Bb - Donor & Component Prep

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Aaniel89
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Science Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:

    • A.

      Remove antibody attached to RBCs

    • B.

      Inactivate viruses and bacteria

    • C.

      Restore 2,3 DPG and ATP to normal levels

    • D.

      Filter blood clots and other debris

    Correct Answer
    C. Restore 2,3 DPG and ATP to normal levels
    Explanation
    Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to restore 2,3 DPG and ATP to normal levels. 2,3 DPG (2,3-Diphosphoglycerate) is an important molecule that helps red blood cells release oxygen to the tissues. ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is the energy currency of cells, including red blood cells. By restoring these molecules to normal levels, the rejuvenation process ensures that the red blood cells function properly in delivering oxygen to the body's tissues.

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  • 2. 

    The optimum storage temperature for Whole Blood is:

    • A.

      22 degrees C

    • B.

      4 degrees C

    • C.

      -20 degrees C

    • D.

      -80 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    B. 4 degrees C
    Explanation
    The optimum storage temperature for Whole Blood is 4 degrees C. This temperature is ideal for preserving the quality and integrity of the blood components. It helps to slow down the metabolic processes and prevent the growth of bacteria or other contaminants. Storing Whole Blood at 4 degrees C also maintains the viability and functionality of the red blood cells, platelets, and other cellular components present in the blood. This temperature range is commonly used in blood banks and medical facilities to ensure the safety and efficacy of stored Whole Blood for transfusion purposes.

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  • 3. 

    A 17-year-old girl comes to the blood center to donate. She weighs 90 pounds and has a hemoglobin of 13 g/dL. She tells the interviewer that she helped care for her HIV cousin for a week last month. Which condition is cause for rejecting her as a donor?

    • A.

      Age; she is too young

    • B.

      Her weight is too low

    • C.

      Hemoglobin is too low

    • D.

      Living with HIV positive individual

    Correct Answer
    D. Living with HIV positive individual
    Explanation
    Living with an HIV positive individual is cause for rejecting the girl as a blood donor. The risk of transmitting HIV through blood transfusion is extremely low due to strict screening procedures, but it is still a potential risk. Therefore, individuals who have been in close contact with someone living with HIV are deferred from donating blood as a precautionary measure to ensure the safety of the blood supply.

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  • 4. 

    Autologous donors may not donate if they:

    • A.

      Have a positive titer for syphilis

    • B.

      Are receiving antibiotics for an infection

    • C.

      Are taking aspirin

    • D.

      Are over 65 years old

    Correct Answer
    B. Are receiving antibiotics for an infection
    Explanation
    Autologous donors may not donate if they are receiving antibiotics for an infection because antibiotics can affect the quality of the donated blood. Antibiotics can potentially interfere with the recipient's immune system or cause adverse reactions. Therefore, it is important for donors to be free from any active infections or medications that could potentially harm the recipient.

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  • 5. 

    Persons who have injections of human growth hormone are permanently deferred as blood donors. This is because of the possible transmission of:

    • A.

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

    • B.

      Trypanosomiasis cruzi

    • C.

      Babesia microti

    • D.

      Borrelia burgdoferi

    Correct Answer
    A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
    Explanation
    Persons who have injections of human growth hormone are permanently deferred as blood donors due to the possible transmission of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a rare, degenerative, and fatal brain disorder that can be transmitted through contaminated human growth hormone. This disease affects the central nervous system and causes rapid mental deterioration, neurological symptoms, and eventually leads to death. To prevent the potential transmission of CJD, individuals who have received injections of human growth hormone are permanently deferred as blood donors.

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  • 6. 

    Optimum storage temp for platelets

    • A.

      22 degrees C

    • B.

      4 degrees C

    • C.

      -12 degrees C

    • D.

      -20 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    A. 22 degrees C
    Explanation
    Platelets are blood components that are crucial for blood clotting. They need to be stored at a specific temperature to maintain their effectiveness. The optimum storage temperature for platelets is 22 degrees Celsius. At this temperature, platelets can be stored for a longer period without losing their functionality. Storing platelets at higher or lower temperatures can lead to their deterioration and reduced effectiveness. Therefore, maintaining a storage temperature of 22 degrees Celsius is essential for preserving the quality of platelets.

