# CCENT Practice Certification Exam Quiz 1

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It is not uncommon for one to have cold feet on how ready they are for an exam and this is because one can never be a hundred prevent ready. Do you believe you are ready for the certification exam? If so take up the quiz below and see what you need to brush up on.

• 1.

### What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

• A.

To identify missing segments at the destination

• B.

To reassemble the segments at the remote location

• C.

To specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination

• D.

To limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time

• E.

To determine if the packet changed during transit

A. To identify missing segments at the destination
B. To reassemble the segments at the remote location
Explanation
TCP uses sequence numbers in a segment to identify missing segments at the destination and to reassemble the segments at the remote location. By assigning a unique sequence number to each segment, TCP can keep track of which segments have been received and which are missing. This allows TCP to request retransmission of any missing segments and ensure that all segments are received in the correct order. Additionally, TCP uses the sequence numbers to reassemble the received segments in the correct order at the remote location.

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• 2.

### Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

• A.

UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.

• B.

UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.

• C.

UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.

• D.

UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.

• E.

UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.

• F.

UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.

A. UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.
C. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
D. UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.
Explanation
UDP is a connectionless protocol that operates at Layer 4 of the OSI model. It does not establish a connection before sending data and does not guarantee delivery of data. UDP relies on the application layer protocols for error detection, as it does not have built-in error detection and recovery mechanisms. This makes UDP a fast and efficient protocol for applications that prioritize speed over reliability, such as streaming media or online gaming.

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• 3.

• A.

Its a

• B.

Df

A. Its a
B. Df
• 4.

### Which layer of the OSI model defines logical addressing?

• A.

Application

• B.

Presentation

• C.

Session

• D.

Transport

• E.

Network

• F.

E. Network
Explanation
The network layer of the OSI model defines logical addressing. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. Logical addressing involves assigning unique addresses to devices on a network, such as IP addresses in the case of the Internet Protocol (IP). The network layer ensures that packets are properly addressed and delivered to their intended destinations based on these logical addresses.

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• 5.

### Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network?

• A.

Switch

• B.

Hub

• C.

Router

• D.

Bridge

C. Router
Explanation
A router is a device that connects a local LAN (Local Area Network) to a geographically separate network. It is responsible for directing network traffic between different networks, such as connecting a home network to the internet. Routers use routing tables and protocols to determine the best path for data packets to reach their destination. Unlike switches and hubs, which are used to connect devices within a local network, routers are designed to connect networks together. Therefore, a router is the correct device for connecting a local LAN to a geographically separate network.

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• 6.
• A.

The packets will be sent to the server because it is a server-based port.

• B.

The packets will be sent to Switch2 and not leave the switch because the packets are local.

• C.

The packets will be sent to the laptop host.

• D.

The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet.

• E.

The packets will be sent to Router2 and dropped because the server is not directly attached.

D. The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet. Private addresses are used for internal networks and are not routable on the public Internet. Therefore, when the packets with private addresses are sent to Router1, it recognizes that these addresses cannot be transmitted across the Internet and drops the packets.

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• 7.

### Refer to the exhibit. If host 1 was to send an HTTP request to the web server that connects to Router2, what type of Layer 2 frame would be sent between Router1 and the ISP?

• A.

A frame with a header that contains the port number of 80

• B.

• C.

A frame with a header and a trailer that only contains IP addresses

• D.

A frame with the host 1 MAC address as the source and Router1 MAC address as the destination

• E.

A frame with the host 1 MAC address as the source and the server MAC address as the destination

B. A frame with a header and trailer, but no MAC addresses
Explanation
The correct answer is a frame with a header and trailer, but no MAC addresses. This is because the Layer 2 frame between Router1 and the ISP does not need MAC addresses as it is being sent over the internet. The header and trailer in the frame would contain the necessary information for routing the packet, such as IP addresses and other protocol-specific information.

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• 8.

### A company needs to connect an office router to a service provider to access a WAN. What device is needed to connect the router to the ISP if the service provider supplies a T1 line for the connection?

• A.

A CSU/DSU

• B.

A cable modem

• C.

A DSL router

• D.

