Practice Test For CCENT Certification Exam

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Practice Test For CCENT Certification Exam - Quiz

The Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician (CCENT) Exam is one that most people have Goosebumps just thinking about. It is designed to certify one as being able to carry out the duties of a network technician. Do you think you are well prepared for the exam? Take up this first practice test in a series of many designed to help you pass.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      To identify missing segments at the destination.

    • B.

      To reassemble the segments at the remote location.

    • C.

      To specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination.

    • D.

      To limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time.

    • E.

      To determine if the packet changed during transit.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. To identify missing segments at the destination.
    B. To reassemble the segments at the remote location.
    Explanation
    TCP uses sequence numbers in a segment to identify missing segments at the destination. By assigning a unique sequence number to each segment, TCP can detect if any segments are missing during transmission and request retransmission of those missing segments. Additionally, TCP uses sequence numbers to reassemble the segments at the remote location. By correctly ordering the segments based on their sequence numbers, TCP can reconstruct the original data stream at the receiving end.

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  • 2. 

    Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.

    • B.

      UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.

    • C.

      UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.

    • D.

      UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.

    • E.

      UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.
    C. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
    D. UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.
    Explanation
    UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4. This means that UDP does not establish a connection before sending data and does not guarantee the delivery of data. It is a lightweight protocol that operates at the transport layer and is faster than TCP. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection, as it does not have built-in error detection mechanisms. It is suitable for applications that can tolerate some data loss, such as streaming media or real-time communication. UDP does not rely on IP for error detection and recovery, as it operates independently at the transport layer.

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  • 3. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B? A: B: C: D:

    • A.

      Image A

    • B.

      Image B

    • C.

      Image C

    • D.

      Image D

    Correct Answer
    A. Image A
  • 4. 

    Which layer of the OSI model defines logical addressing?

    • A.

      Application

    • B.

      Presentation

    • C.

      Session

    • D.

      Transport

    • E.

      Network

    Correct Answer
    E. Network
    Explanation
    The network layer of the OSI model defines logical addressing. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It assigns logical addresses to devices on the network, allowing them to communicate with each other. The network layer also determines the best path for data transmission and handles any necessary address translation.

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  • 5. 

    Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network?

    • A.

      Switch

    • B.

      Hub

    • C.

      Router

    • D.

      Bridge

    Correct Answer
    C. Router
    Explanation
    A router is the device that connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network. Routers are responsible for directing network traffic between different networks, such as connecting a home or office network to the internet. They use routing tables to determine the best path for data packets to travel from one network to another. Unlike switches and hubs, which are used to connect devices within a local network, routers are specifically designed to connect networks together. Bridges are also used to connect networks, but they are typically used within a local network to divide it into smaller segments.

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  • 6. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router1 receives packets addressed as follows: Source IP address: 192.168.1.88 Destination IP address: 172.16.0.3 Source MAC address: 00-11-12-7a-41-10 Destination MAC address: 00-11-5c-cc-a9-c0 Source Port: 1464 Destination Port: 23 Assuming that Router1 has not been configured with NAT, what will happen to the packets?

    • A.

      The packets will be sent to the server because it is a server-based port.

    • B.

      The packets will be sent to Switch2 and not leave the switch because the packets are local.

    • C.

      The packets will be sent to the laptop host.

    • D.

      The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet.

    • E.

      The packets will be sent to Router2 and dropped because the server is not directly attached.

    Correct Answer
    D. The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet.
    Explanation
    The packets will be sent to Router1 and dropped because private addresses are not transmitted across the Internet. This means that the packets with the source and destination IP addresses of 192.168.1.88 and 172.16.0.3 respectively will not be able to pass through Router1 and reach the destination. Private IP addresses are not routable on the public Internet, so Router1 will drop the packets.

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  • 7. 

    Refer to the exhibit. If host 1 was to send an HTTP request to the web server that connects to Router2, what type of Layer 2 frame would be sent between Router1 and the ISP?

