Donors And Accepter Quiz Over Blood Bank
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
- A.
12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
- B.
12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
- C.
13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)
- D.
15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)
Correct Answer
B. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)Explanation
The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L). This means that any hemoglobin concentration below 12.5 g/dL would be considered below the minimum acceptable level for a male blood donor.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Residence in an endemic malaria region
- C.
History of jaundice of uncertain cause
- D.
History of therapeutic rabies vaccine
Correct Answer
C. History of jaundice of uncertain causeExplanation
A history of jaundice of uncertain cause can lead to permanent deferral of blood donation because it indicates a potential underlying liver disease or infection. Jaundice is a condition characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes, which is often a sign of liver dysfunction. If the cause of jaundice is uncertain, it poses a risk of transmitting infectious agents through donated blood, making it necessary to defer the donor permanently to ensure the safety of the blood supply.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
- A.
32 year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously
- B.
19 year old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously
- C.
22 year old college student who has a temp of 99.2 degrees F and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating
- D.
45 year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics
Correct Answer
C. 22 year old college student who has a temp of 99.2 degrees F and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donatingExplanation
The 22-year-old college student with a temperature of 99.2 degrees F and who states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating, would be accepted for donation. This is because his temperature is within the normal range and he does not exhibit any symptoms of illness. Although he may be nervous, it does not necessarily indicate any medical condition that would disqualify him from donating.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
- A.
A tattoo 5 months previously
- B.
Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
- C.
2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously
- D.
Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
Correct Answer
D. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previouslyExplanation
A confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor because HBsAg is a marker for hepatitis B infection. Once a person tests positive for HBsAg, it indicates that they have an active hepatitis B infection. Since this positive test occurred 10 years previously, it indicates a long-standing infection, which is a permanent disqualification for blood donation due to the risk of transmitting the infection to recipients.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?
- A.
Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously
- B.
Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously
- C.
Resides with a known hepatitis patient
- D.
Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously
Correct Answer
B. Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously -
- 6.
Below are the results of the history obtained from a potential female blood donor:
- age 16
- temp 99.0 F
- Hct 36%
- History of tetanus toxoid shot 1 week prior
- A.
None
- B.
1
- C.
2
- D.
3
Correct Answer
B. 1Explanation
Hct must be greater than 38%Rate this question:
- 7.
For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to donation and must be at least:
- A.
150x10^3/uL
- B.
200x10^3/uL
- C.
250x10^3/uL
- D.
300x10^3/uL
Correct Answer
A. 150x10^3/uLExplanation
For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to donation and must be at least 150x10^3/uL. This means that the donor's platelet count needs to be at least 150,000 platelets per microliter of blood. This requirement ensures that the donor has a sufficient number of platelets to donate without risking their own health or compromising the quality of the donated platelets.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing
- A.
Hypochlorite
- B.
Isopropyl alcohol
- C.
10% acetone
- D.
PVP iodine complex
Correct Answer
D. PVP iodine complexExplanation
The intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing PVP iodine complex. This solution is commonly used as an antiseptic for skin preparation before medical procedures, including blood donation. PVP iodine complex has broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties, effectively killing bacteria, viruses, and fungi. It helps reduce the risk of infection at the venipuncture site, ensuring the safety of both the donor and the recipient of the donated blood.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
All donor blood testing must include:
- A.
Complete Rh phenotyping
- B.
Anti-CMV testing
- C.
Direct antiglobulin test
- D.
Serological test for syphilis
Correct Answer
D. Serological test for syphilisExplanation
The given correct answer is "serological test for syphilis." This is because all donor blood testing must include a serological test for syphilis to ensure that the donated blood does not contain the bacteria that causes syphilis. This test is important to prevent the transmission of syphilis through blood transfusions. The other options mentioned, such as complete Rh phenotyping, anti-CMV testing, and direct antiglobulin test, may also be important in donor blood testing, but the serological test for syphilis is specifically required.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
During the preparation of platelet concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be:
- A.
Cooled towards 6 degrees C
- B.
Cooled toward 20 - 24 degrees C
- C.
Warmed to 37 degrees C
- D.
Heated to 57 degrees C
Correct Answer
B. Cooled toward 20 - 24 degrees CExplanation
During the preparation of platelet concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be cooled toward 20 - 24 degrees C. This temperature range is ideal for preserving the viability and function of platelets while minimizing the risk of bacterial growth. Cooling the blood too much (6 degrees C) can lead to platelet activation and aggregation, while warming it to body temperature (37 degrees C) can promote bacterial growth and reduce the shelf life of the platelet concentrate. Heating the blood to 57 degrees C is not necessary and can denature proteins and damage the platelets.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
The most common cause of post transfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:
- A.