A DTE device

• E.

An SLA device

A. A CSU/DSU
Explanation
A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is needed to connect the router to the ISP when the service provider supplies a T1 line. A CSU/DSU is a device that provides termination for the digital signal and converts it into a format that can be transmitted over the T1 line. It also ensures the quality and reliability of the connection.

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• 9.

### Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to an unconfigured router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

• E.

E. Enable secret 5 \$1\$v0/3\$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
Explanation
The lines that the technician should expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command are: enable secret 5 \$1\$v0/3\$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0, enable password 7 14141E0A1F17, and line console 0 password 7 020507550A. These lines indicate that the router has been configured with an enable secret password, an enable password, and a password for the console line. The "5" and "7" in the commands indicate the type of encryption used for the passwords.

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• 10.

### Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

• A.

DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

• B.

172.168.10.99

• C.

CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC

• D.

172.168.10.65

• E.

BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB

• F.

AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA

E. BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
Explanation
When host A sends an IP packet to host B, the destination address in the frame when it leaves host A will be BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

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• 11.

### Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output of the ping command? (Choose two.)

• A.

There was a destination unreachable error.

• B.

The packet type was unknown.

• C.

One packet timed out.

• D.

The ping was interrupted.

• E.

Four packets of data were successfully received.

• F.

The packet TTL was exceeded.

C. One packet timed out.
E. Four packets of data were successfully received.
Explanation
From the output of the ping command, two facts can be determined. Firstly, one packet timed out, indicating that there was a failure to receive a response from the destination within the specified time. Secondly, four packets of data were successfully received, indicating that there were successful responses from the destination for four of the sent packets.

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• 12.

### Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

• A.

Only host D

• B.

Only router R1

• C.

Only hosts A, B, and C

• D.

Only hosts A, B, C, and D

• E.

Only hosts B and C

E. Only hosts B and C
Explanation
Host A needs to communicate with host D, but it does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. In this scenario, host A will send an ARP request to the network asking for the MAC address of the default gateway. The ARP request will be broadcasted to all the hosts in the network. Therefore, only hosts B and C will receive the ARP request sent by host A.

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• 13.

### Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use on this device to enter privileged EXEC mode?

• A.

Cisco

• B.

Class

• C.

• D.

Cisco

D. Cisco
Explanation
The administrator will need to use the password "cisco" to enter privileged EXEC mode on this device.

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• 14.

### Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has only the following commands added to a default Cisco 2960 configuration: enable secret ciscoline vty 0 4password Kn0ckkn-cKlogininterface vlan 1ip address 10.0.1.8 255.255.255.0no shutdown Assume that routing between networks is functioning properly and that Switch2 has been properly configured for remote access. What would the result be if the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from Switch1 privileged mode?

• A.

The following prompt would appear: user access verification Password:

• B.

Switch2 would return a destination unreachable message to Switch1.

• C.

Router1 would return a destination unreachable message to Switch1.

• D.

The packet would be dropped.

D. The packet would be dropped.
Explanation
When the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from Switch1 privileged mode, the packet would be dropped. This is because Switch1 does not have a route to the 10.0.2.0/24 network, which is the network that Switch2 is on. Since there is no route, the packet cannot reach its destination and is therefore dropped.

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• 15.

### What caused the following error message to appear? 01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

• A.

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

• B.

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

• C.

NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

• D.

A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

• E.

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

E. Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Explanation
The error message indicates that a security violation occurred on switch port Fa0/8, causing it to be put into an err-disable state. This suggests that port security was enabled on the switch port and an unauthorized connection was made.

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• 16.

### When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

• A.

Show SSH connected hosts

• B.

Disconnect SSH connected hosts

• C.

Create a public and private key pair

• D.

Show active SSH ports on the switch

• E.

Access the SSH database configuration

C. Create a public and private key pair
Explanation
The purpose of the "crypto key generate rsa" command is to create a public and private key pair. This key pair is used for encryption and authentication in SSH (Secure Shell) connections. The public key is shared with the clients trying to establish an SSH connection, while the private key is kept securely on the switch. The client uses the public key to encrypt data that can only be decrypted by the switch using its private key, ensuring secure communication between the client and the switch.

