CDC 2S051 Volume 4 Multiple Choice Quiz

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1. (601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading?

Explanation

A spotter should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading. A spotter is a person who assists the driver by providing guidance and ensuring that the vehicle is safely maneuvered into the desired position. They help the driver avoid obstacles, maintain clearance, and ensure the safety of people and property in the surrounding area. A spotter's role is crucial in preventing accidents and ensuring efficient and accurate offloading of goods.

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About This Quiz
CDC 2S051 Volume 4 Multiple Choice Quiz - Quiz

This CDC 2S051 Volume 4 Multiple Choice Quiz assesses key logistics skills, focusing on vehicle offloading, shipment receiving, and item processing. It evaluates the understanding of safety protocols, documentation, and specialized handling, crucial for logistics roles.

2. (611) What are the two types of open storage areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Improved and unimproved." Open storage areas can be categorized into two types based on their condition: improved and unimproved. Improved storage areas have undergone enhancements or modifications to make them more suitable for storage purposes, such as adding paved surfaces, drainage systems, or security measures. On the other hand, unimproved storage areas are in their natural or basic state without any significant modifications or enhancements. These areas may lack paved surfaces, proper drainage, or other infrastructure improvements.

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3. (603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

Explanation

The receiving in-checker is responsible for inspecting incoming items. If the in-checker suspects that any items have been tampered with, they would send those items to the inspector for further examination. The inspector is trained to identify any tampering or damage and determine if the items are still usable or need to be returned to the supplier. The warehouse and cargo movement representative are not directly involved in inspecting or dealing with suspected tampered items.

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4. (602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

Explanation

Mission capability (MICAP) receipts must be processed before all others because they involve critical equipment or supplies that are needed for mission-critical tasks. These receipts have the highest priority and need to be processed quickly to ensure that the necessary resources are available for the mission to proceed without any delays or disruptions. Processing MICAP receipts first helps to prioritize and address any urgent needs or requirements in a timely manner.

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5. (615) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be

Explanation

Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be obliterated. This means that any markings or labels on the containers that are no longer relevant or accurate should be removed or erased. This is important to ensure that there is no confusion or misinformation about the contents of the containers, and to maintain accurate records.

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6. (601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that

Explanation

The receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for before accepting a shipment. This means that they need to check and verify that all the containers that were supposed to be included in the shipment are actually present. This is important to ensure that nothing is missing or lost during the transportation process. By confirming that all containers are accounted for, the representative can ensure that the shipment is complete and can be accepted.

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7. (602) Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous
materiels or pilferable items?

Explanation

Segregated, specialized holding areas are necessary for items such as hazardous materials or pilferable items due to safety or security reasons. These items may pose a risk to individuals or the environment if not stored properly. By keeping them in separate areas, the risk of accidents or unauthorized access is minimized. Additionally, specialized storage areas ensure that these items are handled and stored in accordance with specific regulations and protocols, further enhancing safety and security measures.

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8. (603) Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?

Explanation

The receiving in-checker is responsible for verifying the accuracy of the received items. They need to check the national stock number (NSN) to ensure that the correct item has been received, the unit of issue to determine the quantity, and the quantity itself to ensure it matches the expected amount. However, the warehouse location is not necessary for the receiving in-checker as it is not directly related to the verification of the received items.

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9. (611) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?

Explanation

A refrigerated storage chill space must be maintained between 32 and 50°F to ensure that the stored items remain at a safe temperature. Temperatures below 32°F can cause freezing and damage to certain products, while temperatures above 50°F can promote the growth of bacteria and spoilage. Therefore, the ideal range for a refrigerated storage space is between 32 and 50°F to maintain the quality and safety of the stored items.

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10. (611) What protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions?

Explanation

Drainage protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground conditions by allowing water to flow away from the area. This prevents the items from getting soaked or damaged by water. Concrete, steel mats, and crushed stone may provide some level of protection, but drainage is specifically designed to address wet ground conditions and is therefore the most effective solution.

