Donors And Accepter Quiz Over Blood Bank

43 Questions | Total Attempts: 542

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Donors And Accepter Quiz Over Blood Bank


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
    • A. 

      12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)

    • B. 

      12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)

    • C. 

      13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)

    • D. 

      15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)

  • 2. 
    A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:
    • A. 

      Diabetes

    • B. 

      Residence in an endemic malaria region

    • C. 

      History of jaundice of uncertain cause

    • D. 

      History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

  • 3. 
    Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?
    • A. 

      32 year old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months previously

    • B. 

      19 year old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously

    • C. 

      22 year old college student who has a temp of 99.2 degrees F and states that he feels well, but is nervous about donating

    • D. 

      45 year old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics

  • 4. 
    Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
    • A. 

      A tattoo 5 months previously

    • B. 

      Recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

    • C. 

      2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously

    • D. 

      Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Traveled to an area endemic for malaria 9 months previously

    • B. 

      Spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously

    • C. 

      Resides with a known hepatitis patient

    • D. 

      Received a blood transfusion 22 weeks previously

  • 6. 
    Below are the results of the history obtained from a potential female blood donor:
    • age 16
    • temp 99.0 F
    • Hct 36%
    • History of tetanus toxoid shot 1 week prior
    How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      3

  • 7. 
    For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to donation and must be at least:
    • A. 

      150x10^3/uL

    • B. 

      200x10^3/uL

    • C. 

      250x10^3/uL

    • D. 

      300x10^3/uL

  • 8. 
    Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing
    • A. 

      Hypochlorite

    • B. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • C. 

      10% acetone

    • D. 

      PVP iodine complex

  • 9. 
    All donor blood testing must include:
    • A. 

      Complete Rh phenotyping

    • B. 

      Anti-CMV testing

    • C. 

      Direct antiglobulin test

    • D. 

      Serological test for syphilis

  • 10. 
    During the preparation of platelet concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be:
    • A. 

      Cooled towards 6 degrees C

    • B. 

      Cooled toward 20 - 24 degrees C

    • C. 

      Warmed to 37 degrees C

    • D. 

      Heated to 57 degrees C

  • 11. 
    The most common cause of post transfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:
    • A. 

      Anti-HCV

    • B. 

      HBsAg

    • C. 

      Anti-HAV IgM

    • D. 

      Anti-HBe

  • 12. 
    The western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
    • A. 

      CMV antibody

    • B. 

      Anti-HIV-1

    • C. 

      HBsAg

    • D. 

      Serum protein abnormalities

  • 13. 
    The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:
    • A. 

      Anti-HBc

    • B. 

      Anti-HIV 1,2

    • C. 

      HBsAg

    • D. 

      ALT

  • 14. 
    A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:
    • A. 

      Latex agglutination

    • B. 

      Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

    • C. 

      Thin-layer-chromotography (TLC)

    • D. 

      Enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

  • 15. 
    Rejuvenation of a unit of blood cells is a method used to:
    • A. 

      Remove antibody attached to RBC's

    • B. 

      Inactivate viruses and bacteria

    • C. 

      Restores 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels

    • D. 

      Filter blood clots and other debris

  • 16. 
    A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8am. The expiration tie for each aliquot is now:
    • A. 

      4pm on the same day

    • B. 

      8pm on the same day

    • C. 

      8am the next morning

    • D. 

      The original date of the unsplit unit

  • 17. 
    A unit of red blood cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using sterile pediatric quad set and sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
    • A. 

      6 hours

    • B. 

      12 hours

    • C. 

      5 days

    • D. 

      35 days

  • 18. 
    When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
    • A. 

      Once a day

    • B. 

      Twice a day

    • C. 

      Every 4 hours

    • D. 

      Every hour

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is the correct storage temp for the component listed?
    • A. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4 degrees C

    • B. 

      Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) -20 degrees C

    • C. 

      Red Blood Cells, -40 degrees C

    • D. 

      Platelets, 37 degrees C

  • 20. 
    A unit of red blood cells is issued at 9am. At 9:10am the unit is returned to the blood bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action is to:
    • A. 

