Biology Exam Questions And Answers Quiz

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Biology Exam Questions And Answers Quiz - Quiz


Welcome to our Biology Exam Questions and Answers Quiz! This quiz comprises a selection of diverse questions covering various aspects of biology, designed to test your knowledge and understanding of the subject. From cellular biology to ecology, genetics to anatomy, this quiz encompasses a broad spectrum of biological concepts. Challenge yourself with questions ranging from the basics of biological molecules to the intricacies of ecosystems and evolutionary processes. Each question is followed by multiple-choice options, ensuring a stimulating and interactive experience. Dive into the fascinating world of biology and see how many questions you can answer correctly! Are you Read moreready to put your biological knowledge to the test? Let's begin!


Biology Exam Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    Which cells undergo cell division?

    • A.

      Prokaryotic cells

    • B.

      Eukaryotic cells

    • C.

      Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

    • D.

      Prison cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
    Explanation
    Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells undergo cell division. Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, divide through a process called binary fission, where the cell duplicates its genetic material and splits into two identical daughter cells. Eukaryotic cells, found in plants, animals, and fungi, undergo a more complex process called mitosis, which involves the duplication and distribution of genetic material to produce two identical daughter cells.

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  • 2. 

    Most routine metabolic processes occur during which phase of the cell cycle?

    • A.

      Growth phase 1

    • B.

      Late prophase

    • C.

      Interphase

    • D.

      The life cycle?

    Correct Answer
    A. Growth phase 1
    Explanation
    Most routine metabolic processes occur during growth phase 1 of the cell cycle. This is because during growth phase 1, the cell prepares itself for DNA replication and cell division by synthesizing proteins, lipids, and other molecules necessary for cell growth and division. It is a period of intense metabolic activity where the cell accumulates energy and nutrients required for the upcoming phases of the cell cycle.

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  • 3. 

    Which cell cycle checkpoint determines whether the DNA has been replicated correctly?

    • A.

      The spindle checkpoint 

    • B.

      The DNA synthesis checkpoint

    • C.

      The DNA transition checkpoint

    • D.

      The DUI checkpoint

    Correct Answer
    B. The DNA synthesis checkpoint
    Explanation
    The DNA synthesis checkpoint determines whether the DNA has been replicated correctly. This checkpoint ensures that all DNA strands have been properly replicated and that there are no errors or abnormalities in the newly synthesized DNA. If any issues are detected, the cell cycle is halted to allow for DNA repair mechanisms to fix the errors before proceeding to the next phase of the cell cycle. This checkpoint plays a crucial role in maintaining genomic integrity and preventing the propagation of DNA damage.

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  • 4. 

    What happens during mitosis?

    • A.

      Codominance

    • B.

      The nucleus of the cell divides

    • C.

      Fragmentation

    • D.

      They party like its 1999

    Correct Answer
    B. The nucleus of the cell divides
    Explanation
    During mitosis, the nucleus of the cell divides. This process is essential for cell reproduction and growth. It involves the separation of duplicated chromosomes into two identical sets, resulting in the formation of two daughter cells with the same genetic information as the parent cell. Mitosis is crucial for various biological processes, such as tissue repair, development, and asexual reproduction. It ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes, allowing for proper cell function and growth.

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  • 5. 

    Why is it necessary for the DNA to replicate prior to cell division?

    • A.

      To make the process of replication easier

    • B.

      Because daughters are brats who want what they want when they want it

    • C.

      So that each daughter cell can grow independently of one another

    • D.

      So that each daughter cell will have a complete copy of the genetic material

    Correct Answer
    D. So that each daughter cell will have a complete copy of the genetic material
    Explanation
    The DNA needs to replicate prior to cell division so that each daughter cell will have a complete copy of the genetic material. This is essential for the proper functioning and development of the cells. Without replication, the daughter cells would not have the necessary genetic information to carry out their specific functions and maintain the integrity of the organism. Replication ensures that each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the DNA, allowing for the transmission of genetic traits and the continuation of life processes.

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  • 6. 

    Chromosomes become visible during what part of the cell cycle?

    • A.

      Metaphase of mitosis

    • B.

      Whenever they want because aint no one gonna tell them what to do!

    • C.

      Anaphase of miosis

    • D.

