2S051 Vol. 3 Ure Questions

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2S051 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Where will the equipment requests be forwarded after being reviewed and validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE)?

    • A.

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Supply Chain Management-Retail (SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.

    • B.

      AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity.

    • C.

      Air Force Materiel Command.

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    B. AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity.
    Explanation
    After being reviewed and validated by the equipment accountability element (EAE), the equipment requests will be forwarded to the AFMC SCM-R Equipment Activity.

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  • 2. 

    Who is responsible for signing custody receipts or listings for equipment assets charged to their organization?

    • A.

      Equipment accountability element.

    • B.

      Stock fund manager.

    • C.

      Accountable officer.

    • D.

      Property custodian.

    Correct Answer
    D. Property custodian.
    Explanation
    The property custodian is responsible for signing custody receipts or listings for equipment assets charged to their organization. They are entrusted with the task of maintaining and safeguarding the equipment, ensuring its proper use and preventing loss or damage. By signing custody receipts or listings, the property custodian acknowledges their responsibility and accountability for the equipment under their care. This helps in tracking and monitoring the equipment, ensuring that it is accounted for and properly managed within the organization.

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  • 3. 

    What term describes the items and quantities of equipment Air Force activities and individuals normally required to carry out their mission?

    • A.

      Configuration data.

    • B.

      Allowance standards.

    • C.

      Authorization details.

    • D.

      Equipment management codes.

    Correct Answer
    B. Allowance standards.
    Explanation
    Allowance standards refers to the items and quantities of equipment that Air Force activities and individuals typically need to fulfill their mission. These standards outline the specific equipment required and the quantities needed for each activity or individual. By following these standards, the Air Force ensures that all necessary equipment is available and properly allocated to support their operations effectively.

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  • 4. 

    Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for an equipment item?

    • A.

      Excess exception.

    • B.

      Allowance source.

    • C.

      Shipment exception.

    • D.

      Equipment management.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment management.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Equipment management." Equipment management is responsible for determining the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for an equipment item. This involves evaluating factors such as the cost of repair, replacement, and maintenance to determine the appropriate cost designator. The other options, excess exception, allowance source, and shipment exception, are not directly related to determining the cost designator for an equipment item.

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  • 5. 

    The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

    • A.

      2005.

    • B.

      2003.

    • C.

      2001.

    • D.

      2000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2005.
    Explanation
    The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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  • 6. 

    Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

    • A.

      AF Form 2005.

    • B.

      AF Form 2001.

    • C.

      AF Form 601.

    • D.

      AF Form 600.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 601.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 601. This form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code.

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  • 7. 

    Which FCI format is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    D. 1
    Explanation
    FCI format 1 is used to load, change, or delete equipment authorized/in-use details.

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  • 8. 

    Which turn-in method is used to process the turn-in (TIN) before picking up the property?

    • A.

      Automatic.

    • B.

      Post-post.

    • C.

      Directed.

    • D.

      Pre-degraded operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pre-degraded operations.
    Explanation
    Pre-degraded operations are used to process the turn-in (TIN) before picking up the property. This method involves performing necessary operations or tasks to prepare the property for pickup, such as dismantling, disassembling, or disposing of certain components. By completing these operations before picking up the property, the process becomes more efficient and streamlined. The other options, automatic, post-post, and directed, do not specifically refer to the process of preparing the property for pickup.

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  • 9. 

    What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • A.

      E

    • B.

      P

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    B. P
    Explanation
    The activity code "P" is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins.

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  • 10. 

    What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • A.

      E

    • B.

      P

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    A. E
    Explanation
    The activity code "E" is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins.

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  • 11. 

    When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authorization?

    • A.

      FCD.

    • B.

      FIC

    • C.

      FCI

    • D.

      FID

    Correct Answer
    C. FCI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCI. When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes the input FCI to reduce or delete an authorization.

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  • 12. 

    Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?

    • A.

      Q10.

