2s071 Volume 3 Edition 7

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Joseph
J
Joseph
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 471
Questions: 75 | Attempts: 159

SettingsSettingsSettings
2s071 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who is responsible for establishing the condition and identity of items received, stored, issued, shipped, and transferred by the Logistics Readiness Squadron?

    • A.

      Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Stock Control Activity.

    • B.

      AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity.

    • C.

      Materiel Management Inspector.

    • D.

      Central Storage Personnel.

    Correct Answer
    C. Materiel Management Inspector.
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management Inspector is responsible for establishing the condition and identity of items received, stored, issued, shipped, and transferred by the Logistics Readiness Squadron. They ensure that proper procedures are followed and maintain the accuracy and integrity of the inventory.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) reduces the item record’s serviceable balance and creates an unserviceable detail (R920) record?

    • A.

      FCC.

    • B.

      FCH.

    • C.

      FER.

    • D.

      1SA.

    Correct Answer
    A. FCC.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCC. FCC is the transaction identification code that reduces the item record's serviceable balance and creates an unserviceable detail (R920) record. The other options, FCH, FER, and 1SA, do not have this specific functionality.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified serviceable items in storage?

    • A.

      FCC.

    • B.

      FCH.

    • C.

      FER.

    • D.

      1SA.

    Correct Answer
    B. FCH.
    Explanation
    FCH is the correct answer because it is the transaction identification code (TRIC) used to correct misidentified serviceable items in storage. The other options (FCC, FER, 1SA) do not specifically pertain to this purpose.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to correct misidentified special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) items?

    • A.

      FCC.

    • B.

      FCH.

    • C.

      FER.

    • D.

      1SA.

    Correct Answer
    D. 1SA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1SA because the question is asking for the transaction identification code (TRIC) used to correct misidentified special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) items. Among the options given, 1SA is the only TRIC that specifically deals with correcting misidentified SPRAM items. The other options, FCC, FCH, and FER, do not pertain to this specific situation.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items are readily identified in stock by what Management Notice?

    • A.

      I023.

    • B.

      I012.

    • C.

      I008.

    • D.

      I003.

    Correct Answer
    B. I012.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I012. This Management Notice provides information on how to identify material deficiency reports (MDR) and product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) exhibit items that are readily available in stock. It likely contains instructions or guidelines on how to recognize and handle these items, ensuring that any deficiencies or quality issues are properly addressed.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit?

    • A.

      ISU.

    • B.

      DFM.

    • C.

      TIN.

    • D.

      TRM.

    Correct Answer
    B. DFM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DFM. DFM stands for Defense Finance and Accounting Manual, which is a manual that provides guidance and procedures for financial management and accounting within the Department of Defense. It is used to load warehouse location and the material deficiency report (MDR)/product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) report control number of the exhibit.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    As a minimum, shelf life items are inspected

    • A.

      Bi-weekly.

    • B.

      Monthly.

    • C.

      Quarterly.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    Shelf life items have a limited period during which they can be stored before they expire or become unfit for use. To ensure their quality and safety, regular inspections are necessary. Inspecting these items bi-weekly would be too frequent and time-consuming, while inspecting them monthly may not be frequent enough to catch any potential issues. Inspecting them annually would be too infrequent, as any issues that arise may go unnoticed for a long time. Quarterly inspections strike a balance, allowing for regular monitoring and identification of any problems that may arise within a reasonable timeframe.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance?

    • A.

      FCC.

    • B.

      ISU.

    • C.

      MSI.

    • D.

      TIN.

    Correct Answer
    C. MSI.
    Explanation
    An inspector should use the transaction identification code (TRIC) MSI to transfer an unserviceable shelf life asset to maintenance.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Who is responsible for providing materiel management inspectors with a list of items requiring extensive functional checks prior to installation?

    • A.

      Computer operations.

    • B.

      Chief of maintenance.

    • C.

      Maintenance contact point.

    • D.

      Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail (AFMC SCM-R) Quality Assurance Activity.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance contact point.
    Explanation
    The maintenance contact point is responsible for providing materiel management inspectors with a list of items requiring extensive functional checks prior to installation. This means that they are the ones who communicate and coordinate with the inspectors to ensure that the necessary checks are conducted before installation.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets?

    • A.

      FCD.

    • B.

      FCH.

    • C.

      FCK.

    • D.

      FTR.

    Correct Answer
    A. FCD.
    Explanation
    The transaction identification code (TRIC) that is processed to load or delete the functional check flag indicator (F) on functional check assets is FCD.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    What product expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts and materiel within a specific time period and reduces the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment?

    • A.

      Time compliance technical orders (TCTO).

    • B.

      Inspection offline checklist (R32).

    • C.

      Functional check listing.

    • D.

      Shelf life listing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Time compliance technical orders (TCTO).
    Explanation
    Time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are a product that expedites the accomplishment of retrofit changes to end items, parts, and materiel within a specific time period. By following TCTOs, the probability of accidents and unreliability of systems or equipment is reduced. TCTOs provide specific instructions and guidelines for implementing necessary changes or upgrades to ensure compliance with safety and reliability standards. This helps to maintain the overall effectiveness and efficiency of systems and equipment, minimizing the risk of accidents and ensuring reliable operation.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Which materiel management personnel identify and control all items in stock requiring compliance with technical orders (TO)?

    • A.

      Receiving.

    • B.

      Inspector.

    • C.

      War readiness.

    • D.

      Procedures and analysis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspector.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Inspector. Materiel management personnel who are inspectors are responsible for identifying and controlling all items in stock that require compliance with technical orders (TO). They ensure that the items meet the necessary standards and specifications outlined in the TOs. This involves inspecting the items upon receipt, conducting regular inspections to ensure compliance, and maintaining proper documentation. The inspector plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and compliance of stock items.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Who forwards a copy of all time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publications with a cover letter to the inspection function?

    • A.

      TCTO kit manager.

    • B.

      Maintenance Quality Assurance.

    • C.

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Quality Assurance Section.

    • D.

      Air Force Materiel Command Supply Chain Management Retail Quality Assurance Activity.

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintenance Quality Assurance.
    Explanation
    Maintenance Quality Assurance forwards a copy of all time-compliance technical order (TCTO) publications with a cover letter to the inspection function.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    What does the time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit manager use to control shelf life items in the kits?

    • A.

      D043B system.

    • B.

      Kit stock numbers.

    • C.

      TCTO publications.

    • D.

      TCTO kit jacket file.

    Correct Answer
    B. Kit stock numbers.
    Explanation
    The time compliance technical order (TCTO) kit manager uses kit stock numbers to control shelf life items in the kits. Kit stock numbers are unique identifiers assigned to each kit, allowing the manager to track and manage the inventory of shelf life items within the kits. This ensures that any items with expired shelf life can be identified and replaced in a timely manner, maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the kits.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Items that could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment if used before inspection for verification of serviceability are identified as what type of item?

    • A.

      Functional check.

    • B.

      Suspect/unsuitable.

    • C.

      Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).

    • D.

      Time change technical order (TCTO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Suspect/unsuitable.
    Explanation
    Items that could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment if used before inspection for verification of serviceability are identified as "suspect/unsuitable." This means that these items are not suitable for use until they have been inspected and determined to be in proper working condition. Using these items without inspection can pose risks and potential harm to people, property, or equipment.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?

    • A.

      FCC with an “F” in position 48.

    • B.

      FCD with an “F” in position 48.

    • C.

      FCC with an “S” in position 48.

    • D.

      FCD with an “S” in position 48.

    Correct Answer
    D. FCD with an “S” in position 48.
  • 17. 

    What management notice is produced anytime a receipt or return is processed against a stock number that has a suspect materiel flag loaded against it?

    • A.

      I302.

    • B.

      I012.

    • C.

      F111.

    • D.

      F112.

    Correct Answer
    A. I302.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I302. This management notice is produced whenever a receipt or return is processed against a stock number that has a suspect material flag loaded against it. This notice helps management to identify and investigate any potential issues or concerns related to the stock number and take appropriate actions if necessary.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    What type of item is identified on the item record with a type cargo code 3?

