CDC 2S051 Volume 4 Multiple Choice Quiz

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  • 1/94 Questions

    (601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

    • Spotter
    • In-checker
    • Vehicle assistant
    • Transportation personnel
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This CDC 2S051 Volume 4 Multiple Choice Quiz assesses key logistics skills, focusing on vehicle offloading, shipment receiving, and item processing. It evaluates the understanding of safety protocols, documentation, and specialized handling, crucial for logistics roles.

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  • 2. 

    (601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

    • All containers are accounted for

    • Damaged property is returned to the sending activity

    • Discrepancies are turned over to the cargo movement representative

    • The carrier annotates the reason for discrepancies on the receipt document

    Correct Answer
    A. All containers are accounted for
    Explanation
    The receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for before accepting a shipment. This means that they need to check and verify that all the containers that were supposed to be included in the shipment are actually present. This is important to ensure that nothing is missing or lost during the transportation process. By confirming that all containers are accounted for, the representative can ensure that the shipment is complete and can be accepted.

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  • 3. 

    (602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

    • Routine

    • Priority

    • Equipment

    • Mission capability (MICAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission capability (MICAP)
    Explanation
    Mission capability (MICAP) receipts must be processed before all others because they involve critical equipment or supplies that are needed for mission-critical tasks. These receipts have the highest priority and need to be processed quickly to ensure that the necessary resources are available for the mission to proceed without any delays or disruptions. Processing MICAP receipts first helps to prioritize and address any urgent needs or requirements in a timely manner.

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  • 4. 

    (602) Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardousmateriels or pilferable items?

    • Priority processing

    • Safety or security reasons

    • Minimize materiel handling

    • Protection from the weather

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety or security reasons
    Explanation
    Segregated, specialized holding areas are necessary for items such as hazardous materials or pilferable items due to safety or security reasons. These items may pose a risk to individuals or the environment if not stored properly. By keeping them in separate areas, the risk of accidents or unauthorized access is minimized. Additionally, specialized storage areas ensure that these items are handled and stored in accordance with specific regulations and protocols, further enhancing safety and security measures.

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  • 5. 

    What accountable receipt document may list more than one item and document number?

    • DD Form 250

    • Bill of lading

    • DD Form 1348–1A

    • Property identification label

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 250
    Explanation
    The DD Form 250 is a document that may list more than one item and document number. It is commonly used as a receipt for goods or services received by the Department of Defense. This form is used to track and account for items such as supplies, equipment, or materials. It includes details such as the quantity, description, and value of each item, as well as the document number associated with each item. Therefore, the DD Form 250 is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 6. 

    (603) Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

    • National stock number (NSN).

    • Warehouse location.

    • Unit of Issue

    • Quantity

    Correct Answer
    A. Warehouse location.
    Explanation
    The receiving in-checker is responsible for verifying the accuracy of the received items. They need to check the national stock number (NSN) to ensure that the correct item has been received, the unit of issue to determine the quantity, and the quantity itself to ensure it matches the expected amount. However, the warehouse location is not necessary for the receiving in-checker as it is not directly related to the verification of the received items.

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  • 7. 

    (603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

    • Supplier

    • Inspector

    • Warehouse

    • Cargo movement representative

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspector
    Explanation
    The receiving in-checker is responsible for inspecting incoming items. If the in-checker suspects that any items have been tampered with, they would send those items to the inspector for further examination. The inspector is trained to identify any tampering or damage and determine if the items are still usable or need to be returned to the supplier. The warehouse and cargo movement representative are not directly involved in inspecting or dealing with suspected tampered items.

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  • 8. 

    (604) Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

    • Quantity

    • Stock number

    • Tote box/hold bay location

    • System designator and due-in document number

    Correct Answer
    A. System designator and due-in document number
    Explanation
    To access the receipt processing screen, you need to enter the system designator and due-in document number on the receipt inquiry screen. These two pieces of information are necessary for the system to locate and retrieve the specific receipt you are looking for. Without entering these details, the system will not be able to display the receipt processing screen.

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  • 9. 

    (604) What happens to the quantity on a due-in detail record balance when a receipt is processed?

