CDC 2S051 Volume 2 Multiple Choice Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) Which code on an issue request is used by the Standard Base Supply System to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?

    • A.

      System designator

    • B.

      Issue exception code

    • C.

      Transaction exception code

    • D.

      Transaction identification code

    Correct Answer
    D. Transaction identification code
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Transaction identification code". In the Standard Base Supply System, the transaction identification code is used to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction. This code helps identify the specific type of transaction being processed, allowing the system to route it to the appropriate program for further processing.

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  • 2. 

    (201) Organizations may identify their requests to Base Supply using either a

    • A.

      Stock number or part number

    • B.

      Part number or document number

    • C.

      Part number or transportation control number

    • D.

      Stock number or commercial and government entity number

    Correct Answer
    A. Stock number or part number
    Explanation
    Organizations have the option to identify their requests to Base Supply by either using a stock number or a part number. This means that they can provide either the specific stock number assigned to the item they need or the part number associated with it. Both options allow organizations to effectively communicate their requirements to Base Supply for the necessary items or materials.

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  • 3. 

    (201) What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and ugency justification codes on an issue request?

    • A.

      Increase the number of UMMIPS occurrences

    • B.

      Reduce the number of UMMIPS violations

    • C.

      Increase the cost of priority requirements

    • D.

      Reduce the number of supply transactions

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduce the number of UMMIPS violations
    Explanation
    Challenging possibly inflated urgency-of-need designators and urgency justification codes on an issue request can reduce the number of UMMIPS violations. UMMIPS violations occur when there is a discrepancy between the urgency of a request and the actual need for it. By challenging these designators and codes, it ensures that only genuinely urgent requests are prioritized, reducing the likelihood of UMMIPS violations.

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  • 4. 

    (202) Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill or backorder quantity status?

    • A.

      I004

    • B.

      I005

    • C.

      I007

    • D.

      I023

    Correct Answer
    A. I004
    Explanation
    Management notice I004 is a result of issue processing and reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantity. This notice is generated when there is an issue with processing the quantity, such as an error or discrepancy in the inventory. It provides information on the status of the affected quantity, whether it has been issued, killed (disposed of), or put on backorder. This notice helps the management track and manage inventory effectively.

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  • 5. 

    (202) An I007 management notice will be produced when a

    • A.

      Stock number request cannot be converted to a part number

    • B.

      Stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers

    • C.

      Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control

    • D.

      Part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control

    Correct Answer
    C. Part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control
    Explanation
    An I007 management notice will be produced when a part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. This means that the system is unable to find a corresponding stock number for the requested part number. The notice is generated to alert management about this issue, allowing them to take appropriate action to resolve the problem.

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  • 6. 

    (202) Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item?

    • A.

      I004

    • B.

      I005

    • C.

      I007

    • D.

      I023

    Correct Answer
    D. I023
    Explanation
    I023 is the correct answer because it is the management notice that reflects the total base asset position of an item. The other management notices listed (I004, I005, I007) do not specifically pertain to the total base asset position of an item.

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  • 7. 

    (203) What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document?

    • A.

      X

    • B.

      R

    • C.

      J

    • D.

      C

    Correct Answer
    C. J
    Explanation
    The activity code "J" identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document.

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  • 8. 

    (203) What Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?

    • A.

      DUO

    • B.

      1SH

    • C.

      ISU

    • D.

      CSU

    Correct Answer
    B. 1SH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1SH. The 1SH Standard Base Supply System output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status.

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  • 9. 

    (204) Who ensures that all local resources are exhausted before submitting a mission capability requisition to the source of supply?

    • A.

      MICAP only

    • B.

      Maintenance only

    • C.

      MICAP and Maintenance

    • D.

      MICAP or Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    C. MICAP and Maintenance
    Explanation
    MICAP and Maintenance ensure that all local resources are exhausted before submitting a mission capability requisition to the source of supply. This means that both MICAP and Maintenance departments work together to utilize all available local resources before requesting additional support from the source of supply. By doing so, they ensure efficient use of resources and minimize the need for external assistance.

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  • 10. 

    (204) A reason for performing and processing a cannibalization action would be to

    • A.

      Establish a MICAP

    • B.

      Upgrade a MICAP

    • C.

      Prevent a MICAP

    • D.