Anti-HCV
- B.
HBsAg
- C.
Anti-HAV IgM
- D.
Anti-HBe
Correct Answer
B. HBsAgExplanation
Testing for HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) in donors can detect the most common cause of post transfusion hepatitis. HBsAg is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, and its presence indicates an active infection. By testing for HBsAg, potential donors with hepatitis B can be identified, and their blood can be excluded from the transfusion process, reducing the risk of transmitting hepatitis B to the recipient. Other options, such as anti-HCV (antibodies against hepatitis C), anti-HAV IgM (antibodies against hepatitis A), and anti-HBe (antibodies against hepatitis B e antigen) are not specific to hepatitis B and may not accurately detect the cause of post transfusion hepatitis.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
The western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
- A.
CMV antibody
- B.
Anti-HIV-1
- C.
HBsAg
- D.
Serum protein abnormalities
Correct Answer
B. Anti-HIV-1Explanation
The western blot is a widely used confirmatory test for the presence of anti-HIV-1 antibodies. It is used to detect specific proteins in a sample, in this case, the presence of antibodies against HIV-1. This test is important in diagnosing HIV infection as it can accurately identify the presence of these antibodies, confirming the presence of the virus in the individual's bloodstream. The other options listed, CMV antibody, HBsAg, and serum protein abnormalities, are not typically tested using the western blot technique for confirmation.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:
- A.
Anti-HBc
- B.
Anti-HIV 1,2
- C.
HBsAg
- D.
ALT
Correct Answer
B. Anti-HIV 1,2Explanation
The correct answer is anti-HIV 1,2. This test is used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus. It specifically looks for the presence of antibodies against HIV types 1 and 2 in the donor's blood. This test is important in ensuring the safety of blood transfusions and organ donations, as it helps identify individuals who may be carrying the virus and could transmit it to recipients. The presence of anti-HIV antibodies indicates a potential HIV infection in the donor.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
- A.
Latex agglutination
- B.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
- C.
Thin-layer-chromotography (TLC)
- D.
Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Correct Answer
D. Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)Explanation
The correct answer is enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA). ELISA is a commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection. It involves the use of an enzyme-linked antibody to detect the presence of HIV-1 antibodies in a patient's blood sample. This technique is highly sensitive and specific, making it an effective tool for diagnosing HIV-1 infection. It is also relatively easy to perform and can be adapted for high-throughput testing, making it suitable for large-scale screening programs.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Rejuvenation of a unit of blood cells is a method used to:
- A.
Remove antibody attached to RBC's
- B.
Inactivate viruses and bacteria
- C.
Restores 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
- D.
Filter blood clots and other debris
Correct Answer
C. Restores 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levelsExplanation
Rejuvenation of a unit of blood cells is a method used to restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels. 2,3-DPG is a molecule that helps in the release of oxygen from hemoglobin, while ATP is the main source of energy for cells. Restoring these molecules to normal levels ensures that the blood cells are functioning properly and can effectively carry oxygen to the tissues.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8am. The expiration tie for each aliquot is now:
- A.
4pm on the same day
- B.
8pm on the same day
- C.
8am the next morning
- D.
The original date of the unsplit unit
Correct Answer
D. The original date of the unsplit unitExplanation
The expiration time for each aliquot is the same as the original date of the unsplit unit. This means that the aliquots have the same expiration date as the unsplit unit, indicating that the splitting process does not affect the expiration time. Therefore, the original date of the unsplit unit is the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
A unit of red blood cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using sterile pediatric quad set and sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
- A.
6 hours
- B.
12 hours
- C.
5 days
- D.
35 days
Correct Answer
D. 35 daysExplanation
The unit of red blood cells has an expiration date of 35 days. When it is split into 5 small aliquots using sterile pediatric quad set and sterile connecting device, each aliquot will also have the same expiration date of 35 days. This means that each aliquot will remain viable and usable for the same duration as the original unit of red blood cells.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
- A.
Once a day
- B.
Twice a day
- C.
Every 4 hours
- D.
Every hour
Correct Answer
C. Every 4 hoursExplanation
When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, it is important to monitor the ambient air temperature regularly. This is because platelets are sensitive to temperature changes and maintaining a stable temperature is crucial for their storage and effectiveness. Checking the temperature every 4 hours allows for timely detection of any fluctuations that may occur and enables appropriate actions to be taken to ensure the platelets are stored under optimal conditions.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Which of the following is the correct storage temp for the component listed?
