CCENT Practice Certification Exam 2

48 Questions | Total Attempts: 445

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CCENT Practice Certification Exam 2

A CCENT certification is one thing that every IT personnel know is able to help them show their competency to a prospective employer. Are you studying to take the certification exam and are not sure about your readiness? Take up the practice questions below and get a view of what to expect.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

    • B. 

      TCP is the preferred protocol when a function requires lower network overhead.

    • C. 

      UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

    • D. 

      The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

    • E. 

      The TCP source port number identifies the sending host on the network

    • F. 

      The TCP process running on the PC randomly selects the destination port when establishing a session with the server.

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      When applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated

    • B. 

      When a faster delivery mechanism is needed

    • C. 

      When delivery overhead is not an issue

    • D. 

      When applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data

    • E. 

      When destination port numbers are dynamic

  • 3. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A sends an IP packet to workstation B. Which two statements describe the encapsulation of the packet as it passes through the network?
    • A. 

      The Layer 2 header is stripped from the packet by each router.

    • B. 

      The destination Layer 2 address of the packet does not change

    • C. 

      The source Layer 3 address of the packet changes at each router.

    • D. 

      The Layer 2 header changes at each router

    • E. 

      The Layer 3 header is stripped from the packet by each router

  • 4. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?
    • A. 

      Host A sends an ARP request to the MAC address of host D

    • B. 

      Host D sends an ARP request to host A.

    • C. 

      Host A sends out the packet to the switch. The switch sends the packet only to the host D, which in turn responds

    • D. 

      Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.

  • 5. 
    What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      Flow control

    • B. 

      Encryption of data

    • C. 

      Path determination

    • D. 

      Connection establishment

    • E. 

      Error recovery

    • F. 

      Bit transmission

    • G. 

      Data representation

  • 6. 
    Which layer of the OSI model handles the process of identifying and discarding damaged frames?
    • A. 

      Presentation

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Transport

    • D. 

      Network

    • E. 

      Data link

    • F. 

      Physical

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      A – from laptop to access point

    • B. 

      B – from access point to attached switch

    • C. 

      C – from host to default gateway router

    • D. 

      D – from router to ISP

  • 8. 
    Refer to the exhibit. If Host 1 needs to request its IP address from the server, what protocol would be used to process that request?
    • A. 

      CSMA/CD

    • B. 

      CSMA/CA

    • C. 

      DHCP

    • D. 

      ICMP

    • E. 

      NAT

    • F. 

      FTP

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Only application and Internet layers

    • B. 

      Only Internet and network access layers

    • C. 

      Only application, Internet, and network access layers

    • D. 

      Application, transport, Internet, and network access layers

    • E. 

      Only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

    • F. 

      Application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

  • 10. 
    ABC company needs to connect its router to an ISP to access the Internet. What device is needed to connect the router to the ISP if the ISP supplies a T1 leased line for the connection?
    • A. 

      CSU/DSU

    • B. 

      Modem

    • C. 

      DSL router

    • D. 

      NT1 device

    • E. 

      ISDN modem

  • 11. 
    Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the exhibited network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      6

    • E. 

      7

  • 12. 
    What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header

    • B. 

      Using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table

    • C. 

      Forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway

    • D. 

      Utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address

    • E. 

      Examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table

  • 13. 
    A network administrator wants to configure a Cisco 2960 switch so that access to each switch port is limited to one MAC address. What will accomplish the administrator’s objective?
    • A. 

      Cisco Discovery Protocol

    • B. 

      Port security

    • C. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol

    • D. 

      Access lists

    • E. 

      Flow control

  • 14. 
    When would you want to use the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?
    • A. 

      Whenever you need to protect an unused switch port

    • B. 

      Whenever you want the port to only allow a single host device to connect

    • C. 

      Whenever you need the port to recognize the statically assigned MAC address in the MAC address table

    • D. 

      Whenever multiple devices share the same port

  • 15. 
    Refer to the exhibit. SW_1 and SW_2 have been configured with VLAN10 and VLAN20. The two switches are connected by a trunking link. During testing, workstations on the same VLAN can ping each other, but workstations on the opposite VLAN cannot ping each other. What needs to be done to fix the problem?
    • A. 

      Configure VTP on both switches so they can share VLAN information.

    • B. 

      Assign a management VLAN on each switch with IP addresses in the same subnet.

    • C. 

      Configure an access port on each switch.

    • D. 

      Add a Layer 3 device to the network.

  • 16. 
    When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
    • A. 

      Show SSH connected hosts

    • B. 

      Disconnect SSH connected hosts

    • C. 

      Create a public and private key pair

    • D. 

      Show active SSH ports on the switch

    • E. 

      Access the SSH database configuration

  • 17. 
    Which three statements are true about full-duplex operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

    • B. 

      A dedicated switch port is required for each node.

    • C. 

      Hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

    • D. 

      The host network card must detect the availability of the media before transmitting.

    • E. 

      The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.

  • 18. 
    What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

    • B. 

      A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.

    • C. 

