CCENT Practice Certification Exam # 2

50 Questions
CCENT Practice Certification Exam # 2

CCENT Practice Certification Exam # 2

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

    • B. 

      TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.

    • C. 

      UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

    • D. 

      The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

    • E. 

      The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network.

  • 2. 
    In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      When applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated

    • B. 

      When a faster delivery mechanism is needed

    • C. 

      When delivery overhead is not an issue

    • D. 

      When applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data

    • E. 

      When destination port numbers are dynamic

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      The Layer 2 header is stripped from the packet by each router.

    • B. 

      The destination Layer 2 address of the packet does not change.

    • C. 

      The source Layer 3 address of the packet changes at each router.

    • D. 

      The Layer 2 header changes at each router.

    • E. 

      The Layer 3 header is stripped from the packet by each router.

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D.

    • B. 

      Host D sends an ARP request to host A.

    • C. 

      Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the host D, which in turn responds.

    • D. 

      Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.

  • 5. 
    What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      Flow control

    • B. 

      Encryption of data

    • C. 

      Path determination

    • D. 

      Connection establishment

    • E. 

      Error recovery

  • 6. 
    Which layer of the OSI model handles the process of identifying and discarding damaged frames?
    • A. 

      Presentation

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Transport

    • D. 

      Network

    • E. 

      Data link

  • 7. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Considering the information that follows and the exhibit, where is the data flowing? Source IP address: 192.168.1.88 Destination IP address: 209.165.200.225Source MAC address: 00-11-12-7a-41-10Destination MAC address: 00-0d-cc-f4-ad-2cSource Port: 1464Destination Port: 23
    • A. 

      A – from laptop to access point

    • B. 

      B – from access point to attached switch

    • C. 

      C – from host to default gateway router

    • D. 

      D – from router to ISP

  • 8. 
    Refer to the exhibit. If Host 1 needs to request its IP address from the server, what protocol would be used to process that request?
    • A. 

      CSMA/CD

    • B. 

      CSMA/CA

    • C. 

      DHCP

    • D. 

      ICMP

    • E. 

      FTP

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Only application and Internet layers

    • B. 

      Only Internet and network access layers

    • C. 

      Only application, Internet, and network access layers

    • D. 

      Application, transport, Internet, and network access layers

    • E. 

      Only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

  • 10. 
    ABC company needs to connect its router to an ISP to access the Internet. What device is needed to connect the router to the ISP if the ISP supplies a T1 leased line for the connection?
    • A. 

      CSU/DSU

    • B. 

      Modem

    • C. 

      DSL router

    • D. 

      NT1 device

    • E. 

      ISDN modem

  • 11. 
    Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the exhibited network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      6

    • E. 

      7

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      Building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

    • B. 

      Using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table

    • C. 

      Forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

    • D. 

      Utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address

    • E. 

      Examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

  • 13. 
    A network administrator wants to configure a Cisco 2960 switch so that access to each switch port is limited to one MAC address. What will accomplish the administrator’s objective?
    • A. 

      Cisco Discovery Protocol

    • B. 

      Port security

    • C. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol

    • D. 

      Access lists

    • E. 

      Flow control

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Whenever you need to protect an unused switch port

    • B. 

      Whenever you want the port to only allow a single host device to connect

    • C. 

      Whenever you need the port to recognize the statically assigned MAC address in the MAC address table

    • D. 

      Whenever multiple devices share the same port

  • 15. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 has only the following commands added to a default Cisco 2960 configuration: enable secret cisco line vty 0 4 password Kn0ckkn-cK login interface vlan 1 ip address 10.0.1.8 255.255.255.0 no shutdown Assume that routing between networks is functioning properly and that Switch2 has been properly configured for remote access. What would the result be if the telnet 10.0.2.2 command is issued from Switch1 privileged mode?
    • A. 

      The following prompt would appear: User Access Verification Password:

    • B. 

      Switch2 would return a destination unreachable message to Switch1.

    • C. 

      Router1 would return a destination unreachable message to Switch1.

    • D. 

      The packet would be dropped.

  • 16. 
    When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
    • A. 

      Show SSH connected hosts

    • B. 

      Disconnect SSH connected hosts

    • C. 