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• 17.

### Which three statements are true about full-duplex operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

• A.

There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

• B.

A dedicated switch port is required for each node.

• C.

Hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

• D.

The host network card must detect the availability of the media before transmitting.

• E.

The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
E. The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.
Explanation
In full-duplex mode on an Ethernet network, there are no collisions because data can be transmitted and received simultaneously. A dedicated switch port is required for each node to enable full-duplex communication. Both the host network card and the switch port must be in full-duplex mode to establish a full-duplex connection.

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• 18.

### Refer to the exhibit. If all the switches have a default configuration, how many broadcast domains are in the network?

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

• E.

5

• F.

14

B. 2
Explanation
In a network, a broadcast domain is a group of devices that receive broadcast frames from each other. In the given exhibit, there are two switches connected together. Each switch represents a separate broadcast domain. The devices connected to each switch can communicate with each other using broadcast frames within their respective switch's broadcast domain. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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• 19.
• A.

Con

• B.

St

• C.

St

A. Con
B. St
C. St
• 20.

### Refer to the exhibit. The devices have been configured with static IP addresses as shown. All hosts can communicate with each other but none of the hosts can communicate with the server. What is the cause of this problem?

• A.

The IP address that is assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet.

• B.

• C.

The IP address that is assigned to the server is a network address.

• D.

The switch to which the server is connected has not been assigned an IP address.

• E.

The RouterB LAN interface is incorrectly addressed in the RouterA LAN subnet.

A. The IP address that is assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet.
Explanation
The reason why none of the hosts can communicate with the server is because the IP address assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet. This means that the server's IP address does not fall within the same range as the other devices in the network. As a result, the server and the other hosts are not able to communicate with each other.

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• 21.

### A network host has the IP address 10.250.206.55/20. How many more network devices can be added to this same subnetwork?

• A.

253

• B.

509

• C.

1021

• D.

2045

• E.

4093

E. 4093
Explanation

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• 22.

### Which type of Network Address Translation allows a host on a public network consistent access to a specified private inside host?

• A.

Port-based NAT

• B.

Static NAT

• C.

Dynamic NAT

• D.

B. Static NAT
Explanation
Static NAT allows a host on a public network to have consistent access to a specific private inside host. It involves mapping a public IP address to a private IP address, allowing incoming traffic to be directed to the specific inside host. This type of NAT is often used for services that need to be accessed from the internet, such as web servers or email servers.

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• 23.

### Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses are "inside global" addresses? (Choose two.)

• A.

192.31.7.3

• B.

64.40.1.5

• C.

198.133.219.35

• D.

192.31.7.2

• E.

198.133.219.44

• F.

64.40.1.4

• G.

192.31.7.1

C. 198.133.219.35
E. 198.133.219.44
Explanation
The two addresses that are "inside global" addresses are 198.133.219.35 and 198.133.219.44.

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• 24.

• A.

192.168.200.87

• B.

194.10.10.104

• C.

223.168.210.100

• D.

220.100.100.154

• E.

200.152.2.160

• F.

196.123.142.190

C. 223.168.210.100
D. 220.100.100.154
F. 196.123.142.190
Explanation
The subnet mask 255.255.255.248 indicates that the first 29 bits of the IP address are the network portion, and the remaining 3 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the valid host IP addresses are those that have the same first 29 bits as the network address but have different combinations of the last 3 bits. Among the given options, 223.168.210.100, 220.100.100.154, and 196.123.142.190 satisfy this condition and are valid host IP addresses.

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• 25.

### The router receives a packet with the destination address of 172.16.30.79/22. To which subnetwork does this packet belong?

• A.

172.16.30.0/22

• B.

172.16.30.64/22

• C.

172.16.30.76/22

• D.

172.16.28.0/22

• E.

172.16.28.56/22

• F.

172.16.0.0/22

D. 172.16.28.0/22
Explanation
The given destination address, 172.16.30.79/22, falls within the range of 172.16.28.0/22. This is because the /22 subnet mask allows for a range of IP addresses from 172.16.28.0 to 172.16.31.255. Therefore, the packet belongs to the subnetwork 172.16.28.0/22.