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  • 7. 

    Most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:

    • A.

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • B.

      Platelets

    • C.

      Fresh whole blood

    • D.

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    Correct Answer
    D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitated AHF is the most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains a high concentration of fibrinogen, which is essential for blood clotting. By administering cryoprecipitated AHF, the patient's fibrinogen levels can be replenished, allowing for proper clot formation and preventing excessive bleeding. Fresh frozen plasma, platelets, and fresh whole blood may contain some fibrinogen, but cryoprecipitated AHF provides a concentrated and targeted treatment specifically for fibrinogen deficiency.

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  • 8. 

    Which condition requires administration of red cells through a blood warmer?

    • A.

      Exchange transfusion

    • B.

      Urticaria

    • C.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

    • D.

      Graft-vs-host disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Exchange transfusion
    Explanation
    Exchange transfusion is a procedure where a patient's blood is partially or completely replaced with donor blood. This procedure is often done in newborns with severe jaundice or in patients with certain blood disorders. Since the donor blood is typically stored at a colder temperature than the patient's body, administration of red cells through a blood warmer is necessary to warm the blood to body temperature before transfusion. This helps prevent hypothermia and other complications that can occur when cold blood is infused into the body.

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  • 9. 

    Current testing on all donor blood must include:

    • A.

      Complete Rh phenotyping

    • B.

      Direct antiglobulin test

    • C.

      CMV

    • D.

      Serological testing for syphilis

    Correct Answer
    D. Serological testing for syphilis
    Explanation
    Serological testing for syphilis should be included in current testing on all donor blood because syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can be transmitted through blood transfusions, and infected blood can pose a risk to the recipient. Therefore, serological testing for syphilis helps to ensure the safety of the donor blood and prevent the transmission of syphilis to the recipient.

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  • 10. 

    A first time blood donor is noticed to experience rapid breathing and involuntary twitching of his fingers shortly after starting phlebotomy. The phlebotomist should:

    • A.

      Raise his feet above his head

    • B.

      Administer oxygen

    • C.

      Have him rebreathe air from a paper bag

    • D.

      Have him inhale from an ammonia capsule

    Correct Answer
    C. Have him rebreathe air from a paper bag
    Explanation
    The symptoms described, rapid breathing and involuntary twitching of fingers, suggest hyperventilation, which is an excessive intake of oxygen and a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the body. Rebreathing air from a paper bag can help increase the carbon dioxide levels in the body, which can alleviate the symptoms of hyperventilation. This is why the phlebotomist should have the person rebreathe air from a paper bag.

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  • 11. 

    Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at which temperature (degrees C) prior to separation and preparation of platelet concentrates?

    • A.

      20 to 24

    • B.

      1 to 6

    • C.

      1 to 10

    • D.

      Varies with the facility

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 to 24
    Explanation
    Whole blood collected from a donor should be stored at a temperature between 20 to 24 degrees Celsius prior to separation and preparation of platelet concentrates. This temperature range is ideal for maintaining the viability and functionality of the platelets in the blood. Storing the blood at lower temperatures can lead to the formation of clots, while higher temperatures can cause the platelets to lose their effectiveness. Therefore, maintaining a temperature between 20 to 24 degrees Celsius ensures the optimal conditions for platelet preservation.

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  • 12. 

    What procedure should be followed in order to prevent contamination of FFP during thawing?

    • A.

      Place the unit directly into a clean waterbath

    • B.

      Seal the unit in an outer, separate bag prior to placing in the waterbath

    • C.

      Thaw at 1-6 degrees C

    • D.

      When half-thawed transfer FFP to another bag

    Correct Answer
    B. Seal the unit in an outer, separate bag prior to placing in the waterbath
    Explanation
    To prevent contamination of FFP during thawing, it is recommended to seal the unit in an outer, separate bag prior to placing it in the waterbath. This additional layer of protection helps to ensure that the FFP remains free from any external contaminants that may be present in the waterbath. Thawing at 1-6 degrees C is also important to maintain the quality and efficacy of the FFP. Transferring the FFP to another bag when it is half-thawed is not necessary for preventing contamination, but it may be done for other reasons such as easier handling or storage.