      A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

    • D. 

      The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision

    • E. 

      All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

    • F. 

      After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

  • 19. 
    Zero
    • A. 

      Q

    • B. 

      W

    • C. 

      Ffg

  • 20. 
    Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      198.133.219.17

    • B. 

      192.168.1.245

    • C. 

      10.15.250.5

    • D. 

      128.107.12.117

    • E. 

      192.15.301.240

    • F. 

      64.104.78.227

  • 21. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Four hosts are being added to the 172.16.112.0 network. Which IP address is invalid as a host address for this network?
    • A. 

      172.16.113.55

    • B. 

      172.16.112.255

    • C. 

      172.16.127.255

    • D. 

      172.16.112.89

    • E. 

      172.16.120.96

  • 22. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Using PAT, RouterA is configured to translate all private inside addresses to a single public address. The network administrator wants to determine which port number is being used in the translation of the ComputerA inside private IP address. Which command could be used if the administrator sits at ComputerA but is not allowed remote access to RouterA?
    • A. 

      Ipconfig /all

    • B. 

      Traceroute

    • C. 

      Netstat

    • D. 

      Tracert

  • 23. 
    What type of address is 172.16.134.64 with the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
    • A. 

      This is a usable host address.

    • B. 

      This is a broadcast address.

    • C. 

      This is a network address.

    • D. 

      This is an Internet-routable address.

  • 24. 
    The router reads each bit to determine the class of an address. Which three series of binary numbers would the router identify as public Class C addresses? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      10101100.00100000.00010001.00010111

    • B. 

      11000110.10000101.11011011.01010111

    • C. 

      11010001.10100101.11001000.11101101

    • D. 

      11000000.10101000.00100000.01000000

    • E. 

      11000000.00011111.00000111.10111011

  • 25. 
    Given a host with the IP address 192.168.65.54 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, to which network does the host belong?
    • A. 

      192.168.65.16

    • B. 

      192.168.65.32

    • C. 

      192.168.65.48

    • D. 

      192.168.65.64

  • 26. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be assigned to the default gateway for host A?
    • A. 

      10.184.0.1

    • B. 

      10.192.0.0

    • C. 

      10.199.255.254

    • D. 

      10.200.255.254

  • 27. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What would be a valid network address for the new subnet on RTA?
    • A. 

      10.16.10.16/28

    • B. 

      10.16.10.24/28

    • C. 

      10.16.10.30/28

    • D. 

      10.16.10.56/28

    • E. 

      10.16.10.72/28

  • 28. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network shown is using classful subnetting. The serial link between routers A and B is configured with addresses from the 172.16.6.0/23 subnet. How many valid IP addresses are wasted on this subnetwork?
    • A. 

      252

    • B. 

      254

    • C. 

      256

    • D. 

      508

    • E. 

      510

    • F. 

      512

  • 29. 
    What are three valid host addresses given a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      64.100.2.255

    • B. 

      172.55.33.255

    • C. 

      64.104.129.0

    • D. 

      192.168.162.255

    • E. 

      10.165.55.255

    • F. 

      128.107.62.0

  • 30. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which two interfaces could be used for a leased-line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

    • F. 

      F

  • 31. 
    What type of cable is used for connectivity between a model 2620 router and a model 2950 switch (point A), a model 2950 switch and a model 1900 switch (point B), and a model 2950 switch and a host (point C)?
    • A. 

      A – straight-through; B – rollover; C – straight-through

    • B. 

      A – crossover; B – straight-through; C – straight-through

    • C. 

      A – straight-through; B – straight-through; C – crossover

    • D. 

      A – crossover; B – straight-through; C – crossover

    • E. 

      A – straight-through; B – crossover; C – straight-through

    • F. 

      A – straight-through; B – crossover; C – crossover

  • 32. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A small business has asked for advice about what type of cable will be needed to connect their modular routers. What type of connector is used by each device that is shown?
    • A. 

      WIC-2T is a DB60 connector, WIC1T is a Smart Serial connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ45 connector.

    • B. 

      WIC-2T is an RJ45 connector, WIC1T is a DB60 connector, and WIC-1ENET is a Smart Serial connector.

    • C. 

      WIC-2T is a DB60 connector, WIC1T is a Smart Serial connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ45 connector.

    • D. 

      WIC-2T is a Token Ring connector, WIC1T is a DB25 connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ11 connector.

    • E. 

      WIC-2T is a Smart Serial connector, WIC1T is a DB60 connector, and WIC-1ENET is an RJ45 connector.

  • 33. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The router that is named myhome has received a frame from the host 192.168.254.7. The contents of this frame are being sent to host 172.16.14.243. What is the Layer 2 destination address of the frame as it leaves the myhome router?
    • A. 

      0008.a3b6.ce05

    • B. 

      0009.1281.18a8

    • C. 

      000a.8a47.e612

    • D. 

      172.16.14.129

    • E. 

      172.16.14.243

    • F. 

      192.168.254.7

  • 34. 
    Why is it important for the router to maintain an accurate routing table?
    • A. 

