2S051 CDC Vol 3

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2S051 Quizzes & Trivia

All of volume 3 questions.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity?

    • A.

      Equipment Accountability Office

    • B.

      Stock fund manager

    • C.

      Accountable officer

    • D.

      Property custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Accountability Office
    Explanation
    The Equipment Accountability Office serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity. This office is responsible for ensuring that all equipment is accounted for and properly authorized. They review and authorize equipment requests, track equipment usage, and maintain records of equipment inventory. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all equipment is properly managed and accounted for within the organization.

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  • 2. 

    The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between

    • A.

      The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.

    • B.

      The previous custodian and equipment management element (EME).

    • C.

      Organization commanders and the previous custodian.

    • D.

      The accountable officer and organization commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders. This is because the selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between these two parties. The EAO is responsible for managing and tracking equipment, while organization commanders have authority over the personnel within their organization. Therefore, both parties need to agree on the selection of property custodians to ensure proper accountability and management of equipment.

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  • 3. 

    What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

    • A.

      Allowance standard

    • B.

      Authorization

    • C.

      Basis of issue

    • D.

      Unit of issue

    Correct Answer
    C. Basis of issue
    Explanation
    The basis of issue within an allowance standard is the element that establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. It determines the quantity of items that can be allocated and distributed, ensuring that the appropriate amount is provided to meet the needs and requirements of the recipient.

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  • 4. 

    Which code replaces the cost designator in the (ERRCD) for an equipment item?

    • A.

      Excess exception

    • B.

      Allowance source

    • C.

      Shipment exception

    • D.

      Equipment management

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment management
    Explanation
    The code that replaces the cost designator in the (ERRCD) for an equipment item is "Equipment management". This suggests that the cost designator for an equipment item is managed or determined by the equipment management system.

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  • 5. 

    Which ERRCD identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items?

    • A.

      NF1

    • B.

      ND1

    • C.

      XB3

    • D.

      XD2

    Correct Answer
    A. NF1
    Explanation
    The ERRCD NF1 identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items.

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  • 6. 

    The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

    • A.

      2005

    • B.

      2003

    • C.

      2001

    • D.

      2000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2005
    Explanation
    The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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  • 7. 

    Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

    • A.

      AF Form 600

    • B.

      AF Form 601

    • C.

      AF Form 2001

    • D.

      AF Form 2005

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 601
    Explanation
    AF Form 601 is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is the correct form to use in these situations. The other forms listed (AF Form 600, AF Form 2001, and AF Form 2005) do not serve this specific purpose and are not the appropriate forms to use for this request.

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  • 8. 

    Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

    • A.

      Automatic

    • B.

      Post-post

    • C.

      Directed

    • D.

      Prepost

    Correct Answer
    D. Prepost
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Prepost". Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This implies that the TIN is processed in advance or beforehand, ensuring that it is ready and prepared for the property pickup.

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  • 9. 

    What activity code is used to process non-equipment inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • A.

      E

    • B.

      P

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    B. P
    Explanation
    The activity code used to process non-equipment inventory data equipment turn-ins is "P".

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  • 10. 

    What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • A.

      E

    • B.

      P

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      X

    Correct Answer
    A. E
    Explanation
    The activity code used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins is E.

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  • 11. 

    When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authoirization?

    • A.

      FCD

    • B.

      FIC

    • C.

      FCI

    • D.

      FID

    Correct Answer
    C. FCI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCI. When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes the input FCI to reduce or delete an authorization.

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  • 12. 

    Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?

    • A.

      Q10

    • B.

      Q09

    • C.

      M14

    • D.

      D04

    Correct Answer
    A. Q10
    Explanation
    Q10 is the listing used to identify out-of-balance conditions.

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  • 13. 

    When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

    • A.

      Allowance source code listing

    • B.

      Consolidated transaction register

    • C.

      Consolidated inventory document register

    • D.

      Custodian authorization/custoday receipt listing

    Correct Answer
    D. Custodian authorization/custoday receipt listing
    Explanation
    The custodian authorization/custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is a document that authorizes the custodian to take custody of certain property or assets. By signing this listing, the custodian acknowledges that they have received the property and are responsible for its safekeeping. This serves as a record of the transfer of custody and can be used for tracking and accountability purposes.

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  • 14. 

    Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenence (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?

    • A.

      Training spares

    • B.

      Test station spares

    • C.

      Shop standard spares

    • D.