    • B.

      D04.

    • C.

      Q09.

    • D.

      M14.

    Correct Answer
    A. Q10.
    Explanation
    Q10 is the correct answer because it is the only listing that specifically mentions "out-of-balance conditions." The other listings do not provide any information about identifying out-of-balance conditions.

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  • 13. 

    When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

    • A.

      D04.

    • B.

      Q09.

    • C.

      Q10.

    • D.

      R14.

    Correct Answer
    D. R14.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R14. In this context, R14 refers to a specific listing that serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This implies that R14 is a document or form that is used to track and acknowledge the transfer of property or assets from one person to another. By signing this listing, the property custodian acknowledges that they have received the specified item(s) and are responsible for their safekeeping.

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  • 14. 

    Which listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

    • A.

      R15, Organizational visibility list.

    • B.

      Q09, Allowance source code listing.

    • C.

      Q10, Equipment-out-of-balance listing.

    • D.

      R14, Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing.

    Correct Answer
    A. R15, Organizational visibility list.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R15, Organizational visibility list. This listing provides visibility for high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data items. It allows organizations to track and monitor these valuable items, ensuring proper authorization and custody. The list helps prevent loss, theft, or misuse of high-value inventory items and ensures accountability within the organization.

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  • 15. 

    Which system is used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns?

    • A.

      Air Force Equipment Management System.

    • B.

      Combat Supplies Management System.

    • C.

      Item Unique Identification.

    • D.

      Bare Base System.

    Correct Answer
    C. Item Unique Identification.
    Explanation
    Item Unique Identification (IUID) is the system used to globally distinguish one item from all other items that the Department of Defense (DOD) buys or owns. This system assigns a unique identifier to each item, allowing for better tracking, management, and visibility of assets throughout their lifecycle. It helps in inventory management, maintenance, and logistics, ensuring that the DOD can accurately identify and locate items when needed. The other options mentioned, such as the Air Force Equipment Management System, Combat Supplies Management System, and Bare Base System, are not specifically designed for globally distinguishing items like IUID.

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  • 16. 

    Who mandated the item unique identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000?

    • A.

      Department of Defense.

    • B.

      Headquarters Air Force.

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense.
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense mandated the item unique identification (IUID) compliance process for equipment assets with an acquisition cost of over $5,000. This means that it is a requirement for all equipment assets within the Department of Defense to have a unique identification number in order to track and manage them effectively. The other options, such as Headquarters Air Force, Major command (MAJCOM), and Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), do not have the authority to mandate this compliance process.

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  • 17. 

    Who will ensure Chief Financial Officer (CFO) data is loaded in the applicable Materiel Management Information Technology system?

    • A.

      Quality Assurance.

    • B.

      Equipment Accountability Element.

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment Accountability Element.
    Explanation
    The Equipment Accountability Element is responsible for ensuring that the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) data is loaded into the applicable Materiel Management Information Technology system. This element is specifically tasked with managing and maintaining accurate records of equipment, including financial data, and ensuring that all necessary information is entered into the system. Therefore, they are the ones who will ensure that the CFO data is properly loaded and updated in the system.

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  • 18. 

    Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect a problem in online equipment?

    • A.

      Training spares.

    • B.

      Test station spares.

    • C.

      Shop standard spares.

    • D.

      Fault isolation spares.

    Correct Answer
    D. Fault isolation spares.
    Explanation
    Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are used to detect a problem in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed to aid in the troubleshooting and isolation of faults or issues in equipment. By using fault isolation spares, technicians can identify and diagnose problems more efficiently, allowing for quicker repairs and reduced downtime. Training spares, test station spares, and shop standard spares may serve other purposes in maintenance but are not specifically intended for fault detection and isolation.

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  • 19. 

    Which asset categories are defined in the –21 technical order?

    • A.

      Maintenance protection equipment.

    • B.

      Crew and passenger support equipment.

    • C.