    • No effect

    • Increases

    • Decreases

    • Adjusts to equal the due-in quantity received

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreases
    Explanation
    When a receipt is processed, the quantity on a due-in detail record balance decreases. This is because a receipt indicates that the items have been received and are no longer pending. Therefore, the quantity that was previously recorded as due-in is reduced as it is now accounted for in the inventory.

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  • 10. 

    (604) Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

    • Reset

    • Deleted

    • Updated

    • Suspended

    Correct Answer
    A. Deleted
    Explanation
    Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is deleted. This means that the record of items that are expected to arrive but have not yet been received is removed from the system. This is likely done because there is no longer a need to track these items since the on-hand quantity is now zero. Deleting the record helps to keep the inventory system accurate and up-to-date.

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  • 11. 

    (605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

    • Quantity

    • Documentation

    • Misidentified items

    • Serviceable receipts

    Correct Answer
    A. Serviceable receipts
    Explanation
    Serviceable receipts is not a category of receipt discrepancies because it refers to the condition of the received items, rather than any discrepancies or issues with the receipt itself. Receipt discrepancies typically involve discrepancies in quantity, documentation, or misidentification of items, but not the serviceability of the receipts.

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  • 12. 

    (605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

    • Send the items to inspection

    • Send the items to the receiving supervisor

    • Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it

    • Circle the incorrect quantity and put the overage quantity above it

    Correct Answer
    A. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it
    Explanation
    When there is an overage receipt, it means that more items have been received than what was originally ordered. To address this, the incorrect quantity on the receipt document should be circled to indicate the discrepancy. The correct quantity should then be written above the circled incorrect quantity to ensure accurate record-keeping. This action helps to maintain the integrity of the receipt document and facilitates proper inventory management.

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  • 13. 

    (605) What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt?

    • F

    • P

    • R

    • Y

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The partial quantity flag used to indicate a partial receipt is "P". This flag is commonly used in inventory management systems to indicate that only a portion of the ordered quantity has been received. It helps in keeping track of the remaining quantity that is yet to be received and also allows for accurate inventory calculations and reporting.

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  • 14. 

    (605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

    • Item manager

    • Maintenance

    • In-checker

    • Inspector

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspector
    Explanation
    The responsibility to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item lies with the inspector. An inspector is typically trained and experienced in recognizing different items and ensuring that they are correctly identified. They have the knowledge and expertise to thoroughly inspect items and compare them with the required specifications or standards. By carefully examining the item, the inspector can determine if it has been misidentified and take appropriate actions to rectify the situation.

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  • 15. 

    (606) Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an effective program to returnserviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system?

    • Receiving

    • Inspection

    • Accountable officer

    • Chief of Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountable officer
    Explanation
    The accountable officer is responsible for establishing and implementing an effective program to return serviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the items are properly accounted for and returned to the system in a timely manner. The accountable officer is responsible for the overall management and oversight of the program, including ensuring that proper procedures are followed and that any necessary documentation is completed accurately.

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  • 16. 

    (606) What code is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item, and it is not on that organization’s accountable record?

    • *

    • +

    • -

    • @

    Correct Answer
    A. +
    Explanation
    The "+" symbol is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record.

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  • 17. 

    (607) Which Materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition ofproperty for the supply account?

    • In-checkers

    • Materiel management inspectors

    • Storage personnel

    • Inventory personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Materiel management inspectors
    Explanation
    Materiel management inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. They are responsible for inspecting and assessing the quality and condition of materials and supplies in order to ensure they meet the required standards. These inspectors have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the condition of property and make informed decisions regarding its usability and suitability for the supply account.

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  • 18. 

    (607) The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed orintended purpose is

    • ERRC

    • Status

    • Identity

    • Condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Condition
    Explanation
    The physical state of an item plays a crucial role in determining its usefulness to carry out its intended purpose. The condition of an item refers to its overall state, including its quality, functionality, and appearance. If an item is in good condition, it is more likely to effectively fulfill its designed purpose. On the other hand, if an item is in poor condition, it may not be able to perform as intended, limiting its usefulness. Therefore, the condition of an item directly affects its ability to carry out its intended purpose.