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11. (619) Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage?

Explanation

Acids and alkalis should be separated in storage because they are incompatible and can react with each other, leading to the release of toxic gases or even explosions. Mixing acids and alkalis can result in a neutralization reaction, which produces heat and can cause the mixture to boil or splatter. This can be dangerous and potentially lead to accidents or injuries. Therefore, it is important to store acids and alkalis separately to prevent any unintended reactions.

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12. (635) The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock
items must be

Explanation

The correct answer is XB3. The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be XB3. This means that the item is expendable, meaning it is consumed or used up in the normal course of operations and cannot be repaired. The cost designator of 3 indicates that the item is relatively inexpensive.

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13. (615) Which storage method helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?

Explanation

First in, first out (FIFO) is a storage method that ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated. This means that the items that are received or stocked first are the ones that are issued or used first. By following this method, the risk of items becoming outdated or expired is minimized as the older items are always used first. This is particularly important in industries such as food and pharmaceuticals where product expiration dates are crucial.

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14. (612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization?

Explanation

When planning a warehouse layout, it is important to keep the work area to a minimum in order to increase storage space and utilization. By minimizing the work area, more space can be allocated for storage, allowing for a greater capacity to store goods and optimize the use of the warehouse. This helps to maximize efficiency and productivity in the warehouse operations.

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15. (618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?

Explanation

The exception codes 8, 9, or M identify health hazard items.

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16. (605) What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt?

Explanation

The partial quantity flag used to indicate a partial receipt is "P". This flag is commonly used in inventory management systems to indicate that only a portion of the ordered quantity has been received. It helps in keeping track of the remaining quantity that is yet to be received and also allows for accurate inventory calculations and reporting.

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17. (604) Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

Explanation

Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is deleted. This means that the record of items that are expected to arrive but have not yet been received is removed from the system. This is likely done because there is no longer a need to track these items since the on-hand quantity is now zero. Deleting the record helps to keep the inventory system accurate and up-to-date.

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18. (610) Which type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of the cost?

Explanation

The correct answer is Classified. This type of discrepancy report must be followed up on regardless of the cost because it involves classified information that may pose a risk to national security if not properly addressed. It is crucial to investigate and resolve any discrepancies related to classified materials to ensure their protection and prevent any potential breaches or unauthorized access.

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19. (613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location?

Explanation

In a warehouse location, the designator used to identify the storage level is a single capital letter. This letter represents a specific level within the warehouse where items are stored. This designator helps in organizing and locating items efficiently within the warehouse, allowing for easier inventory management and retrieval of goods.

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20. (608) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the

Explanation

If the customer failed to cancel the due-out, it means that they did not inform the organization that they no longer needed the property or item. As a result, the organization would have already prepared and delivered the property, causing unnecessary costs and inconvenience. Therefore, the responsibility for this refusal lies with the customer for not cancelling the due-out in a timely manner.

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21. (638) Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a storage aids system?

Explanation

General-purpose shelves are part of a storage aids system in a warehouse. These shelves are designed to hold a variety of items and can be easily adjusted to accommodate different sizes and shapes of products. They provide a flexible and efficient storage solution, allowing for easy access and organization of inventory. Unlike conveyors, affixed cranes, and overhead trolleys, general-purpose shelves do not involve mechanical or automated systems, but they play a crucial role in maximizing storage space and optimizing warehouse operations.

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22. (605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt?

Explanation

When there is an overage receipt, it means that more items have been received than what was originally ordered. To address this, the incorrect quantity on the receipt document should be circled to indicate the discrepancy. The correct quantity should then be written above the circled incorrect quantity to ensure accurate record-keeping. This action helps to maintain the integrity of the receipt document and facilitates proper inventory management.

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23. (607) Which Materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of
property for the supply account?

Explanation

Materiel management inspectors are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account. They are responsible for inspecting and assessing the quality and condition of materials and supplies in order to ensure they meet the required standards. These inspectors have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the condition of property and make informed decisions regarding its usability and suitability for the supply account.

