Blood Bank : Blood Product & Blood Group Systems Quiz: Exam!

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1. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:

Explanation

The causative agent for AIDS is the human immunodeficiency virus types 1
and 2.

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About This Quiz
Blood Bank : Blood Product & Blood Group Systems Quiz: Exam! - Quiz

This 'Blood Bank: Blood Product & Blood Group Systems Exam' assesses knowledge crucial for safe blood donation and management. It covers donor eligibility, deferral criteria, and critical blood... see moregroup systems, essential for healthcare professionals in transfusion medicine. see less

2. A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV-1 detection is:

Explanation

The enzyme-labeled immunosorbent assay (ELISA) method is a very sensitive method employed to screen donors for markers of transfusion-transmitted viruses.

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3. A father donating Platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine, which uses the principle of centrifugation to separate Platelets from Whole Blood. As the Platelets are harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor. This method offers Platelet collection is known as:

Explanation

The apheresis process is to remove whole blood, the desired component removed, and the remaining portion of blood returned to the donor/patient.

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4. The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for:

Explanation

The most common posttransfusion hepatitis is hepatitis B. The estimated risk of transmission is 1:220,000 units transfused. The risk of hepatitis C transmission is 1:1,800,000 units. Hepatitis B surface
antigen (HBsAg) is a required donor test for
detection of acute or chronic HBV infection.

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5. Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:

Explanation

The ABO blood group system was discovered by Karl Landsteiner.

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6. According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be infused within what period of time following thawing?

Explanation

Per AABB standards, thawed FFP should be stored at 1 ° -6°C for no more than
24 hours.

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7. Which one of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

Explanation

A positive test for HbsAg at any time is an indefinite deferral.

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8.  In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many  international units of Factor VIII?

Explanation

FDA requires that 4 representative units be tested each month for Factor VIII levels of 80 IU or higher. If the average value is less than 80 IU of Factor VIII, corrective action must be taken.

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9. The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:

Explanation

The required temperature for storage of platelets is 20' -24°C.

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10. In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:

Explanation

The required temperature for storage of thawed plasma is 1°- 6°C.

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11. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many units of Factor VIII?

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate contains at least 80 units of AHF.

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12. According to AABB Standards, Platelets prepared from Whole Blood shall have at least:

Explanation

Per AABB standards, at least 90% of the platelet units prepared from Whole Blood that are sampled must contain at least
5.5 x 1010 platelets.

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13. A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:

Explanation

Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product.

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14. Which of the following blood components contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume?

Explanation

Cryoprecipitated AHF contains at least 80 IU of Factor VIII concentrated in about 10 mL of plasma.

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15. Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrubsolution containing:

Explanation

The scrub must use iodine, eg, PVP iodine complex. Donors who are sensitive to iodine can have the area cleaned with a preparation of 2% chlorhexidine and 70% isopropyl alcohol.

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16. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of Platelets from Whole Blood?

Explanation

Whole blood-derived Platelets are prepared by a light spin to separate the Red Blood Cells from the platelet-rich plasma (PRP), followed by a heavy spin of the PRP to concentrate the platelets.

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17. The Western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:

Explanation

Western blot uses purified HIV proteins to confirm reactilrity in samples whose screening test for anti-HIV is positive.

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18. According to AABB standards, Platelets must be:

Explanation

Per AABB standards, store Platelets at 20°-24°C with continuous agitation. Platelets must be separated from Whole Blood units and maintained at a
temperature of at least 20°C. The pH must be at least 6.2 at the end of the storage time.

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19. Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups?

Explanation

The Duffy glycoprotein on red cells is a receptor for the malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax. Red cells with the phenotype Fy(a-b- ) are resistant to invasion by P vivax.

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20. If the seal is entered on a unit of Red Blood Cells stored at 1 °C to 6°C, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours?

Explanation

If the seal is broken during processing, components are considered to be prepared in an open system, rather than a closed system. The expiration time for Red Blood Cells in an open system is 24 hours.

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21. An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is:

Explanation

The pH of platelets should be maintained at 6.2 or above throughout the storage period.