      Alternate mission equipment and crew and passenger support equipment.

    • D.

      Maintenance and safety protection equipment, alternate mission equipment, and crew and passenger support equipment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance and safety protection equipment, alternate mission equipment, and crew and passenger support equipment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance and safety protection equipment, alternate mission equipment, and crew and passenger support equipment. This is because these asset categories are specifically mentioned in the -21 technical order.

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  • 20. 

    Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

    • A.

      D04.

    • B.

      M10.

    • C.

      R25.

    • D.

      R43.

    Correct Answer
    C. R25.
    Explanation
    The R25 report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets. This report helps organizations keep track of their SPRAM assets by providing information on what items are authorized, how many are currently on-hand, and any items that are due-out. It allows organizations to effectively manage and maintain their SPRAM assets, ensuring they have the necessary equipment and resources for maintenance and repair tasks.

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  • 21. 

    When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to theSmall Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

    • A.

      DSM.

    • B.

      MMC.

    • C.

      SRC.

    • D.

      XHA.

    Correct Answer
    A. DSM.
    Explanation
    DSM stands for Defense Small Arms Management, which is a report sent to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when there are changes in the base weapon assets. This report helps in managing and tracking the small arms inventory and ensures proper documentation and accountability of the weapons.

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  • 22. 

    Who works hand-in-hand with Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) to support mission requirements?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B.

      Mission Support Group (MSG).

    • C.

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) SCM-R Stock Control Activity.

    • D.

      Air Force Materiel Command SCM-R Equipment Activity.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) SCM-R Stock Control Activity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) SCM-R Stock Control Activity. The AFMC SCM-R Stock Control Activity works hand-in-hand with the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) to support mission requirements. They are responsible for controlling and managing the stock of supplies and equipment needed for missions. They collaborate closely with the LRS to ensure that the necessary resources are available and properly managed to support mission readiness.

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  • 23. 

    Which stock leveling term identifies quantities required to be on hand to permit continuousoperation due to minor interruptions of normal replenishment or unpredictable increases indemands?

    • A.

      Safety level quantity.

    • B.

      Repair cycle quantity.

    • C.

      Economic order quantity.

    • D.

      Order and shipping time quantity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety level quantity.
    Explanation
    Safety level quantity refers to the quantities of stock that need to be maintained in order to ensure continuous operation in the face of minor disruptions in the replenishment process or unexpected increases in demand. This term highlights the importance of having a buffer stock to prevent stockouts and maintain uninterrupted operations. It helps to mitigate the risk of disruptions and uncertainties in the supply chain by ensuring that there are sufficient quantities of stock available at all times.

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  • 24. 

    What must be established anytime stock is authorized for equipment items?

    • A.

      Safety level.

    • B.

      Adjusted level.

    • C.

      Economic order quantity.

    • D.

      Order and shipping time quantity.

    Correct Answer
    B. Adjusted level.
    Explanation
    Whenever stock is authorized for equipment items, it is important to establish the adjusted level. This refers to determining the appropriate quantity of stock that should be maintained based on factors such as demand, lead time, and desired service level. The adjusted level ensures that there is enough stock on hand to meet customer demand while minimizing excess inventory and associated costs. It helps in optimizing inventory management and ensuring efficient operations.

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  • 25. 

    When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    D. A
    Explanation
    Since the question states that one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, it implies that the adjusted minimum level should be used. The adjusted minimum level takes into account factors such as lead time and safety stock to ensure that there is enough inventory to meet demand without causing stockouts. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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  • 26. 

    Which type of adjusted stock level is assigned to an item to ensure the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns?

    • A.

      Fixed.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Minimum.

    • D.

      Maximum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed.
    Explanation
    Fixed stock level is assigned to an item to ensure that the requisitioning objective remains constant and does not fluctuate due to demand patterns. This means that regardless of the demand for the item, the stock level will always be maintained at a specific predetermined level. This helps in avoiding stockouts and ensures that there is always enough inventory available to meet the demand.