      Fault isolation spares

    Correct Answer
    D. Fault isolation spares
    Explanation
    Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are used to detect or isolate faults or problems in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed and designated for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues in equipment. They are essential for identifying and resolving problems in a timely manner, ensuring efficient maintenance and minimizing downtime. Fault isolation spares play a crucial role in maintaining the operational integrity of online equipment.

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  • 15. 

    Which (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenence (SPRAM) detail?

    • A.

      1XA

    • B.

      1UB

    • C.

      1WB

    • D.

      1BS

    Correct Answer
    A. 1XA
  • 16. 

    Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenence (SPRAM) assets?

    • A.

      D04

    • B.

      M10

    • C.

      R25

    • D.

      R43

    Correct Answer
    C. R25
    Explanation
    The R25 report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets. This report is specifically designed to track and manage SPRAM assets, ensuring that organizations have visibility into the status and availability of these assets.

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  • 17. 

    When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

    • A.

      DSM

    • B.

      MMC

    • C.

      SRC

    • D.

      XHA

    Correct Answer
    A. DSM
  • 18. 

    What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security weapons assets?

    • A.

      Conversion Audit List (R22)

    • B.

      Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (r46)

    • C.

      Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)

    • D.

      Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

    Correct Answer
    C. Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46). This listing is used to reconcile communications security weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that all weapons and communication security assets are properly accounted for and that there are no discrepancies or missing items. The reconciliation process involves comparing the physical inventory of weapons and COMSEC assets with the records and documentation to identify any discrepancies and take appropriate actions to resolve them. This listing is an essential tool for maintaining accurate and up-to-date records of weapons and COMSEC assets.

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  • 19. 

    What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

    • A.

      Economic order quantity (EOQ)

    • B.

      Condemned quantity (NCQ)

    • C.

      Requisition objective (RO)

    • D.

      Safety-level quantity (SLQ)

    Correct Answer
    C. Requisition objective (RO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Requisition objective (RO). Requisition objective represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It is a term used in stock leveling to ensure that there is enough inventory available to meet the demand and avoid stockouts or excess inventory. The RO helps in efficient procurement and inventory management by setting a target quantity that balances the cost of holding inventory and the cost of stockouts.

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  • 20. 

    When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

    • A.

      D

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      B

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    D. A
    Explanation
    The adjusted minimum level A should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed. This means that when there is no requirement to replenish stock at the same rate as it is being used, the adjusted minimum level A is appropriate. This could be the case when there is excess stock available or when the demand for the product is low. Using the adjusted minimum level A allows for a more efficient management of stock levels and prevents unnecessary stock replenishment.

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  • 21. 

    A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

    • A.

      86

    • B.

      1991

    • C.

      1996

    • D.

      2005

    Correct Answer
    C. 1996
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1996. This is because the question asks for the Air Force form that is used to request an adjusted stock level, and the correct form for this purpose is the Air Force Form 1996.

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  • 22. 

    Which Materiel Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

    • A.

      R26

    • B.

      R35

    • C.

      R43

    • D.

      R45

    Correct Answer
    B. R35
    Explanation
    R35 is the correct answer because it is the Materiel Management System program that is specifically used to review and validate adjusted stock levels. The other options (R26, R43, R45) do not have this specific purpose and therefore are not the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    Readiness-based level details are identified by

    • A.

      Type detail L, activity code A.

    • B.

      Type detail L, activity code B.

    • C.

      Type detail C, activity code A.

    • D.

      Type detail , activity code B.

    Correct Answer
    A. Type detail L, activity code A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "type detail L, activity code A." This is because readiness-based level details are identified by a combination of type and activity code. In this case, the type detail is L and the activity code is A.

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  • 24. 

    Which Material Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?

    • A.

      R35

    • B.

      R39

    • C.

      R43

    • D.

      R47

    Correct Answer
    D. R47
    Explanation
    R47 is the correct answer because it is the only option that mentions a possible misallocation of readiness-based level (RBL). The other options do not provide any information about RBL misallocation.

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  • 25. 

    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?

    • A.

      Special

    • B.

      Transfer

    • C.

      Directed

    • D.

      Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    C. Directed
    Explanation
    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats, the redistribution type is "Directed". This means that the managers are specifically instructing or ordering the redistribution of the items to a particular location or recipient.

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  • 26. 

    What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

    • A.

      B7*

    • B.

      BLO

    • C.

      FTR

    • D.

      RDO

    Correct Answer
    A. B7*
    Explanation
    The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

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  • 27. 

    Which redistribution results when local mamangement decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks?

    • A.