      Verify a MICAP

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevent a MICAP
    Explanation
    Performing and processing a cannibalization action is done to prevent a MICAP (Mission Capable) condition. Cannibalization involves removing parts or components from one equipment to be used in another equipment that is in need of repair or maintenance. By cannibalizing parts, the functioning equipment can continue to operate without the need for a MICAP, which would otherwise result in a loss of operational capability. This action helps to prevent a MICAP and ensures that the equipment remains operational.

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  • 11. 

    (204) What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out?

    • A.

      N

    • B.

      M

    • C.

      F

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. N
    Explanation
    The mission capability flag "N" on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out. This flag indicates that the item is not available and needs to be procured in order to fulfill the mission capability requirement.

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  • 12. 

    (204) What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement?

    • A.

      I023

    • B.

      1SH

    • C.

      233

    • D.

      731

    Correct Answer
    D. 731
    Explanation
    The core automated maintenance system data screen used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement is 731.

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  • 13. 

    (204) What code found on the mission capability report (B9x) identifies the reason for termination of the mission capability condition?

    • A.

      Reason why code

    • B.

      Report code

    • C.

      Delete code

    • D.

      Cause code

    Correct Answer
    C. Delete code
    Explanation
    The code found on the mission capability report (B9x) that identifies the reason for termination of the mission capability condition is the "Delete code." This code is used to indicate that the mission capability condition has been terminated or deleted for a specific reason.

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  • 14. 

    (205) Which report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a mission capability condition?

    • A.

      MICAP status report (E40)

    • B.

      MICAP report (B9*)

    • C.

      MICAP report (NOR)

    • D.

      MICAP report (D9*)

    Correct Answer
    B. MICAP report (B9*)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MICAP report (B9*). This report is transmitted to the applicable source of supply to report the initiation, termination, or change to a mission capability condition. The B9* designation indicates that it is a specific type of MICAP report.

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  • 15. 

    (205) Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability termination?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      45

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    D. 90
    Explanation
    Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for 90 days after a mission capability termination. This means that the supply computer will keep track of the Y-type details, such as inventory and stock levels, for a period of 90 days after the mission capability has ended. This allows for better record-keeping and ensures that any necessary information related to the mission capability can be accessed if needed within that timeframe.

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  • 16. 

    (206) The purpose of the E10 is to reconcile data between which systems?

    • A.

      SBSS/D165B

    • B.

      SBSS/D035C

    • C.

      MASS/SBSS

    • D.

      D035C/D165B

    Correct Answer
    C. MASS/SBSS
    Explanation
    The purpose of the E10 is to reconcile data between the MASS and SBSS systems.

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  • 17. 

    (207) When does the repair cycle of an asset begin?

    • A.

      After the item is repaired on base

    • B.

      When the faulty part is turned in to LRS

    • C.

      When a replacement request is submitted to LRS

    • D.

      With the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment

    Correct Answer
    D. With the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment
    Explanation
    The repair cycle of an asset begins with the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment. This is when the process of repairing the asset is initiated, as the faulty part is identified and taken out for repair or replacement. After this step, the item may be turned in to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) for further handling, a replacement request may be submitted to LRS, and eventually, the item may be repaired on base. However, the actual repair cycle begins with the removal of the malfunctioning item.

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  • 18. 

    (206) What mission capability asset sourcing system product provides a daily cleanup of the system's database?

    • A.

      E10

    • B.

      E20

    • C.

      E30

    • D.

      E40

    Correct Answer
    B. E20
    Explanation
    The mission capability asset sourcing system product that provides a daily cleanup of the system's database is E20.

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  • 19. 

    (207) Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item?

    • A.

      File status record

    • B.

      DIFM detail record

    • C.

      Repair cycle record

    • D.

      Supply point detail record

    Correct Answer
    B. DIFM detail record
    Explanation
    When processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item, the DIFM (Do-It-For-Me) detail record is established simultaneously. This record contains detailed information about the item being replaced, such as the item's identification, condition, and location. It helps to track the replacement process and ensure that the correct item is provided to fulfill the request.

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  • 20. 

    (206) What mission capability asset sourcing system/Standard Base Supply System report provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents?

    • A.

      E10

    • B.

      E20

    • C.

      E30

    • D.

      E40

    Correct Answer
    D. E40
    Explanation
    E40 is the correct answer because it is the mission capability asset sourcing system/Standard Base Supply System report that provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents. This report allows for tracking and monitoring the status of incidents and ensures that the necessary assets and supplies are available to support mission capabilities.