      Create a public and private key pair

    • D. 

      Show active SSH ports on the switch

    • E. 

      Access the SSH database configuration

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

    • B. 

      A dedicated switch port is required for each node.

    • C. 

      Hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

    • D. 

      The host network card must detect the availability of the media before transmitting.

    • E. 

      The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

    • B. 

      A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.

    • C. 

      A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

    • D. 

      All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

    • E. 

      After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

  • 19. 
    Reference place holder.. Choose Answer C...
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

  • 20. 
    Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      198.133.219.17

    • B. 

      192.168.1.245

    • C. 

      10.15.250.5

    • D. 

      128.107.12.117

    • E. 

      64.104.78.227

  • 21. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Four hosts are being added to the 172.16.112.0 network. Which IP address is invalid as a host address for this network?
    • A. 

      172.16.113.55

    • B. 

      172.16.112.255

    • C. 

      172.16.127.255

    • D. 

      172.16.112.89

    • E. 

      172.16.120.96

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Ipconfig /all

    • B. 

      Traceroute

    • C. 

      Netstat

    • D. 

      Tracert

  • 23. 
    What type of address is 172.16.134.64 with the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
    • A. 

      This is a usable host address.

    • B. 

      This is a broadcast address.

    • C. 

      This is a network address.

    • D. 

      This is an Internet-routable address.

  • 24. 
    The router reads each bit to determine the class of an address. Which three series of binary numbers would the router identify as public Class C addresses? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      10101100.00100000.00010001.00010111

    • B. 

      11000110.10000101.11011011.01010111

    • C. 

      11010001.10100101.11001000.11101101

    • D. 

      11000000.10101000.00100000.01000000

    • E. 

      11000000.00011111.00000111.10111011

  • 25. 
    Given a host with the IP address 192.168.65.54 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, to which network does the host belong?
    • A. 

      192.168.65.16

    • B. 

      192.168.65.32

    • C. 

      192.168.65.48

    • D. 

      192.168.65.64

  • 26. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be assigned to the default gateway for host A?
    • A. 

      10.184.0.1

    • B. 

      10.192.0.0

    • C. 

      10.199.255.254

    • D. 

      10.200.255.254

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      10.16.10.16/28

    • B. 

      10.16.10.24/28

    • C. 

      10.16.10.30/28

    • D. 

      10.16.10.56/28

    • E. 

      10.16.10.72/28

  • 28. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is using classful subnetting. The serial link between routers A and B is configured with addresses from the 172.16.6.0/23 subnet. How many valid IP addresses are wasted on this subnetwork?
    • A. 

      252

    • B. 

      254

    • C. 

      256

    • D. 

      508

    • E. 

      510

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      64.100.2.255

    • B. 

      172.55.33.255

    • C. 

      64.104.129.0

    • D. 

      192.168.162.255

    • E. 

      10.165.55.255

  • 30. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which two interfaces could be used for a leased-line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E & F

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      A – straight-through; B – rollover; C – straight-through

    • B. 

      A – crossover; B – straight-through; C – straight-through

    • C. 

      A – straight-through; B – straight-through; C – crossover

    • D. 

      A – crossover; B – straight-through; C – crossover

    • E. 

      A – straight-through; B – crossover; C – straight-through

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      WIC-2T is a DB60 connector, WIC1T is a Smart Serial connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ45 connector.

    • B. 

      WIC-2T is an RJ45 connector, WIC1T is a DB60 connector, and WIC-1ENET is a Smart Serial connector.

    • C. 

      WIC-2T is a DB60 connector, WIC1T is a Smart Serial connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ45 connector.

    • D. 

      WIC-2T is a Token Ring connector, WIC1T is a DB25 connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ11 connector.

    • E. 

      WIC-2T is a Smart Serial connector, WIC1T is a DB60 connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ45 connector.

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      0008.a3b6.ce05

    • B. 

      0009.1281.18a8

    • C. 

      000a.8a47.e612

    • D. 

      172.16.14.129

    • E. 

      172.16.14.243

  • 34. 
    Why is it important for the router to maintain an accurate routing table?
    • A. 

      To provide Layer 2 addressing information for the next hop

    • B. 

