1.
What is the process that allows DNA to multiply?
Correct Answer
A. Replication
Explanation
Replication is the correct answer because it is the process by which DNA molecules make copies of themselves. During replication, the DNA double helix unwinds and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand. This ensures that each new cell produced during cell division receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Transcription, translation, and metastasis are not processes involved in DNA multiplication. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, translation is the synthesis of proteins from RNA, and metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body.
2.
How does DNA code for proteins?
Correct Answer
C. Transcription
Explanation
DNA codes for proteins through a process called transcription. During transcription, the DNA molecule is used as a template to produce a complementary RNA molecule called messenger RNA (mRNA). This mRNA carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it is translated into a specific sequence of amino acids, forming a protein. Replication is the process of copying DNA, while metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells. Therefore, the correct answer is transcription.
3.
What does the helicase do?
Correct Answer
B. Separates DNA strands
Explanation
Helicase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in DNA replication. It unwinds and separates the double-stranded DNA molecule by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs. This separation of DNA strands allows the replication machinery to access and copy the genetic information. Therefore, the correct answer is "Separates DNA strands."
4.
What do DNA polymerases do during Replication?
Correct Answer
A. Add complementary nucleotides to each strand
Explanation
During DNA replication, DNA polymerases play a crucial role in adding complementary nucleotides to each strand. They are enzymes that catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides, creating a new strand that is complementary to the template strand. This process ensures that the genetic information is accurately copied and passed on to the daughter cells.
5.
What are the 3 parts that make up a nucleotide?
Correct Answer
D. Nitrogenous base, pHospHate, Sugar
Explanation
A nucleotide is composed of three parts: a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a sugar molecule. The nitrogenous base can be adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), or guanine (G). The phosphate group provides the backbone structure of the nucleotide, and the sugar molecule is typically a deoxyribose in DNA or a ribose in RNA. These three components combine to form the basic building blocks of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA.
6.
What makes up the "handrails" of a DNA strand?
Correct Answer
A. pHospHate and Sugar
Explanation
The handrails of a DNA strand are made up of phosphate and sugar molecules. These molecules form the backbone of the DNA strand, providing structural support. The phosphate group connects to the sugar molecule, creating a repeating pattern of phosphate-sugar units. This backbone structure gives stability to the DNA molecule and allows it to maintain its double helix shape. The nitrogenous bases, on the other hand, are attached to the sugar molecules and form the rungs of the DNA ladder, providing the genetic information. RNA is not a component of the handrails of a DNA strand.
7.
What makes up the middle part of a nucleotide?
Correct Answer
B. Nitrogenous base
Explanation
The middle part of a nucleotide is made up of a nitrogenous base. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA. They consist of three components: a phosphate group, a sugar molecule, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous base is responsible for the genetic information carried by nucleic acids. There are four types of nitrogenous bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). In RNA, uracil (U) replaces thymine. The nitrogenous base forms hydrogen bonds with its complementary base in the opposite strand, enabling DNA replication and protein synthesis.
8.
What are the two purines?
Correct Answer
C. Adenine and Guanine
Explanation
Adenine and Guanine are the two purines. Purines are one of the two types of nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA, the other being pyrimidines. Adenine and Guanine are both double-ringed structures and are essential for the formation of DNA and RNA molecules. They play a crucial role in genetic coding and protein synthesis. Cytosine and Thymine are pyrimidines, not purines.
9.
What are the two pyrimidines
Correct Answer
D. Cytosine and Thymine
Explanation
The two pyrimidines are cytosine and thymine. Pyrimidines are one of the two types of nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA. They are characterized by their single-ring structure. Cytosine and thymine are both pyrimidines and are found in DNA. Cytosine pairs with guanine, while thymine pairs with adenine in DNA. These base pairs are essential for the structure and function of DNA, as they allow for the complementary pairing of the two strands.
10.
