CDC 2S051 Volume 3 Multiple Choice Quiz

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1. (419) What is the main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG?

Explanation

The main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG is the availability of real-time updates. Unlike FEDLOG, which has a quarterly release schedule, D043A provides up-to-date information and ensures that users have access to the most current data. This allows for more accurate and timely decision-making, as users can rely on the latest information available.

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About This Quiz
CDC 2S051 Volume 3 Multiple Choice Quiz - Quiz

This CDC 2S051 Volume 3 Multiple Choice Quiz assesses knowledge in base equipment review, property custodianship agreements, and organizational equipment budget programs. It's designed for professionals managing military... see moreequipment, enhancing their understanding of allowance standards and equipment management codes. see less

2. (419) What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

Explanation

FEDLOG is the correct answer because it is a CD-ROM based research system that can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers.

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3. (403) Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

Explanation

AF Form 601 is the correct answer because it is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. The other options, AF Form 600, AF Form 2001, and AF Form 2005, are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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4. (422) How many characters is the descriptive nomenclature field limited to on the item record?

Explanation

The descriptive nomenclature field on the item record is limited to 32 characters. This means that any text or information entered into this field cannot exceed 32 characters in length. This limitation is important in order to maintain consistency and ensure that the field does not become overcrowded or difficult to read. By limiting the descriptive nomenclature to 32 characters, it allows for concise and clear descriptions of the items in the record.

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5. (403) Which request should be input into Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen?

Explanation

The correct answer is "A change to an allowance standard." This request should be input into the Air Force Equipment Management System using the automated allowance change request screen. This indicates that the system has a specific feature or functionality to handle requests related to changes in allowance standards. It is important to use the correct request type to ensure that the system processes the request accurately and efficiently.

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6. (409) Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?

Explanation

Fixed stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns. This means that regardless of the demand patterns, the stock level for the item will always remain the same. This helps in maintaining a consistent supply of the item and ensures that there are no shortages or excesses in the stock level.

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7. (406) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?

Explanation

Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance assets that are used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed and allocated for troubleshooting purposes, allowing maintenance personnel to identify and address issues in equipment without causing disruption to the overall system. By having dedicated fault isolation spares, organizations can minimize downtime and efficiently resolve problems in online equipment.

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8. (407) What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)". This is the computer listing used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that the inventory of weapons and communications security equipment is accurately accounted for and reconciled. The other options mentioned, such as Conversion Audit List (R22), Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21), and Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10), are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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9. (411) What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

Explanation

The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

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10. (414) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status has the worst
effect on an account?

Explanation

Cancellation of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status has the worst effect on an account because it means that the requested item or service has been cancelled, resulting in the account not receiving the necessary resources. This can disrupt operations, delay missions, and potentially compromise the effectiveness of the military unit.

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11. (404) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Prepost". Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This means that the TIN is processed or handled prior to the actual pickup of the property.

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12. (409) What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level?

Explanation

Air Force form 1996 is used to request an adjusted stock level.

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13. (420) Illustrated parts breakdowns are normally identified and published by

Explanation

Illustrated parts breakdowns are typically identified and published by the "–4 series of technical orders." This means that the breakdowns are organized and categorized into a specific series of technical orders, which likely contain detailed information and diagrams for different parts. This system allows for easy reference and access to the correct breakdowns based on the series of technical orders.

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14. (410) Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and activity code?

Explanation

Readiness based level details are identified by type detail L and activity code A.

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15. (411) Which type of redistribution describes when item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats?

Explanation

Directed redistribution refers to the type of redistribution where item managers send directives through various communication channels such as telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats (DIC A2* or A4*). This means that the redistribution of items is specifically directed or instructed by the item managers through these means of communication.

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16. (411) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not ship?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. This shipment exception code is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped.

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17. (403) Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are identified by which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator?

Explanation

The correct answer is NF1. In non-equipment authorization inventory data, equipment items are identified by their expendability, recoverability, reparability, and cost designator. The code NF1 represents a specific combination of these factors for the equipment item.

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18. (415) Which Air Force Form is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air Force-managed
items?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1667 because Air Force Form 1667 is used to report a supply difficulty concerning Air Force-managed items. This form is used to document and report any issues or difficulties encountered in the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to resolve the problem and maintain the efficient management of Air Force supplies.