    • A.

      A frame with a header that contains the port number of 80.

    • B.

      A frame with a header and trailer, but no MAC addresses.

    • C.

      A frame with a header and a trailer that only contains IP addresses.

    • D.

      A frame with the host 1 MAC address as the source and Router1 MAC address as the destination.

    • E.

      A frame with the host 1 MAC address as the source and the server MAC address as the destination.

    Correct Answer
    B. A frame with a header and trailer, but no MAC addresses.
  • 8. 

    A company needs to connect an office router to a service provider to access a WAN. What device is needed to connect the router to the ISP if the service provider supplies a T1 line for the connection?

    • A.

      A CSU/DSU

    • B.

      A cable modem

    • C.

      A DSL router

    • D.

      A DTE device

    • E.

      An SLA device

    Correct Answer
    A. A CSU/DSU
    Explanation
    A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is needed to connect the office router to the ISP if the service provider supplies a T1 line for the connection. A CSU/DSU is a device that converts the digital data from the router into a format that can be transmitted over the T1 line. It also provides the necessary clocking and synchronization signals for the connection. This device is specifically designed for T1 connections and is commonly used in WAN setups.

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  • 9. 

    Refer to the exhibit, a technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to an unconfigured router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

    • A.

      Enable password class line console 0 password ccna

    • B.

      Enable secret cisco enable password class line console 0 password ccna

    • C.

      Enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0 enable password class line console 0 password ccna

    • D.

      Enable secret cisco enable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A

    • E.

      Enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0 enable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A

    Correct Answer
    E. Enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0 enable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A
    Explanation
    The technician should expect to see the line "enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0 enable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A" in the router output from the show running-config command. This line includes the enable secret password and enable password in encrypted format, as well as the console line password in encrypted format. This indicates that the configuration for these passwords has been successfully applied to the router.

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  • 10. 

    Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

    • A.

      DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

    • B.

      172.168.10.99

    • C.

      CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC

    • D.

      172.168.10.65

    • E.

      BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB

    Correct Answer
    E. BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
    Explanation
    When host A sends an IP packet to host B, the destination address in the frame when it leaves host A will be BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the output of the ping command? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      There was a destination unreachable error.

    • B.

      The packet type was unknown.

    • C.

      One packet timed out.

    • D.

      The ping was interrupted.

    • E.

      Four packets of data were successfully received.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. One packet timed out.
    E. Four packets of data were successfully received.
    Explanation
    From the output of the ping command, we can determine that one packet timed out and four packets of data were successfully received.

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  • 12. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

    • A.

      Only host D

    • B.

      Only router R1

    • C.

      Only hosts A, B, C, and D

    • D.

      Only hosts B and C

    • E.

      Only hosts B, C, and router R1

    Correct Answer
    E. Only hosts B, C, and router R1
    Explanation
    When Host A needs to communicate with Host D but does not have the MAC address for its default gateway, it sends an Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) request. This request is broadcasted to all hosts on the network. In this scenario, only Hosts B and C, along with the router R1, will receive the ARP request. This is because the ARP request is sent to all hosts within the same broadcast domain, which includes Hosts B and C, as well as the router R1. Host D will not receive the ARP request as it is not on the same broadcast domain as Host A.

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  • 13. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use on this device to enter privileged EXEC mode?

    • A.

      Create

    • B.

      Cisco

    • C.

      Class

    • D.

      Password

    Correct Answer
    B. Cisco
    Explanation
    The administrator will need to use the password "cisco" to enter privileged EXEC mode on this device.

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  • 14. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has only the following commands added to a default Cisco 2960 configuration: enable secret cisco line vty 0 4 password Kn0ckkn-cK login interface vlan 1 ip address 10.0.1.8 255.255.255.0 no shutdown Assume that routing between networks is functioning properly and that Switch2 has been properly configured for remote access. What would the result be if the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from Switch1 privileged mode?