- A.
Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4 degrees C
- B.
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) -20 degrees C
- C.
Red Blood Cells, -40 degrees C
- D.
Platelets, 37 degrees C
Correct Answer
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) -20 degrees CExplanation
Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) should be stored at -20 degrees Celsius. FFP is a blood product that is prepared by freezing plasma within 8 hours of collection. It is stored at a temperature of -20 degrees Celsius to maintain its stability and preserve the clotting factors present in the plasma. This temperature ensures that the FFP remains viable and can be safely used for transfusion purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9am. At 9:10am the unit is returned to the blood bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action is to:
- A.
Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
- B.
Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
- C.
Store the unit at room temperature
- D.
Record the return and place the unit back into inventory
Correct Answer
D. Record the return and place the unit back into inventoryExplanation
The best course of action in this situation is to record the return and place the unit back into inventory. Since the unit has not been entered and has not been refrigerated, it is still considered safe to use. However, it is important to document the return for inventory purposes. Culturing the unit for bacterial contamination or discarding it if not used within 24 hours is not necessary in this case as there is no indication of contamination or time limit for usage. Storing the unit at room temperature is also not required as it has not been refrigerated.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells, frozen is:
- A.
-80 degrees C
- B.
-20 degrees C
- C.
-12 degrees C
- D.
4 degrees C
Correct Answer
A. -80 degrees CExplanation
Red blood cells are typically stored at low temperatures to maintain their viability and prevent degradation. Freezing at -80 degrees Celsius is the optimum storage temperature for red blood cells as it slows down any metabolic activity, preserving their integrity and functionality for a longer period. Lower temperatures help to minimize the risk of bacterial growth and maintain the quality of the cells. Storage at -20 degrees Celsius, -12 degrees Celsius, or 4 degrees Celsius would not provide the same level of preservation and may lead to a shorter shelf life or reduced effectiveness of the red blood cells.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
The optimum storage temp for red blood cells is:
- A.
-80 degrees C
- B.
-20 degrees C
- C.
-12 degrees C
- D.
4 degrees C
Correct Answer
D. 4 degrees CExplanation
The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells is 4 degrees Celsius. This temperature is ideal because it slows down the metabolic activity of the cells, allowing them to survive longer outside of the body. It also helps to prevent the growth of bacteria or other harmful organisms that can lead to the degradation of the cells. This temperature is commonly used in blood banks and medical facilities to ensure the preservation and viability of red blood cells for transfusion purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
If the seal is entered on a unit of red blood cells stored at 1 - 6 degrees C, what is the maximum allowable storage period in hours?
- A.
6
- B.
24
- C.
48
- D.
72
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
The maximum allowable storage period for red blood cells stored at 1-6 degrees Celsius is 24 hours. This is because red blood cells have a limited shelf life and need to be used within a certain time frame to ensure their effectiveness and safety for transfusion. Storing them for longer periods can lead to a decrease in their quality and viability, making them unsuitable for use. Therefore, it is crucial to adhere to the recommended storage period to maintain the integrity of the red blood cells.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
- A.
-20 degrees C
- B.
-12 degrees C
- C.
4 degrees C
- D.
22 degrees C
Correct Answer
A. -20 degrees CExplanation
Cryoprecipitated AHF is a blood product derived from plasma that contains high levels of clotting factors. It is used to treat bleeding disorders. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is -20 degrees Celsius. This temperature is necessary to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the clotting factors in the product. Storing cryoprecipitated AHF at lower temperatures helps to preserve its potency and extend its shelf life.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Cryoprecipitates AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
- A.
4 hours
- B.
8 hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
Correct Answer
A. 4 hoursExplanation
Cryoprecipitates AHF must be transfused within 4 hours following thawing and pooling. This is because cryoprecipitates are derived from fresh frozen plasma and contain important clotting factors that are necessary for blood clotting. These clotting factors are sensitive to temperature and can degrade over time, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness. Therefore, it is crucial to transfuse cryoprecipitates AHF within a short time frame to ensure the patient receives the maximum benefit from the clotting factors.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24 degrees C in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:
- A.
24 hours
- B.
48 hours
- C.
3 days
- D.
5 days
Correct Answer
D. 5 daysExplanation
Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24 degrees C in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to 5 days. This is because platelets have a relatively short shelf life compared to other blood components. They are sensitive to temperature and agitation, and storing them in the recommended conditions helps to maintain their viability and function for a longer period. Therefore, they can be safely used for up to 5 days before their effectiveness and quality start to decline.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
The optimum storage temp for platelets is:
- A.