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19. (418) What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an
automatic due-out release of assets?

Explanation

The transaction exception codes 1, 8, H, U, X, or .(period) are coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets.

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20. (423) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information?

Explanation

The computer system that provides interchangeable and substitute group information is D043B.

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21. (414) What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has canceled a
requisition?

Explanation

The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has canceled a requisition.

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22. (410) Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity?

Explanation

The Equipment management element serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity. They are responsible for reviewing and authorizing the use of equipment within an organization. They ensure that equipment is properly managed, maintained, and accounted for. This includes conducting regular inspections, tracking equipment usage, and ensuring that all necessary authorizations are in place. The Equipment management element plays a crucial role in ensuring that equipment is used efficiently and effectively within an organization.

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23. (413) Which TEX code keeps the materiel management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input?

Explanation

The TEX code "Seven" keeps the materiel management computer from automatically producing another requisition when the issue is input. This code likely serves as a flag or command that tells the system to halt the automatic requisition process. Without this code, the computer would continue to generate requisitions even after the issue is input, leading to unnecessary duplication and potential waste of resources.

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24. (421) What purpose does the part number detail record serve?

Explanation

The part number detail record serves to automate the part number to stock number cross-reference file. This means that it helps in automatically linking the part number to its corresponding stock number, making it easier and more efficient to retrieve information about a specific part. It eliminates the need for manual research and searching in federal logistics, and also provides a record of past part number requirements.

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25. (416) Which materiel management program is used to identify all claims receivable/claims
payable details that require a Report of Discrepancy or Supply discrepancy report and for those requiring followup?

Explanation

NGV587 is the materiel management program used to identify all claims receivable/claimspayable details that require a Report of Discrepancy or Supply discrepancy report and for those requiring follow-up.

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26. (413) Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

Explanation

The serial numbers used for off-line requisitions are 9000-9899.

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27. (404) Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code?

Explanation

Equipment turn-ins are processed using activity code E.

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28. (414) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures status results from outof-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Exception/other". This status results from various conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested, such as out-of-stock situations or new requirements. It indicates that there are special circumstances or exceptions that have affected the normal supply process.

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29. (401) Who must mutually agree on the selection of property custodians?

Explanation

The EME (Equipment Management Element) and organizational commanders must mutually agree on the selection of property custodians. This ensures that both parties have input and are in agreement on who is responsible for the custody and management of the property. The EME is responsible for managing and maintaining equipment, while the organizational commanders have a vested interest in ensuring that the property is properly cared for and accounted for within their organization. By requiring mutual agreement, it helps to establish accountability and shared responsibility for the property custodianship.

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30. (404) Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code?

Explanation

Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using activity code "P". This means that when non-equipment items are returned or turned in, the inventory data related to these items is processed using activity code "P".

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31. (412) Which codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

Explanation

The FAD (Force Activity Designator) and Urgency-of-need designator are the codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator at the source of supply. These codes help in prioritizing the urgency and need for certain items or supplies, ensuring that they are delivered promptly to the requesting entity.

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32. (417) Which listing may be used instead of the D18 to review priority requirements?

Explanation

R01 may be used instead of the D18 to review priority requirements.

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33. (420) What section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a sequential listing of all part
numbers appearing in the technical order?

Explanation

The numerical index section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a sequential listing of all part numbers appearing in the technical order. This section allows users to easily locate specific parts by their corresponding part numbers. It serves as a helpful reference for quickly finding the desired part within the technical order.

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34. (422) Which transaction identification code is used to change the stock number; expendability,
recoverability, reparability, cost designator; equipment management code; routing identifier; or
budget code on the item record?

Explanation

The transaction identification code used to change the stock number, expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator, equipment management code, routing identifier, or budget code on the item record is FIC.

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35. (402) Within an allowance standard what establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

Explanation

The basis of issue refers to the criteria or factors that determine the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization within an allowance standard. It takes into account various factors such as the purpose, need, and requirements of the individual, activity, or organization. The basis of issue helps in ensuring that the right amount of items are provided to meet the specific needs and objectives, while also managing inventory and resources effectively.

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36. (407) What report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when your base weapon assets are increased or decreased?

