Tariff-sizing
- B.
Sample-sizing
- C.
MICAS-sizing
- D.
Right-sizing
- 90.What personal computer based program is used to manage mobility bags
- A.
COMPES
- B.
DMAS
- C.
MICAS
- D.
WSMIS
- 91.Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity
- A.
Equipment management element
- B.
Property custodian
- C.
Stock fund manager
- D.
Accountable officer
- 92.Who must manually agree on the selection of property custodian
- A.
EME and organizational commanders
- B.
Organizational commanders and previous custodian
- C.
Accountable officer and organizational commander
- D.
Previous custodian and equipment management element
- 93.Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs
- A.
Stock Fund Operating Program
- B.
Equipment Management Program
- C.
Capital and Inventory Control Program
- D.
Air Force Equipment Management System
- 94.How do we determine what equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain
- A.
Basic of issue
- B.
Allowance standard
- C.
Property accountability
- D.
Allowance standard and basis of issue
- 95.Within an allowance standard what establishes the number of item s that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization
- A.
Unit of issue
- B.
Basis of issue
- C.
Authorization
- D.
Allowance standard
- 96.Which code replaces the cost designator in the expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator for an equipment item
- A.
Allowance source
- B.
Excess exception
- C.
Shipment exception
- D.
Equipment management
- 97.Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are identified by which expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator
- A.
NF1
- B.
ND1
- C.
XB3
- D.
XD2
- 98.Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code
- A.
AF Form 600
- B.
AF Form 601
- C.
AF Form 2001
- D.
AF Form 2005
- 99.Which request should be input into Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen
- A.
Special weapons
- B.
A multiple item request
- C.
A change to an allowance standard
- D.
Explosive ordinance disposal equipment
- 100.Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property
- A.
Post-post
- B.
Automatic
- C.
Direct
- D.
Prepost
- 101.Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code
- A.
E
- B.
P
- C.
R
- D.
X
- 102.Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using the activity code
- A.
E
- B.
P
- C.
R
- D.
X
- 103.Which input does the equipment management section process to reduce or delete an authorization when it has been determined that a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized
- A.
FCD
- B.
FIC
- C.
FCI
- D.
FID
- 104.Which listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorization are maintained within prescribed allowances
- A.
Stock number directory
- B.
Document control register
- C.
Allowance source code listing
- D.
Equipment out-of balance listing
- 105.Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data item
- A.
Q09, Allowance source code listing
- B.
R15, Organizational visibility list
- C.
Q10, Equipment-out-of-balance listing
- D.
R14, Custodian authorization/ custody receipt listing
- 106.Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions
- A.
Q10
- B.
Q09
- C.
D04
- D.
M14
- 107.How often are custodian authorization/ custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) jacket files verified to ensure that a current one is on file and signed by the appointed custodian
- A.
Annually
- B.
Semiannually
- C.
Quarterly
- D.
Monthly
- 108.Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem on file and signed by the appointed custodian
- A.
Training spares
- B.
Test station spares
- C.
Shop station spares
- D.
Fault isolated spares
- 109.Which transaction identification code is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorization maintenance detail
- A.
1BS
- B.
1XA
- C.
1UB
- D.
1WD
- 110.Which report provides a listing of all items authorization, on-hand, and due-out, for those organization authorization special-purpose recoverables authorization maintenance assets
- A.
D04
- B.
M10
- C.
R25
- D.
R43
- 111.What report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when your base weapon assets are increased or decreased
- A.
DSM
- B.
MMC
- C.
SRC
- D.
XHA
- 112.At least how often do you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Monthly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
- 113.What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets
- A.
Conversion Audit List (R22)
- B.
Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21)
- C.
Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
- D.
Consolidaiton Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)
- 114.Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate of the current and past four quarters
- A.
Demand level
- B.
Daily demand rate
- C.
Repair cycle quantity
- D.
Average percent of base repair
- 115.Which quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle
- A.
Safety level quantity
- B.
Repair cycle quantity
- C.
Economic order quantity
- D.
Order and ship time quantity
- 116.What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations
- A.
Economic order quantity
- B.
Condemned quantity
- C.
Requisition objective
- D.
Safety-level quantity
- 117.Which stock leveling term identifies required quantities to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or of unpredictable increase in demands
- A.
Safety level quantity
- B.
Repair cycle quantity
- C.
Economic order quantity
- D.
Order and shipping time quantity
- 118.Which type of adjustment minimum level should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed
- A.
D
- B.
C
- C.
B
- D.
A
- 119.Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns
- A.
Fixed
- B.
Special
- C.
Minimum
- D.
Maximum
- 120.What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level
- A.
