# How Well You Know Anesthesia? Quiz

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How well you know anaesthesia quiz. The amount of anaesthesia a person or animal should be given is depended on different factors such as weight and type of condition one has. There are different types of anaesthesia which can either be local, regional or general. Do you think you remember your basics to these types and how to administer drugs in each? The quiz will help refresh your memory on the basics.

• 1.

### A 15 kg dog weighs how many pounds?

• A.

30.3 lbs

• B.

33 lbs

• C.

6.8 lbs

• D.

28 lbs

B. 33 lbs
Explanation
The correct answer is 33 lbs because 15 kg is equivalent to approximately 33 lbs.

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• 2.

### A 40 lb dog weighs how many kgs?

• A.

18.18 kgs

• B.

88 kgs

• C.

44 kgs

• D.

13.7 kgs

A. 18.18 kgs
Explanation
The correct answer is 18.18 kgs because to convert pounds to kilograms, you divide the number of pounds by 2.2046. So, 40 divided by 2.2046 equals approximately 18.18 kgs.

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• 3.

### A 65 kg dog weighs how many pounds?

• A.

151 lbs

• B.

143 lbs

• C.

29.5 lbs

• D.

33 lbs

B. 143 lbs
Explanation
The correct answer is 143 lbs. To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.2046. In this case, the weight of the dog is 65 kg. Multiplying 65 by 2.2046 gives us approximately 143 lbs.

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• 4.

### A normal, healthy patient that is undergoing a spay surgery would fall where on the ARA scale?

• A.

1--minimal risk

• B.

2--low risk

• C.

3--moderate risk

• D.

4--high risk

• E.

5--extreme risk

A. 1--minimal risk
Explanation
A normal, healthy patient undergoing a spay surgery would fall under minimal risk on the ARA scale. This means that the patient has a very low chance of experiencing any complications or adverse reactions during the surgery. The patient's overall health and condition play a significant role in determining their risk level, and in this case, being normal and healthy indicates a minimal risk.

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• 5.

### A patient with severe systemic disease, such as anemia, moderate dehydration, and compensated organ disease would fall where on the ARA scale?

• A.

1--minimial risk

• B.

2--low risk

• C.

3--moderate risk

• D.

4--high risk

• E.

5--extreme risk

C. 3--moderate risk
Explanation
A patient with severe systemic disease, such as anemia, moderate dehydration, and compensated organ disease would fall under moderate risk on the ARA scale. This is because the patient's condition involves multiple health issues that are significant enough to pose a moderate risk during medical procedures or surgeries. While the patient's condition is not classified as high or extreme risk, it is more than minimal or low risk due to the severity and combination of the systemic diseases present.

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• 6.

### A state of calm or drowsiness.

sedation
Explanation
Sedation refers to a state of calm or drowsiness. It is a medical practice used to induce a relaxed and tranquil condition in patients, typically before a medical procedure or surgery. Sedation helps to reduce anxiety and discomfort, allowing patients to remain calm and cooperative during the procedure. It can be achieved through various methods, including the administration of medications that promote relaxation and drowsiness.

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• 7.

### A state of relaxation and reduction of anxiety.

tranquilization
Explanation
Tranquilization refers to a state of relaxation and reduction of anxiety. It is the process or act of calming and soothing someone or something. This can be achieved through various means, such as medication, therapy, or engaging in calming activities. Tranquilization helps to alleviate stress and promote a sense of calmness, allowing individuals to feel more at ease and less anxious.

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• 8.

### A state without pain.

analgesia
Explanation
Analgesia refers to a state without pain. It is a medical term used to describe the absence or relief of pain, achieved through the use of analgesic drugs or techniques. When someone is experiencing analgesia, they are not feeling any pain or discomfort. This term is commonly used in medical settings to describe the desired outcome of pain management interventions, such as during surgeries or in the treatment of chronic pain conditions.

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• 9.

### Active scavengers used activated charcoal to remove waste anesthetic gas.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Active scavengers do not use activated charcoal to remove waste anesthetic gas. Instead, active scavengers use a vacuum system to actively remove waste gases from the operating room. Activated charcoal is used in passive scavenging systems, where the gas is passively adsorbed onto the charcoal. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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• 10.