      Prophase of mitosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Prophase of mitosis
    Explanation
    During the prophase of mitosis, chromosomes condense and become visible under a microscope. They also become attached to spindle fibers and start to move towards the center of the cell. This is the phase where the nuclear envelope breaks down, and the formation of the mitotic spindle begins. Therefore, chromosomes become visible during the prophase of mitosis.

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  • 7. 

    What is the random distribution of homologous chromosomes during cell division known as?

    • A.

      Sharing

    • B.

      Degeneration

    • C.

      Gene expression

    • D.

      Independent assortment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Independent assortment.
    Explanation
    During cell division, homologous chromosomes randomly distribute themselves. This process is known as independent assortment.The other options mentioned in the question, such as sharing, degeneration, and gene expression, do not accurately describe the random distribution of homologous chromosomes during cell division.

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  • 8. 

    When do the sister chromatids line up at the equator of the cell?

    • A.

      Metaphase

    • B.

      Anaphase

    • C.

      Prophase

    • D.

      Sisters tend to line up with Justin Bieber tickets go on sale

    Correct Answer
    A. Metaphase
    Explanation
    During metaphase, the sister chromatids line up at the equator of the cell. This is the stage of mitosis where the nuclear envelope has broken down, and the spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the sister chromatids. The spindle fibers then align the sister chromatids along the metaphase plate, which is the imaginary line at the center of the cell. This alignment is crucial for the equal distribution of chromosomes to the daughter cells during cell division.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a form of asexual reproduction?

    • A.

      Fragmentation

    • B.

      Incomplete dominance

    • C.

      Degeneration

    • D.

      Cloning

    Correct Answer
    A. Fragmentation
    Explanation
    Fragmentation is a form of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into pieces, and each piece can regenerate into a new individual. This process is commonly observed in organisms such as flatworms, starfish, and plants. In fragmentation, the parent organism does not need a partner to reproduce, making it a form of asexual reproduction. In contrast, incomplete dominance refers to a pattern of inheritance where neither allele is completely dominant over the other, degeneration does not relate to reproduction, and cloning is a technique used in the laboratory to create genetically identical copies of an organism.

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  • 10. 

    Because of when the chromosomes pair up during meiosis, crossing-over must occur during which phase?

    • A.

      Prophase 1

    • B.

      Metaphase 1

    • C.

      The terrible twos

    • D.

      Cytokinesis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Prophase 1
    Explanation
    Crossing-over, which is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, occurs during prophase 1 of meiosis. This is the phase when the chromosomes pair up and form tetrads, allowing for the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids. During metaphase 1, the tetrads align at the equatorial plate, but no crossing-over takes place at this stage. "The terrible twos" and cytokinesis are unrelated to the process of crossing-over during meiosis.

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  • 11. 

    The law of independent assortment states that...

    • A.

      That you must pay all of your traffic fines.

    • B.

      Factors controlling different characteristics are inherited independently of each other.

    • C.

      Factors controlling different genes are inherited codependently of each other.

    • D.

      Factors controlling different characteristics are not inherited.

    Correct Answer
    B. Factors controlling different characteristics are inherited independently of each other.
    Explanation
    The law of independent assortment states that factors controlling different characteristics are inherited independently of each other. This means that the inheritance of one trait does not affect the inheritance of another trait. Each trait is inherited randomly and independently, leading to a variety of possible combinations. This principle was discovered by Gregor Mendel through his experiments with pea plants, where he observed that different traits, such as flower color and seed shape, were inherited independently of each other.

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  • 12. 

    Looking at your dog will give information concerning

    • A.

      The dog's vivpary type

    • B.

      The dog's intergenic type

    • C.

      The dog's phenotype

    • D.

      Who the dog most resembles in your family

    Correct Answer
    C. The dog's phenotype
    Explanation
    The dog's phenotype refers to its observable characteristics or traits, such as its appearance, behavior, and physical attributes. By looking at the dog, one can gather information about its phenotype, including its size, color, coat type, and other physical features. This can help in determining the dog's breed or breed mix, as well as understanding its overall appearance and behavior.

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  • 13. 

    An Aa individual has

    • A.

      A heterozygous genotype.

    • B.

      Alcoholic's anonymous meeting to go to

    • C.

      A homogenous genotype

    • D.

