Can You Pass This Anesthesia Exam? Quiz

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Can you pass this anaesthesia exam quiz? The result of different anaesthesia methods varies depending on the weight and health condition of the patient. It is important for an anaesthetist to know the different ways of delivering anaesthesia in a safe manner and monitor patient vitals. This quiz is a good way to test out how informed you are. Do give it a try and see how well you do!

• 1.

A 15 kg dog weighs how many pounds?

• A.

30.3 lbs

• B.

33 lbs

• C.

6.8 lbs

• D.

28 lbs

B. 33 lbs
Explanation
The correct answer is 33 lbs because 15 kg is equivalent to approximately 33 pounds.

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• 2.

A 40 lb dog weighs how many kgs?

• A.

18.18 kgs

• B.

88 kgs

• C.

44 kgs

• D.

13.7 kgs

A. 18.18 kgs
Explanation
To convert pounds to kilograms, we can use the conversion factor of 1 pound = 0.4536 kilograms. Therefore, to find the weight of a 40 lb dog in kilograms, we multiply 40 by 0.4536. This calculation gives us approximately 18.14 kilograms. However, the given answer is 18.18 kgs, which may be due to rounding up the decimal value.

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• 3.

A 65 kg dog weighs how many pounds?

• A.

151 lbs

• B.

143 lbs

• C.

29.5 lbs

• D.

33 lbs

B. 143 lbs
Explanation
The correct answer is 143 lbs. To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.2046. Therefore, 65 kg multiplied by 2.2046 equals approximately 143 lbs.

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• 4.

A normal, healthy patient that is undergoing a spay surgery would fall where on the ARA scale?

• A.

1--minimal risk

• B.

2--low risk

• C.

3--moderate risk

• D.

4--high risk

• E.

5--extreme risk

A. 1--minimal risk
Explanation
A normal, healthy patient undergoing a spay surgery would fall under minimal risk on the ARA scale because there are no significant health issues or complications associated with the procedure. Minimal risk indicates that the chances of any adverse events or complications during the surgery are very low.

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• 5.

A patient with severe systemic disease, such as anemia, moderate dehydration, and compensated organ disease would fall where on the ARA scale?

• A.

1--minimial risk

• B.

2--low risk

• C.

3--moderate risk

• D.

4--high risk

• E.

5--extreme risk

C. 3--moderate risk
Explanation
Based on the given information, the patient has severe systemic disease, including anemia, moderate dehydration, and compensated organ disease. These conditions indicate that the patient is at a moderate risk on the ARA scale. While the patient does not have extreme or high risk conditions, the presence of severe systemic disease puts them at a higher risk compared to those with minimal or low risk. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 - moderate risk.

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• 6.

A state of calm or drowsiness.

sedation
Explanation
The term "sedation" refers to a state of calm or drowsiness. It is commonly used in medical contexts to describe the administration of drugs or techniques that induce relaxation and reduce anxiety. Sedation is often employed during medical procedures to ensure patient comfort and cooperation. It can also be used to manage symptoms such as insomnia or agitation. Overall, sedation is a therapeutic approach that aims to create a state of calmness and relaxation in individuals.

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• 7.

A state of relaxation and reduction of anxiety.

tranquilization
Explanation
Tranquilization refers to a state of relaxation and reduction of anxiety. It is a process or effect of calming or soothing a person or animal, typically through the use of medication. Tranquilization helps to reduce stress and promote a sense of calmness and tranquility.

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• 8.

A state without pain.

analgesia
Explanation
Analgesia refers to a state without pain. It is a medical term used to describe the relief or absence of pain, typically achieved through the use of analgesic drugs or anesthesia. It is often employed during surgical procedures or to alleviate chronic or acute pain. Analgesia works by blocking pain signals from reaching the brain or by altering the brain's perception of pain.

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• 9.

Active scavengers used activated charcoal to remove waste anesthetic gas.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Active scavengers do not use activated charcoal to remove waste anesthetic gas. Active scavengers are mechanical devices that actively remove waste anesthetic gas from the breathing system, usually by using a vacuum or suction mechanism. Activated charcoal, on the other hand, is a passive scavenger that adsorbs waste anesthetic gas but does not actively remove it. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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• 10.