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  • 19. 

    (607) What three things are used to identify an item?

    • Reference number, part number, and stock number

    • Stock number, nomenclature, and item description

    • Stock number, item description, and specifications

    • Reference number, stock number, and item description

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference number, stock number, and item description
    Explanation
    The three things that are used to identify an item are the reference number, stock number, and item description. The reference number is a unique identifier that helps in locating the item quickly. The stock number is another identifier that is used to track the item's inventory and availability. The item description provides additional details about the item, such as its characteristics or purpose. Together, these three pieces of information help in accurately identifying and locating the item.

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  • 20. 

    (607) Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable anduneconomical to repair?

    • DD Form 1576

    • DD Form 1577

    • DD Form 1577–2

    • DD Form 1577–3

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 1577
    Explanation
    DD Form 1577 is the correct answer because it is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair.

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  • 21. 

    (607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?

    • Updates inspection data

    • Identifies condemned items

    • Identifies property turned over to Maintenance.

    • Identifies property in stock that has been suspended

    Correct Answer
    A. Updates inspection data
    Explanation
    The purpose of the AF Form 2032 is to update inspection data.

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  • 22. 

    (608) What computer input is processed to initiate a condition change?

    • FCH

    • FCU

    • FCC

    • FCI

    Correct Answer
    A. FCC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCC. FCC stands for "computer input" and is the input that is processed to initiate a condition change. This could refer to any type of input that is received by a computer system, such as a command, signal, or data, which triggers a change in the system's state or behavior.

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  • 23. 

    (608) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the

    • Property was misidentified

    • Customer failed to cancel the due-out

    • Property delivered was an unsuitable substitute

    • Quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer failed to cancel the due-out
    Explanation
    If the customer failed to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer needed the property or item. As a result, the organization would have already prepared and delivered the property, causing unnecessary costs and inconvenience. Therefore, the responsibility for this refusal lies with the customer for not cancelling the due-out in a timely manner.

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  • 24. 

    (609) When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector does a follow-up inspection within how many days?

    • 2

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector does a follow-up inspection within 10 days. This allows the inspector to assess whether the identified deficiencies have been addressed and corrected in a timely manner. A follow-up inspection ensures that the necessary actions have been taken to rectify any issues found during the initial surveillance, ensuring compliance with safety and operational standards.

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  • 25. 

    (610) Which discrepancies are reported on a SF 364?

    • Product quality deficiencies

    • Transportation-type discrepancies

    • Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments, regardless of the dollar value

    • Discrepancies involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities

    Correct Answer
    A. Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments, regardless of the dollar value
    Explanation
    The SF 364 is a form used to report discrepancies in material or shipments. It is used to document instances where incorrect material, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments are received, regardless of their dollar value. This form helps to track and address these discrepancies, ensuring that the correct material is received and preventing unnecessary expenses or delays.

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  • 26. 

    (610) When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

    • 12 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 30 workdays

    • 45 calendar days

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, they must submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours from its discovery. This ensures that any issues with the item can be addressed promptly and appropriate actions can be taken to rectify the situation. Failing to report the discrepancy within this time frame may result in delays or complications in resolving the issue.

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  • 27. 

    (610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to for help?

    • MAJCOM

    • Item manager

    • Stock Control

    • Accountable officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Stock Control
    Explanation
    All unresolved supply discrepancy reports are forwarded to Stock Control for help. Stock Control is responsible for managing and maintaining the inventory of supplies, ensuring that the correct items are available when needed. They have the expertise and resources to investigate and resolve any discrepancies in the supply chain, ensuring that the correct items are delivered to the right place at the right time.

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  • 28. 

    (610) Which Materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports

    • Receiving

    • Inspection

    • Procedures

    • Stock Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedures
    Explanation
    The materiel management function that evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports is Procedures. This function involves reviewing and analyzing the reports to identify any discrepancies or issues with the incoming supplies. It also includes implementing appropriate procedures and protocols to address and resolve these discrepancies. By effectively managing and controlling the supply discrepancy reports, Procedures ensures that the incoming supplies meet the required standards and specifications, minimizing any potential disruptions or problems in the supply chain.