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  • 13. 

    Washed Red Blood Cells would be the product of choice for a patient with:

    • A.

      Multiple red blood cell antibodies

    • B.

      An increased risk of hepatitis infection

    • C.

      Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    • D.

      Anti-IgA antibodies

    Correct Answer
    D. Anti-IgA antibodies
    Explanation
    Anti-IgA antibodies are antibodies that target IgA, a type of immunoglobulin found in the blood. Some individuals have a deficiency or absence of IgA, and if they receive blood transfusions containing IgA, they can develop severe allergic reactions. Therefore, for a patient with anti-IgA antibodies, Washed Red Blood Cells would be the product of choice as they have had the IgA removed, minimizing the risk of an allergic reaction.

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  • 14. 

    Four units of packed red blood cells were brought to the nurse's station at 10:20 AM. Two units were transfused immediately, one unit was transfused at 10:40 AM. The remaining unit was returned to the blood bank at 11:00 AM. The units were not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank. What problem(s) is (are) present in this situation?

    • A.

      The only problem is with the returned unit; the 30-minute limit has expired and the unit cannot be used

    • B.

      The unit should not have been transfused at 10:40 AM because the time limit has expired; this unit and the remaining unit should have been returned to the blood bank

    • C.

      The returned unit may be held for this patient for 48 hours but cannot be used for another patient

    • D.

      No problems; all actions were performed with the allowable time limits

    Correct Answer
    A. The only problem is with the returned unit; the 30-minute limit has expired and the unit cannot be used
    Explanation
    The problem in this situation is that the returned unit of packed red blood cells was not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank and the 30-minute time limit has expired. This means that the unit cannot be used for transfusion and should have been returned to the blood bank earlier.

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  • 15. 

    Transfusion of an irradiated blood product is indicated in all of the following conditions except:

    • A.

      Exchange transfusion

    • B.

      Bone marrow transplant

    • C.

      HIV patient

    • D.

      Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

    Correct Answer
    D. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    Explanation
    Transfusion of an irradiated blood product is not indicated in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Irradiated blood products are used to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease (TA-GVHD), a rare but potentially fatal complication. TA-GVHD occurs when viable T lymphocytes in the transfused blood recognize the recipient's tissues as foreign and attack them. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is caused by autoantibodies that target the patient's own red blood cells, not by an immune response to transfused lymphocytes. Therefore, irradiation of blood products is not necessary in this condition.

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  • 16. 

    Anti-HTLV-1 has which of the following characteristics?

    • A.

      High seropositivity among IV drug users

    • B.

      Endemic in the Caribbean

    • C.

      Found in patients with adult T-cell leukemia

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that anti-HTLV-1 has all of the characteristics mentioned in the options. It has a high seropositivity among IV drug users, it is endemic in the Caribbean, and it is found in patients with adult T-cell leukemia.

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  • 17. 

    According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

    • A.

      24 hours

    • B.

      36 hours

    • C.

      4 hours

    • D.

      72 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is a blood product that is used to replace clotting factors in patients with bleeding disorders or those undergoing certain medical procedures. According to AABB standards, FFP must be infused within 24 hours following thawing. This is because FFP contains labile clotting factors that can degrade over time, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, it is important to use FFP promptly after thawing to ensure optimal patient outcomes. Infusing FFP within 24 hours helps to maintain its efficacy and minimize the risk of complications.

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  • 18. 

    What component(s) is/are indicated for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies?

    • A.

      Whole blood

    • B.

      Packed red blood cells

    • C.

      Washed, leukocyte-reduced or frozen deglycerolized red blood cells

    • D.