When bonding occurs in DNA, Adenine bonds with ___ and Guanine bonds with ____
Correct Answer
D. Thymine, Cytosine
Explanation
In DNA, adenine (A) always bonds with thymine (T) and guanine (G) always bonds with cytosine (C). This is due to the complementary base pairing rule, where A and T form two hydrogen bonds between them, and G and C form three hydrogen bonds between them. Therefore, the correct answer is Thymine, Cytosine.
11.
When bonding occurs in RNA, Adenine bonds with ___ , Guanine bonds with ___ and Thymine bonds with ____ .
Correct Answer
B. Uracil, Cytosine, Adenine
Explanation
In RNA, Adenine bonds with Uracil, Guanine bonds with Cytosine, and Thymine is not present. This is because RNA uses Uracil instead of Thymine as one of its bases. Therefore, the correct answer is Uracil, Cytosine, Adenine.
12.
Which two scientists received credit for the discovery of the "Double Helix" in 1953?
Correct Answer
A. Watson and Crick
Explanation
Watson and Crick are credited with the discovery of the "Double Helix" in 1953. They were able to propose the structure of DNA by using X-ray crystallography data collected by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins. Franklin and Wilkins played a crucial role in obtaining the data that was necessary for Watson and Crick's breakthrough, but they were not directly involved in the discovery of the double helix structure.
13.
What is the purpose of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?
Correct Answer
D. To multiply DNA
Explanation
The purpose of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is to multiply DNA. PCR is a technique used to amplify a specific DNA sequence in a laboratory setting. It allows for the production of multiple copies of a DNA segment, making it easier to study and analyze. This process involves repeated cycles of heating and cooling to denature, anneal, and extend DNA strands, resulting in exponential DNA amplification.
14.
What is a codon?
Correct Answer
C. 3 nucleotide sequences in mRNA that encodes an amino acid
Explanation
A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides found in mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid during protein synthesis. Each codon corresponds to a particular amino acid, allowing the correct sequence of amino acids to be assembled to form a protein. This process is essential for the functioning of cells and the expression of genetic information.
15.
What is an Anitcodon?
Correct Answer
B. 3 nucleotides on the RNA that are complementary to the sequence of a codon in mRNA
Explanation
An anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides found on a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule. It is complementary to the sequence of a codon on the messenger RNA (mRNA) during protein synthesis. The anticodon ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain. This complementary base pairing between the anticodon and codon allows for accurate translation of the genetic code.
16.
DNA has all but...
Correct Answer
D. Is shorter than RNA
Explanation
The given answer "Is shorter than RNA" is correct because DNA is typically longer than RNA molecules. DNA molecules are composed of two strands that are twisted together to form a double helix structure, while RNA molecules are usually single-stranded. Therefore, DNA molecules tend to be longer than RNA molecules.
17.
RNA has all but...
Correct Answer
C. Is longer than DNA
Explanation
RNA is not longer than DNA. RNA is typically shorter than DNA because it is synthesized as a complementary copy of a specific region of DNA. RNA is single stranded, contains the sugar ribose instead of deoxyribose, and has the nitrogenous base uracil instead of thymine.
18.
What is the purpose of mRNA?
Correct Answer
A. To carry the instructions from a gene to make a protein
19.
What is rRNA?
Correct Answer
D. A part of the structure of ribosomes
20.
Where does protein synthesis take place?
Correct Answer
B. In the ribosome
21.
What does tRNA do?
Correct Answer
A. Transfers amino acids to the ribosome to make proteins
22.
Where are ribosomes found?
Correct Answer
C. Cytoplasm
Explanation
Ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm. Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis in the cell. They are small, granular structures that can be found free-floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. The cytoplasm is the gel-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the nucleus. It is the site where many cellular processes occur, including protein synthesis. Therefore, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm where they carry out their function of protein synthesis.
23.
Where does Transcription take place?
Correct Answer
A. Nucleus of eukaryotic cells and cytoplasm in prokaryotic cells
Explanation
Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from DNA. In eukaryotic cells, transcription takes place in the nucleus, where the DNA is located. The DNA is transcribed into a precursor messenger RNA (pre-mRNA), which is then processed and transported out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm for further processing and translation. In prokaryotic cells, which lack a nucleus, transcription occurs directly in the cytoplasm. Therefore, the correct answer is that transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells.