Explanation

The correct answer is DSM. DSM stands for the Defense Small Arms Management System. This is the report that is sent to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when there is an increase or decrease in base weapon assets. The DSM helps in managing and keeping track of small arms inventory and ensuring proper accountability and security measures are in place.

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37. (418) The following factors are involved in the due-out release sequence: FAD, UJC, project code and

Explanation

The correct answer is "document number date". In the due-out release sequence, the factors involved are FAD, UJC, project code, and the document number date. This means that the release sequence is determined based on the date of the document number associated with the due-out. This ensures that the due-outs are released in a specific order based on the document number date.

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38. (421) What Transaction Identification Code establishes the part number record?

Explanation

The correct answer is FIL or 1AA. The Transaction Identification Code FIL is used to establish the part number record. Additionally, the code 1AA is also used for the same purpose.

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39. (422) What transaction identification code changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase—LP—items) fields on internal records?

Explanation

The transaction identification code FCU is used to change the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack fields on internal records. This code is specifically used for items that are not local purchase (LP) items.

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40. (405) Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?

Explanation

The listing Q10 is used to identify out-of-balance conditions.

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41. (406) Which transaction identification code is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance detail?

Explanation

The transaction identification code 1XA is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance detail.

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42. (415) What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action?

Explanation

The cancellation status code "ZC" indicates that a due-in cancellation request was generated by offline action. This means that the cancellation request was not initiated through an online or automated system, but rather through manual or offline means.

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43. (423) Which interchangeable and substitution group relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions?

Explanation

The correct answer is S. In this context, the interchangeable and substitution group relationship code S represents an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions. This code indicates that the item has limited compatibility and cannot be freely substituted with other items.

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44. (401) Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs?

Explanation

The Air Force Equipment Management System serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs. This system is designed to manage and track the Air Force's equipment inventory, including procurement, maintenance, and disposal. It provides a centralized platform for organizations to plan and allocate resources for equipment purchases and ensure efficient management of equipment throughout its lifecycle.

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45. (412) What system does program control use to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?

Explanation

The program control uses the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. This system helps in determining the order in which requisitions are processed and fulfilled based on factors such as urgency, criticality, and availability of resources. It ensures that the most important and critical requisitions are given higher priority, allowing for efficient and effective allocation of resources.

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46. (416) What transportation tracer list is used to decide if tracer action should begin or if a problem exists in the LRS?

Explanation

The transportation tracer list is used to determine if tracer action should be initiated or if there is a problem in the LRS (Logistics Readiness Squadron). This list helps track and investigate any issues or discrepancies related to transportation, such as delays, missing items, or incorrect shipments. By referring to the transportation tracer list, the LRS can identify any problems in the transportation process and take appropriate actions to resolve them.

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47. (411) What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

Explanation

The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item being returned is damaged and requires special handling or processing.

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48. (408) Which stock leveling term identifies required quantities to be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment or of unpredictable increases in demands?

Explanation

The safety level quantity refers to the required quantities of stock that need to be on hand to ensure continuous operation during minor interruptions or unpredictable increases in demand. It acts as a buffer to prevent stockouts and disruptions in the supply chain. By maintaining a safety level quantity, businesses can mitigate the risks associated with unexpected fluctuations in demand or delays in replenishment. This term is commonly used in inventory management to optimize stock levels and ensure smooth operations.

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49. (410) What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items?

Explanation

The Air Force Materiel Command system that computes readiness based level levels for selected XD items is the Recoverable Assembly Management System (RAMPS).

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50. (408) Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?

Explanation

The correct answer, "Average percent base repair," refers to a stock leveling term that measures the repair rate of the current and past four quarters. It is used to determine the average percentage of items that need repair within a specific time frame. This term helps in assessing the maintenance and repair needs of a stock, allowing for effective planning and allocation of resources.

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51. (408) Which quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle?

Explanation

The repair cycle quantity represents the number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle. This means that it is the quantity of items needed to ensure that there are enough units available to meet the demands during the time it takes to repair any items that may be returned or need maintenance. It is specifically related to the repair cycle and not other factors such as safety levels or economic order quantities.

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52. (405) Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data items?