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22. For apheresis donors who donate platelets more frequently than every 4 weeks, a platelet count must be performed prior to the procedure and be at least: 

Explanation

The minimum platelet count required for frequent repeat donors is 150 x 103/μL (150 x 109/L). A platelet count is not required prior to the first donation or if the interval between donations is at least 4 weeks.

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23. Which one do you like?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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24. Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype (Oh) will always have naturally occurring:

Explanation

Bombay phenotypes ( O​​​​​​​h) lack H antigen on their red cells, and produce naturally occurring anti-H in their serum.

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25. To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion a patient's hemoglobin should be at least:

Explanation

Autologous donors have less stringent criteria than allogeneic donors. Donations must be collected at least 72 hours prior to surgery.

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26. Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation?

Explanation

The receipt of blood products is a 6-month deferral, the deferral for travel to areas endemic for malaria is 12 months regardless of antimalarial prophylaxis,
and a person taking antibiotics may have bacteremia. The requirement for
temperature is not over 37.5°C or 99.5°F.

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27. Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22° -24°C in 50 mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used for up to:

Explanation

Whole Blood-derived platelets are stored at 20' -24 °C with continuous gentle agitation. Platelets prepared by the PRP method may be stored for up to 5 days.

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28. The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha-:

Explanation

Fucose is the immunodominant sugar for H.

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29. The Kell (Kl) antigen is:

Explanation

The Kell antigen is highly immunogenic. It is present on the red cells of up to 9% of adults and neonates, and is not affected by enzymes.

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30. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following?

Explanation

Autoanti-P, a cold-reactive IgG autoantibody described as a biphasic hemolysin, is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.

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31. Rejuvenation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is a method used to:

Explanation

Rejuvenation of RBCs uses additives to restore or enhance 2,3-DPG and ATP levels.

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32. Unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration timeline for each aliquot is now:

Explanation

Sterile docking devices allow entry into donor units without affecting the expiration date of the product.

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33. Which of the following is the best source of HLA-compatible platelets? 

Explanation

If an exact match of HLA-A and HLA-B antigens is necessary, siblings would be
the most likely match , since siblings may have received the same haplotypes from the parents.

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34. Which one do you like?
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35. A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is:

Explanation

Jaundice is a sign of liver impairment,
which might be due to HBV or HCV.
Infection with HBV and HCV is a cause for
indefinite deferral.

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36. The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is:

Explanation

Cryoprecipitated AHF is stored at-l8°C or lower

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37. A blood component prepared by thawing Fresh Frozen Plasma at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is:

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate is the fraction of plasma proteins that precipitate when FFP is slowly thawed at1°- 6°C.

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38. According to AABB standards, which of the following donors may be accepted as a blood donor?

Explanation

A woman who had a spontaneous abortion at 2 months of pregnancy, 3 months previously would be acceptable. A donor is acceptable if she has not been pregnant in the previous 6 weeks.

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39. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component ?

Explanation

Fresh Frozen Plasma is stored at -l8°C or below for 12 months.

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40. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:

Explanation

All donors, regardless of sex, require
a minimum hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL
(125 g/L). The value must not be performed
on an earlobe stick.

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41. A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:10 AM the unit is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technologist is to:

Explanation

Blood may be returned to the blood bank after issue provided that 1) the container has not been entered, 2) at least 1 sealed segment is attached to the container, 3) visual inspection of the unit is satisfactory and documented, and 4) the unit has been maintained at the appropriate storage or transport temperature. Studies have shown that refrigerated components
retain an acceptable temperature of for up to 30 minutes after removal from
the refrigerator.

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42. The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency is:

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate is indicated as a source of fibrinogen for hypofibrinogenemia. It contains a minimum of 150 mg of fi.brinogen concentrated in a small volume of plasma .

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43. Cryoprecipitated AHF:

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate is used primarily for fibrinogen replacement. It is stored at room temperature (20° -24 °C) after thawing and must be infused within 6 hours. If pooled with other cryo units, it must be infused within 4 hours.