      To provide Layer 2 addressing information for the next hop

    • B. 

      To prevent broadcasts from occurring on the LAN

    • C. 

      To determine the best path to the destination network

    • D. 

      To identify all of the routers in a network

  • 35. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited router output, what two conclusions can be made? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      The enable password has been encrypted.

    • B. 

      The service password-encryption command has not been added to the configuration.

    • C. 

      The passwords that are shown restrict access to the router console.

    • D. 

      The password that will gain access to privileged mode is sys#op.

    • E. 

      The passwords that are shown will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode on this router.

  • 36. 
    What would be a common reason to upgrade from RIPv1 to RIPv2?
    • A. 

      RIPv2 takes less router memory than RIPv1 takes.

    • B. 

      RIPv2 supports a larger network (more routers) than RIPv1 supports.

    • C. 

      RIPv2 supports discontiguous networks and RIPv1 does not.

    • D. 

      RIPv2 supports classless routing. RIPv1 is classful

  • 37. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the output shown? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      The protocol that communicated this information operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

    • B. 

      The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.

    • C. 

      The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.

    • D. 

      SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.

    • E. 

      SanJose1 has two fully operational, CDP-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.

    • F. 

      SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols.

  • 38. 
    Which two statements describe the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      A packet that is destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.

    • B. 

      The address 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.

    • C. 

      The address 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.

    • D. 

      This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.

    • E. 

      This command is used to define a static route.

  • 39. 
    Which group of commands allows a router to be administered remotely?
    • A. 

      Line con 0 - Password Class - login

    • B. 

      Int fa0/1 - ip add 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 - access-class1 in

    • C. 

      Line vty 0 4 - password cisco - login

    • D. 

      Int vlan 1 - ip add 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 - No sh

  • 40. 
    Which protocol is described as an enhanced distance vector routing protocol?
    • A. 

      RIP V1

    • B. 

      RIP V2

    • C. 

      EIGRP

    • D. 

      OSPF

  • 41. 
    Why is the ip host command used to create host tables on Cisco routers?
    • A. 

      To create static routes to specific hosts

    • B. 

      To allow communication with other IP devices by name

    • C. 

      To provide a meaningful name for the local router

    • D. 

      To identify only the directly attached networks and associated hosts

    • E. 

      To define the host devices with which the router is allowed to connect

  • 42. 
    Refer to the exhibit. From router R1, the command telnet 192.168.11.2 is entered from privileged mode and this message displays: 00:06:45: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console 192.168.11.2 Trying 192.168.11.2 . . . Open Password required, but none set
    • A. 

      The enable secret command is missing from R2.

    • B. 

      The enable password command is missing from R1.

    • C. 

      The login command is missing from the line configuration mode on R2.

    • D. 

      The password command is missing from the line configuration mode on R2.

    • E. 

      The no shutdown command is missing from the Serial 0/0 interface mode on R1.

    • F. 

      The no shutdown command is missing from the Serial 0/0 interface mode on R1.

  • 43. 
    Which two items can be modified by the system administrator to determine from where the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      System ROM

    • B. 

      Startup configuration file

    • C. 

      System image file

    • D. 

      Configuration register value

    • E. 

      Bootloader image file

  • 44. 
    What are two requirements for establishing a console communication session between a computer and a router? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      A console cable must be used from the console port of the router to the NIC of the computer.

    • B. 

      A rollover cable must be used from the console port of the router to the serial port of the computer.

    • C. 

      A default gateway must be configured on the computer.

    • D. 

      The IP addresses assigned to the router and computer must be on the same subnetwork.

    • E. 

      There must be a terminal emulator application on the computer.

  • 45. 
    What is the outcome when a wireless host has a different SSID configured than the access point to which it is attempting to connect?
    • A. 

      The access point will send the host a rejection message.

    • B. 

      The host will be prompted for a userid and password.

    • C. 

      The access point will send the host a challenge message.

    • D. 

      The host will only be allowed access to the Internet.

    • E. 

      The access point will send the host a re-authentication request message.

    • F. 

      The host will not be allowed access to the wireless network.

  • 46. 
    A wireless network has one access point installed. Users at some locations in the office complain that their wireless access is slow, while others say that the wireless network performance is fine. What should be done to remedy this situation?
    • A. 

      Replace the access point.

    • B. 

      Install another access point at another location within the office.

    • C. 

      Upgrade the wireless NICs in the hosts that are slow.

    • D. 

      Limit the number of wireless hosts that attach to the access point at one time.

    • E. 

      Convert back to a wired network.

  • 47. 
    Which technology is primarily used for security in a wireless network environment?
    • A. 

      SSH

    • B. 

      WPA

    • C. 

      SSID

    • D. 

      CSMA/CA

    • E. 

      CSMA/CD

  • 48. 
    Which technology is primarily used in a WAN?
    • A. 

      ARP

    • B. 

      CDP

    • C. 

      PPP

    • D. 

      WEP

    • E. 

      CSMA/CD