Anticholinergics reduce or eliminate some of the undesirable effects of anesthesia.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Anticholinergics are medications that block the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that plays a role in various bodily functions. During anesthesia, certain side effects such as excessive salivation, bradycardia (slow heart rate), and bronchoconstriction (narrowing of the airways) can occur. Anticholinergics can help counteract these effects by inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating bodily functions at rest. Therefore, it is true that anticholinergics can reduce or eliminate some of the undesirable effects of anesthesia.

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• 11.

ARA stands for

anesthetic risk assessment
Explanation
ARA stands for anesthetic risk assessment. Anesthetic risk assessment is a process that evaluates the potential risks and complications associated with administering anesthesia to a patient. This assessment helps healthcare professionals determine the safety and appropriateness of using anesthesia for a specific individual, taking into consideration factors such as the patient's medical history, current health status, and any pre-existing conditions. By conducting an anesthetic risk assessment, healthcare providers can make informed decisions and take necessary precautions to minimize the risks and ensure the well-being of the patient during anesthesia administration.

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• 12.

Compressed gas sources should be changed when they contain

• A.

0-10 psi

• B.

25-50 psi

• C.

90 psi

• D.

100-200 psi

D. 100-200 psi
Explanation
Compressed gas sources should be changed when they contain 100-200 psi because this range indicates that the pressure is within the acceptable limits for most applications. If the pressure is too low (0-10 psi), it may not be sufficient to operate equipment effectively. On the other hand, if the pressure is too high (above 200 psi), it can pose safety risks and potentially damage the equipment. Therefore, the ideal range for compressed gas sources is 100-200 psi.

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• 13.

Cone-shaped devices that allow you to deliver oxygen and/or anesthetic gases to the patient without intubating them.

• A.

Induction chamber

• B.

• C.

Vaporizer

• D.

Flow meter

Explanation
A mask is a cone-shaped device that allows for the delivery of oxygen and/or anesthetic gases to the patient without the need for intubation. Masks are commonly used in medical settings to administer gases to patients who are unable to breathe on their own or who require additional respiratory support. Masks provide a secure and comfortable fit over the nose and mouth, allowing for the controlled delivery of gases to the patient. They are a non-invasive method of delivering oxygen and anesthetic gases and are often used in emergency situations or during procedures where intubation is not necessary.

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• 14.

General anesthesia is defined as the loss of feeling or sensation to a specific area.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
General anesthesia is not defined as the loss of feeling or sensation to a specific area. Instead, it refers to a state of controlled unconsciousness, where the patient is completely unaware and does not feel any pain or sensation during a medical procedure. It affects the entire body, not just a specific area.

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• 15.

Glycopyrrolate decreases GI motility.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic medication that is commonly used to reduce excessive secretions in the respiratory tract. While it can have some effect on reducing GI motility, its primary action is to inhibit the activity of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in various bodily functions. Therefore, the statement that glycopyrrolate decreases GI motility is false.

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• 16.

It is recommended most patients be fasted for about ____ hours before the surgery.

• A.

6

• B.

12

• C.

18

• D.

24

B. 12
Explanation
Most patients should be fasted for about 12 hours before surgery to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Aspiration occurs when stomach contents enter the lungs, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Fasting helps to ensure that the stomach is empty, reducing the likelihood of aspiration. This is a standard practice in surgery to ensure patient safety.

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• 17.

Ketamine is always used with a(n)

• A.

Anticholinergic

• B.

Sedative

• C.

Opioid

• D.

Tranquilizer

B. Sedative
Explanation
Ketamine is always used with a sedative because ketamine on its own can cause hallucinations and disorientation. The sedative helps to counteract these effects and provide a more controlled and calm experience for the patient. Additionally, the sedative can also help to enhance the pain-relieving properties of ketamine, making it a more effective anesthetic.

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• 18.

Laryngoscopes are not used in what animals?

• A.

Cattle and horses

• B.

Sheep and goats

• C.

Cats and dogs

• D.

Pigs

A. Cattle and horses
Explanation
Laryngoscopes are not used in cattle and horses because these animals have a different anatomy of the larynx compared to other animals. The laryngoscope is a medical instrument used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation, but its design and size may not be suitable for the specific anatomy of cattle and horses. Therefore, alternative methods or instruments are used for these animals.

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• 19.