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44. A patient's red blood cells gave the following reactions: anti-D    anti-C    anti-E    anti-c     anti-e     anti-f      +            +          +            +              +            0 The most probable genotype of this patient is:

Explanation

Nonreactivity with anti-f indicates the cells do not have an Rh polypeptide that
possesses both c and e, which is necessary to type as f+ . R1R2 is the most likely genotype.

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45. Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A?

Explanation

The M and N antigens are found on glycophorin A.

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46. According to AABB standards, what is the minimum pH required for Platelets at the end of the storage period?

Explanation

Per AABB standards, at least 90% of platelet units sampled must have a pH of at least 6.2 at the end of the allowable storage.

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47. Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor:

Explanation

Irradiation inhibits proliferation of T lymphocytes.

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48. During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from Whole Blood, the blood should be:

Explanation

Platelets are prepared and stored at 20° -24°C for optimum function.

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49. When the red cells of an individual fail to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with:

Explanation

The U antigen is a high incidence antigen found on the RBCs of all individuals except 1 % of African. Americans, who lack glycoprotein Band usually type S-s-U- .

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50. When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:

Explanation

If storage devices do not have automated temperature recording,
temperature must be manually monitored every 4 hours.

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51. Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hours after phlebotomy?

Explanation

Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) must be separated and frozen within 8 hours of Whole Blood collection.

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52. Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18'C or below, has a shelf life of:

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate has a shelf life of 12 months in the frozen state.

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53. All donor blood testing must include:

Explanation

Testing for syphilis was the first mandated donor screening test for infectious disease and is still part of donor screening.

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54. During storage, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) decreases in a unit of:

Explanation

2,3-DPG declines during storage of Red Blood Cells, causing a "shift-to-the-left" in the oxygen dissociation curve and an impaired ability to deliver oxygen to the tissues.

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55. Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor: age:                                  16 temperature:           99.0°F (37.2°C) Hct:                                36% history:             tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion?

Explanation

The Hct must be > 38%. A donor may be 16 unless state law differs. Temperature must not exceed 99.5°F/37.5°C, blood pressure must be less than 180 mm Hg systolic and less than 100 mm Hg diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete (which can be lower). Toxoids and vaccines from synthetic or killed sources have no deferral.

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56. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:

Explanation

Red Blood Cells, Frozen with 40% glycerol are stored at -65°C or lower.

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57. Refer to the following diagram: Given the most probable genotypes of the parents, which of the following statements best describes the most probable Rh genotypes of the 4 children?  

Explanation

The mother has a 50% chance of passing on R1 and 50% chance of passing on r. The father will always pass on R1 . Statistically, 50% of the children will be R1r and 50% of the them will be R1 R1.

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58. What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s) for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same facility?

Explanation

Only ABO and Rh is required with the patient's sample. Each autologous unit must be confirmed for ABO and Rh from an integrally attached segment.

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59. Which apheresis platelets product should be irradiated?

Explanation

Blood products from blood relatives containing viable lymphocytes must be irradiated to inhibit the proliferation of T cells and subsequent GVHD.

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60. A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?

Explanation

The A and B structures can not be developed since there is no H precursor substance due to the lack of the H gene in the blood donor.

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61. Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37°C water baths because they prevent:

Explanation

FFP thawed in a water bath should be protected so that entry ports are not contaminated with water. One can may use a plastic overwrap or keep ports above the water level.

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62. Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:

Explanation

Clots in the unit may indicate contamination

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63. Cells of the A3 subgroup will:

Explanation

Mixed-field reactivity with anti-A and anti-A,B is a typical finding for A3 subgroups.

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64. An assay of plasma from a bag of Cryoprecipitated AHF yields a concentration of 9 international units (IU) of Factor VIII per mL of Cryoprecipitated AHF. If the volume is 9 mL, what is the Factor Vlll content of the bag in IU?

Explanation

To determine the total IU of Factor VIII per bag of cryoprecipitate, multiple the assayed value/ mL by the number of mL in the container.

