2s071 Volume 1 Edition 7

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  • 1/50 Questions

    Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support?

    • JFBAC
    • JFBBS
    • JFBCS
    • JFBCW
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Materiel Management within the Air Force, focusing on unit type codes, program qualifications, and operational responsibilities. It is designed for personnel looking to deepen their understanding of logistics and management in military settings.

2s071 Volume 1 Edition 7 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and ( when required) expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base ( MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location?

    • JFBDC

    • JFBMR

    • JFBCW

    • JFBMM

    Correct Answer
    A. JFBCW
    Explanation
    The correct answer, JFBCW, is the unit type code (UTC) that provides mobility support and, when required, expeditionary theater distribution center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location.

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  • 3. 

    In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following, except

    • Have a 2S071 control Air Force Specialty code (AFSC)

    • Be recommended by their wing commander

    • Have less than 15 years time in service

    • Possesses the rank of TSgt or MSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. Be recommended by their wing commander
  • 4. 

    Which notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection?

    • Headquarters Air Force Personal Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA)

    • Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC)

    • Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R

    • Major Command (MAJCOM)A4R

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R
    Explanation
    The Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R notifies the individual selected by the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, by message not later than 30 days after selection.

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  • 5. 

    Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property? 

    • Logistics operations

    • Command and control

    • Materiel management

    • Deployment and distribution

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment and distribution
    Explanation
    The flight responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property is the Deployment and distribution flight. This flight is in charge of coordinating and overseeing the movement of resources and personnel during deployments, ensuring that everything is properly distributed and delivered to the designated locations. They play a crucial role in the efficient and effective management of logistics operations within the organization.

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  • 6. 

    What specialized center is the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities?

    • AF Integration and Management

    • AF Supply and Maintenance

    • AF Plans and Scheduling

    • AF Sustainment

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Sustainment
    Explanation
    AF Sustainment is the correct answer because it refers to the specialized center that serves as the hub for integration and management of maintenance and supply chain capabilities. This center is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the maintenance and supply chain operations within the organization. It ensures that all maintenance and supply activities are effectively integrated and managed to support the overall mission and objectives of the organization.

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  • 7. 

    Which supply class includes ammunition?

    • II

    • IV

    • V

    • VIII

    Correct Answer
    A. V
    Explanation
    Supply class V includes ammunition.

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  • 8. 

    What best describes supply class VII items?

    • Major end items

    • Construction

    • Subsistence

    • Ammunition

    Correct Answer
    A. Major end items
    Explanation
    Supply class VII items are best described as major end items. Major end items refer to finished products or completed systems that are ready for use by the end user. In the context of supply class VII items, this would include items such as vehicles, aircraft, weapons, or other large and significant equipment. These items are typically the final output of a production or manufacturing process and are ready to be deployed or utilized in their intended purpose.

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  • 9. 

    Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies?

    • X

    • IX

    • VIII

    • VII

    Correct Answer
    A. IX
    Explanation
    Supply class IX includes all repair parts and components, including kits, assemblies, and subassemblies. This class is specifically designated for repair parts and components, making it the correct answer for the question.

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  • 10. 

    What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?

    • Supply-chain operations reference

    • Air Expeditionary Forces

    • Unit type code

    • Operation plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Supply-chain operations reference
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Supply-chain operations reference. Supply-chain operations reference provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. This framework helps organizations in optimizing their supply chain operations and achieving operational excellence. It provides a common language and set of standards for supply chain management, allowing companies to benchmark their performance and identify areas for improvement. By aligning metrics, processes, best practices, and people, the supply-chain operations reference framework enables organizations to streamline their supply chain operations and drive efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 11. 

    Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as

    • One month

    • Three months

    • Six months

    • One year

    Correct Answer
    A. One year
    Explanation
    Users can query the material management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as one year. This means that they can access and retrieve transaction data from the system for a period of up to one year in the past. This allows users to track and analyze historical data, identify trends, and make informed decisions based on past transactions. Having access to one year of transaction history provides a comprehensive view of the material management system's activities and helps in effective inventory management and planning.

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  • 12. 

    Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

    • C

    • D

    • F

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. R
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R. The "R" releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag is specifically used for releveling purposes, which involves adjusting the stock levels based on the current requirements and demand. By using the "R" flag, users can quickly access a summary of information related to a specific stock number, allowing them to make informed decisions regarding inventory management and procurement.

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  • 13. 

    In Discoverer, what is a logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements?

    • Joins

    • Sorts

    • Reports

    • Business areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Business areas
    Explanation
    A logical grouping of database tables or views that apply to a specific data requirements is called a business area. Business areas help organize and classify data in Discoverer, making it easier for users to access and analyze the information they need. By grouping related tables and views together, business areas provide a cohesive and structured way to navigate and explore data within the Discoverer tool.

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  • 14. 

    What type of Join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship?

    • Multiple

    • Cross

    • Outer

    • Inner

    Correct Answer
    A. Outer
    Explanation
    Outer join is based on a one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-none relationship. This type of join includes all the records from one table and the matching records from the other table, and it also includes unmatched records from one or both tables. Therefore, it allows for a broader range of relationships to be represented in the result set compared to inner join.

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  • 15. 

    What is the tool called when given the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, and non-unit cargo (excluding bulk petroleum, oils, and lubricants) and passengers; medical patients; and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across the range of military operations?

    • In-transit visibility (ITV)

    • Global Transportation Network (GTN)

    • Cargo Movement Operations systems (CMOS)

    • Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)

    Correct Answer
    A. In-transit visibility (ITV)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is In-transit visibility (ITV). This tool allows for tracking the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, non-unit cargo, passengers, medical patients, and personal property from origin to destination across military operations. It provides real-time information on the movement and whereabouts of these assets, ensuring better coordination and management of logistics in the military.

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  • 16. 

    What is identified as a web-based automated command and control information system that supports the family of transportation users and providers---both DOD and commercial, by providing an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities? 

    • Global Transportation Network (GTN)

    • Global Decision Support System (GDSS)

    • Cargo Movement Operations System, (CMOS)

    • Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global Transportation Network (GTN)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Global Transportation Network (GTN). GTN is a web-based automated command and control information system that supports transportation users and providers, both in the Department of Defense (DOD) and commercial sectors. It provides an integrated system of in-transit visibility information and command and control capabilities, allowing for efficient and effective transportation operations.

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  • 17. 

    What Air Mobility Command (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?

    • Global Transportation Network (GTN)

    • Global Decision Support System (GDSS)

    • Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)

    • Global Air Transportation Execution system (GATES)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
    Explanation
    The Global Decision Support System (GDSS) supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. GDSS is a command and control system that provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and decision support capabilities for air mobility operations. It enables the TACC to effectively manage and coordinate the movement of aircraft and cargo, ensuring efficient and timely airlift missions. GDSS helps in optimizing the allocation of resources, monitoring mission progress, and making informed decisions to support air mobility operations.

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  • 18. 

    What system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?

    • Asset Visibility

    • Air Force Hazardous Materiel

    • Hazardous Material Information Resource

    • Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information system provides hazardous materiel managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system. This system ensures that only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that the material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose.

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  • 19. 

    What organization is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty report?

    • Receiving Element

    • Customer Support Element

    • Equipment Management Element

    • AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity

    Correct Answer
    A. AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity
    Explanation
    The AFMC SCM-R Quality Assurance Activity is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports. They ensure that any issues or problems with equipment or processes are properly documented and addressed. This organization plays a crucial role in maintaining quality and improving the overall performance of the system.

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  • 20. 

    Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I. Difficulty report (DIREP) category code I is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating. This category code indicates the highest level of difficulty and severity in the reported problems.

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  • 21. 

    Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. II
    Explanation
    Category II is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This category indicates a significant issue that affects the system's functionality but does not result in severe consequences such as data loss or system crashes.

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  • 22. 

    A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected

    • Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center

    • On an Air Force suggestion Form

    • In the next scheduled release

    • As workload permits

    Correct Answer
    A. In the next scheduled release
    Explanation
    A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that identifies a problem with a particular system or equipment. This type of report does not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that the issue will be fixed and resolved during the next planned update or release of the system or equipment. It may not be a high priority issue and can be addressed when the workload permits.