    • A.

      The following prompt would appear: User Access Verification Password:

    • B.

      Switch2 would return a destination unreachable message to Switch1.

    • C.

      Router1 would return a destination unreachable message to Switch1.

    • D.

      The packet would be dropped.

    Correct Answer
    D. The packet would be dropped.
    Explanation
    The packet would be dropped because there is no specific route configured for the destination IP address 10.0.2.2 on Switch1. Since routing between networks is functioning properly, Switch1 would attempt to send the packet to the default gateway (Router1) for further routing. However, since there is no specific route for the destination IP address on Router1 either, the packet would be dropped.

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  • 15. 

    What caused the following error message to appear? 01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    • A.

      Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

    • B.

      An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

    • C.

      NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

    • D.

      A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

    • E.

      Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

    Correct Answer
    E. Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
    Explanation
    The error message indicates that a port security violation occurred on switch port Fa0/8. This means that an unauthorized connection was made to the switch through this port, triggering the port security feature to put the port into an err-disable state. This feature is used to restrict access to a network by allowing only specific MAC addresses to connect to a port. In this case, the MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 was detected as the unauthorized connection, causing the error message to appear and the port to be disabled.

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  • 16. 

    When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?

    • A.

      Show SSH connected hosts

    • B.

      Disconnect SSH connected hosts

    • C.

      Create a public and private key pair

    • D.

      Show active SSH ports on the switch

    • E.

      Access the SSH database configuration

    Correct Answer
    C. Create a public and private key pair
    Explanation
    The purpose of the "crypto key generate rsa" command when configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections is to create a public and private key pair. This key pair is used for secure communication between the switch and the SSH clients. The public key is shared with the clients to encrypt the data, while the private key is kept securely on the switch to decrypt the data. This ensures that the communication between the switch and the clients is encrypted and secure.

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  • 17. 

    Which three statements are true about a full-duplex operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

    • B.

      A dedicated switch port is required for each node.

    • C.

      Hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

    • D.

      The host network card must detect the availability of the media before transmitting.

    • E.

      The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
    B. A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
    E. The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.
    Explanation
    In full-duplex mode, there are no collisions because data can be transmitted and received simultaneously. A dedicated switch port is required for each node to enable full-duplex communication. The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode to ensure proper communication. Hub ports are not preconfigured for full-duplex mode. The host network card does not need to detect media availability before transmitting in full-duplex mode.

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  • 18. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The devices have been configured with static IP addresses as shown. All hosts can communicate with each other but none of the hosts can communicate with the server. What is the cause of this problem?

    • A.

      The IP address that is assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet.

    • B.

      The IP address that is assigned to the server is a broadcast address.

    • C.

      The IP address that is assigned to the server is a network address.

    • D.

      The switch to which the server is connected has not been assigned an IP address.

    • E.

      The RouterB LAN interface is incorrectly addressed in the RouterA LAN subnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. The IP address that is assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet.
    Explanation
    The cause of the problem is that the IP address assigned to the server is in an incorrect subnet. This means that the server's IP address does not fall within the same range of IP addresses as the other devices in the network. As a result, the server and the other hosts are not able to communicate with each other.

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  • 19. 

    A network host has the IP address 10.250.206.55/20. How many more network devices can be added to this same subnetwork?

    • A.

      253

    • B.

      509

    • C.

      1021

    • D.

      2045

    • E.

      4093

    Correct Answer
    E. 4093
    Explanation
    The given IP address is in the format of a Class C network, with a subnet mask of /20. This means that the network can have a maximum of 4094 hosts, including the network and broadcast addresses. Since there is already one network host with the given IP address, the remaining number of network devices that can be added is 4093.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of Network Address Translation allows a host on a public network consistent access to a specified private inside host?

    • A.

      Port-based NAT

    • B.

      Static NAT

    • C.