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24. (612) What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Popularity." When items with the slowest turnover rate are stored in areas farther from active stock processing areas, the storage factor used is popularity. This means that items that are less popular or have lower demand are stored in areas that are less accessible or farther away. By doing this, it allows for more efficient and convenient access to items that are in higher demand and have a faster turnover rate.

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25. (605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

Explanation

Serviceable receipts is not a category of receipt discrepancies because it refers to the condition of the received items, rather than any discrepancies or issues with the receipt itself. Receipt discrepancies typically involve discrepancies in quantity, documentation, or misidentification of items, but not the serviceability of the receipts.

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26. (610) When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

Explanation

When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, they must submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours from its discovery. This ensures that any issues with the item can be addressed promptly and appropriate actions can be taken to rectify the situation. Failing to report the discrepancy within this time frame may result in delays or complications in resolving the issue.

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27. (613) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location 05C045F056D?

Explanation

In the given warehouse location "05C045F056D," the letter "D" is used to identify a bin subdivision. The other options, 045, 056, and F, are not used for this purpose.

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28. (621) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes?

Explanation

The using organization is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes. This means that the organization that is utilizing the hazardous materials is also responsible for properly disposing of them once they are no longer needed. This ensures that the organization takes ownership of the waste it generates and takes necessary steps to handle it in a safe and environmentally friendly manner.

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29. (608) What computer input is processed to initiate a condition change?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCC. FCC stands for "computer input" and is the input that is processed to initiate a condition change. This could refer to any type of input that is received by a computer system, such as a command, signal, or data, which triggers a change in the system's state or behavior.

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30. (613) What identifies the storage level in warehouse location 01A002B003G?

Explanation

The letter "B" in the warehouse location 01A002B003G identifies the storage level.

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31. (605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

Explanation

The responsibility to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item lies with the inspector. An inspector is typically trained and experienced in recognizing different items and ensuring that they are correctly identified. They have the knowledge and expertise to thoroughly inspect items and compare them with the required specifications or standards. By carefully examining the item, the inspector can determine if it has been misidentified and take appropriate actions to rectify the situation.

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32. (606) What code is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item, and it is not on that organization’s accountable record?

Explanation

The "+" symbol is used to process a recoverable item found on base if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization's accountable record.

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33. (607) The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or
intended purpose is

Explanation

The physical state of an item plays a crucial role in determining its usefulness to carry out its intended purpose. The condition of an item refers to its overall state, including its quality, functionality, and appearance. If an item is in good condition, it is more likely to effectively fulfill its designed purpose. On the other hand, if an item is in poor condition, it may not be able to perform as intended, limiting its usefulness. Therefore, the condition of an item directly affects its ability to carry out its intended purpose.

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34. (612) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the

Explanation

The correct answer is "storage space." This is because storage space is the fundamental resource for any material management and distribution operation. It refers to the physical area where goods and materials are stored, organized, and managed. Without sufficient storage space, it would be challenging to store and distribute materials efficiently. Therefore, having an adequate and well-organized storage space is essential for the smooth functioning of any materiel management and distribution operation.

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35. (617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal because the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fulfill the issue request. This means that the warehouse is refusing to provide the requested quantity of the item due to the shortage in stock.

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36. (604) Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen?

Explanation

To access the receipt processing screen, you need to enter the system designator and due-in document number on the receipt inquiry screen. These two pieces of information are necessary for the system to locate and retrieve the specific receipt you are looking for. Without entering these details, the system will not be able to display the receipt processing screen.

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37. (604) What happens to the quantity on a due-in detail record balance when a receipt is processed?

Explanation

When a receipt is processed, the quantity on a due-in detail record balance decreases. This is because a receipt indicates that the items have been received and are no longer pending. Therefore, the quantity that was previously recorded as due-in is reduced as it is now accounted for in the inventory.