      Granulocyte preparations

    Correct Answer
    C. Washed, leukocyte-reduced or frozen deglycerolized red blood cells
    Explanation
    Patients who have anti-IgA antibodies are at risk of developing an allergic reaction to IgA present in blood products. Therefore, it is necessary to provide them with blood components that have minimal IgA content. Washed, leukocyte-reduced or frozen deglycerolized red blood cells have been processed to remove most of the IgA, making them safe for patients with anti-IgA antibodies. This reduces the risk of an allergic reaction and ensures a safer transfusion for these patients.

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  • 19. 

    Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?

    • A.

      4 hours

    • B.

      8 hours

    • C.

      12 hours

    • D.

      24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 hours
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitated AHF (Antihemophilic Factor) is a blood product that contains clotting factors and is used to treat bleeding disorders. It is prepared by thawing and pooling plasma. The correct answer is 4 hours because after thawing and pooling, cryoprecipitated AHF should be transfused within a relatively short period of time to ensure its effectiveness and safety. Transfusing it within 4 hours helps to minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and maintain the potency of the clotting factors present in the product.

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  • 20. 

    The use of leukocyte-depleted red blood cells and platelet concentrates is indicated for which of the following groups of pateints?

    • A.

      CMV-seropositive postpartum mothers

    • B.

      Victims of acute trauma with massive bleeding

    • C.

      Patients with history of febrile transfusion

    • D.

      Burn victim with anemia and low serum protein

    Correct Answer
    C. Patients with history of febrile transfusion
    Explanation
    The use of leukocyte-depleted red blood cells and platelet concentrates is indicated for patients with a history of febrile transfusion. Febrile transfusion reactions occur when the patient develops a fever during or after a blood transfusion. These reactions are often caused by leukocytes in the transfused blood, which can release pyrogens and trigger an immune response. By using leukocyte-depleted blood products, the risk of febrile transfusion reactions is minimized. Therefore, patients with a history of febrile transfusion would benefit from receiving leukocyte-depleted red blood cells and platelet concentrates.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following contributes to permanent rejection status of a donor?

    • A.

      A tattoo 5 months previously

    • B.

      Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

    • C.

      Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously

    • D.

      Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously

    Correct Answer
    D. Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
    Explanation
    A confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously can contribute to permanent rejection status of a donor because HBsAg is a marker for hepatitis B infection. Even though the infection occurred 10 years ago, it indicates that the donor has a history of hepatitis B and may still carry the virus, which can be transmitted through blood transfusion. Therefore, this would make the donor ineligible to donate blood.

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  • 22. 

    Fresh Frozen Plasma

    • A.

      contains all labile coaguation factors except cryoprecipitated AHF

    • B.

      Has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than whole blood

    • C.

      Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing

    • D.

      Need not be ABO compatible

    Correct Answer
    C. Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing
    Explanation
    Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) is a blood product that contains all labile coagulation factors except cryoprecipitated AHF (Antihemophilic Factor). FFP is used to replace clotting factors in patients with clotting disorders or those who require massive transfusions. However, FFP needs to be transfused within 24 hours of thawing because after this time, the activity of labile coagulation factors starts to decrease significantly. Therefore, it is important to use FFP promptly to ensure its effectiveness in managing coagulation disorders.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is the proper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole Blood?

    • A.

      Light spin followed by a hard spin

    • B.

      Light spin followed by two hard spins

    • C.

      Two light spins

    • D.

      Hard spin followed by a light spin

    Correct Answer
    A. Light spin followed by a hard spin
    Explanation
    The proper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole Blood involves a light spin followed by a hard spin. This means that the blood sample is initially centrifuged at a low speed (light spin) to separate the red blood cells and plasma from the platelets. Then, the remaining sample is centrifuged at a higher speed (hard spin) to further concentrate the platelets. This two-step process ensures the isolation and purification of platelets for further use or analysis.

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  • 24. 

    A unit of red blood cells expiring in 35 days is split into five small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in

    • A.

      6 hours

    • B.

      24 hours

    • C.

      5 days

    • D.

      35 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 35 days
    Explanation
    The answer is 35 days because the unit of red blood cells is expiring in 35 days, and when it is split into five small aliquots, each aliquot will still have the same expiration date as the original unit. Therefore, all five aliquots will also expire in 35 days.

