Material Management Trivia Quiz: CDC 2S051

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  • 1/62 Questions

    The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between

    • The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders
    • The previous custodian and equipment management element (EME)
    • Organization commanders and the previous custodian
    • The accountable officer and organization commanders
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About This Quiz

Are you looking for a CDC 2SO51 material management quiz where you can test out your understanding of what we covered in the course before the exam? If you said yes, then the quiz below is exactly what you need. Give it a try and get to see just how well you will do. All the best, and keep practicing!

Material Management Trivia Quiz: CDC 2S051 - Quiz

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  • 2. 
    Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity? - ProProfs

    Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity?

    • Equipment accountability office

    • Stock fund manager

    • Accountable officer

    • Property custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Property custodian
    Explanation
    The property custodian serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity. They are responsible for reviewing and authorizing the use of equipment and ensuring its proper maintenance and accountability. They play a crucial role in overseeing the inventory and ensuring that all equipment is accounted for and used appropriately.

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  • 3. 

    What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

    • Basis of issue

    • Allowance standard

    • Authorization

    • Unit of issue

    Correct Answer
    A. Basis of issue
    Explanation
    The basis of issue within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. It determines the quantity of items that are authorized to be distributed, ensuring that the appropriate amount is allocated based on specific needs and requirements. This element helps in maintaining control and accountability over the distribution of items within a given allowance standard.

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  • 4. 
    Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator  (ERRCD) for an equipment item? - ProProfs

    Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator  (ERRCD) for an equipment item?

    • Allowance source

    • Excess exception

    • Shipment exception

    • Equipment management

    Correct Answer
    A. Allowance source
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Allowance source." In equipment management, the cost designator in the ERRCD for an equipment item is replaced by the allowance source. The allowance source refers to the specific source or authority that determines the cost of the item, such as a budget allocation or funding source. This information is important for tracking and managing the costs associated with the equipment item.

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  • 5. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items?

    • NF1

    • ND1

    • XB3

    • XD2

    Correct Answer
    A. NF1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NF1. NF1 is the ERRCD that identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items. This means that NF1 is the code used to categorize and track non-equipment items that are part of the inventory data.

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  • 6. 

    The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

    • 2005

    • 2003

    • 2001

    • 2000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2005
    Explanation
    The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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  • 7. 

    Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

    • AF Form 601

    • AF Form 600

    • AF Form 2001

    • AF Form 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 601
    Explanation
    AF Form 601 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Form used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. This form is specifically designed for these types of requests and is the appropriate documentation to submit for such changes or approvals.

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  • 8. 

    Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

    • Prepost

    • Automatic

    • Post-post

    • Directed

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepost
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Prepost. Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This means that the TIN is processed and completed before the property is picked up, ensuring that all necessary tasks and paperwork are completed beforehand. This helps to streamline the process and ensure that everything is in order before the property is acquired.

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  • 9. 
    What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins? - ProProfs

    What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • R

    • E

    • P

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. R
    Explanation
    The activity code "R" is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins.

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  • 10. 

    What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • E

    • P

    • R

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. E
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E. The activity code E is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins.

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  • 11. 

    When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authorization?

    • FCI

    • FCD

    • FIC

    • FID

    Correct Answer
    A. FCI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCI. When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes the input FCI to reduce or delete an authorization.

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  • 12. 

    Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?

    • Q10

    • Q09

    • M14

    • D04

    Correct Answer
    A. Q10
    Explanation
    Q10 is the listing used to identify out-of-balance conditions.

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  • 13. 

    When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

    • Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing

    • Allowance source code listing

    • Consolidated transaction register

    • Consolidated inventory document register

    Correct Answer
    A. Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing
    Explanation
    The custodian authorization/custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is a document that confirms the transfer of custody of property from one person to another. By signing this listing, the property custodian acknowledges that they have received the property and are responsible for its safekeeping. It acts as a record of the transaction and provides evidence of the transfer of custody.

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  • 14. 

    Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?

    • Fault isolation spares

    • Training spares

    • Test station spares

    • Shop standard spares

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation spares
    Explanation
    Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed to troubleshoot and identify issues in equipment, allowing for quick and efficient repairs. By having fault isolation spares readily available, maintenance personnel can diagnose and fix problems without having to wait for replacement parts or additional resources, minimizing downtime and maximizing equipment reliability.

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  • 15. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, or delete a special purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?

    • 1XA

    • 1UB

    • 1WD

    • 1BS

    Correct Answer
    A. 1XA
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code (TRIC) 1XA is used to load or delete a special purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail.

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  • 16. 

    Which report provides a listing of all item authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

    • R25

    • D04

    • M10

    • R43

    Correct Answer
    A. R25
    Explanation
    The report R25 provides a listing of all item authorized, on-hand, and due-out for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets.

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  • 17. 

    When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

    • DSM

    • MMC

    • SRC

    • XHA

    Correct Answer
    A. DSM
    Explanation
    When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, you send a report to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base using the DSM.

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  • 18. 

    What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?

    • Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)

    • Conversion Audit List (R22)

    • Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21)

    • Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46). This listing is used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that the inventory of weapons and communications security equipment is accurate and up-to-date. By conducting regular reconciliations using this listing, any discrepancies or errors in the inventory can be identified and corrected, thus improving the overall management of these assets.

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  • 19. 
    Who works hand-in-hand with LRS to suppord mission requirements? - ProProfs

    Who works hand-in-hand with LRS to suppord mission requirements?

    • Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC)

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • CRS

    • Mission Support Group (MSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC)
    Explanation
    The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) works hand-in-hand with LRS (Logistics Readiness Squadron) to support mission requirements. The GLSC is responsible for managing and coordinating logistics support for various missions. They collaborate closely with LRS to ensure that all necessary resources and supplies are available to meet the mission's needs efficiently and effectively.

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  • 20. 

    What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity  that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

    • Requisition objective (RO)

    • Economic order quantity (EOQ)

    • Condemened quantity (NCQ)

    • Safety-level quantity (SLQ)

    Correct Answer
    A. Requisition objective (RO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Safety-level quantity (SLQ). The safety-level quantity represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It acts as a buffer to ensure that there is enough stock available to meet unexpected demand or delays in the supply chain. The safety-level quantity helps to prevent stockouts and minimize disruptions to operations. Requisition objective (RO) refers to the desired quantity of stock to be ordered, while Economic order quantity (EOQ) is the optimal order quantity that minimizes total inventory costs. Condemned quantity (NCQ) refers to stock that is deemed unfit for use.

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  • 21. 
    When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used? - ProProfs

    When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
  • 22. 

    A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

    • 1996

    • 86

    • 1991

    • 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. 1996
  • 23. 

    Which Materiel Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

    • R35

    • R26

    • R43

    • R45

    Correct Answer
    A. R35
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management System program R35 is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels.

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  • 24. 
    The Readiness Base Leveling system computes demand levels for what items? - ProProfs

    The Readiness Base Leveling system computes demand levels for what items?

    • XB3

    • XD

    • XF3

    • NF1

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    The Readiness Base Leveling system computes demand levels for XB3 items.

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  • 25. 
    The Materiel Management System uses what document identifier code to respond to a readiness-based level allocation? - ProProfs

    The Materiel Management System uses what document identifier code to respond to a readiness-based level allocation?

    • XCA

    • XCC

    • RBL

    • DZG

    Correct Answer
    A. XCA
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management System uses the document identifier code XCA to respond to a readiness-based level allocation. This code is specifically designed for this purpose and helps to ensure efficient and accurate allocation of resources based on readiness levels.

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  • 26. 

    Readiness-based level details are identified by

    • Type detail L, activity code A

    • Type detail L, activity code B

    • Type detail C, activity code A

    • Type detail C, activity code B

    Correct Answer
    A. Type detail L, activity code A
    Explanation
    Readiness-based level details are identified by type detail L, activity code A. This means that the readiness level is represented by the letter "L" and the activity code is represented by the letter "A". The other options either have a different type detail or a different activity code, which means they do not accurately represent readiness-based level details.

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  • 27. 

    Which Materiel Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) missallocation?

    • R47

    • R35

    • R39

    • R43

    Correct Answer
    A. R47
    Explanation
    The R47 Materiel Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) missallocation.

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  • 28. 

    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?

    • Directed

    • Special

    • Transfer

    • Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Directed." When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats, it indicates that the redistribution is directed. This means that the item managers are specifically instructing the redistribution of the items to a particular location or recipient.

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  • 29. 

    What document identification code indicates a denial  to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

    • B7*

    • BLO

    • FTR

    • RDO

    Correct Answer
    A. B7*
    Explanation
    The document identification code B7* indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

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  • 30. 

    Which redistribution results when local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks?

    • Nondirected

    • Return

    • Lateral

    • Automatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Nondirected
    Explanation
    When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, it is referred to as nondirected redistribution. This means that the redistribution is not directed by any specific authority or directive, but rather it is initiated by the local management based on their own decision-making.

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  • 31. 

    Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen -- do not ship?

    • 1

    • A

    • 2

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1 because in the context of shipment exceptions, the code "1" is typically used to indicate that the assets are frozen and should not be shipped. This code serves as a warning to the shipping personnel to halt the shipment process and take appropriate action to resolve the issue before proceeding with the shipment.

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  • 32. 

    An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

    • AO*

    • Due Out (DUO)

    • Special requisition (SPR)

    • Due-in cancellation (REC)

    Correct Answer
    A. AO*
    Explanation
    An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by the document identification code AO*. This code is used to indicate that the requisition is automatically generated and sent to the supplier without any manual intervention. It helps streamline the procurement process and ensures that the necessary items are automatically ordered when needed.

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  • 33. 

    What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

    • P

    • Q

    • R

    • Z

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the return is being made due to the item being damaged during the shipping process.

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  • 34. 

    Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition ?

    • Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)

    • Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)

    • Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program (MILSTAMP)

    • Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS). UMMIPS is the system used by program control to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. It helps determine the urgency and importance of each requisition and ensures that materials are moved and issued in a timely manner. The other options, MILSTRIP, MILSTAMP, and CAMS, are not specifically designed for assigning requisition priorities.