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  • 29. 

    (610) Which type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of the cost?

    • Classified.

    • Pilfered

    • Found on base

    • Hazardous waste

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Classified. This type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of the cost because it involves classified information that may pose a risk to national security if not properly addressed. It is crucial to investigate and resolve any discrepancies related to classified materials to ensure their protection and prevent any potential breaches or unauthorized access.

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  • 30. 

    (611) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

    • Below 0°F.

    • Between 32 and 50°F.

    • Between 50 and 60°F

    • Below 32°F

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 32 and 50°F.
    Explanation
    A refrigerated storage chill space must be maintained between 32 and 50°F to ensure that the stored items remain at a safe temperature. Temperatures below 32°F can cause freezing and damage to certain products, while temperatures above 50°F can promote the growth of bacteria and spoilage. Therefore, the ideal range for a refrigerated storage space is between 32 and 50°F to maintain the quality and safety of the stored items.

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  • 31. 

    (611) How many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other storage facilities?

    • 25

    • 50

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    Flammable storage facilities must be separated by at least 50 feet from other storage facilities. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of fire spreading from the flammable storage to other areas. By having a sufficient distance between these facilities, the chances of a fire spreading and causing significant damage or harm are reduced.

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  • 32. 

    (611) What are the two types of open storage areas?

    • Graded and covered

    • Graded and improved

    • Surfaced and graded

    • Improved and unimproved

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved and unimproved
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." Open storage areas can be categorized into two types based on their condition: improved and unimproved. Improved storage areas have undergone enhancements or modifications to make them more suitable for storage purposes, such as adding paved surfaces, drainage systems, or security measures. On the other hand, unimproved storage areas are in their natural or basic state without any significant modifications or enhancements. These areas may lack paved surfaces, proper drainage, or other infrastructure improvements.

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  • 33. 

    (611) What protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions?

    • Concrete

    • Drainage

    • Steel mats.

    • Crushed stone

    Correct Answer
    A. Drainage
    Explanation
    Drainage protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions by allowing water to flow away from the area. This prevents the items from getting soaked or damaged by water. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may provide some level of protection, but drainage is specifically designed to address wet ground conditions and is therefore the most effective solution.

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  • 34. 

    (612) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

    • Gross space available

    • Storage space layout

    • Storage space.

    • Storage plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Storage space.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "storage space." This is because storage space is the fundamental resource for any material management and distribution operation. It refers to the physical area where goods and materials are stored, organized, and managed. Without sufficient storage space, it would be challenging to store and distribute materials efficiently. Therefore, having an adequate and well-organized storage space is essential for the smooth functioning of any materiel management and distribution operation.

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  • 35. 

    (612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

    • Bin row

    • Bulk storage

    • Special storage

    • Work area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work area.
    Explanation
    When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep the work area to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. By minimizing the work area, more space can be allocated for storage, allowing for a greater capacity to store goods and optimize the use of the warehouse. This helps to maximize efficiency and productivity in the warehouse operations.

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  • 36. 

    (612) What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?

    • Quantity.

    • Similarity

    • Popularity.

    • Size and weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Popularity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Popularity." When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the storage factor used is popularity. This means that items that are less popular or have lower demand are stored in areas that are less accessible or farther away. By doing this, it allows for more efficient and convenient access to items that are in higher demand and have a faster turnover rate.

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  • 37. 

    (612) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what item storage factor?

    • Quantity

    • Similarity

    • Popularity

    • Size and weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantity
    Explanation
    When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing the "Quantity" item storage factor. This means that you are adjusting the storage space based on the number or quantity of items, ensuring that each item has enough space without encroaching on another item's location.

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  • 38. 

    (613) How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?

    • Odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle

    • Even numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle.

    • Odd numbers are assigned to the left of working aisles.

    • Even numbers are assigned to the left of working aisles

    Correct Answer
    A. Odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle
    Explanation
    Storage bin rows in a warehouse are numbered in such a way that odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle. This numbering system helps in organizing and locating the storage bins more efficiently. By assigning odd numbers to the left of the main aisle, it becomes easier for workers to navigate and identify the correct row. It also helps in maintaining a systematic arrangement of the storage bins, ensuring smooth operations in the warehouse.