86
- B.
1991
- C.
1996
- D.
2005
- 121.Which standard base supply system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels
- A.
R26
- B.
R35
- C.
R43
- D.
R45
- 122.What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items
- A.
C001
- B.
D035E
- C.
Defense European and Pacific Redistribution Activity (DEPRA)
- D.
Recoverable Assembly Management System (RAMPS)
- 123.Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and activity code
- A.
Type detail L, activity code A
- B.
Type detail L, activity code B
- C.
Type detail C, activity code A
- D.
Type detail C, activity code B
- 124.What document identifier code does the Standard Base Supply System use to respond to a readiness based level allocation
- A.
DZG
- B.
RBL
- C.
XCA
- D.
XCC
- 125.Which Standard Base Supply System listing is used to identify situation where an RBL may be misallocated
- A.
R35
- B.
R39
- C.
R43
- D.
R47
- 126.Which type of redistribution describes when item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DICA2* or A4*) formats
- A.
Transfer
- B.
Special
- C.
Directed
- D.
Nondirected
- 127.What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers
- A.
B7*
- B.
BLO
- C.
FTR
- D.
RDO
- 128.What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment
- A.
P
- B.
Q
- C.
R
- D.
Z
- 129.Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not ship
- A.
A
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
3
- 130.As a minimum, how often are item records with a shipping exception code reviewed and validated
- A.
Weekly
- B.
Semiannually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Every two years
- 131.What system does program control use to assign a requisition priority for each requisition
- A.
Core Automated Maintenance System
- B.
Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program
- C.
Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures
- D.
Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System
- 132.Which codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply
- A.
UND, delivery priority
- B.
Urgency justification code, FAD
- C.
FAD, Urgency-of need designator
- D.
Force activity designator delivery priority
- 133.Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisition
- A.
9000-9899
- B.
9000-9999
- C.
0001-7999
- D.
0001-9999
- 134.Which TEX Code keeps the materiel management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input
- A.
Three
- B.
Five
- C.
Seven
- D.
Nine
- 135.Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status has the worst effect on an account
- A.
Positive
- B.
Cancellation
- C.
Exception/other
- D.
Intransit/shipped
- 136.What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has canceled a requisition
- A.
SPC 5
- B.
SPC 1
- C.
REX 5
- D.
REX 1
- 137.Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filing the requisition exactly as it was requested
- A.
Positive
- B.
Cancellation
- C.
Exception/ other
- D.
Intransit/ Shipped
- 138.What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action
- A.
BS
- B.
CA
- C.
ZC
- D.
ZD
- 139.What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
F
- D.
R
- 140.Which Air Force is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air Force-managed items
- A.
1230
- B.
1250
- C.
1530
- D.
1667
- 141.Supply difficulty report must be processed within how many calender days
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
- 142.What transportation tracer list is used to decide if tracer action should begin or if a problem exist in the LRS
- A.
Parcel post tracer list
- B.
Transportation tracer list
- C.
Receipt acknowledge error list
- D.
Consolidation shipment error list
- 143.Which materiel management program is used to identify all claims receivable/claims payable detail that require a Report of Discrepancy or Supply discrepancy report and for those requiring followup
- A.
NGV567
- B.
NGV577
- C.
NGV587
- D.
NGV597
- 144.Which listing may be used instead of the D18 to review priority requirements
- A.
M30
- B.
M37
- C.
Q12
- D.
R01
- 145.The urgency-of-need designator C due-outs are validated at least how often
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
- 146.What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets
- A.
1 ,8, H, U, X or . (period)
- B.
1, 8, H, U, X or *
- C.
7, 8, B, H, U, or .(period)
- D.
7, 8, B, H, U or *
- 147.The following factors are involved in the due-out release sequence: FAD, UJC, project code and
- A.
Receipt processing date
- B.
Receipt and requisitioning date
- C.
Requisition number date
- D.
Document number date
- 148.What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers
- A.
CAMS
- B.
MASS
- C.
FEDLOG
- D.
D043A
- 149.What is the main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG
- A.
On-line inputs
- B.
Real time updates
- C.
Quarterly release
- D.
On-line interrogation
- 150.Illustrated parts breakdowns are normally identified and published by
- A.
Figure and index
- B.
Model number and series
- C.
-4 series of technical orders
- D.
-7 series of technical orders
- 151.What section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the technical order
- A.
Introduction
- B.
Numerical index
- C.
Group assembly parts list
- D.
Next higher assembly
- 152.What Transaction Identification Code establishes the part number record
- A.
FIL or 1AA
- B.
FIC or 1AA
- C.
FIL or FCU
- D.