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  • 35. 
    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply? - ProProfs

    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

    • FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)

    • Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority

    • Urgency justification code (UJC) (FAD)

    • UND, delivery priority

    Correct Answer
    A. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)
    Explanation
    The codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator at the source of supply are FAD (Force activity designator) and UND (Urgency-of-need designator). These codes help in prioritizing the requisitions based on the urgency of the need and the force activity involved.

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  • 36. 

    What code is assigned to the item record to indicated the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?

    • REX 1

    • REX 5

    • SPC 5

    • SPC 1

    Correct Answer
    A. REX 1
    Explanation
    The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source form filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

    • Exception/other

    • Positive

    • Cancellation

    • Intransit/shipped

    Correct Answer
    A. Exception/other
    Explanation
    The MILSTRIP status of "Exception/other" results from various conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested. These conditions can include out-of-stock situations, new requirements, or other factors that hinder the exact fulfillment of the requisition.

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  • 38. 

    Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control 

    • Excess stockage

    • Stock replenishment

    • Substitutions

    • Back orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Excess stockage
    Explanation
    Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control excess stockage. This means that when there is an excess amount of stock in the inventory, the system generates cancellation requests to reduce the stock levels. This helps in managing and optimizing the inventory by eliminating unnecessary or surplus stock. By canceling the excess stock, the system ensures that the inventory remains at an optimal level, reducing storage costs and improving overall efficiency.

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  • 39. 

    What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition?

    • C

    • A

    • F

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The reconciliation flag "C" on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition.

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  • 40. 

    Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force form?

    • 1667

    • 1530

    • 1250

    • 1230

    Correct Answer
    A. 1667
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1667 because this Air Force form is specifically used for reporting supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items. It is likely that the form 1667 contains the necessary fields and information required to accurately report and track any difficulties encountered with these items. The other options (1530, 1250, 1230) are not specifically designed for this purpose and may not have the relevant sections or fields to adequately report supply difficulties.

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  • 41. 

    To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures(MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least 

    • Twice a month

    • Once a month

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least twice a month in order to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This frequency ensures that any shipments that require further investigation or attention can be promptly identified and addressed. Running the program twice a month allows for regular monitoring and tracking of shipments, helping to ensure efficient and effective transportation and movement procedures.

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  • 42. 
    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list? - ProProfs

    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list?

    • Receipt acknowledged error list

    • Parcel post tracer list

    • Transportation tracer list

    • Consolidated shipment error list

    Correct Answer
    A. Receipt acknowledged error list
    Explanation
    Receipt acknowledged error list includes due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared. This list is used to track and resolve any errors or issues related to the acknowledgement of receipts. It helps in ensuring that all received items are properly processed and cleared in the system. The other options, such as parcel post tracer list, transportation tracer list, and consolidated shipment error list, do not specifically address the situation of received items that are still pending clearance.

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  • 43. 

    Which materiel management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

    • NGV587

    • NGV567

    • NGV577

    • NGV597

    Correct Answer
    A. NGV587
    Explanation
    NGV587 is the correct answer because it is the materiel management program that identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD), or a supply discrepancy report (SDR).

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  • 44. 

    Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

    • D18 and R01

    • Q12 and R01

    • Q12 and M37

    • M37 and D18

    Correct Answer
    A. D18 and R01
    Explanation
    D18 and R01 are the two listings used to perform due-out review and validation.

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  • 45. 

    What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets?

    • 1, 8, H, U, X, or. (period)

    • 1, 8, H, U, X, or *

    • 7, 8, B, H, U, or. (period)

    • 7, 8, B, H, U, or *

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 8, H, U, X, or. (period)
  • 46. 

    When a due-out cancellation was processed in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), what review code is used on the due-out-cancellation input?

    • M

    • C

    • D

    • I

    Correct Answer
    A. M
    Explanation
    In the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), when a due-out cancellation is processed, the review code used on the due-out-cancellation input is M.

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  • 47. 

    How often are UND C due-outs validated?

    • Quarterly

    • Monthly

    • Weekly

    • Daily

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    UND C due-outs are validated on a quarterly basis. This means that the validation process is conducted every three months. This frequency allows for regular checks and updates on the status of UND C due-outs, ensuring that any discrepancies or issues are identified and resolved in a timely manner. Quarterly validation helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the UND C due-out system.

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  • 48. 
    The factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and  - ProProfs

    The factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and 

    • Document number date

    • Receipt processing date

    • Requisition number date

    • Receipt and requisitioning date

    Correct Answer
    A. Document number date
    Explanation
    The correct answer is document number date. The factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and document number date. This means that the release sequence is determined based on the document number date, along with the other factors mentioned.

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  • 49. 

    How often is FEDLOG updated ?

    • Quarterly

    • Daily

    • Monthly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    FEDLOG is updated on a quarterly basis. This means that the information contained in FEDLOG is refreshed and revised every three months. This regular updating ensures that the data in FEDLOG remains current and accurate, allowing users to access the most up-to-date information for their needs.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 01, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    SraAlston

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