    • A.

      Functional check.

    • B.

      Suspect/unsuitable.

    • C.

      Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).

    • D.

      Time change technical order (TCTO).

    Correct Answer
    C. Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Electrostatic sensitive device (ESD). This is because a cargo code 3 is used to identify items that are considered electrostatic sensitive devices. These devices are sensitive to electrostatic discharge and require special handling and storage to prevent damage.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Who is responsible for maintaining a list of organization’s precious metals recovery program (PMRP) monitor’s name and contact information (including location), along with the type of recovery equipment, type of precious metals scrape generated, and the kind of precious metals and high precious metals content items used?

    • A.

      Item manager.

    • B.

      Maintenance commander.

    • C.

      Materiel management flight chief inspector.

    • D.

      Logistic Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Materiel management flight chief inspector.
    Explanation
    The Materiel Management Flight Chief Inspector is responsible for maintaining a list of the organization's PMRP monitor's name and contact information, along with information about the recovery equipment, type of precious metals scrape generated, and the kind of precious metals and high precious metals content items used.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    The precious metals recovery program (PMRP) manager reviews an organization’s PMRP operations, documentation, and adherence to the overall program requirements every

    • A.

      32 months.

    • B.

      24 months.

    • C.

      12 months.

    • D.

      6 months.

    Correct Answer
    B. 24 months.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24 months. The PMRP manager reviews the organization's PMRP operations, documentation, and adherence to the overall program requirements every 24 months. This periodic review allows the manager to ensure that the organization is following the necessary protocols and guidelines for the recovery of precious metals. A review every 24 months strikes a balance between regular oversight and giving the organization enough time to implement any necessary changes or improvements.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    What is the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed?

    • A.

      Facility design plan.

    • B.

      Facility layout guide.

    • C.

      Warehouse design plan.

    • D.

      Warehouse layout plan.

    Correct Answer
    D. Warehouse layout plan.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Warehouse layout plan. This is because the question is asking about the framework in which the overall material storage space is developed. The term "warehouse layout plan" refers to the strategic arrangement of the different areas and storage systems within a warehouse facility. It involves determining the optimal placement of aisles, racks, shelves, and other equipment to maximize efficiency and accessibility. The warehouse layout plan is crucial in ensuring smooth operations, effective space utilization, and streamlined material handling processes.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    What storage factor is used when fast moving items of great demand are stored in easily accessible locations with little handling as possible and slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations?

    • A.

      Item quantity.

    • B.

      Item similarity.

    • C.

      Item popularity.

    • D.

      Item size and weight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Item popularity.
    Explanation
    This storage factor is used when fast moving items of great demand are stored in easily accessible locations with little handling as possible and slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations. By considering the popularity of items, the storage strategy ensures that high-demand items are readily available for quick retrieval, while low-demand items can be stored in less accessible areas to optimize space and minimize handling.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Increasing the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location describes what type of storage factor?

    • A.

      Item quantity.

    • B.

      Item similarity.

    • C.

      Item popularity.

    • D.

      Item size and weight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Item quantity.
    Explanation
    Increasing the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item's location describes the storage factor of item quantity. This means that by allocating more space for an item, it ensures that there is enough room to accommodate the quantity of that item without encroaching on the space of other items. This factor is specifically focused on managing and organizing the quantity of items within a storage system to prevent any overflow or congestion.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the

    • A.

      Reference point.

    • B.

      Identification point.

    • C.

      Authorization point.

    • D.

      Implementation point.

    Correct Answer
    D. Implementation point.
    Explanation
    The physical layout of a storage facility is planned based on the implementation point, which refers to the total or gross storage space. This means that the implementation point is the reference or starting point for determining the layout and organization of the storage facility. It is the point at which the actual storage space is considered and utilized in the planning process. The other options, such as reference point, identification point, and authorization point, do not accurately represent the concept of total or gross storage space in the context of planning a storage facility.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which aisle can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse?

    • A.

      Main.

    • B.

      Service.

    • C.

      Working.

    • D.

      Personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Personnel.
    Explanation
    The aisle that can increase the possibility of pilferage in a warehouse is the Personnel aisle. This is because personnel have access to sensitive areas and can easily steal or tamper with goods without being detected. They may take advantage of their position to engage in theft or unauthorized activities, leading to an increased risk of pilferage.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    The basic resource of any supply and distribution operation is the

    • A.

      Gross space available.

    • B.

      Storage space layout.

    • C.

      Storage space

    • D.

      Storage plan.

    Correct Answer
    C. Storage space
    Explanation
    The correct answer is storage space. In any supply and distribution operation, the fundamental resource is the storage space. This refers to the physical area where goods and products are stored before being distributed. It is crucial to have enough storage space to accommodate the inventory and ensure efficient operations. The layout and plan of the storage space are also important factors to consider in order to optimize storage capacity and accessibility.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    At a minimum, how much clearance space must be maintained below automatic sprinkler heads in a storage space when stack heights exceed 15 feet?

    • A.

      12 inches.

    • B.

      18 inches.

    • C.

      24 inches.

    • D.

      36 inches.

    Correct Answer
    D. 36 inches.
    Explanation
    In order to ensure effective functioning of automatic sprinkler heads in a storage space, a minimum clearance space of 36 inches must be maintained below the sprinkler heads when stack heights exceed 15 feet. This is necessary to allow the sprinkler heads to have unobstructed access to the area and to ensure that the water can be distributed evenly and reach the necessary areas in case of a fire.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    In a storage space, the total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific amount of floor space is known as

    • A.

      Scale load.

    • B.

      Weight limit.

    • C.

      Floor load limit.

    • D.

      Weight restriction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Floor load limit.
    Explanation
    The term "floor load limit" refers to the maximum amount of weight that can be safely stored in a given amount of floor space in a storage area. It indicates the maximum weight capacity that the floor can support without causing any structural damage or safety hazards. This limit is important to ensure the stability and integrity of the storage space and to prevent overloading the floor, which could lead to accidents or damage to the facility.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?

    • A.

      First in, last out.

    • B.

      First in, first out.

    • C.

      Stock by serial number.

    • D.

      Stock using national stock number (NSN).

    Correct Answer
    B. First in, first out.
    Explanation
    First in, first out (FIFO) is a method of storage that ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated. This means that the items that are received or stocked first are the ones that are used or issued first. By following this method, the risk of items becoming outdated or expired is minimized as they are used in the order they were received. This is particularly useful in industries where items have a limited shelf life or where there is a need to prevent wastage of resources.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Top Secret materiel is stored in what class of storage vault?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Top Secret materiel is stored in Class A storage vault.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Secret and Confidential materiel is stored in what class of storage vault?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. This class of storage vault is used to store secret and confidential material.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    What type items have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them highly susceptible to theft?

    • A.

      Sensitive.

    • B.

      Pilferable.

    • C.

      Protective.

    • D.

      Critical.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pilferable.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pilferable." This term refers to items that have a ready resale value, civilian utility, or application as personal possessions, making them highly susceptible to theft. These items are easily stolen due to their desirability and potential for profit in the black market.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Which Standard Form (SF) must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?

    • A.

      SF 700.

    • B.

      SF 701.

    • C.

      SF 702.

    • D.

      SF 703.

    Correct Answer
    C. SF 702.
    Explanation
    SF 702 must be used to secure all vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified material.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite accounts?

    • A.

      Inspection Section personnel.

    • B.

      Inventory Section personnel.

    • C.

      Account storage personnel

    • D.

      Accountable officer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Account storage personnel
    Explanation
    Account storage personnel are responsible for conducting warehouse location validation for satellite accounts. They are in charge of managing and organizing the storage of goods in the warehouse, so it makes sense that they would be the ones to validate and ensure the accuracy of the location information. The inspection section personnel may be involved in other aspects of warehouse management, such as quality control, but they would not specifically handle location validation. Similarly, the inventory section personnel would focus on tracking and managing inventory levels, not necessarily validating warehouse locations. The accountable officer is responsible for overall accountability and oversight, but they may not be directly involved in the day-to-day activities of warehouse location validation.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    What does the storage activity perform prior to the start of an inventory cycle to ensure property is accurately stored and matches the item record?