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65. A unit of Whole Blood-derived (random donor) Platelets should contain at least:

Explanation

Whole blood-derived (random donor) Platelets should contain at least 5.5 x 1010 platelets platelets, be stored with continuous agitation at 20° -24°C, and have a pH of
6.2 or higher when tested at the end of the storage period.

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66. Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following?

Explanation

Anti-I is associated with cold agglutinin syndrome.

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67. In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is:

Explanation

The most common genotype in Rh-negative individuals is rr. Anti-e would not be formed because the recipient's red cells contain the e antigen. The first antibody most likely to develop would be anti-c.

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68. Most blood group systems are inherited as:

Explanation

Blood group genes are autosomal, they are not carried on the sex gene. Whenever the gene is inherited, the antigen is expressed on the red blood cells, which is
known as codominant.

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69. In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a depression of which of the following antigens?

Explanation

Red blood cells of individuals with the McLeod phenotype lack Kx and Km and have significant depression of other Kell antigens. The McLeod phenotype has been found in patients with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD).

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70. The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperatures is:

Explanation

Most examples of anti-Lua agglutinate saline suspended cells. Most examples of anti-Lub are IgG and reacts at 37°C. Anti-Lu3 usually reacts at the AHG phase as does anti-Luab.

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71. Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population?

Explanation

The Fy(a-b-) phenotype occurs in 68% of the population of African descent, but is extremely rare in the other ethnic backgrounds. Lu(a-b-), Jk(a-b-) and K-k-are very rare in all ethnic backgrounds.

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72. Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if:

Explanation

Anti-Sda is an antibody to a high-prevalence antigen, which varies in strength
from person to person. Most examples of anti-Sda characteristically present as small, mixed-field, refractile agglutinates that may have a shiny appearance when observed microscopically after the antiglobulin test.

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73. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?

Explanation

The Fy​​​​​​​a and Fy​​​​​​​b antigens are sensitive to denaturation by proteolytic enzymes. Serum containing anti- Fy​​​​​​​a reacts with untreated Fy(a+) cells, but not witht enzyme treated Fy(a+) cells.

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74. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

Explanation

Patients with infectious monucleosis often demonstrate potent examples of anti-i that are transient in nature.

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75. The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells is:

Explanation

Red Blood Cells are stored at 1 ° -6°C.

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76. A patient's red cells type as follows: Anti D    Anti C     Anti E      4+           0               0 Which of the following genotype would be consistent with these results?

Explanation

R0R0 is the only correct choice here. R0 = D+C-E-c+e+.

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77. Given the following typing results, what is this donor's racial ethnicity?

Explanation

Fy(a-b-) individuals are very rare with all populations other than the individual of African descent. 68% of African Americans are Fy(a- b- ).

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78. A patient is typed with the following results: Patient's cells with        Patient's serum with anti-A            0                A1red cells      2+ anti-B             0                B red cells        4+ anti-A,B         2+                Ab screen        0 The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient is group:

Explanation

Ax cells are more strongly reactive with anti-A,B than with anti-A and the plasma frequently has anti-A1 present.

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79. The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):

Explanation

The entire set of HLA antigens located on one chromosome is a haplotype.

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80. An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype?

Explanation

This individual cannot have the k antigen on their cells. K0K0is rare and no Kell system antigens are detected on the red blood cells. Those individuals usually produce antibodies that are reactive with all normal cells. KK is the most probable genotype.

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81. Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate must be transfused within 4 hours of pooling.

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82.  family has been typed for HLA because 1 of the children needs a stem cell donor. Typing results are listed below:  father: A1,3;88,35  mother: A2,23;812,18  child #1: A1,2;88,12  child #2: A1 ,23;88,18  child #3: A3,23;818,?  What is the expected B antigen in child #3? 

Explanation

From the first 2 children it can be determined the mom has the haplotypes A2B12 and A23F18. The dad has the haplotypes A1B3 and A3B35. The expected B
antigen in child #3 is B35.

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83. Anti-N is identified in a patient's serum. If random crossmatches are performed on 10 donor units, how many would be expected to be compatible?

Explanation

The N antigen is lacking in 30% of the Caucasian population.