24.
What does the RNA polymerase do in Transcription?
Correct Answer
C. Binds to the gene's promoter
Explanation
RNA polymerase is an enzyme responsible for transcription, the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. It binds to the gene's promoter, which is a specific region on the DNA molecule that signals the start of a gene. This binding allows the RNA polymerase to initiate the transcription process and begin synthesizing a complementary RNA strand. By binding to the gene's promoter, the RNA polymerase ensures that transcription occurs at the correct location on the DNA molecule.
25.
In Translation, mRNA binds with ____
Correct Answer
A. TRNA
Explanation
In translation, mRNA binds with tRNA. mRNA carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes, where protein synthesis occurs. tRNA, on the other hand, carries specific amino acids to the ribosomes, based on the codons present on the mRNA. The binding of mRNA and tRNA is essential for the correct assembly of amino acids into a polypeptide chain during protein synthesis.
26.
A polypeptide is a
Correct Answer
B. Very long amino acid chain
Explanation
A polypeptide is a very long amino acid chain. Polypeptides are formed when multiple amino acids are linked together through peptide bonds. These chains can range in length from just a few amino acids to thousands of amino acids. Polypeptides are the building blocks of proteins and play a crucial role in various biological processes.
27.
What is a genome?
Correct Answer
D. The complete genetic material in an individual
Explanation
The genome refers to the complete set of genetic material present in an individual. It includes all the genes, which are segments of DNA that code for specific products, as well as the regulatory elements that control the expression of these genes. The genome contains all the information necessary for the development and functioning of an organism.
28.
What is an operon?
Correct Answer
C. A series of genes coding for specific products and the regulatory products that manage these genes
Explanation
An operon is a series of genes that are located together on a DNA molecule and are under the control of a single promoter. These genes code for specific products, such as enzymes or proteins, and are regulated by other products, known as regulatory proteins. The regulatory proteins can either activate or inhibit the expression of the genes in the operon. This allows for coordinated regulation of gene expression and ensures that the genes are only expressed when needed.
29.
What do structural genes do?
Correct Answer
A. Code for polypeptides
Explanation
Structural genes are responsible for coding the information needed to produce polypeptides. Polypeptides are long chains of amino acids that form proteins, which are essential for various biological processes in the body. These genes provide the instructions for the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide, which ultimately determines the structure and function of the protein. Therefore, the correct answer is that structural genes code for polypeptides.
30.
What is a promoter?
Correct Answer
A. An enzyme that initiates transcription
Explanation
A promoter is an enzyme that initiates transcription. Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. Promoters are specific DNA sequences located near the beginning of a gene, and they provide a binding site for RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for transcription. The promoter helps to initiate the transcription process by guiding RNA polymerase to the correct starting point on the DNA strand. Therefore, the correct answer is "An enzyme that initiates transcription."
31.
What is an operator?
Correct Answer
D. A switch that controls the ability of RNA polymerase to move along structural genes
Explanation
The correct answer is "A switch that controls the ability of RNA polymerase to move along structural genes." This answer is correct because an operator is a region of DNA that acts as a binding site for a repressor protein. The repressor protein can bind to the operator and prevent RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes. Therefore, the operator acts as a switch, controlling the movement of RNA polymerase along the structural genes.
32.
What is an intron?
Correct Answer
B. A section of the structural genes that does not transcribe but translates
Explanation
An intron is a section of the structural genes that does not transcribe but translates. This means that it is a non-coding region of DNA that is present within a gene but is not involved in the final protein product. During gene expression, introns are removed through a process called splicing, and the remaining exons are joined together to form the mature mRNA molecule that is then translated into a protein. Therefore, an intron plays a role in regulating gene expression and is not directly involved in protein synthesis.
33.
What does an exon do?