      Return

    • B.

      Lateral

    • C.

      Automatic

    • D.

      Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    D. Nondirected
    Explanation
    When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, it means that the decision is not directed or targeted towards any specific location or recipient. Instead, it is a general or nondirected redistribution, where the stocks are sent or redistributed without any specific direction or purpose. This could be done to balance inventory levels, meet demand in different locations, or optimize resource allocation across the organization.

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  • 28. 

    What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

    • A.

      P

    • B.

      Q

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      Z

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item was damaged during the shipping process and needs to be returned for a refund or replacement.

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  • 29. 

    Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen- do not ship?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    Shipment exception code 1 is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped. This code is likely used to alert the shipping department or logistics team that the assets in question are not to be shipped due to being frozen. It could be that the assets need to thaw or be kept at a certain temperature before they can be safely shipped. By using this exception code, the shipping team can easily identify and handle these frozen assets appropriately.

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  • 30. 

    An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

    • A.

      AO*

    • B.

      Due out (DUO)

    • C.

      Special requisition (SPR)

    • D.

      Due-in cancellation (REC)

    Correct Answer
    A. AO*
    Explanation
    The document identification code AO* is used to identify an automatic requisition to the source of supply. This code is specifically associated with automatic requisitions, indicating that the system automatically generates and sends the requisition to the appropriate supplier without manual intervention. Therefore, AO* is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 31. 

    Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?

    • A.

      Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS)

    • B.

      Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program (MILSTAMP)

    • C.

      Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue procedures (MILSTRIP)

    • D.

      Unifrom Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Unifrom Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unifrom Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS). UMMIPS is used by program control to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. This system helps determine the urgency and importance of each requisition, allowing for efficient allocation of resources and prioritization of requests.

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  • 32. 

    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

    • A.

      Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority.

    • B.

      FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)

    • C.

      Urgency justification code (UJC), FAD.

    • D.

      UND, delivery priority.

    Correct Answer
    B. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND). The requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply is determined by both the Force activity designator (FAD) and the Urgency-of-need designator (UND). These codes help prioritize the urgency and importance of the requisition, ensuring that critical items are given higher priority for delivery.

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  • 33. 

    What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?

    • A.

      SPC 5

    • B.

      SPC 1

    • C.

      REX 5

    • D.

      REX 1

    Correct Answer
    D. REX 1
    Explanation
    The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

    • A.

      Positive

    • B.

      Cancellation

    • C.

      Exception/other

    • D.

      Intransit/shipped

    Correct Answer
    C. Exception/other
    Explanation
    Exception/other is the correct answer because this MILSTRIP status is used when there are out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, or other conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested. This status indicates that there is a deviation from the normal process due to unforeseen circumstances.

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  • 35. 

    MMSYS programs create cancellation requests to control

    • A.

      Stock replenishment

    • B.

      Excess stockage

    • C.

      Substitutions

    • D.

      Back orders

    Correct Answer
    B. Excess stockage
    Explanation
    MMSYS programs create cancellation requests to control excess stockage. This means that these programs are used to manage and reduce the amount of excess stock or inventory that a company has. By creating cancellation requests, the programs help to identify and eliminate unnecessary or surplus stock, which can improve efficiency and reduce costs for the company.

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  • 36. 

    What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      F

    • D.

      R

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    The reconciliation flag "C" on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition.

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  • 37. 

    Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force form?

    • A.

      1230

    • B.

      1250

    • C.

      1530

    • D.

      1667

    Correct Answer
    D. 1667
  • 38. 

    To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least

    • A.

      Once a month

    • B.

      Twice a month

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    B. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run twice a month to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This frequency ensures that any potential issues or discrepancies in the shipments can be promptly identified and resolved. Running the program regularly helps maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the military standard transportation and movement procedures, ensuring that shipments are properly tracked and accounted for.

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  • 39. 

    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list?

    • A.

      Parcel post tracer list

    • B.

      Transportation tracer list

    • C.

      Receipt aknowledged error list

    • D.

      Consolidated shipment error list

    Correct Answer
    C. Receipt aknowledged error list
    Explanation
    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on the Receipt acknowledged error list. This list is used to track and identify any errors or issues with the receipts and ensure that they are properly cleared. The other options, such as the Parcel post tracer list, Transportation tracer list, and Consolidated shipment error list, do not specifically focus on tracking and resolving receipt acknowledgment errors.

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  • 40. 

    Which materiel management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

    • A.

      NGV567

    • B.

      NGV577

    • C.