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38. (631) Which materiel management listing is reviewed by Inventory to verify that all degraded
operations emergency issues have been processed?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register is reviewed by Inventory to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed. This register provides a record of all documents related to materiel management, including emergency issues. By reviewing this register, Inventory can ensure that all necessary actions have been taken for degraded operations and that any emergency issues have been addressed.

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39. (634) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount image contains a
research indicator of

Explanation

The correct answer is AR. In this context, "AR" most likely stands for "additional research." Therefore, selecting "AR" as the research indicator in the inventory recount image would indicate that additional research is needed.

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40. (611) How many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other storage facilities?

Explanation

Flammable storage facilities must be separated by at least 50 feet from other storage facilities. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of fire spreading from the flammable storage to other areas. By having a sufficient distance between these facilities, the chances of a fire spreading and causing significant damage or harm are reduced.

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41. (613) What daily supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file?

Explanation

The document register is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file on a daily basis. This register keeps track of all the documents that enter and leave the warehouse, ensuring that each document is properly accounted for. By regularly updating the document register, the warehouse can maintain an accurate record of all transactions and clear any suspense files related to warehouse locations. The transaction register and log, as well as the document log, may be used for other purposes but are not specifically designed for clearing the warehouse location suspense file.

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42. (620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention
information?

Explanation

AF-EMIS stands for Air Force Environmental Management Information System. It is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information. This system provides comprehensive and up-to-date information on hazardous materials, their handling, storage, and disposal procedures, as well as pollution prevention measures. It helps the Air Force manage and mitigate the environmental impact of its operations by providing accurate and reliable data on hazardous materials and pollution prevention practices.

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43. (623) How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record?

Explanation

Electronic sensitive devices are identified on the item record using the "Type cargo code 3." This code specifically indicates that the item is an electronic sensitive device.

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44. (607) Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and
uneconomical to repair?

Explanation

DD Form 1577 is the correct answer because it is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair.

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45. (630) Inventory schedules are prepared

Explanation

Inventory schedules are prepared by fiscal year because fiscal year is a commonly used time period for financial reporting and budgeting purposes. By aligning the inventory schedules with the fiscal year, organizations can track and analyze their inventory levels and costs over a consistent and standardized timeframe. This allows for better financial planning, decision-making, and performance evaluation. Additionally, preparing inventory schedules on a fiscal year basis ensures that the inventory data is in sync with other financial reports and statements, facilitating accurate and comprehensive financial analysis.

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46. (639) Which category of reusable containers is considered operational for at least 100 trips?

Explanation

Long life reusable containers are considered operational for at least 100 trips. This means that these containers are designed to withstand multiple uses and maintain their functionality over an extended period of time. They are durable and can be used repeatedly without significant wear and tear, making them a cost-effective and sustainable option for transportation and storage purposes.

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47. (616) What type of warehouse change document is produced when an item’s security
classification is increased on the item record?

Explanation

When an item's security classification is increased on the item record, a warehouse change document called a "Controlled item code" is produced. This document is used to track and manage the changes made to the security classification of the item in the warehouse. It ensures that the item is handled and stored according to the updated security requirements, and helps maintain proper control and security of the item within the warehouse.

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48. (619) Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at

Explanation

Flammable solids are substances that can ignite and burn easily. The correct answer is "100°F or above" because flammable solids are those that have a flashpoint (the lowest temperature at which they can ignite) of 100°F or higher. This means that these solids can catch fire when exposed to heat or an open flame at or above this temperature.

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49. (620) What activity must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval
Listing?

Explanation

The Bioenvironmental Engineering Services must approve all additions or deletions to the Health Hazard Approval Listing. This is because they are responsible for assessing and managing health hazards in the environment. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate the potential risks associated with different substances and determine whether they should be included or removed from the approval listing. Their approval ensures that proper precautions are taken to protect the health and safety of individuals.

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50. (626) What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?

Explanation

When a suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail, the management notice I302 is output. This notice indicates that the property has been suspended and is currently unavailable for use. It serves as a notification to management that the property needs attention or repairs before it can be put back into service.

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51. (614) The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within how many workdays of
the start of a cycle inventory?