    • A.

      Warehouse location validation.

    • B.

      Surveillance inspection.

    • C.

      Organizational review.

    • D.

      Special inventory.

    Correct Answer
    A. Warehouse location validation.
    Explanation
    Warehouse location validation is performed prior to the start of an inventory cycle to ensure that property is accurately stored and matches the item record. This process involves verifying that the physical location of each item in the warehouse matches the location recorded in the inventory system. By conducting warehouse location validation, any discrepancies or errors in the storage of items can be identified and corrected, ensuring that the inventory records are accurate and reliable.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    The ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations is provided by

    • A.

      Discoverer Plus.

    • B.

      Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S).

    • C.

      Enterprise Data Collection Layer (EDCL).

    • D.

      Interactive Communications Interface (ICI).

    Correct Answer
    B. Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S). This is because ES-S is specifically designed to provide the ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations. The other options, Discoverer Plus, Enterprise Data Collection Layer (EDCL), and Interactive Communications Interface (ICI), do not have this specific functionality.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a timely manner contributes to out-of-balance conditions, erroneous stock records, and

    • A.

      Zero demand levels.

    • B.

      Warehouse refusals.

    • C.

      Out of cycle inventories.

    • D.

      Mission capabilities (MICAP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Warehouse refusals.
    Explanation
    Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a timely manner can lead to warehouse refusals. This means that when the property is needed or requested, the warehouse refuses to provide it because it cannot be located or is in the wrong place. This can result in out-of-balance conditions, where the inventory does not match the records, and erroneous stock records. It can also lead to zero demand levels, meaning that there is no available stock to fulfill customer orders or requests.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    What listing is used to identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than 3 days?

    • A.

      R28.

    • B.

      R36.

    • C.

      R37.

    • D.

      R38.

    Correct Answer
    B. R36.
    Explanation
    R36 is the correct answer because it is the only listing that specifically identifies items with a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a date of last transaction (DOLT) greater than 3 days. The other listings do not mention anything about warehouse locations or the DOLT criteria.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to delete a dead location?

    • A.

      FSC.

    • B.

      FID.

    • C.

      FIC.

    • D.

      FCS.

    Correct Answer
    D. FCS.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCS. FCS stands for "Functional Control System" and is a transaction identification code used to delete a dead location. This code is specifically designed for the purpose of removing a location that is no longer active or functioning. The other options, FSC, FID, and FIC, do not pertain to the deletion of a dead location and therefore are not the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    What listing is used to control auditable transactions processed by the materiel management system and provides a comprehensive means to review normal transactions on a daily basis?

    • A.

      D04.

    • B.

      M04.

    • C.

      R36.

    • D.

      S04

    Correct Answer
    A. D04.
    Explanation
    The listing used to control auditable transactions processed by the materiel management system and provide a comprehensive means to review normal transactions on a daily basis is D04.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Warehouse personnel use the Daily Document Register (D04) to verify successful processing for transactions on warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes and

    • A.

      Organizational refusals.

    • B.

      Hazardous item changes.

    • C.

      Controlled item changes.

    • D.

      Record reversal and corrections.

    Correct Answer
    C. Controlled item changes.
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is used by warehouse personnel to verify successful processing for various types of transactions. These transactions include warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes, organizational refusals, hazardous item changes, record reversal and corrections, and controlled item changes. Out of all these options, the correct answer is "controlled item changes." This means that the D04 is specifically used to verify successful processing for transactions related to changes in controlled items within the warehouse.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Which freeze code is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal?

    • A.

      C

    • B.

      D

    • C.

      I

    • D.

      Q

    Correct Answer
    C. I
    Explanation
    The freeze code "I" is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal. This freeze code indicates that the item is inactive or has been discontinued. It could mean that the item is no longer available for sale or has been removed from inventory due to quality issues or other reasons.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    All copies of warehouse refused documents are forwarded to what materiel management element?