-20 degrees C
- B.
-12 degrees C
- C.
4 degrees C
- D.
22 degrees C
Correct Answer
D. 22 degrees CExplanation
Platelets are a component of blood that helps in clotting. The optimum storage temperature for platelets is 22 degrees Celsius. This temperature allows for the preservation of the platelets' function and viability. At lower temperatures, such as -20 degrees Celsius or -12 degrees Celsius, the platelets may become damaged or lose their effectiveness. On the other hand, at higher temperatures, such as 4 degrees Celsius, the platelets may become activated and start to deteriorate. Therefore, maintaining a storage temperature of 22 degrees Celsius ensures the best preservation of platelets.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?
- A.
24 hours
- B.
26 hours
- C.
48 hours
- D.
72 hours
Correct Answer
A. 24 hoursExplanation
According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within 24 hours following thawing. This is because after thawing, the plasma is at risk of bacterial growth and degradation of important coagulation factors. Infusing it within 24 hours ensures that the plasma is still safe and effective for transfusion.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Cryoprecipitates AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18 degrees C or below, has a shelf life of:
- A.
42 days
- B.
6 months
- C.
12 months
- D.
36 months
Correct Answer
C. 12 monthsExplanation
Cryoprecipitates AHF, if stored at -18 degrees C or below, can be maintained for up to 12 months. This means that the product remains stable and usable for a year when kept at the recommended temperature. It is important to store cryoprecipitates AHF properly to ensure its effectiveness and safety when used for medical purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Once thawed, fresh frozen plasma must be transfused within:
- A.
4 hours
- B.
8 hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
Correct Answer
D. 24 hoursExplanation
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is a blood product that is frozen shortly after collection to preserve its clotting factors. Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within a certain time frame to ensure its effectiveness and safety. The correct answer is 24 hours because FFP has a limited shelf life once thawed due to the risk of bacterial growth. Transfusing FFP within this time frame ensures that the patient receives a product that is still viable and reduces the risk of complications.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:
- A.
Plasma potassium concentration
- B.
Plasma pH
- C.
Prothrombin time
- D.
Activated partial thromplastin time
Correct Answer
B. Plasma pHExplanation
Platelet viability refers to the ability of platelets to function properly after being stored. The pH level of the plasma plays a crucial role in maintaining the viability of platelets. Platelets are sensitive to changes in pH, and an imbalance can lead to their activation and subsequent degradation. Therefore, a stable plasma pH is essential for preserving platelet viability during storage.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:
- A.
1-6 degrees C
- B.
22 degrees C
- C.
37 degrees C
- D.
56 degrees C
Correct Answer
A. 1-6 degrees CExplanation
Plasma, in its liquid state, needs to be stored at a temperature between 1-6 degrees Celsius. This temperature range is necessary to maintain the stability and integrity of the plasma components, including proteins, enzymes, and other molecules. Storing plasma at higher temperatures can lead to denaturation or degradation of these components, rendering the plasma ineffective for transfusion or other medical purposes. Therefore, it is crucial to store plasma within the recommended temperature range to ensure its quality and efficacy.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
During storage, the concentration of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:
- A.
Platelets
- B.
Fresh frozen plasma
- C.
Red blood cells
- D.
Cryoprecipitated AHF
Correct Answer
C. Red blood cellsExplanation
During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in red blood cells. This is because 2,3-DPG is metabolized over time, leading to a decrease in its concentration. Red blood cells have a limited lifespan and undergo changes during storage, including a decrease in 2,3-DPG levels. This decrease in 2,3-DPG can affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, as 2,3-DPG helps facilitate the release of oxygen from hemoglobin. Therefore, it is important to consider the age and storage duration of red blood cells when transfusing them to patients.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Cryoprecipitated AHF:
- A.
Is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies
- B.
Should be stored at 4 degrees C prior to administration
- C.
Will not transmit hepatitis B virus
- D.
Is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B
Correct Answer
A. Is indicated for fibrinogen deficienciesExplanation
Cryoprecipitated AHF is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies because it contains concentrated fibrinogen, which is necessary for blood clotting. It is used to treat patients with low levels of fibrinogen, such as those with congenital fibrinogen deficiencies or acquired fibrinogen deficiencies due to liver disease or other conditions. It should be stored at 4 degrees Celsius prior to administration to maintain its stability and effectiveness. However, the answer does not provide any information about the transmission of hepatitis B virus or the treatment of hemophilia B.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated?