Explanation

The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that they have a maximum of 10 workdays to conduct the necessary checks and verifications on the inventory. Completing these validations within the specified time frame ensures that the inventory is accurately accounted for and any discrepancies or issues can be addressed promptly.

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52. (632) When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record
the out-of-balance conditions?

Explanation

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, the product used to record the out-of-balance conditions is CA/CRL, R14. This product likely has the necessary features and capabilities to accurately track and document any discrepancies or imbalances found during the inventory process.

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53. (613) How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?

Explanation

Storage bin rows in a warehouse are numbered in such a way that odd numbers are assigned to the left of the main aisle. This numbering system helps in organizing and locating the storage bins more efficiently. By assigning odd numbers to the left of the main aisle, it becomes easier for workers to navigate and identify the correct row. It also helps in maintaining a systematic arrangement of the storage bins, ensuring smooth operations in the warehouse.

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54. (634) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how
many days?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30. This means that the last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over a period of 30 days.

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55. (629) Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?

Explanation

Serviceable items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity because they are in good condition and can still be used or sold. Miscellaneous commodities typically refer to items that are not easily categorized or have a specific purpose, while serviceable items are functional and have a clear purpose.

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56. (630) The inventory deadline date is the date that the actual count

Explanation

The inventory deadline date refers to the date when the actual count of inventory starts. This means that on this particular date, the process of physically counting the inventory items begins.

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57. (617) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually?

Explanation

The transaction identification code "TRM" is used to transfer assets to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office manually.

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58. (622) What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals?

Explanation

The correct answer is R. The R materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals.

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59. What accountable receipt document may list more than one item and document number?

Explanation

The DD Form 250 is a document that may list more than one item and document number. It is commonly used as a receipt for goods or services received by the Department of Defense. This form is used to track and account for items such as supplies, equipment, or materials. It includes details such as the quantity, description, and value of each item, as well as the document number associated with each item. Therefore, the DD Form 250 is the correct answer to the question.

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60. (616) Which transaction identifier code identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change?

Explanation

The transaction identifier code "FIC" identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change. This code is specifically used to indicate a change in the data related to a warehouse, such as a change in location or storage capacity. It helps to track and manage the changes made to the warehouse information effectively.

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61. (607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?

Explanation

The purpose of the AF Form 2032 is to update inspection data.

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62. (610) Which discrepancies are reported on a SF 364?

Explanation

The SF 364 is a form used to report discrepancies in material or shipments. It is used to document instances where incorrect material, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments are received, regardless of their dollar value. This form helps to track and address these discrepancies, ensuring that the correct material is received and preventing unnecessary expenses or delays.

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63. (607) What three things are used to identify an item?

Explanation

The three things that are used to identify an item are the reference number, stock number, and item description. The reference number is a unique identifier that helps in locating the item quickly. The stock number is another identifier that is used to track the item's inventory and availability. The item description provides additional details about the item, such as its characteristics or purpose. Together, these three pieces of information help in accurately identifying and locating the item.

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64. (624) Which supply activity code is used to process issues to Maintenance for functional check
items?

Explanation

Supply activity code C is used to process issues to Maintenance for functional checkitems.

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65. (613) The central locator listing is maintained for how many days after a new directory is
received?

Explanation

The central locator listing is maintained for 30 days after a new directory is received. This means that the listing, which contains information about the location of various resources, will be updated and available for use for a period of 30 days before it is updated again with a new directory. This allows users to access the most up-to-date information about the location of resources within the system.

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66. (609) When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector does a follow-up inspection within how many days?

Explanation

When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector does a follow-up inspection within 10 days. This allows the inspector to assess whether the identified deficiencies have been addressed and corrected in a timely manner. A follow-up inspection ensures that the necessary actions have been taken to rectify any issues found during the initial surveillance, ensuring compliance with safety and operational standards.

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67. (625) Which transaction identifier code should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelflife asset to Maintenance?