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  • 27. 

    A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

    • A.

      86

    • B.

      1991

    • C.

      1996

    • D.

      2005

    Correct Answer
    C. 1996
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1996. This suggests that the request for an adjusted stock level is made on Air Force Form 1996.

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  • 28. 

    Which Materiel Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

    • A.

      R26

    • B.

      R35

    • C.

      R43

    • D.

      R45

    Correct Answer
    B. R35
    Explanation
    R35 is the correct answer because it is the Materiel Management System program that is specifically used to review and validate adjusted stock levels. This program likely provides the necessary tools and functionalities to accurately assess and verify any adjustments made to stock levels, ensuring that they are correct and in line with the organization's inventory management processes.

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  • 29. 

    What Air Force Materiel Command system computes readiness based level levels for Selected XD items?

    • A.

      Defense European and Pacific Redistribution Activity (DEPRA).

    • B.

      Recoverable Assembly Management System (RAMPS).

    • C.

      D035E.

    • D.

      C001.

    Correct Answer
    C. D035E.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D035E. This system computes readiness based level levels for Selected XD items in the Air Force Materiel Command.

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  • 30. 

    Readiness-based level details are identified by type detail

    • A.

      L, activity code A.

    • B.

      L, activity code B.

    • C.

      C, activity code A.

    • D.

      C, activity code B.

    Correct Answer
    A. L, activity code A.
    Explanation
    Readiness-based level details are identified by type detail L, which indicates that the level of readiness is being assessed. The activity code A further specifies the type of activity being assessed within that level. This combination of L and activity code A is the correct answer because it accurately describes the identification of readiness-based level details.

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  • 31. 

    What process was designed to set base level stocks on Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) managed items in a way that minimizes customer wait time?

    • A.

      Proactive demand leveling (PDL).

    • B.

      Readiness based level (RBL).

    • C.

      Total asset visibility (TAV).

    • D.

      Customer oriented leveling technique (COLT).

    Correct Answer
    D. Customer oriented leveling technique (COLT).
    Explanation
    The customer oriented leveling technique (COLT) was designed to set base level stocks on Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) managed items in a way that minimizes customer wait time. This process focuses on understanding the needs and demands of the customers, and adjusting the stock levels accordingly to ensure timely availability of the required items. By prioritizing customer satisfaction and responsiveness, COLT aims to optimize inventory management and reduce wait times for customers.

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  • 32. 

    What process is used to compute levels for items that have no demand history or extremely low historical demands?

    • A.

      Total asset visibility.

    • B.

      Readiness base levels.

    • C.

      Proactive demand leveling.

    • D.

      Customer oriented leveling technique.

    Correct Answer
    C. Proactive demand leveling.
    Explanation
    Proactive demand leveling is the process used to compute levels for items that have no demand history or extremely low historical demands. This technique involves anticipating and forecasting demand based on factors such as market trends, customer behavior, and other relevant data. It allows organizations to proactively plan and adjust inventory levels to meet potential future demands, ensuring optimal stock levels and minimizing the risk of stockouts or excess inventory.

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  • 33. 

    What process has a goal to reduce the number of non-stocked Mission Capables (MICAPs) items?

    • A.

      Proactive demand leveling (PDL).

    • B.

      Readiness based level (RBL).

    • C.

      Total asset visibility (TAV).

    • D.

      Customer oriented leveling technique (COLT).

    Correct Answer
    C. Total asset visibility (TAV).
    Explanation
    Total asset visibility (TAV) is the process that aims to reduce the number of non-stocked Mission Capables (MICAPs) items. TAV provides real-time information on the location, status, and availability of assets throughout the supply chain. By having visibility into the assets, organizations can better manage their inventory and ensure that the right items are stocked in the right quantities to meet demand. This helps to minimize the number of non-stocked MICAPs items, improving readiness and operational efficiency.

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  • 34. 