      An amoeboid genotype

    Correct Answer
    A. A heterozygous genotype.
    Explanation
    The given answer is "a heterozygous genotype" because the term "Aa individual" suggests that the individual has two different alleles for a particular gene, one dominant (A) and one recessive (a). This combination of alleles results in a heterozygous genotype.

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  • 14. 

    What is the inheritance pattern when both alleles are expressed equally in the phenotype of a heterozygote?

    • A.

      Codependence

    • B.

      Codominance

    • C.

      They express themselves in couple's therapy

    • D.

      Intro-dominance

    Correct Answer
    B. Codominance
    Explanation
    Codominance is the correct answer because it refers to the inheritance pattern in which both alleles of a gene are expressed equally and simultaneously in the phenotype of a heterozygote. In this pattern, neither allele is dominant or recessive over the other, and both alleles contribute to the observable traits. This results in a unique phenotype that shows characteristics of both alleles.

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  • 15. 

    What is the inheritance pattern associated with the ABO blood type in humans?

    • A.

      Degeneration

    • B.

      Four haploid cells

    • C.

      Super powers

    • D.

      Multiple alleles

    Correct Answer
    D. Multiple alleles
    Explanation
    The inheritance pattern associated with the ABO blood type in humans is multiple alleles. This means that there are more than two possible alleles for the gene that determines blood type. In the case of ABO blood type, there are three alleles: A, B, and O. These alleles can combine in different ways to produce four blood types: A, B, AB, and O. This inheritance pattern allows for a variety of blood types to exist within a population.

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  • 16. 

    What is the inheritance pattern when the dominant allele is not completely dominant?

    • A.

      Codominance

    • B.

      Predominance

    • C.

      The loss of super powers

    • D.

      Incomplete dominance

    Correct Answer
    D. Incomplete dominance
    Explanation
    Incomplete dominance is the correct answer because it refers to a situation where the heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate blend of the two homozygous phenotypes. In this pattern of inheritance, the dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of the recessive allele, resulting in a unique phenotype that is different from both parental phenotypes. This is in contrast to codominance, where both alleles are expressed equally, and dominance, where the dominant allele fully masks the recessive allele. The option "the loss of super powers" is unrelated and incorrect.

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  • 17. 

    Chargaff's rules state that...

    • A.

      No running in the house...

    • B.

      The amount of thymine is GREATER than the amount of adenine

    • C.

      The amount of adenine EQUALS the amount of thymine.

    • D.

      The amount of adenine is LESS than the amount of thymine

    Correct Answer
    C. The amount of adenine EQUALS the amount of thymine.
    Explanation
    Chargaff's rules state that the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine. This is known as the base pairing rule in DNA, where adenine always pairs with thymine and cytosine always pairs with guanine. These base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds. This rule is crucial for DNA replication and maintaining the integrity of the genetic code.

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  • 18. 

    The structure of DNA was identified by

    • A.

      The Avengers

    • B.

      James Watson and Francis Crick.

    • C.

      Chargraff

    • D.

      Mathew Thomas and Peter Fry

    Correct Answer
    B. James Watson and Francis Crick.
    Explanation
    James Watson and Francis Crick are credited with identifying the structure of DNA. They made this groundbreaking discovery in 1953, proposing the double helix structure of DNA. Their work was based on the X-ray crystallography images of DNA taken by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins. Watson and Crick's discovery revolutionized the field of biology and laid the foundation for our understanding of genetics.

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  • 19. 

    The types of RNA include...

    • A.

      Cytoplasm RNA

    • B.

      Messenger RNA

    • C.

      Ribosomes

    • D.

      The cure for excessive sweating

    Correct Answer
    B. Messenger RNA
    Explanation
    Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a type of RNA that carries genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. It is transcribed from a DNA template during the process of transcription and is essential for the translation of genetic information into proteins. Therefore, messenger RNA is a correct answer in the given list of options, while the other options, such as cytoplasm RNA, ribosomes, and the cure for excessive sweating, are either incorrect or irrelevant.

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  • 20. 

    The subunits of DNA are nucleotides consisting of...

    • A.

      A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base

    • B.

      The members of a famous boy band

    • C.

      Sugars and phosphates

    • D.