Correct Answer
D. Translates and transcribes, but only when expressed
Explanation
Exons are segments of DNA that contain the coding regions of a gene. They play a crucial role in the process of gene expression by being transcribed into RNA and then translated into proteins. Therefore, the answer "Translates and transcribes, but only when expressed" accurately describes the function of exons in gene expression.
34.
What does a carcinogen cause?
Correct Answer
A. Cancer
Explanation
A carcinogen is a substance that can cause cancer. It is a known fact that exposure to certain chemicals, radiation, or other environmental factors can lead to the development of cancerous cells in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is cancer.
35.
What are oncogenes?
Correct Answer
C. Genes that cause uncontrolled cell multiplication
Explanation
Oncogenes are genes that cause uncontrolled cell multiplication. When these genes are activated or mutated, they can lead to the development of cancer. Unlike tumor suppressor genes that inhibit cell division, oncogenes promote cell growth and division, leading to the formation of tumors. This uncontrolled cell multiplication can result in the spread of cancer cells throughout the body and the potential for damage to organs and tissues.
36.
What are Tumor Supressor genes?
Correct Answer
B. Genes that are codes for proteins that prohibit excessive cell division
Explanation
Tumor suppressor genes are genes that code for proteins that help regulate cell division. These proteins play a critical role in preventing excessive cell division and the formation of tumors. When these genes are mutated or inactive, they can no longer inhibit cell division, leading to uncontrolled cell multiplication and an increased risk of tumor development. Therefore, the correct answer is "Genes that are codes for proteins that prohibit excessive cell division."
37.
A benign tumor is a tumor that...
Correct Answer
D. Is present but does not cause any damage
Explanation
A benign tumor is a tumor that is present but does not cause any damage. Unlike malignant tumors, which can invade nearby tissues and spread to other parts of the body, benign tumors do not spread and are generally non-cancerous. Although they may grow in size, they do not invade surrounding tissues or metastasize. Therefore, they can often be left untreated or may be surgically removed if they cause discomfort or other complications.
38.
What is Metastasis?
Correct Answer
A. When cancerous cells spread from the original area
Explanation
Metastasis refers to the process in which cancerous cells break away from the primary tumor and spread to other parts of the body through the bloodstream or lymphatic system. This is a crucial stage in cancer progression as it allows the cancer cells to establish secondary tumors in different organs or tissues, making the disease more difficult to treat.
39.
A carcinogen is all of the following except...
Correct Answer
B. Electricity
Explanation
A carcinogen is a substance or agent that can cause cancer. Radiation, asbestos, and chemicals in tobacco are known carcinogens because they have been proven to increase the risk of developing cancer. However, electricity is not considered a carcinogen. While exposure to high levels of electricity can cause burns or electrocution, it does not have a direct link to the development of cancer.
40.
In DNA fingerprinting, what is used in order to separate sections of DNA into small bars vertically?
Correct Answer
C. Magnetic fields
Explanation
Magnetic fields are used in DNA fingerprinting to separate sections of DNA into small bars vertically. This technique, known as gel electrophoresis, involves placing the DNA sample in a gel matrix and applying an electric current. The DNA molecules, being negatively charged, move towards the positive electrode. However, the gel matrix restricts their movement, causing them to separate based on size. To visualize these separated sections, magnetic fields are applied vertically, causing the DNA fragments to align into distinct bars. This allows for the identification and analysis of specific DNA sequences.
41.
What is PCR used for?
Correct Answer
A. Forensic
Explanation
PCR, or Polymerase Chain Reaction, is a technique used in molecular biology to amplify a specific DNA sequence. It is commonly used in forensic science to analyze DNA evidence and identify suspects or victims in criminal investigations. By amplifying the DNA, PCR allows for the production of enough DNA material for further analysis, such as DNA profiling or sequencing. Therefore, the correct answer is Forensic.
42.
What do restriction enzymes do?