FIC or FCU
- 153.What purpose does the part number detail record serve
- A.
Provides manual research capability
- B.
Eliminates searches in federal logistics
- C.
Provides a record of past part number requirements
- D.
Automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file
- 154.Which transaction identification code is used to change the stock number, expandability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator, equipment management code; routing identifier, or budget code on the item record
- A.
FCU
- B.
FIC
- C.
FID
- D.
FNL
- 155.How many characters is the descriptive nonmenclature field limited to on the item record
- A.
18
- B.
24
- C.
32
- D.
48
- 156.What transaction identification code changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase-LP-items) fields on internal records
- A.
FCU
- B.
FIC
- C.
FID
- D.
FNL
- 157.Air Force Materiel Command automatically sends stock number updates by what tool
- A.
D071
- B.
BDFA data
- C.
D043A
- D.
BDFD data
- 158.What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information
- A.
D143B
- B.
D043B
- C.
D071
- D.
C001
- 159.Which code is assigned to identify the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution (I&S) grouping will be substituted or issue
- A.
Subgroup
- B.
Order of use
- C.
Issue exception
- D.
Parts preference
- 160.Which interchangeable and substitution group relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions
- A.
T
- B.
S
- C.
M
- D.
I
- 161.Who should help a driver back a vehicle into a position for offloading
- A.
Spotter
- B.
In-Checker
- C.
Vehicle assistant
- D.
Transportation personnel
- 162.Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that
- A.
All containers are accounted for
- B.
Damaged property is returned to the sending activity
- C.
Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative
- D.
The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document
- 163.What type of receipt must be processed before all others
- A.
Routine
- B.
Priority
- C.
Equipment
- D.
Mission capability (MICAP)
- 164.Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiel or pilferable items
- A.
Priority processing
- B.
Safety or security reasons
- C.
Minimized materiel handling
- D.
Protection form the weather
- 165.What accountable receipt document may list more than one item and document number
- A.
DD Form 250
- B.
Bill of lading
- C.
DD Form 1348-1A
- D.
Property identification label
- 166.Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker
- A.
National stock number (NSN)
- B.
Warehouse location
- C.
Unit of issue
- D.
Quantity
- 167.The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
- A.
Supplier
- B.
Inspector
- C.
Warehouse
- D.
Cargo movement representative
- 168.Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen
- A.
Quantity
- B.
Stock number
- C.
Tote box/ hold bay location
- D.
System designator and due-in document number
- 169.What happens to the quantity on a due-in detail record balance when a receipt is processed
- A.
No effect
- B.
Increase
- C.
Decrease
- D.
Adjust to equal the due-in quantity received
- 170.Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
- A.
Reset
- B.
Deleted
- C.
Updated
- D.
Suspended
- 171.Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies
- A.
Quantity
- B.
Documentation
- C.
Misidentified items
- D.
Serviceable receipts
- 172.What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt
- A.
Send the items to inspection
- B.
Send the items to the receiving supervisor
- C.
Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it
- D.
Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it
- 173.What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt
- A.
F
- B.
P
- C.
R
- D.
Y
- 174.Whose responsibility is it to identify of a misidentified item
- A.
Item manager
- B.
Maintenance
- C.
In-checker
- D.
Inspector
- 175.Whose responsibility is it establish and implement an effective program to return serviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system
- A.
Receiving
- B.
Inspector
- C.
Accountable officer
- D.
Chief of Maintenance
- 176.What code is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item, and it is not on that organization's accountable record
- A.
*
- B.
+
- C.
-
- D.
@
- 177.Which Materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account
- A.
In-checkers
- B.
Materiel management inspectors
- C.
Storage personnel
- D.
Inventory personnel
- 178.The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is
- A.
ERRC
- B.
Status
- C.
Identity
- D.
Condition
- 179.What are three things used in a identity form ?
- A.
Reference number , part number , and stock number
- B.
Stock number , nomenclature , and item description
- C.
Stock number , item description , and specification
- D.
Reference number , stock number , item description
- 180.Which DD form is red and is used to identify property this is unserviceable and unconditional to repair
- A.
Dd form 1576
- B.
Dd form 1577
- C.
Dd form 1577-2
- D.
Dd form 1577-3
- 181.What is the purpose of AF form 2032
- A.
Updates inspection data
- B.
Identifies condemned items
- C.
Identifies property turned over to Maintenance
- D.
Identifies property in stock that has been suspended
- 182.What computer input is processed to initiate a condition change
- A.
Fch
- B.
Fcu
- C.
Fcc
- D.
Fci
- 183.An organizational refusal would be a customer's responsibility if the
- A.