      Culture the unit for bacterial contamination

    • B. 

      Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours

    • C. 

      Store the unit at room temperature

    • D. 

      Record the return and place the unit back into inventory

  • 21. 
    The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells, frozen is:
    • A. 

      -80 degrees C

    • B. 

      -20 degrees C

    • C. 

      -12 degrees C

    • D. 

      4 degrees C

  • 22. 
    The optimum storage temp for red blood cells is:
    • A. 

      -80 degrees C

    • B. 

      -20 degrees C

    • C. 

      -12 degrees C

    • D. 

      4 degrees C

  • 23. 
    If the seal is entered on a unit of red blood cells stored at 1 - 6 degrees C, what is the maximum allowable storage period in hours?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 24. 
    The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:
    • A. 

      -20 degrees C

    • B. 

      -12 degrees C

    • C. 

      4 degrees C

    • D. 

      22 degrees C

  • 25. 
    Cryoprecipitates AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
    • A. 

      4 hours

    • B. 

      8 hours

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 26. 
    Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24 degrees C in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      48 hours

    • C. 

      3 days

    • D. 

      5 days

  • 27. 
    The optimum storage temp for platelets is:
    • A. 

      -20 degrees C

    • B. 

      -12 degrees C

    • C. 

      4 degrees C

    • D. 

      22 degrees C

  • 28. 
    According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      26 hours

    • C. 

      48 hours

    • D. 

      72 hours

  • 29. 
    Cryoprecipitates AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18 degrees C or below, has a shelf life of:
    • A. 

      42 days

    • B. 

      6 months

    • C. 

      12 months

    • D. 

      36 months

  • 30. 
    Once thawed, fresh frozen plasma must be transfused within:
    • A. 

      4 hours

    • B. 

      8 hours

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 31. 
    An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:
    • A. 

      Plasma potassium concentration

    • B. 

      Plasma pH

    • C. 

      Prothrombin time

    • D. 

      Activated partial thromplastin time

  • 32. 
    In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:
    • A. 

      1-6 degrees C

    • B. 

      22 degrees C

    • C. 

      37 degrees C

    • D. 

      56 degrees C

  • 33. 
    During storage, the concentration of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:
    • A. 

      Platelets

    • B. 

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • C. 

      Red blood cells

    • D. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

  • 34. 
    Cryoprecipitated AHF:
    • A. 

      Is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies

    • B. 

      Should be stored at 4 degrees C prior to administration

    • C. 

      Will not transmit hepatitis B virus

    • D. 

      Is indicated for the treatment of hemophilia B

  • 35. 
    Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated?
    • A. 

      Autologous unit collected prior to surgery

    • B. 

      Random stock unit going to a patient with DIC

    • C. 

      A directed donation given by a mother for her son

    • D. 

      A directed donation given by an unrelated family friend

  • 36. 
    Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:
    • A. 

      Granulocytes

    • B. 

      Lymphocytes

    • C. 

      Red cells

    • D. 

      Platelets

  • 37. 
    Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37 degree water baths because they prevent:
    • A. 

      The FFP bag from cracking with it comes in contact with the warm water

    • B. 

      Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane

    • C. 

      The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

    • D. 

      The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath

  • 38. 
    Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?
    • A. 

      Red blood cells

    • B. 

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • C. 

      Red blood cells, frozen

    • D. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

  • 39. 
    Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many units of Factor VIII?
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      130

    • D. 

      250

  • 40. 
    Whic of the following blood components contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume?
    • A. 

      Single donor plasma

    • B. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • C. 

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • D. 

      Platelets

  • 41. 
    The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:
    • A. 

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Fresh whole blood

    • D. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

  • 42. 
    A blood component prepared by thawing fresh frozen plasma at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is:
    • A. 

      Plasma protein fraction

    • B. 

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • C. 

      Factor IX complex

    • D. 

      FP24

  • 43. 
    Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appear normal. The technologist should:
    • A. 

      Issue without concern

    • B. 

      Filter to remove the clots

    • C. 

      Centrifuge to express off the clots

    • D. 

      Quarantine for gram stain and culture