      Dynamic NAT

    • D.

      NAT overload

    Correct Answer
    B. Static NAT
    Explanation
    Static NAT allows a host on a public network to have consistent access to a specified private inside host. With static NAT, a specific private IP address is mapped to a specific public IP address, allowing the inside host to be consistently accessible from the public network. This type of NAT is commonly used for servers that need to be accessed from the internet, such as web servers or email servers.

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  • 21. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses are "inside global" addresses? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      192.168.7.3

    • B.

      64.100.1.5

    • C.

      198.133.219.35

    • D.

      192.168.7.2

    • E.

      198.133.219.44

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. 198.133.219.35
    E. 198.133.219.44
    Explanation
    The "inside global" addresses are the addresses that are used on the outside network. In this case, the addresses 198.133.219.35 and 198.133.219.44 are the only ones that are not in the private IP address range (192.168.x.x). Therefore, they are the "inside global" addresses.

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  • 22. 

    Which addresses are a valid host IP addresses given the subnet mask 255.255.255.248? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      192.168.200.87

    • B.

      194.10.10.104

    • C.

      196.123.142.190

    • D.

      220.100.100.154

    • E.

      223.168.210.100

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. 196.123.142.190
    D. 220.100.100.154
    E. 223.168.210.100
  • 23. 

    The router receives a packet with the destination address of 172.16.30.79. To which subnetwork does this packet belong?

    • A.

      172.16.30.0/22

    • B.

      172.16.30.64/22

    • C.

      172.16.30.76/22

    • D.

      172.16.28.0/22

    • E.

      172.16.28.56/22

    Correct Answer
    D. 172.16.28.0/22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 172.16.28.0/22. This is because the destination address of 172.16.30.79 falls within the range of the subnet 172.16.28.0/22. The /22 subnet mask indicates that the first 22 bits of the IP address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 10 bits are used for host addresses. Therefore, any IP address within the range of 172.16.28.0 to 172.16.31.255 belongs to this subnet.

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  • 24. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the broadcast address for the subnetwork on which host A resides?

    • A.

      10.255.255.255

    • B.

      10.144.255.255

    • C.

      10.149.255.255

    • D.

      10.149.191.255

    • E.

      10.159.255.255

    Correct Answer
    E. 10.159.255.255
    Explanation
    The broadcast address is the highest address in a network and is used to send data to all devices on that network. In this question, the broadcast address for the subnetwork on which host A resides is 10.159.255.255. This is because it is the highest address among the given options and falls within the same network range as host A's IP address.

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  • 25. 

    Reference only. Choose Answer B

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    B. B
  • 26. 

    What can a network administrator modify on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      System ROM

    • B.

      The startup configuration file

    • C.

      The system image file

    • D.

      The configuration register value

    • E.

      The NVRAM file system

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The startup configuration file
    D. The configuration register value
    Explanation
    A network administrator can modify the startup configuration file on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads. This file contains the configuration settings for the router and can be modified to specify the location of the IOS image file. Additionally, the administrator can modify the configuration register value on the router, which determines the boot behavior and can be used to specify the location of the IOS image file. By modifying these two settings, the administrator can control where the router loads the IOS from.

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  • 27. 

    Which two items are required for initial configuration of Cisco routers if the IOS command-line interface is used? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      A crossover cable

    • B.

      A rollover cable

    • C.

      An RJ-15 to DB-9 adapter

    • D.

      Terminal emulation software

    • E.

      Router VTY port

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. A rollover cable
    D. Terminal emulation software
    Explanation
    The initial configuration of Cisco routers using the IOS command-line interface requires two items: a rollover cable and terminal emulation software. A rollover cable is used to connect the router's console port to a computer's serial port, allowing for configuration and management of the router. Terminal emulation software is needed to establish a connection between the computer and the router, enabling the user to access and configure the router through the command-line interface.

