2S051 CDC Vol 3

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  • 1/59 Questions

    What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security weapons assets?

    • Conversion Audit List (R22)
    • Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (r46)
    • Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
    • Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)
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2S051 CDC Vol 3 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The 2S051 CDC Vol 3 quiz assesses knowledge on equipment management within the Air Force, focusing on roles, responsibilities, and procedures for handling equipment. It prepares learners for effective resource management and accountability, essential for organizational commanders and custodians.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record?

    • 18

    • 24

    • 32

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    The maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record is 32. This means that the field can accommodate up to 32 characters of text or information.

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  • 3. 

    The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

    • 2005

    • 2003

    • 2001

    • 2000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2005
    Explanation
    The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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  • 4. 

    When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

    • Allowance source code listing

    • Consolidated transaction register

    • Consolidated inventory document register

    • Custodian authorization/custoday receipt listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Custodian authorization/custoday receipt listing
    Explanation
    The custodian authorization/custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is a document that authorizes the custodian to take custody of certain property or assets. By signing this listing, the custodian acknowledges that they have received the property and are responsible for its safekeeping. This serves as a record of the transfer of custody and can be used for tracking and accountability purposes.

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  • 5. 

    What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

    • B7*

    • BLO

    • FTR

    • RDO

    Correct Answer
    A. B7*
    Explanation
    The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.

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  • 6. 

    What CD-Rom based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

    • Core automated maintenance system (CAMS)

    • MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS)

    • Deferal logistics (FEDLOG).

    • D043A

    Correct Answer
    A. Deferal logistics (FEDLOG).
    Explanation
    Deferal logistics (FEDLOG) is the correct answer because it is a CD-Rom based research system that can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. FEDLOG is commonly used in logistics and supply chain management to track and manage inventory. It provides a comprehensive database of part numbers and stock numbers, allowing users to easily search and cross-reference information. The other options, Core automated maintenance system (CAMS) and MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS), do not specifically mention the capability to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. D043A is not a valid option as it does not correspond to any of the given systems.

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  • 7. 

    Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenence (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?

    • Training spares

    • Test station spares

    • Shop standard spares

    • Fault isolation spares

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation spares
    Explanation
    Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are used to detect or isolate faults or problems in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed and designated for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues in equipment. They are essential for identifying and resolving problems in a timely manner, ensuring efficient maintenance and minimizing downtime. Fault isolation spares play a crucial role in maintaining the operational integrity of online equipment.

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  • 8. 

    Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen- do not ship?

    • A

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Shipment exception code 1 is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped. This code is likely used to alert the shipping department or logistics team that the assets in question are not to be shipped due to being frozen. It could be that the assets need to thaw or be kept at a certain temperature before they can be safely shipped. By using this exception code, the shipping team can easily identify and handle these frozen assets appropriately.

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  • 9. 

    What computer system provides interchangeable and substitue group information?

    • D143B

    • D043B

    • D071

    • C001

    Correct Answer
    A. D043B
    Explanation
    The computer system that provides interchangeable and substitute group information is D043B.

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  • 10. 

    Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity?

    • Equipment Accountability Office

    • Stock fund manager

    • Accountable officer

    • Property custodian

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Accountability Office
    Explanation
    The Equipment Accountability Office serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity. This office is responsible for ensuring that all equipment is accounted for and properly authorized. They review and authorize equipment requests, track equipment usage, and maintain records of equipment inventory. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all equipment is properly managed and accounted for within the organization.

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  • 11. 

    Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

    • Automatic

    • Post-post

    • Directed

    • Prepost

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepost
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Prepost". Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This implies that the TIN is processed in advance or beforehand, ensuring that it is ready and prepared for the property pickup.

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  • 12. 

    MMSYS programs create cancellation requests to control

    • Stock replenishment

    • Excess stockage

    • Substitutions

    • Back orders

    Correct Answer
    A. Excess stockage
    Explanation
    MMSYS programs create cancellation requests to control excess stockage. This means that these programs are used to manage and reduce the amount of excess stock or inventory that a company has. By creating cancellation requests, the programs help to identify and eliminate unnecessary or surplus stock, which can improve efficiency and reduce costs for the company.