Property was misidentified
- B.
Customer failed to cancel due out
- C.
Property was an unsuitable substitute
- D.
Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered
- 184.When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance the inspector does a follow up inspection in how many days
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
10
- 185.Which discrepancies are reported on a SF 364
- A.
Product quality deficiencies
- B.
Transportation type discrepancies
- C.
Incorrect materiel , unacceptable substitutes , or duplicate shipments , regardless of the dollar value
- D.
Discrepancies involving local base or station deliveries to or from internal or satellite
- 186.When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancies on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report
- A.
12 hours
- B.
24 hours
- C.
30 workdays
- D.
45 calendar days
- 187.Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to for help
- A.
MAJCOM
- B.
Item manager
- C.
Stock Control
- D.
Accountable officer
- 188.Which Materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports
- A.
Receiving
- B.
Inspection
- C.
Procedures
- D.
Stock Control
- 189.Which type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of the cost
- A.
Classified
- B.
Pilfered
- C.
Found on base
- D.
Hazardous waste
- 190.At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained
- A.
Below 0F
- B.
Between 32 and 50F
- C.
Between 50 and 60F
- D.
Below 32F
- 191.How many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other storage facilities
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
- 192.What are the two types of open storage areas
- A.
Graded and covered
- B.
Graded and improved
- C.
Surfaced and graded
- D.
Improved and unimproved
- 193.What protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions
- A.
Concrete
- B.
Drainage
- C.
Steel mats
- D.
Crushed stone
- 194.The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
- A.
Gross space available
- B.
Storage space layout
- C.
Storage space
- D.
Storage plan
- 195.When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization
- A.
Bin row
- B.
Bulk storage
- C.
Special storage
- D.
Work area
- 196.What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas
- A.
Quantity
- B.
Similarity
- C.
Popularity
- D.
Size and weight
- 197.When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing what item storage factor
- A.
Quantity
- B.
Similarity
- C.
Popularity
- D.
Size and weight
- 198.How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered
- A.
Odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle
- B.
Even numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle
- C.
Odd numbers are assigned to the left of working aisles
- D.
Even numbers are assigned to the left of working aisles
- 199.What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location
- A.
Single number
- B.
Two-position number
- C.
Single capital letter
- D.
Two-position capital letter
- 200.What identifies the storage level in warehouse location 01A002B003G
- A.
01
- B.
B
- C.
003
- D.
G
- 201.What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location 05C045F056D
- A.
045
- B.
056
- C.
F
- D.
D
- 202.What daily supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file
- A.
Transaction register
- B.
Transaction log
- C.
Document register
- D.
Document log
- 203.The central locator listing is maintained for how many days after a new directory is received
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
45
- 204.The storage activity should complete schedule validation within how man workdays of the start of a cycle inventory
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
14
- 205.How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter sent to the computer operations section for processing
- A.
1
- B.
3
- C.
5
- D.
7
- 206.Which storage method helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated
- A.
First in, last out
- B.
First in, first out
- C.
Stock by serial number
- D.
Rotation of new items to the front
- 207.Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be
- A.
Saved as historical data
- B.
Obliterated
- C.
Recycled
- D.
Ignored
- 208.Which transaction identifier code identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change
- A.
FCD
- B.
FIC
- C.
FCH
- D.
ISC
- 209.What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item's security classification is increased on the item record
- A.
Identify
- B.
Condition
- C.
Indicative data
- D.
Controlled item code
- 210.What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually
- A.
A2*
- B.
FTR
- C.
SHP
- D.
TRM
- 211.What scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal
- A.
Wrong part is delivered to a customer
- B.
Item in stock requires a supply deficiency report
- C.
Inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero
- D.
Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient
- 212.Which issue exception code identify health hazard items
- A.
3, 6, or N
- B.
E, F, or 7
- C.
8, 9, or M
- D.
H, G, or 8
- 213.How often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
- 214.Which corrosive are incompatible and should be separate in storage
- A.
Peroxyacetic acid and hydrochloric acid
- B.
Organic and nonorganic acid
- C.
Acetic and nonacetic
- D.
Acids and alkalis
- 215.Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at
- A.
100F or above
- B.
110F or above
- C.
100F or below
- D.
110F or below
- 216.How long is the locally developed checklist used to conduct inspections of chemical containers maintained
- A.
1 month
- B.
6 month
- C.
1 year
- D.
2 years
- 217.What is the Air Force source for hazardous materiel data and pollution prevention information
- A.
AF-AFEMS
- B.
AF-CMOS
- C.
AF-EMIS
- D.
AF-HAZMAT
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