      A sugar, a carbon group, and an oxygen containing base

    Correct Answer
    A. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base
    Explanation
    The subunits of DNA are nucleotides, which consist of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base. These three components are the building blocks of DNA and are connected together to form the DNA molecule. The sugar provides the backbone of the DNA strand, with the phosphate group and nitrogen-containing base attached to it. The nitrogen-containing base is responsible for the genetic information encoded in the DNA sequence.

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  • 21. 

    The two processes of protein synthesis are

    • A.

      Fragmentation and degeneration

    • B.

      Gene expression and sexual reproduction

    • C.

      Transcription and translation

    • D.

      Going to college and getting a job you lazy bum

    Correct Answer
    C. Transcription and translation
    Explanation
    The two processes of protein synthesis are transcription and translation. Transcription is the process where the DNA sequence is used to create a complementary RNA molecule. This RNA molecule then serves as a template for translation. Translation is the process where the RNA molecule is used to synthesize a protein by linking amino acids together in a specific order. Fragmentation and degeneration, gene expression and sexual reproduction, and going to college and getting a job you lazy bum are not related to the processes of protein synthesis.

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  • 22. 

    For protein synthesis to initiate...

    • A.

      DNA polymerase must bind to a gene's promoter

    • B.

      Incomplete dominance must occur during cytokinesis 

    • C.

      The DNA and RNA must become friends

    • D.

      RNA polymerase must bind to a gene's promoter

    Correct Answer
    D. RNA polymerase must bind to a gene's promoter
    Explanation
    Protein synthesis is the process by which proteins are made in a cell. RNA polymerase is an enzyme responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA, which is the first step in protein synthesis. The gene's promoter is a specific region on the DNA where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription. Therefore, for protein synthesis to initiate, RNA polymerase must bind to a gene's promoter. This allows for the production of RNA molecules that will eventually be used to synthesize proteins.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following terms is most closely associated with a tRNA molecule?

    • A.

      Gene expression

    • B.

      Multiple alleles

    • C.

      Trapped reindeer near Antarctica

    • D.

      Anticodon

    Correct Answer
    D. Anticodon
    Explanation
    A tRNA molecule is most closely associated with an anticodon. tRNA (transfer RNA) is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides on the tRNA molecule that pairs with a complementary codon on the mRNA strand, ensuring that the correct amino acid is added to the growing protein chain. Therefore, the term "anticodon" is most closely related to a tRNA molecule.

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  • 24. 

    What do Beneficial mutations do?

    • A.

      Mutually benefits both organizations?

    • B.

      Allow organisms to asexually reproduce

    • C.

      Release enzymes that can digest organic matter such as cellulose and lignin.

    • D.

      Help organisms adapt to changes in their environment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Help organisms adapt to changes in their environment.
    Explanation
    Beneficial mutations are genetic changes that enhance an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its environment. These mutations provide advantages such as increased resistance to diseases, improved foraging abilities, or better camouflage. By helping organisms adapt to changes in their environment, beneficial mutations increase their chances of survival and reproductive success. This allows these advantageous traits to be passed on to future generations, contributing to the overall evolution of a species.

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  • 25. 

    Chromosomal alterations include deletions and...

    • A.

      Pepperoni pizzas

    • B.

      Incomplete dominance

    • C.

      Haploid cells

    • D.

      Inversion mutations

    Correct Answer
    D. Inversion mutations
    Explanation
    Chromosomal alterations can occur through various mechanisms, including deletions and inversion mutations. Deletions involve the loss of a segment of a chromosome, while inversion mutations occur when a segment of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches in the reverse orientation. Both deletions and inversion mutations can lead to significant changes in the genetic material, potentially affecting gene function and causing various genetic disorders. Therefore, the given answer, "inversion mutations," is a correct example of a chromosomal alteration.

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  • 26. 

    Germline mutations are potentially dangerous, as they...

    • A.

      Can be passed to offsprings

    • B.

      Cause a zombie outbreak

    • C.

      Release enzymes that can digest organic matter

    • D.

      Can lead to fragmentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be passed to offsprings
    Explanation
    Germline mutations refer to genetic mutations that occur in the reproductive cells (sperm and eggs) and can be passed on to offspring. This means that if an individual has a germline mutation, their children have the potential to inherit the mutation as well. This can have significant implications for the health and well-being of future generations, as certain germline mutations can lead to genetic disorders or increased susceptibility to certain diseases. Therefore, germline mutations are considered potentially dangerous due to their ability to be passed on to offspring.