### Anticholinergics reduce or eliminate some of the undesirable effects of anesthesia.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Anticholinergics are medications that block the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter in the body. During anesthesia, certain undesirable effects can occur, such as excessive salivation, bradycardia (slow heart rate), and bronchoconstriction (narrowing of the airways). Anticholinergics can help reduce or eliminate these effects by blocking the receptors that acetylcholine acts on. Therefore, the statement that anticholinergics reduce or eliminate some of the undesirable effects of anesthesia is true.

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• 11.

### ARA stands for

anesthetic risk assessment
Explanation
ARA stands for anesthetic risk assessment. This term refers to the evaluation and assessment of the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia to a patient. Before undergoing a surgical procedure, it is crucial to assess the patient's overall health status, medical history, and any potential risk factors that may affect their response to anesthesia. This assessment helps the medical team to determine the appropriate anesthesia plan and minimize any potential complications or adverse reactions during the procedure.

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• 12.

### Compressed gas sources should be changed when they contain

• A.

0-10 psi

• B.

25-50 psi

• C.

90 psi

• D.

100-200 psi

D. 100-200 psi
Explanation
Compressed gas sources should be changed when they contain 100-200 psi because this range indicates that the gas source is nearing its maximum pressure capacity. Continuing to use the gas source beyond this range can pose safety risks, such as potential leaks or explosions. Therefore, it is recommended to replace the compressed gas source within the 100-200 psi range to ensure safe and efficient operation.

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• 13.

### Cone-shaped devices that allow you to deliver oxygen and/or anesthetic gases to the patient without intubating them.

• A.

Induction chamber

• B.

• C.

Vaporizer

• D.

Flow meter

Explanation
A mask is a cone-shaped device that allows the delivery of oxygen and/or anesthetic gases to the patient without the need for intubation. It is placed over the patient's nose and mouth, creating a seal to ensure that the gases are delivered effectively. Masks are commonly used in medical settings, such as during surgeries or for patients who require supplemental oxygen. They provide a non-invasive method of delivering gases and are more comfortable for the patient compared to intubation. Masks come in various sizes and designs to accommodate different patients and their specific needs.

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• 14.

### General anesthesia is defined as the loss of feeling or sensation to a specific area.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because general anesthesia is not limited to a specific area but instead causes a loss of sensation and consciousness throughout the entire body. It is used for surgeries and medical procedures that require the patient to be completely unconscious and unaware of the pain or discomfort.

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• 15.

### Glycopyrrolate decreases GI motility.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Glycopyrrolate does not decrease GI motility. In fact, it is known to increase GI motility. Therefore, the statement that glycopyrrolate decreases GI motility is false.

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• 16.

### It is recommended most patients be fasted for about ____ hours before the surgery.

• A.

6

• B.

12

• C.

18

• D.

24

B. 12
Explanation
Most patients are recommended to be fasted for about 12 hours before surgery. Fasting helps to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia, as it decreases the amount of stomach contents. This is important because if a patient were to vomit and aspirate stomach contents during surgery, it can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Fasting also helps to ensure that the patient's stomach is empty, allowing for a safer and more successful surgery.

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• 17.

### Ketamine is always used with a(n)

• A.

Anticholinergic

• B.

Sedative

• C.

Opioid

• D.

Tranquilizer

B. Sedative
Explanation
Ketamine is always used with a sedative because ketamine alone can cause hallucinations and dissociative effects. The sedative helps to counteract these side effects and provide a more controlled and comfortable experience for the patient. Additionally, the sedative can help to enhance the pain-relieving effects of ketamine.

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• 18.

### Laryngoscopes are not used in what animals?

• A.

Cattle and horses

• B.

Sheep and goats

• C.

Cats and dogs

• D.

Pigs

A. Cattle and horses
Explanation
Laryngoscopes are not used in cattle and horses because their anatomy and size make it difficult to use this instrument effectively. Laryngoscopes are commonly used in veterinary medicine to examine the larynx and upper airway of animals, but in the case of cattle and horses, alternative methods such as endoscopy or palpation are often preferred.