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84. Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization of the recipient?

Explanation

Leukoreduction of blood products reduces donor leukocytes to less than 5 x10 6 decreases the risk of HLA alloimmunization.

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85. Refer to the following data: anti-C    anti-D    anti-E    anti-c   anti-e     +             +             +          +           + Given the reactions above, which is the most probable genotype?

Explanation

All common Rh antigens are present on the red blood cells.R1(DCe) and R2 (DcE) are frequent genotypes.

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86. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?

Explanation

Anti-i is an IgM antibody that reacts with cord cells and i adult cells. It is not associated with h emolytic disease of the newborn since IgM antibodies do not cross the placenta.

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87. In a relationship testing case, the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this known as?

Explanation

Direct exclusion of paternity is established when a genetic marker is present in the child but is absent from the mother
and the alleged father.

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88. HLA antibodies are:

Explanation

HLA antibodies are formed in response to pregnancy, transfusion or transplantation and are therefore not naturally occurring. They are associated with febrile
nonhemolytic transfusion reactions and TRALI. They are directed against antigens found on granulocytes and other cells such as platelets.

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89. What is the approximate probability of finding compatible blood among random Rh-positive units for a patient who has anti-c and anti-K? (Consider that 20% of Rh-positive donors lack c and 90% lack K)

Explanation

Multiplication of the individual compatibility frequencies results in the percentage of compatible donors that would lack both antigens. 0.20 x 0.90 = 0.18, or 18%.

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90. According to AABB Standards, at least 90% of all Apheresis Platelets units tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets?

Explanation

Per AABB standards, at least 90% of platelet pheresis units sampled must contain at least 3.0 x 1011 platelets.

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91. Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f?

Explanation

Anti-f will react with cells that carry c and e on the same Rh polypeptide. No other listed genotypes produce an Rh polypeptide that carries both c and e.

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92. Isoimmunization to platelet antigen HPA-la and the placental transfer of maternal antibodies would be expected to cause newborn:

Explanation

HPA-la is a platelet specific antigen, which is the most common cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia. Treatment consists of IVIG.

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93. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following results:  anti-D   anti-C   anti-E  anti-c  anti-e   Rh control      +              +         0           +           +             0 What is his most probable Rh genotype? 

Explanation

The most likely haplotype is DCe/ dce.

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94. Four units of blood are needed for elective surgery. The patient's serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-Fya and anti-Jkb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood?

Explanation

The frequency of compatible donors for this patient can be calculated by multiplying the percentage of the population that is e-C- x Fy(a-) x Jk(b-). The blood supplier's immunohematology reference laboratory may have units in stock or can request blood from other IRLs through the American Rare
Donor w.

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95. In a random population, 16% of the people are Rh-negative (rr). What percentage of the Rh-positive population is heterozygous for ? 

Explanation

The Hardy-Weinberg equation states p + q = 1.0.When the equation is expanded, it is P2 + 2pq +P2= 1.0.

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96. In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is:

Explanation

When a marker is in a child that the mother and alleged father do not have, the alleged father can not be the biological
father of the child. This is a direct exclusion.

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97. Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate. What is the best way to prepare this product?

Explanation

Newly diagnosed bone marrow candidates are at great risk for severe sequelae of CMV infections. Infection can best be reduced by using leukocyte-
reduction filters. CMV-seronegative units
are rarely used since leukocyte reducing via filtration is so effective. Washing does not remove as many leukocytes as filtering.

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98. Which of the following antibodies is neutralizable by pooled human plasma?

Explanation

Anti-Ch and anti-Rg react at IAT with trace amounts of C4 (a component of
complement) present on normal RBCs. The Ch and Rg substance is found soluble in plasma. Neutralization studies with pooled plasma can help confirm the antibody reactivity in a patient's sample. If test procedures are used to coat cells with C4, a patient with anti-Ch or anti-Rg may agglutinate the cells directly.

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99. The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:

Explanation

Antibodies in the Kidd blood group system are IgG and react best at the antiglobulin phase. These antibodies are associated with delayed hemolytic
transfusion reactions and reactivity can be enhanced by testing with enzyme pretreated cells.