      To prevent broadcasts from occurring on the LAN

    • C. 

      To determine the best path to the destination network

    • D. 

      To identify all of the routers in a network

  • 35. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited router output, what two conclusions can be made? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      The enable password has been encrypted.

    • B. 

      The service password-encryption command has not been added to the configuration.

    • C. 

      The passwords that are shown restrict access to the router console.

    • D. 

      The password that will gain access to privileged mode is sys#op.

    • E. 

      The passwords that are shown will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode on this router.

  • 36. 
    What would be a common reason to upgrade from RIPv1 to RIPv2?
    • A. 

      RIPv2 takes less router memory than RIPv1 takes.

    • B. 

      RIPv2 supports a larger network (more routers) than RIPv1 supports.

    • C. 

      RIPv2 supports discontiguous networks and RIPv1 does not.

    • D. 

      RIPv2 supports classless routing. RIPv1 is classful.

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      The protocol that communicated this information operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

    • B. 

      The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.

    • C. 

      The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.

    • D. 

      SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.

    • E. 

      SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols.

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.

    • B. 

      The address 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.

    • C. 

      The address 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.

    • D. 

      This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.

    • E. 

      This command is used to define a static route.

  • 39. 
    Which group of commands allows a router to be administered remotely?
    • A. 

      Line con 0 password class login

    • B. 

      Interface fa0/1 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 access-class 1 in

    • C. 

      Line vty 0 4 password cisco login

    • D. 

      Interface vlan 1 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown

  • 40. 
    Which protocol is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol?
    • A. 

      RIP v1

    • B. 

      RIP v2

    • C. 

      EIGRP

    • D. 

      OSPF

  • 41. 
    Why is the ip host command used to create host tables on Cisco routers?
    • A. 

      To create static routes to specific hosts

    • B. 

      To allow communication with other IP devices by name

    • C. 

      To provide a meaningful name for the local router

    • D. 

      To identify only the directly attached networks and associated hosts

    • E. 

      To define the host devices with which the router is allowed to connect

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      The enable secret command is missing from R2.

    • B. 

      The enable password command is missing from R1.

    • C. 

      The login command is missing from the line configuration mode on R2.

    • D. 

      The password command is missing from the line configuration mode on R2.

    • E. 

      The no shutdown command is missing from the Serial 0/0 interface mode on R1.

  • 43. 
    Which two items can be modified by the system administrator to determine from where the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      System ROM

    • B. 

      Startup configuration file

    • C. 

      System image file

    • D. 

      Configuration register value

    • E. 

      Bootloader image file

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      A console cable must be used from the console port of the router to the NIC of the computer.

    • B. 

      A rollover cable must be used from the console port of the router to the serial port of the computer.

    • C. 

      A default gateway must be configured on the computer.

    • D. 

      The IP addresses assigned to the router and computer must be on the same subnetwork.

    • E. 

      There must be a terminal emulator application on the computer.

  • 45. 
    For Reference only... Choose C....
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      The access point will send the host a rejection message.

    • B. 

      The host will be prompted for a userid and password.

    • C. 

      The access point will send the host a challenge message.

    • D. 

      The host will only be allowed access to the Internet.

    • E. 

      The host will not be allowed access to the wireless network.

  • 47. 
    A wireless network has one access point installed. Users at some locations in the office complain that their wireless access is slow, while others say that the wireless network performance is fine. What should be done to remedy this situation?
    • A. 

      Replace the access point.

    • B. 

      Install another access point at another location within the office.

    • C. 

      Upgrade the wireless NICs in the hosts that are slow.

    • D. 

      Limit the number of wireless hosts that attach to the access point at one time.

    • E. 

      Convert back to a wired network.

  • 48. 
    Which technology is primarily used for security in a wireless network environment?
    • A. 

      SSH

    • B. 

      WPA

    • C. 

      SSID

    • D. 

      CSMA/CA

    • E. 

      CSMA/CD

  • 49. 
    For Reference only... Choose D....
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

  • 50. 
    Which technology is primarily used in a WAN?
    • A. 

      ARP

    • B. 

      CDP

    • C. 

      PPP

    • D. 

      WEP

    • E. 

      CSMA/CD