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• 19.

### Long and intermediate-acting barbiturates are generally used for anticonvulsant therapy.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Long and intermediate-acting barbiturates are commonly prescribed for anticonvulsant therapy because they have a longer duration of action, providing sustained seizure control. These medications work by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, reducing the excitability of neurons and preventing seizures. While there are other medications available for anticonvulsant therapy, barbiturates have been used for many years and have proven efficacy in managing seizures. Therefore, the statement "Long and intermediate-acting barbiturates are generally used for anticonvulsant therapy" is true.

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• 20.

### M.A.C. stands for

minimum alveolar concentration
Explanation
M.A.C. stands for minimum alveolar concentration. This term is used in the field of anesthesia to measure the potency of an inhaled anesthetic. It refers to the minimum concentration of the anesthetic gas required to prevent movement in 50% of patients in response to a surgical stimulus. The lower the M.A.C., the more potent the anesthetic. This measurement is important in determining the appropriate dosage of anesthetic for each patient during surgery.

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• 21.

### Neuroleptoanalgesia is a state of profound sedation and analgesia produced by giving simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Neuroleptoanalgesia is a medical term used to describe a state of deep sedation and pain relief achieved by administering both an opioid and a tranquilizer simultaneously. This combination effectively induces a state of profound sedation and analgesia, providing relief from pain and promoting relaxation. Therefore, the statement that neuroleptoanalgesia is produced by giving simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer is true.

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• 22.

### Nitrous oxide tanks are blue.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Nitrous oxide tanks are typically painted blue for safety reasons. The blue color helps to easily identify and distinguish them from other gas cylinders. This is important because nitrous oxide is a powerful anesthetic gas that should only be used by trained professionals in medical and dental settings. The blue color serves as a visual cue to ensure that the correct gas is being used and to prevent any potential mix-ups or accidents.

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• 23.

### Scavenger units safely filter/route waste gas from induction chambers.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement suggests that scavenger units filter and route waste gas from induction chambers. However, the correct answer is False, which means that scavenger units do not perform this function. Therefore, the statement is incorrect and the answer is False.

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• 24.

### The following steps of anesthesia are scrambled. Give the correct sequence. (For example b, d, a, e, etc.) a. Induction b. Recovery c. Patient Evaluation and Preparation d. Maintenance e. Preanesthetic Medication f.  Equipment and Supplies

c, f, e, a, d, b
Explanation
The correct sequence of the steps of anesthesia is as follows:
c. Patient Evaluation and Preparation - This step involves evaluating the patient's medical history, conducting physical examinations, and preparing the patient for anesthesia.
f. Equipment and Supplies - This step involves ensuring that all necessary equipment and supplies are available and in proper working condition.
e. Preanesthetic Medication - This step involves administering medications to the patient before anesthesia to help relax them and reduce pain.
a. Induction - This step involves administering the anesthesia to the patient and inducing a state of unconsciousness.
d. Maintenance - This step involves monitoring the patient's vital signs and adjusting the anesthesia as needed to ensure the patient remains in a stable state throughout the procedure.
b. Recovery - This step involves gradually waking the patient up from anesthesia and monitoring them until they are fully conscious and stable.

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• 25.

### The manometer is measured in

• A.

G/dl

• B.

Cm/h20

• C.

Mmhg

• D.

MpH

B. Cm/h20
Explanation
The manometer is measured in cm/h20 because it is a device used to measure pressure, specifically the pressure of liquids or gases. The unit cm/h20 stands for centimeters of water column, which is a common unit for measuring pressure. This unit is used because it provides a convenient and easily measurable scale for pressure readings. By measuring the height of a column of water in centimeters, the manometer can accurately determine the pressure being applied.

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• 26.

### Valium lowers the seizure threshold.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Valium is a benzodiazepine medication that is commonly used to treat anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms. It actually works by increasing the seizure threshold, making it less likely for seizures to occur. Therefore, the statement that Valium lowers the seizure threshold is incorrect.