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  • 27. 

    Using a gene to make a protein is called...

    • A.

      Ethology

    • B.

      Nondisjunction

    • C.

      Gene expression

    • D.

      Inversion mutations

    Correct Answer
    C. Gene expression
    Explanation
    Gene expression refers to the process by which information from a gene is used to create a functional protein. This process involves multiple steps, including transcription, where the DNA sequence of a gene is transcribed into a messenger RNA (mRNA) molecule, and translation, where the mRNA is used as a template to synthesize a protein. Therefore, gene expression is the correct term to describe the process of using a gene to make a protein.

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  • 28. 

    Gene expression is regulated to...

    • A.

      Create daughter cells

    • B.

      Make sure their aren't any rule breakers in the gene pool

    • C.

      Ensure that the correct proteins are made in the cells in which they are needed

    • D.

      Prevent gene mutations

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that the correct proteins are made in the cells in which they are needed
    Explanation
    Gene expression is the process by which information from a gene is used to create a functional protein. It involves the transcription of DNA into RNA and the translation of RNA into protein. Regulation of gene expression is important to ensure that the correct proteins are produced in the cells where they are needed. This allows for the proper functioning of cells and tissues in an organism. By controlling when and where genes are expressed, the organism can respond to its environment, develop and differentiate properly, and maintain homeostasis.

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  • 29. 

    Which statement best describes the TATA box?

    • A.

      It falls in between the ectoderm and the endoderm

    • B.

      A protective bra that keeps your tatas safe. NO BOYS ALLOWED!

    • C.

      A regulatory element that is part of the promoter of most eukaryotic genes

    • D.

      It stores water in the cells

    Correct Answer
    C. A regulatory element that is part of the promoter of most eukaryotic genes
    Explanation
    The TATA box is a regulatory element that is part of the promoter of most eukaryotic genes. It is a DNA sequence that helps in the binding of transcription factors and RNA polymerase to initiate the transcription process. The TATA box is crucial for the accurate initiation of gene expression and plays a significant role in regulating gene activity.

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  • 30. 

    All of the DNA of the human species makes up the human

    • A.

      Genome

    • B.

      Biome

    • C.

      Geotropism

    • D.

      Human stupidity complex

    Correct Answer
    A. Genome
    Explanation
    The correct answer is genome. The genome refers to the complete set of genetic material or DNA present in an organism. In the case of the human species, the genome encompasses all the DNA that makes up a human being. It includes all the genes and non-coding regions that determine the characteristics and traits of an individual. The genome is essential for understanding human biology, evolution, and the development of diseases.

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  • 31. 

    The goal of the Human Genome Project was to...

    • A.

      Regulate elements in the eukaryotic gene

    • B.

      Sequence all 3 billion base pairs of human DNA.

    • C.

      Mind control the human species to allow the powers that be to finally achieve world domination

    • D.

      To study how living things interact with each other and their environment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sequence all 3 billion base pairs of human DNA.
    Explanation
    The goal of the Human Genome Project was to sequence all 3 billion base pairs of human DNA. This project aimed to determine the complete genetic makeup of human beings, which would provide valuable information about our genes, genetic variations, and their potential implications for health and disease. By sequencing the entire human genome, scientists hoped to gain a better understanding of genetics and its role in human biology, leading to advancements in medicine, personalized healthcare, and the development of new treatments and therapies.

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  • 32. 

    Linked genes are...

    • A.

      Codependent

    • B.

      Twinsies

    • C.

      Reliant on each other

    • D.

      On the same chromosome

    Correct Answer
    D. On the same chromosome
    Explanation
    Linked genes are on the same chromosome. This means that they are physically located close to each other on the same chromosome. This proximity increases the likelihood that they will be inherited together during the process of genetic recombination. Therefore, linked genes are often inherited as a unit, rather than independently.

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  • 33. 

    Most of the human genome is made of...

    • A.

      Vampires

    • B.

      Intergenic regions

    • C.

      Alleles

    • D.

      Aminotes

    Correct Answer
    B. Intergenic regions
    Explanation
    Intergenic regions refer to the non-coding DNA sequences found between genes in the human genome. These regions do not contain genes that encode proteins but are still important for the regulation of gene expression. They can contain regulatory elements that control the activity of nearby genes, as well as repetitive DNA sequences. Since intergenic regions make up a significant portion of the human genome, it is the most plausible and accurate answer among the given options.