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• 26.

### Refer to the exhibit. What is the broadcast address for the subnetwork on which host A resides?

• A.

10.255.255.255

• B.

10.144.255.255

• C.

10.149.255.255

• D.

10.149.191.255

• E.

10.159.255.255

E. 10.159.255.255
Explanation
The broadcast address for a subnetwork is the highest address in that subnetwork, which is used to send a message to all devices within that subnetwork. In this case, the highest address given is 10.159.255.255, so this is the broadcast address for the subnetwork on which host A resides.

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• 27.

• A.

Wefwe

• B.

Wefw

• C.

Ea

A. Wefwe
B. Wefw
• 28.

### What can a network administrator modify on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)

• A.

System ROM

• B.

The startup configuration file

• C.

The system image file

• D.

The configuration register value

• E.

The NVRAM file system

B. The startup configuration file
D. The configuration register value
Explanation
A network administrator can modify the startup configuration file on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads. This file contains the configuration settings for the router and can be modified to specify the location of the IOS image. Additionally, the network administrator can modify the configuration register value on the router to specify the location from which the IOS loads. The configuration register is a 16-bit value that determines various settings on the router, including the boot source for the IOS image. By modifying this value, the administrator can specify the location from which the IOS loads.

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• 29.

### Which two items are required for initial configuration of Cisco routers if the IOS command-line interface is used? (Choose two.)

• A.

A crossover cable

• B.

A rollover cable

• C.

• D.

Terminal emulation software

• E.

Router VTY port

B. A rollover cable
D. Terminal emulation software
Explanation
A rollover cable is required for connecting to the console port of the Cisco router, which is used for initial configuration. Terminal emulation software is needed to establish a connection between the computer and the router's console port, allowing the user to interact with the IOS command-line interface.

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• 30.

### . Refer to the exhibit. The router named "myhome" has received a frame from the host 192.168.254.7. The contents of this frame are being sent to host 172.16.14.243. What is the Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the myhome router?

• A.

0008.a3b6.ce05

• B.

0009.1281.18a8

• C.

000a.8a47.e612

• D.

172.16.14.129

• E.

172.16.14.243

• F.

192.168.254.7

A. 0008.a3b6.ce05
Explanation
The Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the myhome router is 0008.a3b6.ce05.

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• 31.

### Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the network from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

• A.

The MontegoBay router does not have any LAN interfaces configured.

• B.

The Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router.

• C.

There are only four devices in this network.

• D.

Layer 3 is functioning properly on all routers.

• E.

The MBSwitch is connected to the Negril, Lucia, and MontegoBay routers.

• F.

Layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.

B. The Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router.
F. Layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.
Explanation
From the exhibited output, two facts can be determined about the network. First, the Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router. Second, layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.

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• 32.

### Which set of commands is used to name a router and save the configuration?

• A.

Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# copy running-config startup-config

• B.

Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config

• C.

Router(config)# ip host South South(config)# copy running-config startup-config

• D.

Router(config)# ip host South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config

B. Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config
Explanation
The correct set of commands to name a router and save the configuration is "Router(config)# hostname South", "South(config)# exit", and "South# copy running-config startup-config".

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• 33.

### Which command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router?

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco

• E.

D. RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco
Explanation
The correct answer is "RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco" because the "enable secret" command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router. This command encrypts the password using the MD5 algorithm, providing a higher level of security compared to the "enable password" command.

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• 34.

### Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator working at HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer 3 connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to check its status?

• A.

RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4 RouterB(config-if)# login

• B.

RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line vty 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login

• C.

RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line aux 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login

• D.

RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line aux 0 RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco RouterB(config-vty)# login

B. RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line vty 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login
Explanation
The set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to check its status because it configures the enable secret password, sets up the virtual terminal lines for telnet access, sets a password for the virtual terminal lines, and enables login authentication for the virtual terminal lines. This allows the network administrator to securely access RouterB using telnet and check its status.

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• 35.

### What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?

• A.

It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface.

• B.

It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.

• C.

It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application.

• D.

It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.