    What technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets?

    • A.

      Total asset visibility.

    • B.

      Readiness base levels.

    • C.

      Radio frequency identification.

    • D.

      Customer oriented leveling technique.

    Correct Answer
    C. Radio frequency identification.
    Explanation
    Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology enables logisticians to identify, categorize, and locate assets. RFID uses radio waves to transmit data wirelessly between a tag attached to an asset and a reader. This allows logisticians to track and monitor assets in real-time, improving inventory management, reducing errors, and increasing efficiency. With RFID, logisticians can easily identify and locate assets, making it an essential technology for asset visibility in logistics operations.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for total item management including the requirements computation and setting and updating base stock levels?

    • A.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.

    • B.

      Contractor inventory control points.

    • C.

      Warehouse supervisor.

    • D.

      Item managers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contractor inventory control points.
    Explanation
    Contractor inventory control points are responsible for total item management, including requirements computation and setting and updating base stock levels. They are in charge of managing and controlling the inventory of items, ensuring that the right quantities are available at the right time. This includes calculating the requirements for items, determining the appropriate stock levels, and continuously updating them to meet the demands of the organization. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander oversees the overall logistics operations, while the warehouse supervisor is responsible for managing the warehouse operations. Item managers focus on specific items and their lifecycle, but the contractor inventory control points have the overall responsibility for total item management.

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  • 36. 

    What action occurs when Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and Contractor Inventory Control Points (CICP) direct asset redistribution?

    • A.

      Due out release.

    • B.

      Redistribution orders.

    • C.

      Readiness base level.

    • D.

      Special requisitioning.

    Correct Answer
    B. Redistribution orders.
    Explanation
    When Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and Contractor Inventory Control Points (CICP) direct asset redistribution, the action that occurs is redistribution orders. This means that assets are being transferred or moved from one location to another based on the direction of AFMC and CICP. This could involve moving assets from one base to another, reallocating assets within a base, or transferring assets to meet specific operational needs. Redistribution orders ensure that assets are being effectively utilized and distributed to where they are most needed.

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  • 37. 

    What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

    • A.

      B7*.

    • B.

      BLO.

    • C.

      FTR.

    • D.

      RDO.

    Correct Answer
    A. B7*.
    Explanation
    The document identification code B7* indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

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  • 38. 

    Which redistribution results when local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks?

    • A.

      Return.

    • B.

      Lateral.

    • C.

      Automatic.

    • D.

      Nondirected.

    Correct Answer
    D. Nondirected.
    Explanation
    When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, the resulting redistribution is called "nondirected." This means that the decision to redistribute the stocks is not based on any specific direction or guidance, but rather it is done without any specific target or purpose in mind. It is a general redistribution that is not aimed at any particular location or objective.

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  • 39. 

    What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

    • A.

      P

    • B.

      Q

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      Z

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item being returned was damaged during the shipping process. By using this code, the appropriate actions can be taken to process the return and address the issue of the damaged item.

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  • 40. 

    What transaction exception code is used to process a transfer of materiel to Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?

    • A.

      ISU.

    • B.

      DOR.

    • C.

      SHP.

    • D.

      TRM.

    Correct Answer
    D. TRM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TRM. TRM stands for Transfer Release Material, which is the transaction exception code used to process a transfer of materiel to Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS). This code indicates that the material is being released for transfer to DLADS for disposal or reutilization purposes.

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  • 41. 

    As a minimum, item records with a shipping exception code are reviewed and validated

    • A.

      Weekly.

    • B.

      Semiannually.

    • C.

      Annually.

    • D.

      Every 2 years.

    Correct Answer
    B. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Item records with a shipping exception code need to be reviewed and validated periodically to ensure that any issues or exceptions in the shipping process are addressed. Reviewing and validating these records semiannually allows for regular monitoring and identification of any potential problems or discrepancies. This frequency strikes a balance between conducting regular checks and not overwhelming the process with too frequent reviews.