Explanation

The correct answer is R15, Organizational visibility list. This listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non equipment authorization inventory data items. It allows organizations to track and monitor these valuable items, ensuring they are accounted for and properly managed. The listing helps to prevent loss, theft, or unauthorized use of these high value items.

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53. (405) Which listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?

Explanation

The Allowance source code listing is used to help ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances. This listing provides information about the specific source codes that are authorized for each type of equipment. By referring to this listing, organizations can ensure that they are only procuring and maintaining equipment that falls within their authorized allowances. This helps to prevent overstocking or understocking of equipment and ensures that resources are allocated appropriately.

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54. (403) Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator for an equipment item?

Explanation

The correct answer is Equipment management. Equipment management is responsible for determining the cost designator for an equipment item in terms of its expendability, recoverability, and reparability. This involves evaluating the cost of maintaining and repairing the equipment, as well as the availability of spare parts and resources. Therefore, equipment management is the code that replaces the cost designator in this context.

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55. (409) Which standard base supply system program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

Explanation

R35 is the correct answer because it is the standard base supply system program used to review and validate adjusted stock levels. This program allows for the assessment and verification of stock levels, ensuring accuracy and reliability in the supply chain.

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56. (415) Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many calendar days?

Explanation

Supply difficulty reports must be processed within 7 calendar days. This means that any issues or challenges related to the supply of goods or services must be addressed and resolved within a week. This ensures that any delays or problems in the supply chain are dealt with promptly, minimizing disruptions and ensuring smooth operations. Processing these reports within a reasonable timeframe is crucial for maintaining efficiency and meeting customer demands.

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57. (417) The urgency-of-need designator C due-outs are validated at least how often?

Explanation

The urgency-of-need designator C due-outs are validated at least quarterly. This means that the validation process for these due-outs occurs every three months. It is important to regularly validate these due-outs to ensure that they are still relevant and necessary. This frequency allows for timely updates and adjustments to be made as needed.

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58. (402) How do we determine what equipment items organizations are authorized to purchase and maintain?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Allowance standard." An allowance standard is a set of guidelines or criteria that determine the authorized equipment items that organizations are allowed to purchase and maintain. It specifies the quantity and type of equipment that is necessary for the organization to carry out its mission effectively. By following the allowance standard, organizations can ensure that they are only acquiring and maintaining the necessary equipment items.

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59. (408) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Requisition objective". Requisition objective is a stock leveling term that represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It helps ensure that there is enough inventory available to meet the demand and prevent stockouts or disruptions in operations. By setting a requisition objective, organizations can optimize their inventory levels and maintain a balance between supply and demand.

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60. (423) Which code is assigned to identify the order in which items within interchangeability and
substitution (I&S) grouping will be substituted or issued?

Explanation

The code "Order of use" is assigned to identify the order in which items within interchangeability and substitution (I&S) grouping will be substituted or issued. This code helps to determine the sequence in which the items will be used, ensuring that they are substituted or issued in the correct order.

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61. (406) Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for those organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance assets?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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62. (415) What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction
identification code AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition. This means that when the reconciliation flag is set to C, it signifies that the AFC action was taken to request improved status on a requisition. This flag helps in tracking and monitoring the progress of the requisition and ensures that any necessary actions are taken to improve its status.

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63. (405) How often are custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) jacket files verified to ensure that a current one is on file and signed by the appointed custodian?

Explanation

Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) jacket files are verified quarterly to ensure that a current one is on file and signed by the appointed custodian. This frequency allows for regular checks to ensure that the necessary documentation is up to date and properly maintained. It also helps in maintaining accountability and transparency in custodial processes.

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64. (411) As a minimum, how often are item records with a shipping exception code reviewed and validated?

Explanation

Item records with a shipping exception code are reviewed and validated at least twice a year, specifically every six months. This allows for regular monitoring and assessment of any issues or discrepancies related to shipping exceptions. By conducting these reviews semiannually, organizations can ensure that their item records comply with shipping regulations and identify any necessary corrective actions in a timely manner.

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65. (407) At least how often do you reconcile base weapons detail records with the central file at Warner-Robins Air Logsitics Center?

Explanation

The correct answer is Annually. This means that base weapons detail records are reconciled with the central file at Warner-Robins Air Logistics Center once a year. This could be due to the fact that reconciling these records is a time-consuming process and therefore it is not necessary to do it more frequently. Additionally, annual reconciliation allows for a comprehensive review of all weapons detail records to ensure accuracy and completeness.