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  • 28. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The router named "myhome" has received a frame from the host 192.168.254.7. The contents of this frame are being sent to host 172.16.14.243. What is the Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the myhome router?

    • A.

      0008.a3b6.ce05

    • B.

      0009.1281.18a8

    • C.

      000a.8a47.e612

    • D.

      172.16.14.129

    • E.

      172.16.14.243

    Correct Answer
    A. 0008.a3b6.ce05
    Explanation
    The Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the myhome router is 0008.a3b6.ce05.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the network from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The MontegoBay router does not have any LAN interfaces configured.

    • B.

      The Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router.

    • C.

      There are only four devices in this network.

    • D.

      Layer 3 is functioning properly on all routers.

    • E.

      Layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router.
    E. Layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.
    Explanation
    From the exhibited output, two facts can be determined about the network. First, the Negril router is connected to the S0/1 interface of the MontegoBay router. Second, layer 2 is operational on three ports of the MontegoBay router.

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  • 30. 

    Which set of commands is used to name a router and save the configuration?

    • A.

      Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# copy running-config startup-config

    • B.

      Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config

    • C.

      Router(config)# ip host South South(config)# copy running-config startup-config

    • D.

      Router(config)# ip host South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config

    Correct Answer
    B. Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Router(config)# hostname South South(config)# exit South# copy running-config startup-config. This set of commands is used to name a router and save the configuration. The "hostname" command is used to assign a name to the router, in this case "South". The "exit" command is used to exit the configuration mode. Finally, the "copy running-config startup-config" command is used to save the configuration to the startup-config file.

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  • 31. 

    Which command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router?

    • A.

      RouterA(config)# encrypted password cisco

    • B.

      RouterA(config)# password encrypted cisco

    • C.

      RouterA(config)# enable password cisco

    • D.

      RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco

    • E.

      RouterA(config)# service-password encryption cisco

    Correct Answer
    D. RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RouterA(config)# enable secret cisco" because the "enable secret" command is used to create an encrypted password that restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router. This command encrypts the password using the MD5 algorithm and provides a higher level of security compared to the "enable password" command.

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  • 32. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator working at HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer 3 connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to check its status?

    • A.

      RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4 RouterB(config-if)# login

    • B.

      RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line vty 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login

    • C.

      RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line aux 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login

    • D.

      RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line aux 0 RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco RouterB(config-vty)# login

    Correct Answer
    B. RouterB(config)# enable secret class RouterB(config)# line vty 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login
    Explanation
    The correct set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB to check its status. The "enable secret class" command sets the enable password to "class" for privileged mode access. The "line vty 0" command configures the virtual terminal lines for remote access. The "password cisco" command sets the password for telnet access. The "login" command enables login authentication for telnet access.

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  • 33. 

    What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?

    • A.

      It allows a router to be configured using a graphical interface.

    • B.

      It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.

    • C.

      It allows the router to be monitored through a network management application.

    • D.

      It allows secure transfer of the IOS software image from an unsecure workstation or server.

    Correct Answer
    B. It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.
    Explanation
    Using SSH to connect to a router allows for a secure remote connection to the router's command line interface. This means that administrators can access and configure the router's settings and commands from a remote location, ensuring that the connection is encrypted and secure. This is important for maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of the network, as it prevents unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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  • 34. 

    Which two statements describe the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.

    • B.

      The address 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.

    • C.

      The address 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.

    • D.

      This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.

    • E.

      This command is used to define a static route.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
    E. This command is used to define a static route.
    Explanation
    The first statement is correct because the command "ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9" specifies that any packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 should be forwarded to the next-hop address 192.168.7.9.

    The fifth statement is also correct because the command "ip route" is used to define a static route, which is a manually configured route that remains in the routing table until it is manually removed or the device is restarted.

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  • 35. 

    Which protocol is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol?

    • A.

      RIP v1

    • B.

      RIP v2

    • C.

      EIGRP

    • D.