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  • 23. 

    Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. IV
    Explanation
    Category IV is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program errors. This category is used for issues that do not significantly impact the functionality or performance of the program. It includes minor spelling errors, formatting issues, and other cosmetic problems that do not affect the overall operation of the program.

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  • 24. 

    Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visit of a function?

    • Base supply reports and records

    • Function's last surveillance report

    • Function's unit manning document

    • Directives that apply to the function.

    Correct Answer
    A. Directives that apply to the function.
    Explanation
    Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start by researching the directives that apply to the function. Directives provide guidelines and instructions that must be followed during the surveillance visit. They outline the specific requirements, procedures, and expectations for the function, ensuring that the visit is conducted properly and efficiently. By reviewing the directives, one can gain a comprehensive understanding of the function's objectives, protocols, and any specific areas of focus that need to be addressed during the surveillance visit. This research helps in planning and executing an effective surveillance visit.

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  • 25. 

    Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function?

    • Check in and out with the flight chief

    • Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing

    • Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit

    • Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years

    Correct Answer
    A. Check in and out with the flight chief
    Explanation
    When conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable office function, it is important to check in and out with the flight chief. This ensures that the visit is properly documented and that the flight chief is aware of the presence of the visitor. It also allows for coordination and communication between the visitor and the flight chief throughout the visit. By checking in and out with the flight chief, the visitor can ensure that they are following the proper procedures and protocols for the visit.

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  • 26. 

    A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This ensures timely communication and allows for any necessary actions or follow-ups to be taken promptly. Waiting longer than 15 days could potentially delay important decisions or resolutions related to the surveillance visit.

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  • 27. 

    What organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?

    • Quality assurance

    • Customer service

    • Computer operations

    • Receiving section

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is the correct answer because they are responsible for ensuring that all processes and procedures related to materiel management and logistics readiness are carried out correctly. They are the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander, which means they are the go-to organization for any issues or concerns related to these areas. Customer service, computer operations, and the receiving section may play a role in the overall process, but quality assurance is the main organization responsible for overseeing and managing these special topics.

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  • 28. 

    An effective analysis program must be based on

    • Mission requirements

    • Management seminars

    • Organizational objectives

    • The analysis of operating instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational objectives
    Explanation
    An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives because these objectives provide a clear direction and purpose for the analysis. By aligning the analysis program with the organization's goals and objectives, it ensures that the analysis efforts are focused on addressing the most critical issues and making informed decisions that support the overall success of the organization. Additionally, organizational objectives help prioritize the analysis activities and allocate resources effectively to achieve desired outcomes. Without considering organizational objectives, the analysis program may lack relevance and fail to provide valuable insights for decision-making.

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  • 29. 

    What type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms?

    • Trend

    • Problem

    • Important

    • Performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend
    Explanation
    Trend analysis is a type of analysis that identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms. It involves examining patterns and changes over time to determine if the current performance is improving or declining. By comparing the data with established factors, standards, and norms, trend analysis helps identify whether the deviations are positive or negative. It is a valuable tool in evaluating performance and making informed decisions.

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  • 30. 

    What item(s) are needed by quality assurance to perform an analysis?

    • Inquiry results

    • Difficulty reports

    • Problem and trend analysis

    • Statistics and source documents

    Correct Answer
    A. Statistics and source documents
    Explanation
    Quality assurance needs statistics and source documents to perform an analysis. These documents provide the necessary data and information for quality assurance to evaluate and assess the performance and quality of a product or process. Statistics help in quantifying and analyzing the data, while source documents provide the necessary context and details for the analysis. By reviewing these documents, quality assurance can identify any issues or trends, make informed decisions, and take appropriate actions to improve the quality and effectiveness of the product or process.

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  • 31. 

    Which is common material management indicator?