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100. In a case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with:

Explanation

Anti-I is commonly found in all individuals, but when it causes hemolysis, the titer may be high and react at all temperatures. Cold agglutinin syndrome is mainly found in lymphoproliferative diseases.

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101. An individual's red blood cells give the following reactions with Rh antisera: anti-D   anti-C    anti-E   anti-c   anti-e  Rh control 4+           3+           0           3+        3+            0 The individual's most probable genotype is: 

Explanation

The patient lacks E. Since C and care alleles, C is inherited from one parent and c from the other. Since the person is homozygous fore, one of the genes needs to code force (RHce) and the other Ce (RHCe).
The RHD gene is more likely inherited with Ce than ce, so the person's most probable genotype is DCe/dce. This genotype is found in 31 % of the white and 15% of the black populations.

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102. Saliva from which of the following individuals would neutralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient?

Explanation

Group O have the most H substance in their saliva.The person must also be a secrete r of ABH substances. Due to gene interaction between the secretor gene and Lewis gene, people who are Le(a-b+) assures H in their saliva.

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103. Anti-Fya is:

Explanation

Anti-Fya is an IgG antibody that reacts best at the AHG phase, does not react with enzyme-treated red cells, is capable of causing hemolytic disease of the newborn, uand is not known to be an autoagglutinin.

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104. Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least:

Explanation

Apheresis (single donor) Platelets should contain at least 3.0 x 1011 platelets, be stored with continuous agitation at 20° -24°C, and have a pH of 6.2 or higher
when tested at the end of the storage period.

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105. A 25-year-old Caucasian woman, gravida 3, para 2, required 2 units of Red Blood Cells. The antibody screen was positive and the results of the antibody panel are shown below: What is the most probable genotype of this patient?

Explanation

After performing rule outs, the most likely antibody is anti-c. To form anti-c, the patient would need to inherit a gene from both parents that does not produce the c antigen. The most common gene that codes for no c antigen is denoted as R1.

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106. Genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC):

Explanation

MHC consists of both class I and class II HLA antigens. Discrimination of self from nonself is the primary function of the HLA system and involves many immune responses.

Submit
107. Once thawed, Fresh Frozen Plasma must be transfused within:

Explanation

Once thawed, FFP is stored at 1 ° -6°C for up to 24 hours.

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108. The phenomenon of an Rh-positive person whose serum contains anti-Dis best explained by:

Explanation

Individuals who are partial D are missing epitopes of the D antigen and can develop antibodies toward the epitopes they lack. Since all normal D antigens have all epitopes, the specificity of the person's antibody is anti-D.

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109. How many Caucasians in a population of 100,000 will have the following combination  of phenotypes? System                  Phenotype ABO                               0 Gm                                Fb PGM1                           2-1 EsD                               2-1

Explanation

When the percentages of each phenotype are multiplied together, the incidence of the phenotype occurs in 1.438% of the population, so in a population
of 100,000, there would be 1,438 with the phenotype.

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110. The observed phenotypes in a particular population are:  Phenotype           Number of persons Jk(a+b-)                               122 Jk(a+b+)                               194 Jk(a-b+)                                 84 What is the gene frequency of Jka in this population?

Explanation

Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation:
P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1.0 In this example, P2 is the homozygous population, Jk(a+b- ). The square root of P2 = p, which is the gene frequency of Jka in this population. Out of 400 people, 122, or 30% are homozygous. The square root of 0.30 = is 0.55.

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111. A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the father's most likely Rh phenotype?

Explanation

The baby appears to lack c since no HDFN was evident. The mom is most likely
R1 R1 , so had to pass R1 onto the baby. The father must have passed on an Rh gene that also did not produce c. Given the choices, the father has to be R1 r.

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112. Relationship testing produces the following red cell phenotyping results:                                     ABO                      Rh alleged father:            B                 D+C-c+E+e-  mother:                       O                  D+C+E- c- e+    child:                          O                   D+C+E-c+e+ What conclusions may be made?