      OSPF

    Correct Answer
    C. EIGRP
    Explanation
    EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol. It combines the features of both distance vector and link-state protocols, making it more efficient and scalable. EIGRP uses a metric called "composite metric" to calculate the best path for routing and updates its routing table based on the distance and reliability of the routes. It also supports load balancing and faster convergence compared to traditional distance vector protocols like RIP. Therefore, EIGRP is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can successfully ping, using IP addresses, between router Jax and router Atlanta. However, when the command telnet Atlanta is entered from the Jax router, the Telnet connection fails. Which two reasons could be the cause of the failure? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The Jax router is not an entry in the host table of the Atlanta router.

    • B.

      The Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table.

    • C.

      The hostname command is not configured correctly on the Atlanta router.

    • D.

      The hostname command is not configured correctly on the Jax router.

    • E.

      Access to a DNS server is not available.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table.
    E. Access to a DNS server is not available.
    Explanation
    The first reason for the failure could be that the Jax router does not have an entry for Atlanta in its host table. This means that the Jax router does not have the necessary information to establish a connection with the Atlanta router.

    The second reason could be that access to a DNS server is not available. Without access to a DNS server, the Jax router would not be able to resolve the hostname "Atlanta" to its corresponding IP address, preventing the Telnet connection from being established.

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  • 37. 

    From what two locations can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      RAM

    • B.

      TFTP server

    • C.

      NVRAM

    • D.

      Setup routine

    • E.

      Flash memory

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. TFTP server
    E. Flash memory
    Explanation
    During the boot process, a router can load the Cisco IOS from two locations: TFTP server and Flash memory. The TFTP server is a network device that stores the IOS image and can be accessed by the router over the network. Flash memory, on the other hand, is a type of non-volatile memory in the router itself where the IOS image can be stored. These two locations provide the router with the necessary IOS image to boot up and operate.

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  • 38. 

    Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Stores routing tables

    • B.

      Allows software to be updated without replacing plugable chips on the motherboard

    • C.

      Maintains instructions for POST diagnostics

    • D.

      Holds ARP cache

    • E.

      Stores bootstrap program

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
    E. Stores bootstrap program
    Explanation
    ROM (Read-Only Memory) in a router has the function of maintaining instructions for POST (Power-On Self-Test) diagnostics. These instructions are used to perform diagnostic tests on the router's hardware during the boot-up process to ensure that all components are functioning properly. ROM also stores the bootstrap program, which is responsible for initializing the router's hardware and loading the operating system. This program is essential for the router to start up and function correctly. Therefore, ROM in a router maintains instructions for POST diagnostics and stores the bootstrap program.

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  • 39. 

    Which two statements correctly identify the function of router memory components? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.

    • B.

      ROM contains diagnostic self test procedures executed on hardware modules.

    • C.

      NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

    • D.

      Flash memory does not lose its contents when a router is powered off.

    • E.

      Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. ROM contains diagnostic self test procedures executed on hardware modules.
    D. Flash memory does not lose its contents when a router is powered off.
    Explanation
    The ROM memory component contains diagnostic self test procedures that are executed on hardware modules, ensuring the proper functioning of the router. On the other hand, flash memory is non-volatile, meaning it does not lose its contents when the router is powered off. This makes it an ideal location to store the boot system commands that identify the location of the IOS.

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  • 40. 

    Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file?

    • A.

      RAM

    • B.

      Flash

    • C.

      NVRAM

    • D.

      ROM

    Correct Answer
    A. RAM
    Explanation
    RAM (Random Access Memory) is the correct answer because it is a type of computer memory that is used to store data and instructions that are currently being used by the router. It holds the routing table, which is used by the router to determine the best path for forwarding packets, the ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) cache, which is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses, and the running configuration file, which contains the current configuration settings for the router. RAM is volatile memory, meaning that its contents are lost when the router is powered off or restarted.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator can ping the Denver router but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command or sequence of commands must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?