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  • 25. 

    A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      Residence in an endemic malaria region

    • C.

      History of jaundice of uncertain cause

    • D.

      History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

    Correct Answer
    C. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
    Explanation
    A history of jaundice of uncertain cause can be a cause for permanent deferral of blood donation because jaundice can be a symptom of various underlying health conditions, including infectious diseases like hepatitis. Since the cause of the jaundice is uncertain, it poses a risk of transmitting infectious agents through donated blood. Therefore, individuals with a history of jaundice of uncertain cause are not eligible to donate blood in order to ensure the safety of the blood supply.

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  • 26. 

    Which plateletpheresis product should be irradiated?

    • A.

      Autologous unit collected prior to surgery

    • B.

      random stock unit going to a patient with DIC

    • C.

      a directed donation given by a mother for her son

    • D.

      A directed donation given by an unrelated family member

    Correct Answer
    C. a directed donation given by a mother for her son
    Explanation
    A directed donation given by a mother for her son should be irradiated because it is a transfusion between two genetically related individuals. Irradiation is necessary in this case to prevent graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), a potentially life-threatening condition where the immune cells from the transfused blood attack the recipient's tissues. By irradiating the blood product, the immune cells are inactivated, reducing the risk of GVHD.

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  • 27. 

    A newborn demonstrates, petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding. The prefered blood component for this infant would be:

    • A.

      Red blood cells

    • B.

      Fresh frozen plasma

    • C.

      Platelets

    • D.

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    Correct Answer
    C. Platelets
    Explanation
    The presence of petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding in a newborn suggests a bleeding disorder or thrombocytopenia, which is a low platelet count. Platelets are responsible for clot formation and preventing bleeding. Therefore, the preferred blood component for this infant would be platelets to help restore normal clotting function and prevent further bleeding.

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  • 28. 

    A blood component used to treat hemophilia A is:

    • A.

      Factor VIII concentrate

    • B.

      Fresh Frozen Plasma

    • C.

      Platelets

    • D.

      Whole blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Factor VIII concentrate
    Explanation
    Factor VIII concentrate is the correct answer because it is a blood component that is specifically used to treat hemophilia A. Hemophilia A is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot properly, and Factor VIII is a protein that is necessary for blood clotting. By providing Factor VIII concentrate, it helps to replace the missing or deficient Factor VIII in individuals with hemophilia A, allowing their blood to clot effectively and prevent excessive bleeding. Fresh Frozen Plasma, platelets, and whole blood are not specifically used for treating hemophilia A.

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  • 29. 

    Addition of which of the following will increase the shelf life of red blood cells?

    • A.

      Heparin

    • B.

      AS-3

    • C.

      Lactated ringers

    • D.

      Citrate

    Correct Answer
    B. AS-3
    Explanation
    AS-3 is a solution that is commonly used for the storage of red blood cells. It contains adenine, glucose, and mannitol, which help to provide nutrients and maintain the viability of the cells. Additionally, AS-3 also contains citrate, which acts as an anticoagulant, preventing the formation of blood clots during storage. This combination of nutrients and anticoagulant properties helps to increase the shelf life of red blood cells, making AS-3 the correct answer.

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  • 30. 

    During the preparation of platelet concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood should be

    • A.

      Chilled to 6 degrees C

    • B.

      Kept at room temperature

    • C.

      Warmed to 37 degrees C

    • D.

      Heated to 57 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    B. Kept at room temperature
    Explanation
    During the preparation of platelet concentrates from Whole Blood, it is important to keep the blood at room temperature. This is because platelets are sensitive to temperature changes, and keeping the blood at room temperature ensures their viability and functionality. Chilling the blood to 6 degrees C or warming it to 37 degrees C can negatively affect the platelets' quality and function. Heating the blood to 57 degrees C is too high and can cause denaturation and destruction of the platelets. Therefore, keeping the blood at room temperature is the most appropriate option for the preparation of platelet concentrates.

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  • 31. 