B. It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.
Explanation
SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that provides a secure and encrypted connection to a remote device's command line interface. It ensures that the communication between the user and the router is protected from eavesdropping or unauthorized access. By using SSH, administrators can remotely access and manage the router's configuration, troubleshoot issues, and perform various administrative tasks securely. It is a preferred method for remote management of network devices, as it provides strong authentication and encryption mechanisms to protect sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access.

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• 36.

### Which two statements describe the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)

• A.

A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.

• B.

The address 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.

• C.

The address 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.

• D.

This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.

• E.

This command is used to define a static route.

A. A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
E. This command is used to define a static route.
Explanation
The command "ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9" is used to define a static route. It specifies that any packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to the next-hop address 192.168.7.9. Therefore, the statement "A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9" is correct.

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• 37.

### Which protocol is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol?

• A.

RIP v1

• B.

RIP v2

• C.

EIGRP

• D.

OSPF

C. EIGRP
Explanation
EIGRP, or Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol, is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol. It combines features of both distance vector and link-state routing protocols, making it more efficient and scalable. EIGRP uses a metric that takes into account factors like bandwidth, delay, reliability, and load to determine the best path for routing. It also supports features like fast convergence and load balancing, which make it suitable for large and complex networks.

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• 38.

### Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can successfully ping, using IP addresses, between router Jax and router Atlanta. However, when the command telnet Atlanta is entered from the Jax router, the Telnet connection fails. Which two reasons could be the cause of the failure? (Choose two.)

• A.

The Jax router is not an entry in the host table of the Atlanta router.

• B.

The Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table.

• C.

The hostname command is not configured correctly on the Atlanta router.

• D.

The hostname command is not configured correctly on the Jax router.

• E.

B. The Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table.
Explanation
The first reason for the Telnet connection failure could be that the Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table. This means that the Jax router does not know the IP address associated with the hostname "Atlanta" and therefore cannot establish a connection.

The second reason could be that access to a DNS server is not available. A DNS server is responsible for resolving hostnames to their corresponding IP addresses. If the Jax router does not have access to a DNS server, it will be unable to resolve the hostname "Atlanta" to its IP address, resulting in a failed Telnet connection.

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• 39.

### From what two locations can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)

• A.

RAM

• B.

TFTP server

• C.

NVRAM

• D.

Setup routine

• E.

Flash memory

• F.

Terminal

B. TFTP server
E. Flash memory
Explanation
During the boot process, a router can load the Cisco IOS from two locations: the TFTP server and the Flash memory. The TFTP server is a remote location where the router can retrieve the IOS image over the network. The Flash memory, on the other hand, is a non-volatile storage location within the router itself, where the IOS image can be stored and loaded during the boot process. Both of these locations provide the necessary files for the router to initialize and operate with the Cisco IOS.

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• 40.

### Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

• A.

Stores routing tables

• B.

Allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard

• C.

Maintains instructions for POST diagnostics

• D.

Holds ARP cache

• E.

Stores bootstrap program

C. Maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
E. Stores bootstrap program
Explanation
ROM in a router maintains instructions for POST diagnostics, which means it contains the necessary instructions for the router's Power-On Self Test (POST) to check the hardware components during startup. Additionally, ROM stores the bootstrap program, which is responsible for initializing the router's hardware and loading the operating system. These characteristics make ROM essential for the proper functioning and booting of the router.

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• 41.

### Which two statements correctly identify the function of router memory components? (Choose two.)

• A.

RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.

• B.

ROM contains diagnostic self test procedures executed on hardware modules.

• C.

NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

• D.

Flash memory does not lose its contents when a router is powered off.

• E.

ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.

• F.

Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.

B. ROM contains diagnostic self test procedures executed on hardware modules.
D. Flash memory does not lose its contents when a router is powered off.
Explanation
The first correct statement is that ROM contains diagnostic self test procedures executed on hardware modules. ROM, or Read-Only Memory, is a type of memory that contains permanent instructions or data that cannot be modified. In the case of a router, ROM holds the diagnostic self test procedures that are executed to check the hardware modules during the boot sequence.