    • A.

      Router(config)# line console 0 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco

    • B.

      Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco

    • C.

      Router(config)# line virtual terminal Router(config-line)# enable login Router(config-line)# password cisco

    • D.

      Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# enable secret Router(config-line)# password cisco

    • E.

      Router(config)# enable secret cisco

    Correct Answer
    B. Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# login Router(config-line)# password cisco. This command sequence configures the virtual terminal lines on the Denver router to allow remote access. The "line vty 0 4" command specifies the range of virtual terminal lines to configure, while the "login" command enables login authentication. The "password cisco" command sets the password for remote access.

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  • 42. 

    Which security method uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?

    • A.

      EAP

    • B.

      TKIP

    • C.

      WEP

    • D.

      WPA2

    Correct Answer
    D. WPA2
    Explanation
    WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) as its security method. AES is a widely used encryption algorithm that provides a high level of security for wireless networks. It is considered to be one of the most secure encryption methods available and is used to encrypt data transmitted over a wireless network to prevent unauthorized access and protect the confidentiality of the information.

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  • 43. 

    What is the purpose of WEP?

    • A.

      It encrypts data.

    • B.

      It uniquely identifies a wireless network.

    • C.

      It coordinates and accepts transmissions from wireless hosts.

    • D.

      It provides information about a directly connected Cisco network device.

    Correct Answer
    A. It encrypts data.
    Explanation
    WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a security protocol used to encrypt data transmitted over a wireless network. It provides a level of confidentiality by encoding the information, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. This encryption ensures that the data remains secure and protected from interception or tampering.

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  • 44. 

    A company has an 802.11b wireless access point installed. Which type of wireless NIC is a valid standards-based one but will not work in this environment?

    • A.

      802.11a

    • B.

      802.11b

    • C.

      802.11g

    • D.

      802.11n

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11a
    Explanation
    802.11a is a valid standards-based wireless NIC but will not work in an environment with an 802.11b wireless access point. This is because 802.11a operates on a different frequency band (5 GHz) compared to 802.11b (2.4 GHz). Therefore, the 802.11a NIC will not be able to communicate with the 802.11b access point, resulting in compatibility issues.

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  • 45. 

    For Reference Only... Choose D...

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    D. D
  • 46. 

    A company has a sales team that travels with laptops. On Fridays, the sales members come into assigned cubicles and connect their laptop to the wired network. The company is concerned that unauthorized users could also connect to the network. What can be done to ensure that unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network?

    • A.

      Implement SSH.

    • B.

      Install WEP or WPA.

    • C.

      Use switch port security.

    • D.

      Clearly label the cubicle network port and the switch port.

    • E.

      Configure usernames and passwords on the switch ports assigned to each cubicle.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use switch port security.
    Explanation
    Switch port security is the best solution to ensure that unauthorized laptops are not connected to the wired network. Switch port security allows the network administrator to restrict access to specific MAC addresses, preventing unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. By implementing switch port security, the company can control which devices are allowed to connect to the network, increasing network security and preventing unauthorized access.

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  • 47. 

    Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about the HQ R1 router model and IP address should not be accessible from the Site 2 R2 router. What security measure should be implemented?

    • A.

      Disable CDP on the R1 interface that connects to R2.

    • B.

      Disable any routing protocol used between R1 and R2 and install static routes.

    • C.

      Install an IDS between R1 and R2.

    • D.

      Install an IPS between R1 and R2.

    • E.

      Install a firewall between R1 and R2.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disable CDP on the R1 interface that connects to R2.
    Explanation
    Disabling CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) on the R1 interface that connects to R2 is the appropriate security measure to prevent the Site 2 R2 router from accessing information about the HQ R1 router model and IP address. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows devices to share information about themselves, including their model and IP address. By disabling CDP on the interface, the R1 router will not advertise this information to the R2 router, ensuring its security.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 28, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Rodney.butler
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