- A.
Autologous unit collected prior to surgery
- B.
Random stock unit going to a patient with DIC
- C.
A directed donation given by a mother for her son
- D.
A directed donation given by an unrelated family friend
Correct Answer
C. A directed donation given by a mother for her sonExplanation
A directed donation given by a mother for her son should be irradiated because it is a directed donation, meaning it is specifically intended for a particular recipient. In this case, the mother is donating platelets for her son. Irradiation is necessary in this situation to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD), which can occur when the donor's immune cells attack the recipient's tissues. By irradiating the platelets, the donor's immune cells are inactivated, reducing the risk of TA-GVHD.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:
- A.
Granulocytes
- B.
Lymphocytes
- C.
Red cells
- D.
Platelets
Correct Answer
B. LymphocytesExplanation
Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. By irradiating the unit of red blood cells, it helps to prevent the lymphocytes from dividing and replicating, which can be beneficial in certain medical conditions such as preventing graft-versus-host disease in transfusion recipients or in patients with weakened immune systems.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37 degree water baths because they prevent:
- A.
The FFP bag from cracking with it comes in contact with the warm water
- B.
Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane
- C.
The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
- D.
The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath
Correct Answer
C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with waterExplanation
Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37 degree water baths to prevent the entry ports from becoming contaminated with water. By covering the FFP bag with a plastic overwrap, the entry ports are sealed off, reducing the risk of water entering the bag and potentially contaminating the contents. This helps maintain the integrity and sterility of the FFP during the thawing process.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?
- A.
Red blood cells
- B.
Fresh frozen plasma
- C.
Red blood cells, frozen
- D.
Cryoprecipitated AHF
Correct Answer
B. Fresh frozen plasmaExplanation
Fresh frozen plasma must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy because it contains labile clotting factors that can degrade over time. By freezing the plasma within 8 hours, the clotting factors are preserved, allowing for its use in transfusion to patients with clotting disorders or deficiencies.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many units of Factor VIII?
- A.
40
- B.
80
- C.
130
- D.
250
Correct Answer
B. 80Explanation
Cryoprecipitated AHF contains 80 units of Factor VIII. This is the correct answer because cryoprecipitated AHF is derived from fresh frozen plasma and is used to treat patients with hemophilia A, which is a deficiency of Factor VIII. Each unit of cryoprecipitated AHF typically contains approximately 80 units of Factor VIII, making it an effective treatment for hemophilia A.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Whic of the following blood components contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume?
- A.
Single donor plasma
- B.
Cryoprecipitated AHF
- C.
Fresh frozen plasma
- D.
Platelets
Correct Answer
B. Cryoprecipitated AHFExplanation
Cryoprecipitated AHF contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume compared to the other blood components listed. Cryoprecipitated AHF is derived from fresh frozen plasma and contains high levels of Factor VIII, which is important for blood clotting. This component is often used in the treatment of patients with hemophilia or other bleeding disorders where there is a deficiency of Factor VIII.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
- A.
Fresh frozen plasma
- B.
Platelets
- C.
Fresh whole blood
- D.
Cryoprecipitated AHF
Correct Answer
D. Cryoprecipitated AHFExplanation
Cryoprecipitated AHF is the most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains a high concentration of fibrinogen, which is essential for blood clotting. By administering cryoprecipitated AHF, the patient's fibrinogen levels can be replenished, allowing for proper clot formation and preventing excessive bleeding. Fresh frozen plasma, platelets, and fresh whole blood do not contain as high a concentration of fibrinogen as cryoprecipitated AHF, making them less effective in treating fibrinogen deficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
A blood component prepared by thawing fresh frozen plasma at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is:
- A.
Plasma protein fraction
- B.
Cryoprecipitated AHF
- C.
Factor IX complex
- D.
FP24
Correct Answer
B. Cryoprecipitated AHFExplanation
Cryoprecipitated AHF is a blood component that is prepared by thawing fresh frozen plasma at refrigerator temperature and then removing the fluid portion. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains concentrated amounts of certain clotting factors, including factor VIII and von Willebrand factor. It is used to treat patients with specific clotting disorders, such as hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appear normal. The technologist should:
- A.
Issue without concern
- B.
Filter to remove the clots
- C.
Centrifuge to express off the clots
- D.
Quarantine for gram stain and culture
Correct Answer
D. Quarantine for gram stain and cultureExplanation
clots in the unit may indicate contaminationRate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jun 14, 2012Quiz Created by
Melissa3393
Back to top