Explanation

An inspector should use the transaction identifier code MSI to transfer an unserviceable shelflife asset to Maintenance.

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68. (622) How often must the combination on combination padlocks be changed for classified
storage?

Explanation

The combination on combination padlocks for classified storage must be changed annually. This ensures that the security of the classified information is maintained by regularly updating the access code. Changing the combination annually reduces the risk of unauthorized access and helps to protect the sensitive information stored in the classified storage.

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69. (624) What markings on an item provide adequate proof that a functional check was done?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base Maintenance inspector's stamp/signature. This marking provides adequate proof that a functional check was done because it signifies that the item has been inspected and approved by a qualified maintenance inspector. The stamp or signature serves as a form of documentation and verification that the necessary checks and evaluations have been completed.

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70. (626) What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

Explanation

The correct answer is FCD with suspect flag S. This input is used to load a suspect material flag to an item record. The FCD (Field Change Document) is a computer input that allows for changes to be made to an item record. In this case, the suspect flag is being set to "S" to indicate that the material is suspected of being faulty or defective.

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71. (606) Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an effective program to return
serviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system?

Explanation

The accountable officer is responsible for establishing and implementing an effective program to return serviceable XB3 items to the materiel management system. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the items are properly accounted for and returned to the system in a timely manner. The accountable officer is responsible for the overall management and oversight of the program, including ensuring that proper procedures are followed and that any necessary documentation is completed accurately.

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72. (612) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what item storage factor?

Explanation

When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location, you are implementing the "Quantity" item storage factor. This means that you are adjusting the storage space based on the number or quantity of items, ensuring that each item has enough space without encroaching on another item's location.

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73. (610) Which Materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports

Explanation

The materiel management function that evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports is Procedures. This function involves reviewing and analyzing the reports to identify any discrepancies or issues with the incoming supplies. It also includes implementing appropriate procedures and protocols to address and resolve these discrepancies. By effectively managing and controlling the supply discrepancy reports, Procedures ensures that the incoming supplies meet the required standards and specifications, minimizing any potential disruptions or problems in the supply chain.

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74. (618) How often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned?

Explanation

A utility program needs to be run monthly in order to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned. Running the program on a monthly basis ensures that any potentially hazardous items are flagged and addressed in a timely manner.

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75. (628) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or
guaranty item is the serial number,

Explanation

The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guarantee item is the model and manufacturer's name and address. This information is crucial for identifying the specific item and its manufacturer, which is necessary for warranty or guarantee purposes. The serial number is not mentioned in the answer options, so it is not the correct choice. The manufacturer's reference number and part number are also not mentioned, so they are not required to be annotated on the receiving document.

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76. (633) Which objective is not an objective of inventory research?

Explanation

The objective of inventory research is to reverse-post erroneous transactions, correct warehouse location errors, and account for rejected transactions. However, processing requisitions when required is not specifically mentioned as an objective of inventory research.

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77. (631) What program assigns freeze code C to selected item records within the input parameter for a sample inventory?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Sample Inventory Program. This program assigns freeze code C to selected item records within the input parameter for a sample inventory. This indicates that the selected items are frozen and cannot be modified or changed. The other options mentioned, such as the Inventory Count Card Program, Daily Transaction Register, and Stock Fund Due-Out Report, do not specifically mention assigning freeze codes to selected item records within the input parameter for a sample inventory.

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78. (635) When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench
stock, they are assigned issue exception code

Explanation

When controlled items are approved by the unit commander in writing and placed on benchstock, they are assigned issue exception code N.

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79. (637) Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legal and physical
restrictions concerning transportation?

Explanation

The principle of advance planning of material-handling methods and equipment requires considering legal and physical restrictions concerning transportation. This means that when planning how to handle materials, one must take into account any laws or regulations regarding transportation and also consider the physical limitations of the materials and the transportation methods available. This principle emphasizes the importance of planning ahead to ensure that materials can be transported safely and efficiently while complying with any legal requirements.

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80. (622) In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential materiel be stored?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The explanation for this is not available.