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  • 13. 

    The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between

    • The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.

    • The previous custodian and equipment management element (EME).

    • Organization commanders and the previous custodian.

    • The accountable officer and organization commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders. This is because the selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between these two parties. The EAO is responsible for managing and tracking equipment, while organization commanders have authority over the personnel within their organization. Therefore, both parties need to agree on the selection of property custodians to ensure proper accountability and management of equipment.

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  • 14. 

    Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?

    • AF Form 600

    • AF Form 601

    • AF Form 2001

    • AF Form 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 601
    Explanation
    AF Form 601 is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and is the correct form to use in these situations. The other forms listed (AF Form 600, AF Form 2001, and AF Form 2005) do not serve this specific purpose and are not the appropriate forms to use for this request.

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  • 15. 

    Readiness-based level details are identified by

    • Type detail L, activity code A.

    • Type detail L, activity code B.

    • Type detail C, activity code A.

    • Type detail , activity code B.

    Correct Answer
    A. Type detail L, activity code A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "type detail L, activity code A." This is because readiness-based level details are identified by a combination of type and activity code. In this case, the type detail is L and the activity code is A.

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  • 16. 

    Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

    • D18 and R01

    • Q12 and R01

    • Q12 and M37

    • M37 and D18

    Correct Answer
    A. D18 and R01
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18 and R01. These two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation.

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  • 17. 

    A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

    • 86

    • 1991

    • 1996

    • 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. 1996
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1996. This is because the question asks for the Air Force form that is used to request an adjusted stock level, and the correct form for this purpose is the Air Force Form 1996.

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  • 18. 

    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?

    • Special

    • Transfer

    • Directed

    • Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed
    Explanation
    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats, the redistribution type is "Directed". This means that the managers are specifically instructing or ordering the redistribution of the items to a particular location or recipient.

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  • 19. 

    An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code?

    • AO*

    • Due out (DUO)

    • Special requisition (SPR)

    • Due-in cancellation (REC)

    Correct Answer
    A. AO*
    Explanation
    The document identification code AO* is used to identify an automatic requisition to the source of supply. This code is specifically associated with automatic requisitions, indicating that the system automatically generates and sends the requisition to the appropriate supplier without manual intervention. Therefore, AO* is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 20. 

    What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets?

    • 1,8,H,U,X or.(period).

    • 1,8,H,U,X or

    • 7,8,B,H,U or.(period).

    • 7,8,B,H,U or *.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,8,H,U,X or.(period).
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code that is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets is 1,8,H,U,X or.(period).

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  • 21. 

    Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are normally identified and published by

    • Figure and index

    • Model number and series

    • -4 series of technical orders

    • -7 series of technical orders

    Correct Answer
    A. -4 series of technical orders
    Explanation
    Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are typically identified and published by the -4 series of technical orders. This means that the IPBs are part of the -4 series of technical orders, which contain detailed information and diagrams for identifying and assembling parts. The model number and series, as well as the figure and index, may also be used in the publication of IPBs, but the -4 series of technical orders is specifically mentioned as the correct answer.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

    • Positive

    • Cancellation

    • Exception/other

    • Intransit/shipped

    Correct Answer
    A. Exception/other
    Explanation
    Exception/other is the correct answer because this MILSTRIP status is used when there are out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, or other conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested. This status indicates that there is a deviation from the normal process due to unforeseen circumstances.

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  • 23. 

    Which materiel management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

    • NGV567

    • NGV577

    • NGV587

    • NGV597

    Correct Answer
    A. NGV587
    Explanation
    NGV587 is the correct answer because this materiel management program is specifically designed to identify all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD), or a supply discrepancy report (SDR). It helps in efficiently managing and resolving any discrepancies or issues related to claims receivable or claims payable.

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  • 24. 

    An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an ERRC designator?