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  • 42. 

    An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

    • A.

      A0*.

    • B.

      Due-out (DUO).

    • C.

      Special requisition (SPR).

    • D.

      Due-in cancellation (RCC).

    Correct Answer
    A. A0*.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A0*. An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by the document identification code A0*. This code is used to automate the process of requesting supplies from the source, ensuring that the necessary items are obtained in a timely manner. The A0* code helps to streamline the requisition process and improve efficiency in the supply chain.

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  • 43. 

    Which transaction identifier code (TRIC) is used to process a special requisition?

    • A.

      DOR.

    • B.

      ISU.

    • C.

      SPR.

    • D.

      TRM.

    Correct Answer
    C. SPR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SPR. The transaction identifier code (TRIC) SPR is used to process a special requisition. This code is specifically designed for handling unique or exceptional requisitions that do not fall under standard procedures. It allows for proper tracking and processing of these special requests, ensuring that they are handled appropriately and efficiently.

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  • 44. 

    Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?

    • A.

      Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).

    • B.

      Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program (MILSTAMP).

    • C.

      Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP).

    • D.

      Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).

    Correct Answer
    D. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).
    Explanation
    The Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) is used by program control to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. UMMIPS is a system that determines the order in which requisitions are processed and fulfilled based on factors such as the urgency of the requirement, availability of materials, and operational priorities. It helps ensure that critical items are prioritized and delivered in a timely manner, optimizing the overall efficiency of the supply chain management process.

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  • 45. 

    Which serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

    • A.

      9000–9999.

    • B.

      9000–9899.

    • C.

      0001–9999.

    • D.

      0001–7999.

    Correct Answer
    B. 9000–9899.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9000-9899. This range of serial numbers is used for off-line requisitions.

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  • 46. 

    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

    • A.

      Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority.

    • B.

      FAD, urgency-of-need designator (UND).

    • C.

      Urgency justification code (UJC), FAD.

    • D.

      UND, delivery priority.

    Correct Answer
    B. FAD, urgency-of-need designator (UND).
    Explanation
    The codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply are the Force activity designator (FAD) and the urgency-of-need designator (UND). These codes help to prioritize and determine the urgency of requisitions based on the specific needs and requirements of the requesting force.

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  • 47. 

    Who does the source of supply (SOS) owe an item to when a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned?

    • A.

      Item manager.

    • B.

      Requisitioning activity.

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Headquarter United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    Correct Answer
    B. Requisitioning activity.
    Explanation
    When a due-in detail is established after being requisitioned, the source of supply (SOS) owes the item to the requisitioning activity. The requisitioning activity is the entity that requested the item in the first place, and the SOS is responsible for fulfilling that request. The item manager may be involved in managing the inventory and availability of the item, but they are not directly owed the item. The major command (MAJCOM) and Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) are higher-level entities that may have oversight or authority, but they are not the specific recipients of the item in this scenario.

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  • 48. 

    What part of the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition?

    • A.

      Service.

    • B.

      Type account.

    • C.

      Address code.

    • D.

      Serial number.

    Correct Answer
    C. Address code.
    Explanation
    The address code in the due-in document identifies the base that placed the requisition. The address code is a unique identifier assigned to each base, and it is used to track and identify the origin of the requisition. The service, type account, and serial number are not related to identifying the base that placed the requisition.

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  • 49. 

    How often will requisition exception codes (REX) be reviewed and validated?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semi-Annual.

    • D.

      Annual.

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi-Annual.
    Explanation
    Requisition exception codes (REX) will be reviewed and validated semi-annually, which means twice a year. This ensures that any issues or discrepancies in the requisition process can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Regular reviews and validations help maintain the accuracy and efficiency of the requisition system and ensure that any necessary adjustments or improvements are made.

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  • 50. 

    Which requisition exception codes (REX) is assigned under program control due to Military standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP) status?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    B. 1

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 11, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    C5SGTCDC
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