    What is the special condition for storage of platelets?

    • A.

      Room temperature 20-24 degrees C

    • B.

      No other components may be stored with platelets

    • C.

      Platelets must be stored upright in separate containers

    • D.

      Platelets require constant agitation at 20-24 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    D. Platelets require constant agitation at 20-24 degrees C
    Explanation
    Platelets are small, fragile cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They must be stored at room temperature, specifically between 20-24 degrees Celsius. Additionally, platelets should not be stored with any other components to prevent contamination. However, the special condition for the storage of platelets is that they require constant agitation. Agitation helps to prevent clumping and ensures that the platelets remain suspended in the plasma, maintaining their effectiveness. Therefore, platelets must be stored upright in separate containers and constantly agitated at the appropriate temperature range.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma?

    • A.

      Only blood group-specific plasma may be administered.

    • B.

      Group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups

    • C.

      Group AB may be administered to AB recipients only

    • D.

      Group A may be administered to both A and O recipients

    Correct Answer
    D. Group A may be administered to both A and O recipients
    Explanation
    Group A blood contains A antigens on red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Therefore, it can be safely administered to individuals with blood group A, as there will be no antigen-antibody reaction. Additionally, since group A blood does not contain B antigens, it can also be given to individuals with blood group O, as there will be no antigen-antibody reaction. This is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma.

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  • 33. 

    Following the second spin in the preparation of platelets, the platelets should be:

    • A.

      allowed to sit undisturbed for 1 hour

    • B.

      agitated immediately

    • C.

      Pooled immediately

    • D.

      Transfused within 48 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. Pooled immediately
    Explanation
    After the second spin in the preparation of platelets, the platelets should be pooled immediately. Pooled platelets refer to the process of combining multiple units of platelets into a single bag or container. This is done to increase the platelet count and ensure a sufficient quantity for transfusion. Pooled platelets are typically stored at room temperature and have a shelf life of up to 5 days. Agitating or disturbing the platelets immediately after the second spin can disrupt their integrity and functionality. Transfusion within 48 hours is not necessary in this context as the pooled platelets can be stored for a longer duration.

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  • 34. 

    A rare type RBC unit has expired on Tuesday. What can be done with this unit on Thursday?

    • A.

      The unit may be frozen

    • B.

      The unit may be rejuvenated , then used or frozen

    • C.

      The unit must be discarded

    • D.

      The unit may be washed

    Correct Answer
    B. The unit may be rejuvenated , then used or frozen
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the unit may be rejuvenated, then used or frozen. This means that even though the rare type RBC unit has expired on Tuesday, it can still be rejuvenated, meaning it can be restored or revitalized. After being rejuvenated, the unit can then be used or frozen for future use. This suggests that the unit is still viable and can be utilized despite its expiration date.

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  • 35. 

    The most common transmission of HBV is by:

    • A.

      Contaminated food and water

    • B.

      Transfusion

    • C.

      Sexual transmission

    • D.

      IV drug use

    Correct Answer
    D. IV drug use
    Explanation
    The most common transmission of HBV is through intravenous (IV) drug use. This is because sharing needles and syringes can easily pass the virus from one person to another. IV drug use involves injecting drugs directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the body's natural barriers and increasing the risk of infection. Other modes of transmission, such as contaminated food and water, transfusion, and sexual transmission, are also possible but not as common as IV drug use.

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  • 36. 

    According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

    • A.

      Hip replacement 5 months previously

    • B.

      spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months ago

    • C.

      Resides with a known hepatitis patient

    • D.

      Received a blood transfusion 20 weeks previously

    Correct Answer
    B. spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months ago
  • 37. 

    A patient who is group AB, Rh negative needs two units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. Which of the following units of plasma would be MOST acceptable for transfusion?

    • A.

      Group O, Rh negative

    • B.

      Group A , Rh negative

    • C.

      Group B Rh negative

    • D.