    • Warehouse refusal

    • Accountability officer refusal

    • Percentage of maintenance part failures

    • Percentage of maintenance part replacements without failures

    Correct Answer
    A. Warehouse refusal
    Explanation
    Warehouse refusal is a common material management indicator because it refers to situations where a warehouse refuses to accept or store certain materials. This can happen due to various reasons such as lack of space, improper handling procedures, or the materials being damaged or expired. Monitoring warehouse refusal helps in identifying issues with material quality, storage capacity, or handling processes, allowing for improvements to be made in the material management system.

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  • 32. 

    In addition to management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected?

    • Training reports

    • Part purchasing reports

    • Base supply systems down time

    • Top 5 percent of items purchased through base supply system

    Correct Answer
    A. Training reports
    Explanation
    Training reports can help in identifying problems when gathering data after the management indicators have been selected because they provide information about the effectiveness of training programs and the performance of employees. By analyzing training reports, management can identify any gaps or deficiencies in the training process, which may be contributing to problems or issues within the organization. This information can then be used to make improvements and address any identified problems.

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  • 33. 

    What are the keys to deficiency identification?

    • Personal visits and audits.

    • Source documents and reports.

    • Training and cross feed reports.

    • Analysis and special analysis program.

    Correct Answer
    A. Analysis and special analysis program.
    Explanation
    The keys to deficiency identification are analysis and special analysis program. This means that by analyzing data and using specialized analysis programs, deficiencies can be identified and addressed. Personal visits and audits, source documents and reports, and training and cross-feed reports may also be important in the process, but the most crucial aspect is the analysis and use of specialized programs for identifying deficiencies.

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  • 34. 

    Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?

    • Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC).

    • All Air Force members and employees.

    • Management and systems flight.

    • Maintenance officer

    Correct Answer
    A. All Air Force members and employees.
    Explanation
    All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that anyone who is part of the Air Force, regardless of their rank or position, can be held responsible for any harm caused to government property due to their actions or lack of proper care. It emphasizes the collective responsibility and accountability of all individuals within the Air Force to ensure the proper use and protection of government assets.

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  • 35. 

    Within how many hours must the receiving activity submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item?

    • 12

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The receiving activity must submit a supply discrepancy report for a shortage of a controlled item within 24 hours. This ensures that any discrepancies in the supply chain are promptly addressed and resolved. It allows for timely investigation and corrective actions to be taken, minimizing the impact on operations and ensuring that the controlled item is properly accounted for.

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  • 36. 

    Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?

    • Logistics readiness squadron.

    • Customer support.

    • Receiving

    • Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer support.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is customer support. In the context of supply discrepancy reports (SDR), customer support is responsible for handling and managing these reports. They are the point of contact for customers who have issues or discrepancies with their supplies. Therefore, it is logical to keep all SDR suspense copies in the customer support department as they are the ones who need to refer to these reports for resolution and follow-up.

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  • 37. 

    How many days after the first follow-up is a second follow-up sent to an action activity that has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 45
    Explanation
    After the first follow-up, if an action activity has not replied to a supply discrepancy report (SDR), a second follow-up is sent after 45 days.

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  • 38. 

    How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?

    • 10 to 20.

    • 25 to 35.

    • 55 to 109.

    • 70 to 125.

    Correct Answer
    A. 55 to 109.
    Explanation
    After the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR), it takes a certain number of days for the discrepancy details to appear on the SDR listing. The correct answer indicates that this process can take anywhere between 55 to 109 days.

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  • 39. 

    What system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?

    • Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).

    • Supply Interface System (SIFS).

    • ADRSS II.

    • SIFS outside.

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS). This system is responsible for preparing supply data reports for off-base distribution. It automates the process of submitting data reports, ensuring accuracy and efficiency. It is specifically designed for this purpose and is the most suitable option among the given choices.

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  • 40. 

    Storing all supply interface system (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because

    • Local user files are purged monthly.

    • SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures.

    • SIFS images are stored on the Supply Management System computer.

    • The Air Force Equipment Management System receives and stores duplicate images.

    Correct Answer
    A. SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures.
    Explanation
    Storing all SIFS images for backup into a local user file is unnecessary because SIFS already has built-in recovery and contingency procedures. These procedures ensure that the system can recover from any failures or contingencies without the need for additional backups. Storing duplicate images in a local user file would only result in a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources. Therefore, it is not necessary to store SIFS images in a local user file.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of Supply Interface System (SIFS) files are designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?