    • D

    • E

    • N

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. X
    Explanation
    In ERRC designators, an expendable item is identified by the code "X" used in the first position. This code signifies that the item is meant to be used once and then discarded or consumed. The other options (D, E, N) do not specifically indicate expendable items and may represent different types of designations or classifications.

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  • 25. 

    Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force form?

    • 1230

    • 1250

    • 1530

    • 1667

    Correct Answer
    A. 1667
  • 26. 

    What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

    • Allowance standard

    • Authorization

    • Basis of issue

    • Unit of issue

    Correct Answer
    A. Basis of issue
    Explanation
    The basis of issue within an allowance standard is the element that establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. It determines the quantity of items that can be allocated and distributed, ensuring that the appropriate amount is provided to meet the needs and requirements of the recipient.

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  • 27. 

    Which ERRCD identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items?

    • NF1

    • ND1

    • XB3

    • XD2

    Correct Answer
    A. NF1
    Explanation
    The ERRCD NF1 identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items.

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  • 28. 

    What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • E

    • P

    • R

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. E
    Explanation
    The activity code used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins is E.

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  • 29. 

    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

    • Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority.

    • FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)

    • Urgency justification code (UJC), FAD.

    • UND, delivery priority.

    Correct Answer
    A. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND). The requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply is determined by both the Force activity designator (FAD) and the Urgency-of-need designator (UND). These codes help prioritize the urgency and importance of the requisition, ensuring that critical items are given higher priority for delivery.

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  • 30. 

    Which position of the source, maintenance and recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets?

    • Depot

    • Source

    • Maintenance

    • Recoverability

    Correct Answer
    A. Recoverability
    Explanation
    The position of the recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets. The recoverability code indicates whether an item can be repaired, restored, or reconditioned to a serviceable condition. If an asset is deemed unserviceable and cannot be repaired, its recoverability code will reflect that it is not recoverable and will be disposed of. Therefore, the recoverability code position is the one that indicates the disposition action for unserviceable assets.

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  • 31. 

    Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activites with repair leael responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions?

    • Next higher assembly (NHA)

    • Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)

    • Numerica parts preferance code (NPPC)

    • Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)
    Explanation
    The Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SMR) code in an Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions. This code helps determine the level of maintenance required for a particular part, whether it can be repaired or needs to be replaced, and the methods and resources available for support. It also provides instructions on how to dispose of the part if it cannot be repaired.

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  • 32. 

    Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions?

    • Q10

    • Q09

    • M14

    • D04

    Correct Answer
    A. Q10
    Explanation
    Q10 is the listing used to identify out-of-balance conditions.

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  • 33. 

    Which redistribution results when local mamangement decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks?

    • Return

    • Lateral

    • Automatic

    • Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    A. Nondirected
    Explanation
    When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, it means that the decision is not directed or targeted towards any specific location or recipient. Instead, it is a general or nondirected redistribution, where the stocks are sent or redistributed without any specific direction or purpose. This could be done to balance inventory levels, meet demand in different locations, or optimize resource allocation across the organization.

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  • 34. 

    What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?

    • SPC 5

    • SPC 1

    • REX 5

    • REX 1

    Correct Answer
    A. REX 1
    Explanation
    The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.

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  • 35. 

    How often is FEDLOG updated?

    • Daily

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    FEDLOG is updated on a quarterly basis. This means that the information in FEDLOG is reviewed, revised, and updated every three months. This regular updating ensures that the data in FEDLOG remains current and accurate.

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  • 36. 

    What non-catalogue number position indicates which Air Logistics Center (ALC) assigned the number?

    • Position 6

    • Position 7

    • Position 8

    • Position 9

    Correct Answer
    A. Position 7
    Explanation
    Position 7 indicates which Air Logistics Center (ALC) assigned the number.

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  • 37. 

    Which (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenence (SPRAM) detail?

    • 1XA

    • 1UB

    • 1WB

    • 1BS

    Correct Answer
    A. 1XA
  • 38. 