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81. (635) What transaction identifier code is used to load, change, or delete master bench stock
details?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2BS because the question asks for the transaction identifier code used to load, change, or delete master bench stock details. The code 2BS is the only option provided that fits this description. The other options (1BS, 1F3, and 1GP) do not specify any action related to loading, changing, or deleting master bench stock details.

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82. (636) Bench stock items are recommended for deletion during the semiannual review if the date of last demand is greater than how many days?

Explanation

During the semiannual review, bench stock items are recommended for deletion if the date of last demand is greater than 270 days. This means that if an item has not been requested or used within the past 270 days, it is considered unnecessary and can be removed from the stock. This helps to ensure that inventory is kept up to date and only includes items that are regularly needed or in demand.

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83. (632) What does the input parameter request for an in-use/in-place equipment inventory generate?

Explanation

The input parameter for an in-use/in-place equipment inventory generates both custodian authorization/custody receipt listing and equipment labels. This means that the parameter will generate a listing of authorized custodians and their custody receipts, as well as labels for the equipment to indicate ownership and custody.

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84. (627) What computer input is used to load a time compliance technical order (TCTO) flag?

Explanation

The computer input used to load a time compliance technical order (TCTO) flag is FCD.

Submit
85. (627) How often are on-the-shelf time compliance technical order (TCTO) items inspected to
ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished?

Explanation

On-the-shelf time compliance technical order (TCTO) items need to be inspected regularly to ensure that TCTO compliance is being accomplished. The correct answer is "Monthly" because conducting inspections on a monthly basis allows for regular monitoring and ensures that any necessary actions or updates are being implemented in a timely manner. This frequency strikes a balance between frequent checks and allowing enough time for any required maintenance or adjustments to be made.

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86. (631) Verifying the physical count balance and recording the accuracy of the count formats are
the most important elements of what type inventory?

Explanation

Verifying the physical count balance and recording the accuracy of the count formats are the most important elements of a sample inventory. This type of inventory involves selecting a subset of items from the total inventory and counting them to assess the accuracy of the entire inventory. By comparing the physical count to the recorded count, the organization can identify any discrepancies and take corrective actions if necessary. Therefore, the correct answer is Sample.

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87. (636) The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench
stock authorizations is to process the

Explanation

The M04 process is the most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting benchstock authorizations. This process likely involves a systematic and organized approach to gathering and analyzing information related to benchstock authorizations. It may include steps such as assessing current needs, evaluating inventory levels, considering usage patterns, and consulting with relevant stakeholders. The M04 process is likely designed to streamline decision-making and ensure that any changes to benchstock authorizations are based on accurate and up-to-date information.

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88. (638) Which reason is not a benefit of a mechanized material handling system?

Explanation

A mechanized material handling system does not lower initial procurement costs. This means that implementing such a system requires a significant investment upfront. However, once the system is in place, it can provide benefits such as lowering operating and facility costs, allowing the facility to be designed around the equipment, and streamlining flow while minimizing the handling of equipment.

Submit
89. (636) How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done?

Explanation

A complete inventory and replenishment is done 15 days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review. This allows enough time to thoroughly assess the stock levels, identify any shortages or excesses, and order necessary replenishments. It also provides a buffer period to ensure that the stock is fully replenished and organized before the review takes place.

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90. (628) How are warranty or guaranty items identified on the item record?

Explanation

Warranty or guaranty items are identified on the item record using the IEX code B.

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91. (632) What is the maximum number of equipment accounts that may be requested for inventory count with one input parameter request?

Explanation

The maximum number of equipment accounts that may be requested for inventory count with one input parameter request is 10. This means that when making a request for an inventory count, the maximum number of equipment accounts that can be included in that request is 10.

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92. (624) How often is a functional check listing produced?

Explanation

A functional check listing is produced semiannually, meaning it is created every six months. This allows for regular and thorough checks to be conducted on the functionality of a system or equipment. Producing the check listing semiannually ensures that any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, minimizing the risk of downtime or accidents.