      NGV587

    • D.

      NGV597

    Correct Answer
    C. NGV587
    Explanation
    NGV587 is the correct answer because this materiel management program is specifically designed to identify all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD), or a supply discrepancy report (SDR). It helps in efficiently managing and resolving any discrepancies or issues related to claims receivable or claims payable.

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  • 41. 

    Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

    • A.

      D18 and R01

    • B.

      Q12 and R01

    • C.

      Q12 and M37

    • D.

      M37 and D18

    Correct Answer
    A. D18 and R01
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18 and R01. These two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation.

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  • 42. 

    How often are UND C due-outs validated?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    D. Quarterly
    Explanation
    UND C due-outs are validated on a quarterly basis. This means that the validation process is conducted every three months. It is important to regularly validate due-outs to ensure accuracy and efficiency in inventory management. Quarterly validation allows for timely identification and resolution of any discrepancies or issues that may arise.

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  • 43. 

    What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets?

    • A.

      1,8,H,U,X or.(period).

    • B.

      1,8,H,U,X or

    • C.

      7,8,B,H,U or.(period).

    • D.

      7,8,B,H,U or *.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,8,H,U,X or.(period).
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code that is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets is 1,8,H,U,X or.(period).

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  • 44. 

    When a due-out cancellation was processed in the CAMS, what review code is used on the due-out cancellation input?

    • A.

      C

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      I

    • D.

      M

    Correct Answer
    D. M
    Explanation
    When a due-out cancellation is processed in the CAMS system, the review code "M" is used on the due-out cancellation input.

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  • 45. 

    The factors involved in the due-out sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and

    • A.

      Receipt processing date

    • B.

      Document number date

    • C.

      Requisition number date

    • D.

      Receipt and requisitioning date

    Correct Answer
    B. Document number date
    Explanation
    The factors involved in the due-out sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and document number date. The document number date refers to the date when the document, such as a purchase order or requisition, was generated. This date is important in determining the order in which items are due-out, as it helps prioritize and track the flow of materials and resources. By considering the document number date along with other factors, the due-out sequence can be effectively managed and organized.

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  • 46. 

    How often is FEDLOG updated?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly
    Explanation
    FEDLOG is updated on a quarterly basis. This means that the information in FEDLOG is reviewed, revised, and updated every three months. This regular updating ensures that the data in FEDLOG remains current and accurate.

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  • 47. 

    What CD-Rom based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

    • A.

      Core automated maintenance system (CAMS)

    • B.

      MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS)

    • C.

      Deferal logistics (FEDLOG).

    • D.

      D043A

    Correct Answer
    C. Deferal logistics (FEDLOG).
    Explanation
    Deferal logistics (FEDLOG) is the correct answer because it is a CD-Rom based research system that can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. FEDLOG is commonly used in logistics and supply chain management to track and manage inventory. It provides a comprehensive database of part numbers and stock numbers, allowing users to easily search and cross-reference information. The other options, Core automated maintenance system (CAMS) and MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS), do not specifically mention the capability to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. D043A is not a valid option as it does not correspond to any of the given systems.

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  • 48. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to access the federal logistics (FEDLOG) interface from a Materiel Management System environment?

    • A.

      FIL

    • B.

      1RH

    • C.

      1RL

    • D.

      ISU

    Correct Answer
    B. 1RH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1RH. This transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to access the federal logistics (FEDLOG) interface from a Materiel Management System environment.

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  • 49. 

    Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are normally identified and published by

    • A.

      Figure and index

    • B.

      Model number and series

    • C.

      -4 series of technical orders

    • D.

      -7 series of technical orders

    Correct Answer
    C. -4 series of technical orders
    Explanation
    Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are typically identified and published by the -4 series of technical orders. This means that the IPBs are part of the -4 series of technical orders, which contain detailed information and diagrams for identifying and assembling parts. The model number and series, as well as the figure and index, may also be used in the publication of IPBs, but the -4 series of technical orders is specifically mentioned as the correct answer.

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  • 50. 

    Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activites with repair leael responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions?

    • A.

      Next higher assembly (NHA)

    • B.

      Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)

    • C.

      Numerica parts preferance code (NPPC)

    • D.

      Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)

    Correct Answer
    D. Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)
    Explanation
    The Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SMR) code in an Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions. This code helps determine the level of maintenance required for a particular part, whether it can be repaired or needs to be replaced, and the methods and resources available for support. It also provides instructions on how to dispose of the part if it cannot be repaired.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Courtney20clark
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