The second correct statement is that Flash memory does not lose its contents when a router is powered off. Flash memory is a type of non-volatile memory that retains its data even when the power is turned off. In a router, the IOS (Internetwork Operating System) is typically stored in the Flash memory, allowing the router to retain its operating system and configurations even after a power cycle.

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• 42.

### Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file?

• A.

RAM

• B.

Flash

• C.

NVRAM

• D.

ROM

A. RAM
Explanation
RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which is a type of computer memory that is used to store data that is actively being used by the router. It is a volatile memory, meaning that its contents are lost when the router is powered off or restarted. The routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file are all important data that need to be quickly accessible by the router during its operation, so they are stored in RAM. Therefore, RAM is the correct answer for the component that holds these data.

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• 43.

• A.

D

• B.

D

A. D
B. D
• 44.

### Which security method uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?

• A.

• B.

WEP

• C.

WPA

• D.

WPA2

D. WPA2
Explanation
WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm widely used for securing data. It provides a high level of security and is considered to be one of the strongest encryption methods available. WPA2, which stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access 2, is a security protocol used to secure wireless networks. It uses AES to encrypt the data transmitted over the network, ensuring that it is protected and cannot be easily intercepted or accessed by unauthorized users.

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• 45.

### What is the purpose of WEP?

• A.

It encrypts data.

• B.

It uniquely identifies a wireless network.

• C.

It coordinates and accepts transmissions from wireless hosts.

• D.

It provides information about a directly connected Cisco network device.

A. It encrypts data.
Explanation
The purpose of WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is to encrypt data. WEP is a security protocol used to protect wireless networks. It provides a level of confidentiality by encrypting the data transmitted over the network, making it difficult for unauthorized users to intercept and understand the information. This helps to ensure the privacy and security of the data being transmitted over the wireless network.

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• 46.

### Company has an 802.11b wireless access point installed. Which type of wireless NIC is a valid standards-based one but will not work in this environment?

• A.

802.11a

• B.

802.11b

• C.

802.11g

• D.

802.11n

A. 802.11a
Explanation
The 802.11a wireless NIC is a valid standards-based one but will not work in this environment because it operates on a different frequency band than the 802.11b wireless access point. The 802.11a standard uses the 5 GHz frequency band, while the 802.11b standard uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band. Therefore, a wireless NIC that supports 802.11a will not be able to communicate with the 802.11b access point.

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• 47.
• A.

EFW

• B.

WEF

A. EFW
B. WEF
• 48.

### A company has a sales team that travels with laptops. On Fridays, the sales members come into assigned cubicles and connect their laptop to the wired network. The company is concerned that unauthorized users could also connect to the network. What can be done to ensure that unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network?

• A.

Implement SSH.

• B.

Install WEP or WPA.

• C.

Use switch port security.

• D.

Clearly label the cubicle network port and the switch port.

• E.

Configure usernames and passwords on the switch ports assigned to each cubicle.

C. Use switch port security.
Explanation
Switch port security is the most appropriate solution to ensure that unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network. Switch port security allows the administrator to specify which devices are allowed to connect to a specific switch port by configuring MAC address filtering. This means that only authorized laptops with known MAC addresses will be able to connect to the network, preventing unauthorized access. This solution is effective in maintaining network security and preventing unauthorized users from connecting to the network.

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• 49.

### Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about the HQ R1 router model and IP address should not be accessible from the Site 2 R2 router. What security measure should be implemented?

• A.

Install an IDS between R1 and R2.

• B.

Install an IPS between R1 and R2.

• C.

Install a firewall between R1 and R2.

• D.

Disable CDP on the R1 interface that connects to R2.

• E.

Disable any routing protocol used between R1 and R2 and install static routes

D. Disable CDP on the R1 interface that connects to R2.
Explanation
To prevent the Site 2 R2 router from accessing information about the HQ R1 router model and IP address, the security measure that should be implemented is to disable CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) on the R1 interface that connects to R2. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to gather information about neighboring devices, and by disabling it on the specific interface, the R2 router will not be able to obtain any information about the HQ R1 router.

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• Current Version
• Mar 20, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Jun 09, 2011
Quiz Created by
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