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  • 34. 

    Hemophilia A is due to...

    • A.

      Reduced activity of a protein needed for blood clotting

    • B.

      Too much keratin in the blood stream

    • C.

      The dormant state of a virus inside a host body

    • D.

      Pigeon poop

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced activity of a protein needed for blood clotting
    Explanation
    Hemophilia A is a genetic disorder that is caused by a reduced activity of a specific protein needed for blood clotting. This protein, called factor VIII, is essential for the formation of blood clots to stop bleeding. In individuals with hemophilia A, the reduced activity of factor VIII leads to prolonged bleeding and difficulty in clot formation. This condition is inherited and primarily affects males, as the gene responsible for producing factor VIII is located on the X chromosome.

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  • 35. 

    Down syndrome is due to...

    • A.

      Clumsiness

    • B.

      Too much chloroplast in the brain

    • C.

      Over production in the coxal glands

    • D.

      Nondisjunction of chromosome 21

    Correct Answer
    D. Nondisjunction of chromosome 21
    Explanation
    Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an error in cell division called nondisjunction, specifically involving chromosome 21. Nondisjunction occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during the formation of eggs or sperm. As a result, an individual ends up with an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to the characteristic physical and cognitive features associated with Down syndrome. This error in chromosome division is responsible for the development of Down syndrome, not clumsiness, chloroplasts, or overproduction in the coxal glands.

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  • 36. 

    In a polygenic trait, such as adult height, most people...

    • A.

      Will have a phenotype close to the average.

    • B.

      Will be insulin resistant

    • C.

      Will release enzymes that can digest organic matter

    • D.

      Will hate their parents

    Correct Answer
    A. Will have a phenotype close to the average.
    Explanation
    In a polygenic trait, such as adult height, multiple genes contribute to determining the phenotype. This means that there is a range of possible outcomes, with some individuals having a height above the average and others below. However, the majority of people will fall close to the average height due to the combined influence of these genes. Therefore, the correct answer is that most people will have a phenotype close to the average.

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  • 37. 

    The steps of gene cloning are...

    • A.

      Isolation, ligation, transformation, and selection

    • B.

      Degeneration, fragmentation, geotropism, and beration

    • C.

      Dangerous!!! 

    • D.

      Gene expression, sublimation, and reproduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolation, ligation, transformation, and selection
    Explanation
    The correct answer is isolation, ligation, transformation, and selection. Gene cloning involves several steps. The first step is isolation, where the desired gene is extracted from the source DNA. Then, ligation occurs, where the isolated gene is inserted into a vector, such as a plasmid. Transformation follows, where the recombinant DNA is introduced into a host organism, such as bacteria. Finally, selection takes place, where only the host organisms that have successfully taken up the recombinant DNA are identified and allowed to grow.

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  • 38. 

    Transgenic crops have been created that...

    • A.

      Are brighter and sweeter

    • B.

      Yield more food, resist insects, survive droughts

    • C.

      Release enzymes that can digest organic matter

    • D.

      Produce money instead of fruits and veggies. Money really can grow on trees!

    Correct Answer
    B. Yield more food, resist insects, survive droughts
    Explanation
    Transgenic crops have been genetically modified to possess traits that allow them to yield a greater amount of food, withstand attacks from insects, and survive periods of drought. These modifications have been made to enhance the productivity and resilience of the crops, ultimately leading to increased agricultural output and food security.

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  • 39. 

    The first human protein produced using biotechnology was...

    • A.

      Adrenalin

    • B.

      White blood cells

    • C.

      Friends for lonely people

    • D.

      Insulin

    Correct Answer
    D. Insulin
    Explanation
    Insulin was the first human protein produced using biotechnology. Biotechnology involves the use of living organisms or their components to create useful products. Insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, was traditionally extracted from the pancreas of animals. However, with the advancements in biotechnology, scientists were able to produce insulin using genetically modified bacteria or yeast. This breakthrough revolutionized the treatment of diabetes and paved the way for the production of other important human proteins using biotechnology.

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  • 40. 

    The relationship between autotrophs and producers is...

    • A.

      That autotrophs help decompose waste matter from producers

    • B.