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66. (410) What document identifier code does the Standard Base Supply System use to respond to a readiness based level allocation?

Explanation

The Standard Base Supply System uses the document identifier code XCC to respond to a readiness based level allocation.

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67. (410) Which Standard Base Supply System listing is used to identify situations where an RBL may be misallocated?

Explanation

The R47 listing in the Standard Base Supply System is used to identify situations where an RBL (Recoverable Balance List) may be misallocated. This means that R47 helps in identifying cases where the allocation of recoverable items may not be done correctly or accurately.

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68. (404) Which input does the equipment management section process to reduce or delete an authorization when it has been determined that a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized?

Explanation

The equipment management section processes the input FCI to reduce or delete an authorization when it has been determined that a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized.

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69. (422) Air Force Materiel Command automatically sends stock number updates by what tool?

Explanation

Air Force Materiel Command automatically sends stock number updates using the tool D071.

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70. (409) Which type of adjusted minimum level should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed?

Explanation

When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, the type of adjusted minimum level that should be used is B. The adjusted minimum level is a reorder point that takes into account factors such as lead time, demand variability, and desired service level. By using an adjusted minimum level, inventory managers can ensure that there is enough stock on hand to meet demand without overstocking. This helps to optimize inventory levels and minimize the risk of stockouts.

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(419) What is the main advantage of using D043A over FEDLOG?
(419) What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate...
(403) Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance...
(422) How many characters is the descriptive nomenclature field...
(403) Which request should be input into Air Force Equipment...
(409) Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to...
(406) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance asset...
(407) What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to...
(411) What document identification code indicates a denial to a...
(414) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue...
(404) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking...
(409) What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level?
(420) Illustrated parts breakdowns are normally identified and...
(410) Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail...
(411) Which type of redistribution describes when item managers send...
(411) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not...
(403) Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items are...
(415) Which Air Force Form is used to report a supply difficulty...
(418) What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail...
(423) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute...
(414) What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source...
(410) Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization...
(413) Which TEX code keeps the materiel management computer from...
(421) What purpose does the part number detail record serve?
(416) Which materiel management program is used to identify all claims...
(413) Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?
(404) Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are...
(414) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue...
(401) Who must mutually agree on the selection of property custodians?
(404) Non-Equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins...
(412) Which codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority...
(417) Which listing may be used instead of the D18 to review priority...
(420) What section of the illustrated parts breakdown provides a...
(422) Which transaction identification code is used to change the...
(402) Within an allowance standard what establishes the number of...
(407) What report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air...
(418) The following factors are involved in the due-out release...
(421) What Transaction Identification Code establishes the part number...
(422) What transaction identification code changes the unit price,...
(405) Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?
(406) Which transaction identification code is used to load, change,...
(415) What cancellation status code indicates that a due-in...
(423) Which interchangeable and substitution group relationship code...
(401) Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational...
(412) What system does program control use to assign a requisition...
(416) What transportation tracer list is used to decide if tracer...
(411) What transaction exception code is used to process a return for...
(408) Which stock leveling term identifies required quantities to be...
(410) What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based...
(408) Which stock leveling term identifies the repair rate of the...
(408) Which quantity represents the number of units that must be...
(405) Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value...
(405) Which listing is used to help ensure that equipment...
(403) Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability,...
(409) Which standard base supply system program is used to review and...
(415) Supply difficulty reports must be processed within how many...
(417) The urgency-of-need designator C due-outs are validated at least...
(402) How do we determine what equipment items organizations are...
(408) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that...
(423) Which code is assigned to identify the order in which items...
(406) Which report provides a listing of all items authorized,...
(415) What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates...
(405) How often are custodian authorization/custody receipt listing...
(411) As a minimum, how often are item records with a shipping...
(407) At least how often do you reconcile base weapons detail records...
(410) What document identifier code does the Standard Base Supply...
(410) Which Standard Base Supply System listing is used to identify...
(404) Which input does the equipment management section process to...
(422) Air Force Materiel Command automatically sends stock number...
(409) Which type of adjusted minimum level should be used when...
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