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93. (610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to for help?

Explanation

All unresolved supply discrepancy reports are forwarded to Stock Control for help. Stock Control is responsible for managing and maintaining the inventory of supplies, ensuring that the correct items are available when needed. They have the expertise and resources to investigate and resolve any discrepancies in the supply chain, ensuring that the correct items are delivered to the right place at the right time.

Submit
94. (620) How long is the locally developed checklist used to conduct inspections of chemical
containers maintained?

Explanation

The locally developed checklist used to conduct inspections of chemical containers is maintained for a period of 1 month. This suggests that the checklist is regularly updated and revised to ensure that it remains relevant and effective in identifying potential hazards or issues with the containers. By conducting inspections and maintaining the checklist on a monthly basis, any necessary corrective actions can be promptly taken to ensure the safety and integrity of the chemical containers.

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(603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the
(602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?
(615) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently...
(601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function...
(602) Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for...
(603) Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker?
(611) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be...
(611) What protects items placed in outside storage from wet ground...
(619) Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in...
(635) The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator...
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(612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be...
(618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items?
(605) What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial...
(604) Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record...
(610) Which type of discrepancy report must be followed up on...
(613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a...
(608) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility...
(638) Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a storage aids...
(605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage...
(607) Which Materiel management individuals are authorized to...
(612) What storage factor is used when items with the slowest turnover...
(605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt...
(610) When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage...
(613) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse...
(621) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous...
(608) What computer input is processed to initiate a condition change?
(613) What identifies the storage level in warehouse location...
(605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of...
(606) What code is used to process a recoverable item found on base if...
(607) The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to...
(612) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution...
(617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
(604) Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must...
(604) What happens to the quantity on a due-in detail record balance...
(631) Which materiel management listing is reviewed by Inventory to...
(634) To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory...
(611) How many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from...
(613) What daily supply product is used to clear the warehouse...
(620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and...
(623) How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item...
(607) Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is...
(630) Inventory schedules are prepared
(639) Which category of reusable containers is considered operational...
(616) What type of warehouse change document is produced when an...
(619) Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at
(620) What activity must approve all additions or deletions to the...
(626) What management notice is output when suspended property is...
(614) The storage activity should complete scheduled validations...
(632) When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which...
(613) How are storage bin rows in a warehouse numbered?
(634) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories...
(629) Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity?
(630) The inventory deadline date is the date that the actual count
(617) What transaction identification code is used to transfer assets...
(622) What materiel management controlled item code identifies...
What accountable receipt document may list more than one item and...
(616) Which transaction identifier code identifies a warehouse change...
(607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
(610) Which discrepancies are reported on a SF 364?
(607) What three things are used to identify an item?
(624) Which supply activity code is used to process issues to...
(613) The central locator listing is maintained for how many days...
(609) When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse...
(625) Which transaction identifier code should an inspector use to...
(622) How often must the combination on combination padlocks be...
(624) What markings on an item provide adequate proof that a...
(626) What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to...
(606) Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an...
(612) When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location...
(610) Which Materiel management function evaluates and controls...
(618) How often must a utility program be run to identify potentially...
(628) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document...
(633) Which objective is not an objective of inventory research?
(631) What program assigns freeze code C to selected item records...
(635) When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in...
(637) Which principle of materiel handling requires consideration of...
(622) In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential...
(635) What transaction identifier code is used to load, change, or...
(636) Bench stock items are recommended for deletion during the...
(632) What does the input parameter request for an in-use/in-place...
(627) What computer input is used to load a time compliance technical...
(627) How often are on-the-shelf time compliance technical order...
(631) Verifying the physical count balance and recording the accuracy...
(636) The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding,...
(638) Which reason is not a benefit of a mechanized material handling...
(636) How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock...
(628) How are warranty or guaranty items identified on the item...
(632) What is the maximum number of equipment accounts that may be...
(624) How often is a functional check listing produced?
(610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to...
(620) How long is the locally developed checklist used to conduct...
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