Correct Answer
D. Cut up specific sections of DNA so the pieces can be made into a DNA fingerprint
Explanation
Restriction enzymes are proteins that can recognize specific DNA sequences and cut the DNA at those sites. This ability allows them to cut up specific sections of DNA, which can then be used to create a DNA fingerprint. By cutting the DNA into smaller fragments, restriction enzymes enable scientists to analyze and compare different DNA samples, helping in various applications such as genetic testing, forensic analysis, and DNA sequencing.
43.
Restriction enzymes look for ___ and cut the DNA there.
Correct Answer
C. Palindromes
Explanation
Restriction enzymes are proteins that recognize specific DNA sequences and cut the DNA at those sites. These enzymes are able to identify these sequences because they are palindromes, meaning they read the same forward and backward. The recognition and cutting of DNA by restriction enzymes is an essential process in genetic engineering and DNA analysis.
44.
What is recombinant DNA?
Correct Answer
D. When DNA molecules are artificially created by combing DNA from different sources
Explanation
Recombinant DNA refers to the process of creating DNA molecules by combining DNA from different sources. This involves taking DNA from one life form and transferring it into another, resulting in a new DNA sequence that is a combination of genetic material from different organisms. This technique is commonly used in genetic engineering to introduce specific traits or characteristics into an organism.
45.
What did The Global Human Genome Project achieve?
Correct Answer
A. It decoded the entire human DNA sequence
Explanation
The Global Human Genome Project achieved the decoding of the entire human DNA sequence. This means that it successfully mapped out and identified the sequence of nucleotides that make up the human genome. This breakthrough in genetics has provided valuable insights into human biology, disease research, and personalized medicine.
46.
What is a plasmid?
Correct Answer
A. A circular DNA molecule that is found in bacteria and can replicate independently of the main chromosome
Explanation
A plasmid is a circular DNA molecule that is found in bacteria and can replicate independently of the main chromosome. Plasmids often contain genes that provide additional benefits to the organism, such as antibiotic resistance. They can also be used in DNA technology to create commercial products. However, plasmids themselves are not a commercial product or a vitamin.
47.
All are NOT commercial products that resulted from DNA technology except...
Correct Answer
D. Vaccines
Explanation
Milk, plasmids, and genomes are all examples of commercial products that have been developed using DNA technology. Milk can be genetically modified to produce certain proteins or enzymes, plasmids are used in genetic engineering to transfer genes between organisms, and genomes can be sequenced and analyzed to understand genetic traits and diseases. Vaccines, on the other hand, are not directly produced using DNA technology. They are typically made from weakened or inactivated forms of viruses or bacteria, or from specific proteins or antigens derived from these pathogens.
48.
What is the process that introduces the nucleus of a body cell into an egg cell to create an identical organism?
Correct Answer
C. Cloning
Explanation
Cloning is the process that introduces the nucleus of a body cell into an egg cell to create an identical organism. This involves removing the nucleus from an egg cell and replacing it with the nucleus of a body cell, such as a skin cell. The resulting egg cell, now containing the genetic material of the body cell, is then stimulated to develop into an embryo. This process allows for the creation of an organism that is genetically identical to the donor of the body cell nucleus.
49.
Which is an agricultural application of genetic engineering?
Correct Answer
D. Improvement of nutrition
Explanation
Genetic engineering can be used in agriculture to improve the nutritional value of crops. Through genetic modification, scientists can enhance the nutrient content of plants, making them more nutritious for consumption. This can help address nutritional deficiencies and improve overall human health. By genetically engineering crops to contain higher levels of essential vitamins, minerals, or other beneficial compounds, the nutritional value of the food can be significantly enhanced. This application of genetic engineering in agriculture is aimed at improving the nutritional quality of crops and ultimately benefiting human nutrition.
50.
What are homeobox genes?
Correct Answer
B. Genes that code the proteins that control development mutations.
Explanation
Homeobox genes are a group of genes that code for proteins called transcription factors. These transcription factors play a crucial role in controlling the development of an organism by regulating the expression of other genes. Mutations in homeobox genes can lead to developmental abnormalities and disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is "Genes that code the proteins that control development mutations."