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  • 39. 

    (613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

    • Single number

    • Two-position number

    • Single capital letter

    • Two-position capital letter

    Correct Answer
    A. Single capital letter
    Explanation
    In a warehouse location, the designator used to identify the storage level is a single capital letter. This letter represents a specific level within the warehouse where items are stored. This designator helps in organizing and locating items efficiently within the warehouse, allowing for easier inventory management and retrieval of goods.

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  • 40. 

    (613) What identifies the storage level in warehouse location 01A002B003G?

    • 01

    • B

    • 003

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    The letter "B" in the warehouse location 01A002B003G identifies the storage level.

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  • 41. 

    (613) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location 05C045F056D?

    • 045

    • 056

    • F

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    In the given warehouse location "05C045F056D," the letter "D" is used to identify a bin subdivision. The other options, 045, 056, and F, are not used for this purpose.

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  • 42. 

    (613) What daily supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

    • Transaction register

    • Transaction log.

    • Document register.

    • Document log

    Correct Answer
    A. Document register.
    Explanation
    The document register is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file on a daily basis. This register keeps track of all the documents that enter and leave the warehouse, ensuring that each document is properly accounted for. By regularly updating the document register, the warehouse can maintain an accurate record of all transactions and clear any suspense files related to warehouse locations. The transaction register and log, as well as the document log, may be used for other purposes but are not specifically designed for clearing the warehouse location suspense file.

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  • 43. 

    (613) The central locator listing is maintained for how many days after a new directory isreceived?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    • 45

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The central locator listing is maintained for 30 days after a new directory is received. This means that the listing, which contains information about the location of various resources, will be updated and available for use for a period of 30 days before it is updated again with a new directory. This allows users to access the most up-to-date information about the location of resources within the system.

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  • 44. 

    (614) The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within how many workdays ofthe start of a cycle inventory?

    • 3

    • 7

    • 10

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that they have a maximum of 10 workdays to conduct the necessary checks and verifications on the inventory. Completing these validations within the specified time frame ensures that the inventory is accurately accounted for and any discrepancies or issues can be addressed promptly.

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  • 45. 

    (615) Which storage method helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?

    • First in, last out

    • First in, first out

    • Stock by serial number

    • Rotation of new items to the front

    Correct Answer
    A. First in, first out
    Explanation
    First in, first out (FIFO) is a storage method that ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated. This means that the items that are received or stocked first are the ones that are issued or used first. By following this method, the risk of items becoming outdated or expired is minimized as the older items are always used first. This is particularly important in industries such as food and pharmaceuticals where product expiration dates are crucial.

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  • 46. 

    (615) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

    • Saved as historical data

    • Obliterated.

    • Recycled.

    • Ignored.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obliterated.
    Explanation
    Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any markings or labels on the containers that are no longer relevant or accurate should be removed or erased. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or misinformation about the contents of the containers, and to maintain accurate records.

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  • 47. 

    (616) Which transaction identifier code identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

    • FCD

    • FIC

    • FCH

    • 1SC

    Correct Answer
    A. FIC
    Explanation
    The transaction identifier code "FIC" identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change. This code is specifically used to indicate a change in the data related to a warehouse, such as a change in location or storage capacity. It helps to track and manage the changes made to the warehouse information effectively.

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  • 48. 

    (616) What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item’s securityclassification is increased on the item record?

    • Identity

    • Condition.

    • Indicative data

    • Controlled item code

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled item code
    Explanation
    When an item's security classification is increased on the item record, a warehouse change document called a "Controlled item code" is produced. This document is used to track and manage the changes made to the security classification of the item in the warehouse. It ensures that the item is handled and stored according to the updated security requirements, and helps maintain proper control and security of the item within the warehouse.

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  • 49. 

    (617) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually?

    • A2*

    • FTR

    • SHP

    • TRM

    Correct Answer
    A. TRM
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code "TRM" is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 28, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Diezeitgeist

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