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  • 21. 

    (207) Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to Maintenance?

    • A.

      Credit

    • B.

      Firm

    • C.

      Issue

    • D.

      Memo

    Correct Answer
    B. Firm
    Explanation
    The term "due-in" refers to items that are expected to arrive or be completed by a certain date. In the context of a maintenance detail record, the "due-in from maintenance" would indicate items or tasks that are expected to be completed by the maintenance department. Therefore, if an issue is indicated in the "due-in from maintenance" section, it would mean that there is a problem or concern that needs to be addressed by the maintenance team. The correct answer, "Firm," suggests that the issue is related to the maintenance department.

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  • 22. 

    (207) When does the repair cycle of an asset begin?

    • A.

      After the item is repaired on base

    • B.

      When the faulty part is turned in to LRS

    • C.

      When a replacement request is submitted to LRS

    • D.

      With the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment

    Correct Answer
    D. With the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment
    Explanation
    The repair cycle of an asset begins with the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment. This is the starting point of the repair process, as the faulty part needs to be taken out before it can be repaired or replaced. After the item is removed, it can then be turned in to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) for further processing and repair. Therefore, the correct answer is "With the removal of the malfunctioning item from an aircraft or end item of equipment."

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  • 23. 

    (207) Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation?

    • A.

      D19

    • B.

      D20

    • C.

      D23

    • D.

      Q04

    Correct Answer
    C. D23
    Explanation
    The listing used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation is D23.

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  • 24. 

    (207) Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item?

    • A.

      File status record

    • B.

      DIFM detail record

    • C.

      Repair cycle record

    • D.

      Supply point detail record

    Correct Answer
    B. DIFM detail record
    Explanation
    The DIFM detail record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item. This record contains detailed information about the item being replaced, such as its identification number, condition, and location. It helps track the status of the replacement issue request and ensures that the item is properly accounted for in the repair cycle process.

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  • 25. 

    (208) Which listing reflects awaiting parts due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail records?

    • A.

      D19

    • B.

      D20

    • C.

      D23

    • D.

      Q04

    Correct Answer
    A. D19
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D19. This listing reflects awaiting parts due-out detail records with their applicable due-in and status detail records.

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  • 26. 

    (209) How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Three
    Explanation
    Three copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation. This form is used to document and request the turn-in of excess property or equipment. Having three copies ensures that all necessary parties involved in the turn-in process have a copy for their records and can properly track the status of the turn-in request.

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  • 27. 

    (210) What approach does agile logistics use with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon system support?

    • A.

      Just-in-time

    • B.

      Point-of-sale

    • C.

      Over-the-counter

    • D.

      Stocked inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. Just-in-time
    Explanation
    Agile logistics uses the just-in-time approach with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon system support. This approach focuses on minimizing inventory and reducing lead times by delivering the required parts and supplies exactly when they are needed. By adopting a just-in-time approach, agile logistics ensures that the necessary resources are available at the right time, improving efficiency and reducing costs. This allows for a more responsive and flexible support system, meeting customer needs in a timely manner.

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  • 28. 

    (210) What term is used to describe selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair?

    • A.

      Shop reparables

    • B.

      Two-level reparables

    • C.

      Equipment reparables

    • D.

      Depot-level reparables

    Correct Answer
    D. Depot-level reparables
    Explanation
    Depot-level reparables refer to selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair. These items are typically repaired at a depot-level facility rather than at the shop or equipment level. This term is used to distinguish these items from shop reparables, two-level reparables, and equipment reparables, which may undergo different repair processes or be repaired at different levels.

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  • 29. 

    (209) What action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair?

    • A.

      F

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    The action taken code "1" indicates that an item is not authorized for base level repair.

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  • 30. 

    (211) Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by

    • A.

      GSA

    • B.

      DLA

    • C.

      CASO

    • D.

      HQ AFMC

    Correct Answer
    D. HQ AFMC
    Explanation
    Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports. This can have a negative impact on decision-making related to buying, repairing, and distributing resources. HQ AFMC is the entity responsible for making these decisions, so it is crucial for them to receive accurate and complete information in order to make effective choices.

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  • 31. 

    (210) What approach does agile logistics use with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon system support?

    • A.

      Just-in-time

    • B.

      Point-of-sale

    • C.

      Over-the-counter

    • D.