    • A.

      Analysis.

    • B.

      Receiving.

    • C.

      Inventory.

    • D.

      Equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inventory.
    Explanation
    All copies of warehouse refused documents are forwarded to the inventory. This means that when documents are rejected or refused in the warehouse, they are sent to the inventory department for further handling. The inventory department is responsible for keeping track of all the items in stock, including those that are refused or rejected. They will update the inventory records accordingly and take appropriate actions, such as returning the items to the supplier or disposing of them.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    What flag must be entered in the master bench stock detail if the authorized level is not based on consumption?

    • A.

      Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ).

    • B.

      Authority for issue or economic order quantity (EOQ) consumption.

    • C.

      Maintenance priority or Mission Capable (MICAP) action

    • D.

      Cumulative recurring demand or excess exception code

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ).
    Explanation
    If the authorized level is not based on consumption, the flag that must be entered in the master bench stock detail is the Minimum Reserve Authorization (MRA) or Maximum Authorized Quantity (MAQ). This flag indicates the minimum quantity or maximum limit that is authorized for the bench stock. It ensures that the stock level is maintained at a certain level regardless of the consumption rate.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    A complete inventory and replenishment is done how many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
    Explanation
    A complete inventory and replenishment is done 15 days before a scheduled semiannual phase II review. This time frame allows for sufficient preparation and ensures that all necessary items are in stock and available for the review. It allows for any delays or issues to be addressed before the review takes place, ensuring a smooth and efficient process.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    What listing is used to calculate bench stock authorized quantities?

    • A.

      D04.

    • B.

      M04.

    • C.

      R36.

    • D.

      S04.

    Correct Answer
    B. M04.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M04. M04 is the listing used to calculate bench stock authorized quantities. This means that M04 contains the necessary information and guidelines for determining the appropriate quantities of stock that should be kept on hand in a bench stock, which is a supply of commonly used items that are readily available for immediate use. By referring to the M04 listing, organizations can ensure that they have the right amount of stock to support their operations efficiently.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    What listing provides information on existing bench stock details for recommended changes and deletions and identifies possible additions based on consumption?

    • A.

      D04.

    • B.

      M04.

    • C.

      R36.

    • D.

      S04.

    Correct Answer
    B. M04.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M04. This is because M04 refers to the listing that provides information on existing bench stock details for recommended changes and deletions and identifies possible additions based on consumption.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    When is the S04 run in item number sequence?

    • A.

      At least annually.

    • B.

      After the M04 is processed.

    • C.

      After each semiannual review.

    • D.

      After items with deviations are added.

    Correct Answer
    C. After each semiannual review.
    Explanation
    The S04 run in item number sequence occurs after each semiannual review. This suggests that the S04 run is a regular process that takes place twice a year, likely to ensure that all items are reviewed and updated accordingly. The other options, such as "at least annually" or "after the M04 is processed," do not provide a specific time frame or trigger for the S04 run, making them less likely to be correct. Additionally, the option "after items with deviations are added" does not mention any specific review or time frame, making it less likely to be the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    To ensure all items assigned a warehouse location and/or a detail record, the inventory schedule will be established by

    • A.

      5 days after validation.

    • B.

      15 days after validation.

    • C.

      The end of the fiscal year.

    • D.

      The end of the calendar year.

    Correct Answer
    C. The end of the fiscal year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the end of the fiscal year." This means that the inventory schedule will be established by the time the fiscal year ends. This is likely because the fiscal year is an important period for businesses to assess their financial performance and make necessary adjustments. By establishing the inventory schedule by the end of the fiscal year, the company can ensure that all items have been assigned a warehouse location and/or a detail record before starting the new fiscal year.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    What type of inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis?

    • A.

      Sample.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Complete.

    • D.

      Out-of-cycle.

    Correct Answer
    B. Special.
    Explanation
    Special inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis. This type of inventory is conducted for specific items that require special attention, such as high-value items, items with expiration dates, or items that are prone to theft or damage. Unlike regular inventory, which is conducted periodically for all items, special inventory is conducted only when necessary for specific items.

    Rate this question:

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.