      Their relationship status on Facebook says "it's complicated"

    • C.

      That they are the same organisms.

    • D.

      There is no relationship

    Correct Answer
    C. That they are the same organisms.
    Explanation
    Autotrophs and producers are the same organisms. Autotrophs are organisms that can produce their own food using sunlight or inorganic substances, while producers are organisms that can convert energy from the environment into organic compounds. Since autotrophs are capable of producing their own food, they are also considered as producers in the ecosystem. Therefore, the relationship between autotrophs and producers is that they are the same organisms.

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  • 41. 

    Which statement best describes a trophic level?

    • A.

      The level you need to beat to win Super Mario 3 and claim the trophy

    • B.

      The amount of oxygen and organism has in its blood.

    • C.

      The feeding position of an organism in a food chain or web.

    • D.

      The amount of insulin produced by the pancreas 

    Correct Answer
    C. The feeding position of an organism in a food chain or web.
    Explanation
    A trophic level refers to the feeding position of an organism in a food chain or web. It represents the hierarchical levels in an ecosystem where organisms obtain energy and nutrients. Each level represents a different group of organisms that occupy a specific position in the food chain. Organisms at higher trophic levels consume those at lower levels, indicating the flow of energy and nutrients through the ecosystem. This concept is crucial in understanding the dynamics and interactions within an ecosystem.

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  • 42. 

    Examples of decomposers include...

    • A.

      Bottom feeders like my little brother

    • B.

      Large cats like leopards and tigers

    • C.

      Vultures, hawks, and crows

    • D.

      Earthworms, dung beetles, and spiders

    Correct Answer
    D. Earthworms, dung beetles, and spiders
    Explanation
    The correct answer is earthworms, dung beetles, and fungi. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organisms and organic waste into simpler substances. Earthworms, dung beetles, and fungi are examples of decomposers, as they play a crucial role in the decomposition process. Earthworms help break down organic matter in the soil, dung beetles feed on animal waste, and spiders contribute to predation by killing and feeding insects. These decomposers aid in nutrient recycling and maintaining the balance of ecosystems.

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  • 43. 

    Which statement best defines ecology?

    • A.

      The study of friendship. AWWW!

    • B.

      The study of sexual reproduction

    • C.

      The study of human cells

    • D.

      The study of how living things interact with each other and with their environment

    Correct Answer
    D. The study of how living things interact with each other and with their environment
    Explanation
    Ecology is defined as the study of how living things interact with each other and with their environment. This field of science focuses on understanding the relationships between organisms and their surroundings, including the impact of these interactions on the ecosystem as a whole. It involves studying various aspects such as the flow of energy, the cycling of nutrients, and the distribution and abundance of species. By examining these interactions, ecologists can gain insights into the functioning and sustainability of ecosystems, as well as the potential impacts of human activities on the environment.

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  • 44. 

    Which statement best describes a biogeochemical cycle?

    • A.

      The process an organism goes through during its life from birth to death and decomposition.

    • B.

      The cycle of photosynthesis.

    • C.

      A bike-cycle. SEE WHAT I DID THERE?! HAHAHA

    • D.

      A cycle that continuously cycles chemical elements and water that are needed by organisms through an ecosystem.

    Correct Answer
    D. A cycle that continuously cycles chemical elements and water that are needed by organisms through an ecosystem.
    Explanation
    A biogeochemical cycle is a process that involves the continuous cycling of chemical elements and water through an ecosystem. This cycle is important because it ensures that the necessary elements and water are available for organisms to survive and thrive. It includes processes such as photosynthesis, respiration, decomposition, and nutrient recycling.

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  • 45. 

    In terms of carbon and the atmosphere, autotrophs do what?

    • A.

      Remove carbon through photosynthesis and release carbon by cellular respiration

    • B.

      Use carbon to release enzymes that can digest organic matter such as cellulose and lignin.

    • C.

      Is a regulatory element that is a carbon promoter of most eukaryotic genes.

    • D.

      They join the transformers and are from hence forth known as the Autobots. "Autobots, assemble!" That's an actual quote from the movie!