      Stocked inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. Just-in-time
    Explanation
    Agile logistics uses the just-in-time approach with depot-level repair to meet customer needs for weapon system support. Just-in-time refers to a method where materials and resources are delivered or made available exactly when they are needed, minimizing inventory and reducing waste. This approach ensures that the necessary repairs and support are provided to customers in a timely manner, without the need for excessive stocking of inventory.

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  • 32. 

    (211) What product is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed?

    • A.

      Supply Point Listing

    • B.

      Daily Document Register

    • C.

      Base Supply Surveillance Report

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed. This register keeps track of all the documents processed on a daily basis, ensuring that each document has been properly handled and processed. By reviewing this register, one can confirm that all necessary steps have been taken in the turnaround process, providing assurance that the processing is completed.

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  • 33. 

    (211) Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by

    • A.

      GSA

    • B.

      DLA

    • C.

      CASO

    • D.

      HQ AFMC

    Correct Answer
    D. HQ AFMC
    Explanation
    Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports. This can affect the decision-making process for buy, repair, and distribution decisions made by HQ AFMC.

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  • 34. 

    (213) Which input is used to load, change, or delete supply point details?

    • A.

      MSI

    • B.

      ISU

    • C.

      FSP

    • D.

      DFM

    Correct Answer
    C. FSP
    Explanation
    FSP is the correct answer because it stands for "Field Service Point," which refers to the supply point details that can be loaded, changed, or deleted. The other options (MSI, ISU, DFM) do not specifically relate to supply point details.

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  • 35. 

    (211) Supply uses what source of data to process turnaround transactions?

    • A.

      AFTO Form 350

    • B.

      I122 management notice

    • C.

      AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request

    • D.

      DD Form 1348-1A, Issue release/receipt document

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 350
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFTO Form 350. AFTO Form 350 is used to process turnaround transactions in supply. It is a document that is used to track and manage the maintenance and repair of aircraft and equipment. It provides information about the status of the item, the maintenance actions taken, and any issues or discrepancies that need to be addressed. By using AFTO Form 350, supply personnel can effectively manage and track the turnaround process for aircraft and equipment.

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  • 36. 

    (213) Which input is used for initial stockage and replenishment of a supply point?

    • A.

      MSI

    • B.

      ISU

    • C.

      DFM

    • D.

      AWP

    Correct Answer
    B. ISU
    Explanation
    ISU is the correct answer because it stands for Initial Stockage and Replenishment Unit. This unit is responsible for providing the initial stock and ongoing replenishment of supplies at a supply point.

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  • 37. 

    (211) What product is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed?

    • A.

      Supply Point Listing

    • B.

      Daily Document Register

    • C.

      Base Supply Surveillance Report

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register is used to verify that turnaround processing is completed. This register keeps track of all the documents that are processed on a daily basis. By reviewing this register, one can ensure that all necessary documents have been processed and that the turnaround process is complete. The other options listed, such as the Supply Point Listing, Base Supply Surveillance Report, and Repair Cycle Asset Management List, do not specifically pertain to verifying the completion of turnaround processing.

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  • 38. 

    (213) Issues from a supply point are considered

    • A.

      Multiple issues

    • B.

      Over-the-counter

    • C.

      One-for-one exchange

    • D.

      Serviceable for unserviceable

    Correct Answer
    B. Over-the-counter
    Explanation
    The phrase "over-the-counter" refers to the process of obtaining goods or services directly from a supplier without the need for a prescription or formal arrangement. In the context of the given statement, it suggests that the issues from a supply point are easily accessible and can be obtained without any formalities or restrictions. This means that the items or resources being issued are readily available and can be obtained quickly and conveniently.

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  • 39. 

    (212) What supply condition code and action code, respectively, is used to process a Product Quality/Materiel Deficiency Report turn-in?

    • A.

      Q, C

    • B.

      A, B

    • C.

      H, 9

    • D.

      F, 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Q, C
    Explanation
    The supply condition code "Q" is used to indicate that the item being turned in is unserviceable and reparable. The action code "C" is used to indicate that the item is being turned in for repair or rework. Therefore, when processing a Product Quality/Materiel Deficiency Report turn-in, the supply condition code "Q" and action code "C" are used.

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  • 40. 

    (214) During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belongs with

    • A.

      The gaining base

    • B.

      HQ USAF

    • C.

      The home base

    • D.