    To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least

    • Once a month

    • Twice a month

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run twice a month to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This frequency ensures that any potential issues or discrepancies in the shipments can be promptly identified and resolved. Running the program regularly helps maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the military standard transportation and movement procedures, ensuring that shipments are properly tracked and accounted for.

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  • 39. 

    When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

    • DSM

    • MMC

    • SRC

    • XHA

    Correct Answer
    A. DSM
  • 40. 

    The factors involved in the due-out sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and

    • Receipt processing date

    • Document number date

    • Requisition number date

    • Receipt and requisitioning date

    Correct Answer
    A. Document number date
    Explanation
    The factors involved in the due-out sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and document number date. The document number date refers to the date when the document, such as a purchase order or requisition, was generated. This date is important in determining the order in which items are due-out, as it helps prioritize and track the flow of materials and resources. By considering the document number date along with other factors, the due-out sequence can be effectively managed and organized.

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  • 41. 

    Which interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) relationship code identifies and item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions?

    • T

    • S

    • M

    • I

    Correct Answer
    A. S
    Explanation
    The correct answer is S. The S code in the interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions. This means that the item is not a direct substitute for the other item in all situations, but rather has specific limitations or requirements for its use.

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  • 42. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to chance the stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD); equipment management code (EMC); routing identifier; or budget code on the item record?

    • FCU

    • FIC

    • FID

    • FNL

    Correct Answer
    A. FIC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FIC. The question is asking which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change various details on the item record, such as the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, routing identifier, or budget code. The TRIC FIC is the correct code to use for this purpose.

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  • 43. 

    For internal records what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue anf quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields?

    • FCU

    • FIC

    • FID

    • FNL

    Correct Answer
    A. FCU
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code (TRIC) FCU is used to change the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack fields for internal records, except for local purchase (LP) items. This code allows for modifications to be made to these specific fields in order to update and maintain accurate records of the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack for items within the internal system.

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  • 44. 

    What activity code is used to process non-equipment inventory data equipment turn-ins?

    • E

    • P

    • R

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The activity code used to process non-equipment inventory data equipment turn-ins is "P".

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  • 45. 

    When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

    • D

    • C

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The adjusted minimum level A should be used when one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed. This means that when there is no requirement to replenish stock at the same rate as it is being used, the adjusted minimum level A is appropriate. This could be the case when there is excess stock available or when the demand for the product is low. Using the adjusted minimum level A allows for a more efficient management of stock levels and prevents unnecessary stock replenishment.

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  • 46. 

    Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition?

    • Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS)

    • Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program (MILSTAMP)

    • Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue procedures (MILSTRIP)

    • Unifrom Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unifrom Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unifrom Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS). UMMIPS is used by program control to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. This system helps determine the urgency and importance of each requisition, allowing for efficient allocation of resources and prioritization of requests.

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  • 47. 

    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list?

    • Parcel post tracer list

    • Transportation tracer list

    • Receipt aknowledged error list

    • Consolidated shipment error list

    Correct Answer
    A. Receipt aknowledged error list
    Explanation
    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on the Receipt acknowledged error list. This list is used to track and identify any errors or issues with the receipts and ensure that they are properly cleared. The other options, such as the Parcel post tracer list, Transportation tracer list, and Consolidated shipment error list, do not specifically focus on tracking and resolving receipt acknowledgment errors.

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  • 48. 

    What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

    • Economic order quantity (EOQ)

    • Condemned quantity (NCQ)

    • Requisition objective (RO)

    • Safety-level quantity (SLQ)

    Correct Answer
    A. Requisition objective (RO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Requisition objective (RO). Requisition objective represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It is a term used in stock leveling to ensure that there is enough inventory available to meet the demand and avoid stockouts or excess inventory. The RO helps in efficient procurement and inventory management by setting a target quantity that balances the cost of holding inventory and the cost of stockouts.

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  • 49. 

    What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

    • P

    • Q

    • R

    • Z

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item was damaged during the shipping process and needs to be returned for a refund or replacement.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Courtney20clark

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