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove carbon through photosynthesis and release carbon by cellular respiration
    Explanation
    Autotrophs are organisms that produce their own food through photosynthesis. They use carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to synthesize organic compounds, such as glucose, and release oxygen as a byproduct. This process helps in removing carbon from the atmosphere. However, autotrophs also undergo cellular respiration, where they break down organic compounds to release energy, and this process releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere. Therefore, autotrophs both remove carbon through photosynthesis and release carbon through cellular respiration.

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  • 46. 

    Nitrogen fixation is...

    • A.

      The process of changing nitrogen gas to carbon.

    • B.

      When a male nitrogen atom sees a beautiful female nitrogen atom and falls in love, he then begins to obsess over her, almost in a stalker like manner.

    • C.

      The process of changing nitrogen gas to nitrates.

    • D.

      The process of changing nitrogen gas to oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    C. The process of changing nitrogen gas to nitrates.
    Explanation
    Nitrogen fixation is the process by which atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2) is converted into a usable form for plants and other organisms, typically into compounds like ammonia (NH3) or nitrates (NO3^-). Option C correctly identifies this process as the conversion of nitrogen gas into nitrates. These nitrogen-containing compounds serve as essential nutrients for plants, which then incorporate nitrogen into their proteins and other vital molecules.

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  • 47. 

    A biome is...

    • A.

      Bacteria in your gut

    • B.

      The climate and the changes that occur in that climate over an extended period of time 

    • C.

      A cave man played by Brenden Frasier in the 90's Hollywood classic, Bio-dome where they find the cave man, later to be referred to as "biome" since "cave man" is an offensive term, buried in ice.

    • D.

      A group of similar ecosystems with the same general abiotic factors and primary producers and consumers.

    Correct Answer
    D. A group of similar ecosystems with the same general abiotic factors and primary producers and consumers.
  • 48. 

    Which best describes the relationship between climate and biodiversity?

    • A.

      As climate determines plant growth, it also directly influences the biodiversity of a biome.

    • B.

      The biodiversity in an area will affect the climate of that area.

    • C.

      Their relationship is strong!

    • D.

      As the temperature rises and falls from day to day, the animals that live in a biome will either find a new home or claim this biome as their home.

    Correct Answer
    A. As climate determines plant growth, it also directly influences the biodiversity of a biome.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that climate directly influences the biodiversity of a biome because it determines plant growth. This means that different climates will support different types of plants, which in turn will attract different types of animals. Therefore, the biodiversity in a particular area is directly linked to the climate of that area.

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  • 49. 

    Aquatic biomes are defined in terms of which abiotic factors?

    • A.

      Sunlight, dissolved oxygen and nutrients, temperature, and moisture

    • B.

      Climate and land availability

    • C.

      No. Just no.

    • D.

      Scavengers, decomposers, plants, and mammals

    Correct Answer
    A. Sunlight, dissolved oxygen and nutrients, temperature, and moisture
    Explanation
    Aquatic biomes are defined in terms of sunlight, dissolved oxygen and nutrients, temperature, and moisture because these abiotic factors greatly influence the characteristics and dynamics of aquatic ecosystems. Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis, which provides energy for aquatic plants and algae. Dissolved oxygen and nutrients are necessary for the survival of aquatic organisms and affect the overall productivity of the biome. Temperature and moisture levels determine the types of organisms that can thrive in a particular aquatic habitat.

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  • 50. 

    Which is an example of a predator-prey relationship?

    • A.

      The relationship between a lion and a zebra.

    • B.

      The relationship between rotting log and mushroom

    • C.

      The relationship between fly and dead animal.

    • D.

      The relationship is one of love!

    Correct Answer
    A. The relationship between a lion and a zebra.
    Explanation
    The relationship between a lion and a zebra is an example of a predator-prey relationship. In this relationship, the lion is the predator that hunts and feeds on the zebra, which is the prey. The lion relies on the zebra as a source of food, while the zebra must try to avoid being caught and eaten by the lion. This type of relationship is common in nature, where predators depend on hunting and consuming other animals for their survival.

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Stephen Reinbold |PhD, Biological Sciences |
Biology Expert
Stephen Reinbold has a Ph.D. in Biological Sciences with a particular interest in teaching. He taught General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology for almost thirty years at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri. He particularly enjoyed emphasizing scientific methodology and student research projects. Now, enjoying retirement, he works part-time as an editor while also engaging in online activities.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 28, 2024
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    Expert Reviewed by
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    Quiz Created by
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