      The MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    C. The home base
    Explanation
    During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belongs with the home base. This means that the home base is responsible for keeping track of the equipment assets during the deployment period. The gaining base, HQ USAF, and the MAJCOM are not responsible for the accountability of equipment assets in this scenario.

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  • 41. 

    (213) Which input is used for initial stockage and replenishment of a supply point?

    • A.

      MSI

    • B.

      ISU

    • C.

      DFM

    • D.

      AWP

    Correct Answer
    B. ISU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ISU. ISU stands for Initial Stockage and Replenishment Unit. It is used for the initial stockage and replenishment of a supply point. This unit is responsible for providing the necessary supplies and materials to ensure that the supply point is adequately stocked and able to meet the demands of the operation.

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  • 42. 

    (214) How many readiness spares package data input authorization records received from the MAJCOM?

    • A.

      FKD

    • B.

      XSF

    • C.

      XVF

    • D.

      1EB

    Correct Answer
    C. XVF
    Explanation
    The correct answer is XVF. This answer suggests that the number of readiness spares package data input authorization records received from the MAJCOM is XVF. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a specific explanation for this answer choice.

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  • 43. 

    (213) Issues from a supply point are considered

    • A.

      Multiple issues

    • B.

      Over-the-counter

    • C.

      One-for-one exchange

    • D.

      Serviceable for unserviceable

    Correct Answer
    B. Over-the-counter
    Explanation
    The term "over-the-counter" refers to the process of obtaining goods or services directly from a supplier without the need for a prescription or formal authorization. In the context of the given question, "issues from a supply point" suggests that the items in question are being distributed or provided to individuals or customers directly, without any formal procedures or restrictions. Therefore, the correct answer "over-the-counter" aligns with this explanation.

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  • 44. 

    (214) During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belongs with

    • A.

      The gaining base

    • B.

      HQ USAF

    • C.

      The home base

    • D.

      The MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    C. The home base
    Explanation
    During a deployment of less than 120 days, accountability of equipment assets belongs with the home base. This means that the responsibility for keeping track of the equipment lies with the base from which it originated. The home base is responsible for ensuring that the equipment is properly maintained, accounted for, and returned after the deployment. The gaining base, HQ USAF, and the MAJCOM may have their own responsibilities during the deployment, but ultimately it is the home base that retains accountability for the equipment assets.

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  • 45. 

    (214) What transaction identification code is used to issue asstes from a mobility readiness spares package to the user?

    • A.

      ISU

    • B.

      MSI

    • C.

      1EB

    • D.

      1UB

    Correct Answer
    B. MSI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MSI. The transaction identification code MSI is used to issue assets from a mobility readiness spares package to the user.

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  • 46. 

    (214) For long-term deployments, what input transfers accountability of selected equipment items?

    • A.

      1ED/FME

    • B.

      1ET/FME

    • C.

      1EB/1UB

    • D.

      FKD/1WD

    Correct Answer
    B. 1ET/FME
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1ET/FME. This input transfers accountability of selected equipment items for long-term deployments.

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  • 47. 

    (214) What transaction identification code is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package detail?

    • A.

      FIL

    • B.

      FKD

    • C.

      FME

    • D.

      1WD

    Correct Answer
    B. FKD
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code FKD is used to assign a deployment flag on a mobility readiness spares package detail.

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  • 48. 

    (214) You would use what transaction identification code to transfer mobility readiness spares package accountability?

    • A.

      FKD

    • B.

      FME

    • C.

      1EB

    • D.

      1WD

    Correct Answer
    D. 1WD
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code 1WD would be used to transfer mobility readiness spares package accountability.

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  • 49. 

    (214) Mobility readiness spares package assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      120

    Correct Answer
    B. 60
    Explanation
    The mobility readiness spares package assets are designed to provide support for a weapon system in a deployed location for 60 days before resupply is necessary. This means that these assets are intended to be self-sufficient and capable of sustaining operations for a two-month period without requiring additional resources or supplies.

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  • 50. 

    (215) Who selects the method for document distribution and creation?

    • A.

      Team Chief

    • B.

      ELRS Commander

    • C.

      Accountable Officer

    • D.

      Person creating the document

    Correct Answer
    A. Team Chief
    Explanation
    The Team Chief is responsible for selecting the method for document distribution and creation. As the leader of the team, they have the authority to decide how documents should be created and distributed within the team. This decision-making role ensures that the team operates efficiently and effectively in managing their documents.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 13, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Diezeitgeist
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