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• 27.

### WAG stands for

waste anesthetic gas
Explanation
WAG stands for waste anesthetic gas, which refers to the gases that are exhaled or leaked during medical procedures involving anesthesia. These gases can include nitrous oxide, halothane, and other volatile anesthetics. Since these gases can be harmful to both patients and healthcare workers if not properly controlled, measures are taken to capture and remove them from the operating room or recovery area. This helps to minimize exposure and potential health risks associated with waste anesthetic gases.

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• 28.

### What does C.O. stand for?

cardiac output
Explanation
C.O. stands for cardiac output, which refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is an important measure of heart function and is influenced by factors such as heart rate and stroke volume. Cardiac output is often used in medical settings to assess a patient's cardiovascular health and to monitor the effectiveness of treatments or interventions.

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• 29.

### What drug will often make patients vomit after 5-10 minutes?

• A.

ButorpHanol

• B.

Valium

• C.

MorpHine

• D.

Atropine

C. MorpHine
Explanation
Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system to relieve pain. One of the common side effects of morphine is nausea and vomiting, which can occur shortly after administration, typically within 5-10 minutes. This is believed to be due to the drug's effect on the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain, which can stimulate the vomiting reflex. Therefore, it is not uncommon for patients to experience vomiting as an adverse reaction to morphine.

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• 30.

### What rebreathing bag would you select for a 57 lb dog?

• A.

.5 liter bag

• B.

1 liter bag

• C.

1.5 liter bag

• D.

2 liter bag

C. 1.5 liter bag
Explanation
The correct answer is 1.5 liter bag. The size of the rebreathing bag should be determined based on the weight of the patient. In this case, the dog weighs 57 lbs, so a 1.5 liter bag would be appropriate. This bag size ensures that there is enough capacity to accommodate the dog's respiratory needs during anesthesia. A bag that is too small may not provide enough oxygen, while a bag that is too large may cause excessive rebreathing of carbon dioxide.

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• 31.

### What rebreathing bag would you select for an 8 kg cat?

• A.

.5 liter bag

• B.

1 liter bag

• C.

1.5 liter bag

• D.

2 liter bag

A. .5 liter bag
Explanation
The correct answer is the .5 liter bag. This is because the size of the rebreathing bag should be selected based on the weight of the patient. In this case, since the patient is an 8 kg cat, a smaller bag size of .5 liter would be appropriate. Using a larger bag could lead to improper ventilation and potential complications.

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• 32.

### ___________ allow us to deliver oxygen and anesthetic gas to the patient which maintains them at a surgical plane of anesthesia.

• A.

Vaporizers

• B.

Rebreathing bags

• C.

Endotracheal tubes

• D.

Scavenger units

C. Endotracheal tubes
Explanation
Endotracheal tubes are used to deliver oxygen and anesthetic gas directly to the patient's lungs during surgery. By placing the tube into the patient's trachea, the gases can bypass the upper airway and reach the lungs effectively. This allows the anesthesiologist to maintain the patient at a surgical plane of anesthesia, ensuring proper oxygenation and inhalational anesthetic delivery. Vaporizers, rebreathing bags, and scavenger units are not directly involved in delivering gases to the patient's lungs and therefore do not play a role in maintaining anesthesia at the surgical plane.

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• 33.

### When do we give preanesthetic drugs to an animal?

• A.

At least 5 minutes before the patient is induced

• B.

At least 15 minutes before the patient is induced

• C.

At least 30 minutes before the patient is induced

• D.

At least 1 hour before the patient is induced

B. At least 15 minutes before the patient is induced
Explanation
Preanesthetic drugs are given to animals at least 15 minutes before they are induced. This allows enough time for the drugs to take effect and ensure a smooth and safe induction process. Giving the drugs too close to the induction time may not provide enough time for the drugs to fully take effect, leading to potential complications during anesthesia. On the other hand, giving the drugs too early may result in the drugs wearing off before the induction, which can also lead to complications. Therefore, giving preanesthetic drugs at least 15 minutes before the patient is induced is the recommended practice.