      Group AB, Rh positive

    Correct Answer
    D. Group AB, Rh positive
    Explanation
    Group AB, Rh positive plasma would be the most acceptable for transfusion in this case because it is the same blood type as the patient (AB) and has the Rh factor that the patient lacks. This ensures compatibility and reduces the risk of a transfusion reaction. Group O, Rh negative plasma would not be acceptable because it lacks the AB antigen that the patient has, and Group A and Group B plasma would not be acceptable because they have antigens that the patient lacks.

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  • 38. 

    HAV transmission in blood is unusual because

    • A.

      HAV is usually transmitted by the enteric route

    • B.

      HAV is usually an acute hepatitis

    • C.

      Infectivity after an HAV infection is usually only two weeks

    • D.

      All of the above are true

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above are true
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above are true". This means that all three statements provided in the question are correct explanations for why HAV transmission in blood is unusual. HAV is typically transmitted through the enteric route, meaning it is usually spread through contaminated food or water. Additionally, HAV is usually an acute hepatitis, meaning it is a short-term infection. Lastly, the infectivity of HAV after an infection is typically only two weeks, further contributing to the unusualness of blood transmission.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed?

    • A.

      Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4 degrees C

    • B.

      Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20 degrees C

    • C.

      Red Blood Cells frozen, -40 degrees C

    • D.

      Platelets, 37 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    B. Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20 degrees C
    Explanation
    Fresh Frozen Plasma should be stored at -20 degrees Celsius because it is a blood product that contains various clotting factors. Storing it at this temperature helps to maintain its stability and effectiveness. Freezing the plasma at this temperature helps to preserve its coagulation factors and other important components. Storing it at a lower temperature can cause damage to the product, while storing it at a higher temperature can lead to degradation of the clotting factors. Therefore, -20 degrees Celsius is the correct storage temperature for Fresh Frozen Plasma.

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  • 40. 

    Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:

    • A.

      granulocytes

    • B.

      Lymphocytes

    • C.

      red cells

    • D.

      platelets

    Correct Answer
    B. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of lymphocytes. This is because lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that can cause graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) in the recipient if they replicate and attack the recipient's tissues. By irradiating the unit of Red Blood Cells, the lymphocytes are prevented from replicating and causing harm to the recipient.

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  • 41. 

    Platelet transfusions are most valuable in treating

    • A.

      Hemolytic transfusion reaction

    • B.

      Posttransfusion purpura

    • C.

      Functional platelet abnormalities

    • D.

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

    Correct Answer
    C. Functional platelet abnormalities
    Explanation
    Platelet transfusions are most valuable in treating functional platelet abnormalities. Functional platelet abnormalities refer to conditions where the platelets are not functioning properly, leading to impaired clotting ability. Platelet transfusions can help restore normal platelet function and improve clotting, thereby addressing the underlying issue. Hemolytic transfusion reaction, posttransfusion purpura, and immune thrombocytopenic purpura are different conditions that may require other treatment approaches and are not specifically addressed by platelet transfusions.

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  • 42. 

    A thorough donor history is the only way to prevent transmission of:

    • A.

      Syphilis

    • B.

      HTLV-1

    • C.

      CMV

    • D.

      Malaria

    Correct Answer
    D. Malaria
    Explanation
    A thorough donor history is necessary to prevent transmission of diseases through blood transfusions. While syphilis, HTLV-1, and CMV can also be transmitted through blood, a thorough donor history can help identify potential donors with these infections. However, in the case of malaria, a donor history alone may not be sufficient as it is possible for individuals to have a latent or asymptomatic infection. Therefore, additional screening tests may be required to prevent the transmission of malaria through blood transfusions.

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  • 43. 

    Which one of the following histories represents an acceptable donor?

    • A.

      HCT 39 BP 110/70 Temp(F) 99.8 Pulse 75 Age 40

    • B.

      HCT 37 BP 136/86 Temp(F) 98.6 Pulse 80 Age 18

    • C.

      HCT 41 BP 90/50 Temp(F) 99.4 Pulse 65 Age 65

    • D.