Explanation

The child's genotype does not include E.The alleged father is homozygous for E. If he was the father the child would also have E.The father can be excluded from paternity.

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113. The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:

Explanation

The Lewis antigens are developed by gene interaction. Both the Lewis and Secretor gene are required for red cells to type as Le(a-b+). If a person has a Lewis gene, but not Secretor gene, then the cells type as Le(a+b-). The Le(a-b-) phenotype is derived when the Lewis gene is absent and the Secretor gene may or may not be present. The Le(a+b-) phenotype occurs in 22% or the population, and Le(a-b-) occurs in 6%, so the most likely phenotype of a nonsecretor (se/se) is Le(a+b-).

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114. A patient is group O, Rh-negative with anti-D and anti-K in her serum. What percentage of the general Caucasian donor population would be compatible with this patient? 

Explanation

Determination of compatibility can be determined by multiplying the percentage of compatibility of each antigen. 46% of the population is group O, 15% are D- , and 91 % are K- . 0.46 x 0.15 x 0.91 = O.

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115. Anti-D and anti-C are identified in the serum of a transfused pregnant woman, gravida 2, para  1. Nine months previously she received Rh immune globulin (RhIG) after delivery. Tests of the patient, her husband, and the child revealed the following:                anti-D   anti-C   anti-E    anti-c    anit-e  Patient        0          0           0            +            +        Father         +          0           0            +            + Child           +          0           0            +            +        The most likely explanation for the presence of anti-C is that this antibody is: ​​​

Explanation

The G antigen is normally present on red cells possessing either C or D. Anti-G
reacts with panel cells that are D+ or C+ and the antibodies appear to be anti-C and anti-D. The G antigen is expressed on the child's D+ red blood cells.

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116. The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a- ) woman will only produce:

Explanation

Sons inherit their X chromosome from their mother and Y chromosome from their father. Since the mother is Xg(a⁻), sons will be Xg(a⁻).

Daughters inherit one X chromosome from each parent. The father has Xg(a⁺) and the mother Xg(a⁻), so daughters will be Xg(a⁺)Xg(a⁻), but phenotypically considered Xg(a⁻) since a⁻ is recessive. However, as per the question’s allele notation, daughters carry one a⁺ and one a⁻.

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117. Inhibition testing can be used to confirm antibody specificity for which of the following antibodies?

Explanation

Lewis antigens are found soluble in saliva. If saliva containing Lewis substance
is added to a sample with anti-Lea , then neutralization occurs. Le(a+) indicator
cells added to the test system would be nonreactive. A proper control system is
required whenever neutralization studies are performed.

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118. What percent of group O donors would be compatible with a serum sample that contained anti-X and anti-Y if X antigen is present on red cells of 5 of 20 donors, and Y antigen is present on red cells of 1 of 10 donors?

Explanation

75% of donors would be compatible with anti-X and 90% with anti-Y. The frequency of compatibility for both antigens is determined by multiplying
the 2 compatibility percentages: 0.75 X 0.90 = 0.675.

Submit
119. A mother has the red cell phenotype D+C+E-c-e+ with anti-c (titer of 32 at AHG) in her serum. The father has the phenotype D+C+E-c+e+. The baby is Rh-negative and not affected with hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is he baby's most probable Rh genotype?

Explanation

The baby is Rh-negative and lacks c, since there is no evidence of HDFN. Inheritance of no D and no c is denoted as r'. The baby must have inherited this gene from both parents, and is homozygous r'r'.

Submit
120. Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians?

Explanation

The overall incidence of thee antigen is 98%. The overall incidence of c is 80%, Dis 85% and E is 30%.

Submit
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Cryoprecipitated AHF:
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Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18'C...
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Cells of the A3 subgroup will:
An assay of plasma from a bag of Cryoprecipitated AHF yields a...
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The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):
An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced...
Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time...
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Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent...
Refer to the following data: ...
Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
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The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:
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A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG....
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Anti-D and anti-C are identified in the serum of a transfused pregnant...
The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg(a- ) woman will only produce:
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