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• 34.

### ______________ anesthesia is the process of using several different drugs that have complimentary effects.

balanced
Explanation
Balanced anesthesia involves the use of multiple drugs that work together to achieve the desired effects during a medical procedure. This approach combines different types of medications, such as sedatives, analgesics, and muscle relaxants, to provide optimal pain relief, relaxation, and unconsciousness. By using a combination of drugs, the risks and side effects of each individual drug can be minimized, while maximizing the benefits. This ensures a more stable and controlled state of anesthesia for the patient, allowing for a smoother and safer surgical experience.

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• 35.

### Which of the following preanesthetic drugs lowers the seizure threshold?

• A.

Acepromazine

• B.

Valium

• C.

Xylazine

• D.

Fentanyl

A. Acepromazine
Explanation
Acepromazine is a preanesthetic drug that lowers the seizure threshold. This means that it increases the likelihood of seizures occurring in patients who are already prone to seizures or have a history of epilepsy. Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer that has sedative and anti-anxiety effects. It is commonly used as a preanesthetic medication to calm and relax patients before surgery. However, it is important to use caution when administering acepromazine to patients with a history of seizures, as it can potentially trigger a seizure episode.

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• 36.

### Which of the following statements regarding opioids is false?

• A.

Analgesics often used in preanesthesia and post-op pain

• B.

Examples include MorpHine, Diazepam, ButorpHanol, and Fentanyl

• C.

Potent respiratory depressants

• D.

• E.

All of the above are true

B. Examples include MorpHine, Diazepam, ButorpHanol, and Fentanyl
Explanation
The given statement is false because Diazepam is not an opioid. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine, which is a type of sedative used to relieve anxiety and muscle spasms. Opioids, on the other hand, are a class of drugs that act on the opioid receptors in the brain to produce analgesic (pain-relieving) effects. Examples of opioids include Morphine, Butorphanol, and Fentanyl. Opioids are indeed often used as analgesics in preanesthesia and post-op pain management, they can cause respiratory depression, and they may have bradycardic effects.

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• 37.

### Which of the following statements regarding tranquilizers and sedatives is true?

• A.

Aid in restraint

• B.

Decrease anxiety

• C.

Decrease amount of anesthetic needed

• D.

Aid in smoother recovery

• E.

All of the above are true

E. All of the above are true
Explanation
Tranquilizers and sedatives are medications that can aid in restraint by calming and relaxing patients. They also decrease anxiety, helping patients feel more at ease during medical procedures. Additionally, these medications can decrease the amount of anesthetic needed, reducing the risk of complications. Finally, they aid in smoother recovery by promoting relaxation and minimizing discomfort. Therefore, all of the statements regarding tranquilizers and sedatives are true.

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• 38.

### Which preanesthetic drug is used more commonly in equine anesthesia?

• A.

Atropine

• B.

Glycopyrolate

• C.

Acepromazine

• D.

ButorpHanol

B. Glycopyrolate
Explanation
Glycopyrolate is commonly used in equine anesthesia because it has a longer duration of action compared to atropine. It is a peripheral anticholinergic drug that helps prevent or reduce excessive salivation and bronchial secretions during anesthesia. This drug also helps in preventing bradycardia and other adverse effects that can occur during anesthesia. Therefore, due to its effectiveness and longer duration of action, glycopyrolate is the preferred preanesthetic drug in equine anesthesia.

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• 39.
Bain Circuit
Bain non-rebreather
• 40.
F-circuit
F circuit
F-circuit rebreather
• 41.
Flow Meter
• 42.
Manometer
• 43.
Oxygen source, Oxygen tank, Oxygen
• 44.
Pop-off valve
Pop off valve
• 45.
Pressure Regulator
• 46.
Rebreathing bag
Reservoir bag
• 47.
Scavenger unit
Passive scavenger
• 48.
Soda lime granules
• 49.
Vaporizer
• 50.
Y-piece circuit
Y piece circuit
Y-piece rebreather

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

• Current Version
• Mar 22, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Jul 29, 2011
Quiz Created by
Acarlo01

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