    • User.

    • Control.

    • Residue.

    • Non-processed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Residue.
    Explanation
    Residue files in the Supply Interface System (SIFS) are specifically created to handle any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched. These files are designed to ensure that these images are cleared in a timely manner, preventing any backlog or delay in processing.

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  • 42. 

    Who must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?

    • Accountable officer.

    • Individual flight chiefs.

    • Quality assurance element.

    • Functional systems management section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional systems management section.
    Explanation
    The Functional Systems Management Section must review the residue portion of the Supply Interface System end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner. This section is responsible for managing and maintaining the functionality of the system, including monitoring and resolving any issues or discrepancies. They have the authority and expertise to oversee the residue portion and ensure that users are promptly clearing any remaining images. The Accountable Officer, Individual Flight Chiefs, and Quality Assurance Element may have other responsibilities related to the system but are not specifically tasked with reviewing the residue portion.

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  • 43. 

    Edits made to the NARRATIVE file will

    • Corrupt it.

    • Generate an edit report.

    • Correct any outdated data.

    • Cause requisition images to reject in the base supply system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrupt it.
    Explanation
    Editing the NARRATIVE file will corrupt it, meaning that the file will become damaged or unusable. This suggests that any changes made to the file will result in its integrity being compromised, potentially rendering it unreadable or causing errors when attempting to access its content.

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  • 44. 

    What is the term used to define the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities?

    • Computer outage.

    • Degraded operation.

    • Limited operations.

    • Limited management and system operation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Degraded operation.
    Explanation
    Degraded operation refers to the steps a base takes when the materiel management system is temporarily inoperative or when other circumstances impose significant limitations on normal processing capabilities. This term is used to describe a situation where the system is not functioning at its optimal level, but is still able to perform certain limited operations. It implies that there are restrictions or limitations in place, but the system is still able to function to some extent.

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  • 45. 

    How often are supply inventories completed?

    • Every six months.

    • Once per fiscal year.

    • Once per calendar year.

    • Once every eighteen months.

    Correct Answer
    A. Once per fiscal year.
    Explanation
    Supply inventories are completed once per fiscal year. A fiscal year is a 12-month period that may not align with the calendar year. This means that the inventory is conducted annually, but the specific timing may vary depending on the organization's fiscal year.

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  • 46. 

    What do deployed kit personnel rely on to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations?

    • R43 list accuracy.

    • M14 list accuracy.

    • Deployed item list.

    • Mobility shipment list.

    Correct Answer
    A. R43 list accuracy.
    Explanation
    Deployed kit personnel rely on the accuracy of the R43 list to prevent confusion and maintain normal operations. This list provides them with the necessary information about the deployed kits, ensuring that they have the correct items and can effectively carry out their tasks. By relying on the R43 list accuracy, personnel can avoid any potential mix-ups or errors that could disrupt their operations and ensure that everything runs smoothly.

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  • 47. 

    Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

    • Reject.

    • Inquiry.

    • Management notice.

    • Management support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reject.
    Explanation
    The program in the Materiel Management System that takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction is the "Reject" program. This program is responsible for identifying and handling errors, ensuring that the transaction is not processed further and taking appropriate actions to rectify the error. It helps in maintaining data integrity and preventing incorrect or incomplete transactions from being processed.

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  • 48. 

    What supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?

    • D818.

    • D20.

    • D11.

    • D04.

    Correct Answer
    A. D818.
    Explanation
    D818 is the correct answer because it is the supply management listing that reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject. The other options (D20, D11, D04) do not specifically mention accountable rejects and reprocessing attempts, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 49. 

    Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?

    • Accountable officer.

    • Reject monitors.

    • Quality assurance personnel.

    • Management and system officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reject monitors.
    Explanation
    Reject monitors may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program. They are responsible for monitoring and managing rejected items or materials. As part of their role, they have the authority to delete rejected items from the system using the reject processor program. This helps in maintaining the accuracy and integrity of the system by removing rejected items that are no longer needed or relevant.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 28, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Joseph

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