      HCT 45 BP 185/90 Temp (F) 98.6 Pulse 78 Age 50

    Correct Answer
    C. HCT 41 BP 90/50 Temp(F) 99.4 Pulse 65 Age 65
    Explanation
    The acceptable donor history would be HCT 41 BP 90/50 Temp(F) 99.4 Pulse 65 Age 65. This is because the blood pressure is within a normal range, the temperature is slightly elevated but still within a normal range, the pulse rate is within a normal range, and the age is within a suitable range for a donor.

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  • 44. 

    Which condition requires administration of red cells through a blood warmer?

    • A.

      Exchange transfusion

    • B.

      Urticaria

    • C.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

    • D.

      Graft-vs-host disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Exchange transfusion
    Explanation
    Exchange transfusion is a procedure where a patient's blood is partially or completely replaced with donor blood. This procedure is typically done in infants with severe jaundice or in patients with certain blood disorders. Since the blood being transfused is typically cold, administration of red cells through a blood warmer is necessary to prevent hypothermia in the patient.

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  • 45. 

    A unit of whole blood that contains a clinically significant red cell alloantibody should be:

    • A.

      processed into components containing minimal plasma

    • B.

      Discarded

    • C.

      adsorbed with antigen positive cells before issue

    • D.

      Labeled with the antibody identified

    Correct Answer
    A. processed into components containing minimal plasma
    Explanation
    When a unit of whole blood contains a clinically significant red cell alloantibody, it is important to process it into components containing minimal plasma. This is because the plasma may contain antibodies that can cause adverse reactions in the recipient. By removing most of the plasma, the risk of transfusion reactions is minimized.

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  • 46. 

    Although ABO compatiblity is preferred, ABO incompatible product may be administered when transfusing:

    • A.

      Single donor plasma

    • B.

      Cryoprecipitated AHF

    • C.

      Fresh Frozen plasma

    • D.

      Frozen red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    Explanation
    Cryoprecipitated AHF can be administered even if it is ABO incompatible because it contains a high concentration of specific clotting factors (Factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibrinogen) that are essential for blood clotting. These clotting factors are not ABO dependent, meaning they can still function effectively regardless of the ABO compatibility. Therefore, ABO compatibility is not as crucial when administering cryoprecipitated AHF compared to other blood products.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following units may be used to prepare platelets?

    • A.

      A unit is placed at 1-6 degrees C immediately after collection

    • B.

      A unit is centrifuged at 1-6 degrees 30 minutes after collection

    • C.

      A unit placed at 20-24 degrees C for 3 hours

    • D.

      A unit placed at 20-24 degrees C for 10 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. A unit placed at 20-24 degrees C for 3 hours
  • 48. 

    When removed from the refrigerator, a unit of donor blood was observed to have an accumulation of cream-colored material at the top of the plasma. The most probable cause of the accumulation is:

    • A.

      Ingestion of a fatty meal shortly before donation

    • B.

      fungal contamination of the anticoagulant solution

    • C.

      bacterial contamination during collection of the blood

    • D.

      failure to mix the blood with anticoagulant during collection

    Correct Answer
    A. Ingestion of a fatty meal shortly before donation
  • 49. 

    Which statement applies when preparing FFP or cryoprecipitate for transfusion?

    • A.

      FFP and cryoprecipitate do not need to be the same Rh as the patient

    • B.

      No antigen typing is required for transfusion of plasma products

    • C.

      Antibody screening of plasma products is not required

    • D.

      All blood components must be matched for both ABO group and Rh type

    Correct Answer
    A. FFP and cryoprecipitate do not need to be the same Rh as the patient
  • 50. 

    The test currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:

    • A.

      anti-HBc

    • B.

      Anti-HIV 1,2

    • C.

      HBsAg

    • D.

      ALT

    Correct Answer
    B. Anti-HIV 1,2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is anti-HIV 1,2. This test is used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus. Anti-HIV 1,2 refers to antibodies that are produced by the immune system in response to HIV infection. By testing for the presence of these antibodies, the test can determine if a person is infected with HIV. The other options listed (anti-HBc, HBsAg, ALT) are not specific to HIV and are used to detect other infections or conditions.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 25, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Aaniel89
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