Long and intermediate acting barbituates are generally used for anticonvulsant therapy

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Long and intermediate acting barbiturates are commonly used in anticonvulsant therapy due to their ability to suppress seizures. These medications work by enhancing the activity of the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which helps to reduce the excessive electrical activity that leads to seizures. By providing a sustained and prolonged effect, long and intermediate acting barbiturates can effectively control and prevent seizures in individuals with epilepsy or other seizure disorders. Therefore, the statement "Long and intermediate acting barbituates are generally used for anticonvulsant therapy" is true.

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• 20.

M.A.C. stands for

minimum alveolar concentration
Explanation
The correct answer is "minimum alveolar concentration." This refers to the minimum concentration of an inhaled anesthetic required to prevent movement in 50% of patients exposed to a painful stimulus. It is a measure of the potency of an anesthetic and is used to determine the appropriate dosage for anesthesia during surgical procedures.

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• 21.

Neuroleptoanalgesia is a state of profound sedation and analgesia produced by giving simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Neuroleptoanalgesia is a state of profound sedation and analgesia achieved by administering both an opioid and a tranquilizer simultaneously. This combination enhances the effects of sedation and pain relief, providing a deeper level of sedation and analgesia than either medication alone. Therefore, the statement "Neuroleptoanalgesia is a state of profound sedation and analgesia produced by giving simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer" is true.

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• 22.

Nitrous oxide tanks are blue.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
Nitrous oxide tanks are commonly painted blue to distinguish them from other gases. This color coding helps to ensure that the tanks are easily identifiable and prevent any confusion or mix-ups with other gases. The blue color also serves as a safety measure, as it alerts individuals to the presence of nitrous oxide and reminds them to handle it with caution. Therefore, the statement "Nitrous oxide tanks are blue" is true.

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• 23.

Scavenger units safely filter/route waste gas from induction chambers.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement suggests that scavenger units safely filter/route waste gas from induction chambers. However, the correct answer is False, which means that this statement is not true. Therefore, scavenger units do not perform the task of safely filtering/routing waste gas from induction chambers.

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• 24.

The following steps of anesthesia are scrambled. Give the correct sequence. (For example: b, d, a, e, etc.) a. Induction b. Recovery c. Patient Evaluation and Preparation d. Maintenance e. Preanesthetic Medication f.  Equipment and Supplies

c, f, e, a, d, b
Explanation
The correct sequence for the steps of anesthesia is as follows:
c. Patient Evaluation and Preparation - This step involves assessing the patient's medical history, conducting physical examinations, and determining the appropriate anesthesia plan.
f. Equipment and Supplies - This step involves ensuring that all necessary equipment and supplies are available and in proper working condition.
e. Preanesthetic Medication - This step involves administering medications to the patient before anesthesia to help with relaxation and pain relief.
a. Induction - This step involves the administration of anesthesia to induce unconsciousness and loss of sensation.
d. Maintenance - This step involves monitoring the patient's vital signs and adjusting the anesthesia levels as needed throughout the procedure.
b. Recovery - This step involves the patient waking up from anesthesia and being closely monitored until they are fully conscious and stable.

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• 25.

The manometer is measured in

• A.

G/dl

• B.

Cm/h20

• C.

Mmhg

• D.

Mph

B. Cm/h20
Explanation
The manometer is measured in cm/h20 because it is a device used to measure pressure, specifically the pressure of a fluid. The unit cm/h20 stands for centimeters of water column, which is a common unit for measuring pressure in the medical field. It indicates the height in centimeters that a column of water would be raised due to the pressure being measured. This unit is commonly used in manometers because it provides a precise and easily readable measurement of pressure.

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• 26.

Valium lowers the seizure threshold.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Valium is a medication that is commonly used to treat seizures and anxiety. It works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA in the brain, which helps to reduce excessive electrical activity and prevent seizures. Therefore, the statement that Valium lowers the seizure threshold is incorrect. In fact, Valium raises the seizure threshold, making it less likely for seizures to occur.

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• 27.

WAG stands for

waste anesthetic gas
Explanation
WAG stands for waste anesthetic gas. This term refers to the gases that are released during medical procedures using anesthesia. These gases can include nitrous oxide, halothane, and other volatile anesthetics. The release of these gases into the environment can pose health risks to healthcare workers and patients. Therefore, proper ventilation and disposal systems are necessary to minimize exposure to waste anesthetic gases.

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• 28.

What does C.O. stand for?

cardiac output
Explanation
C.O. stands for cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is a measure of the heart's efficiency in delivering oxygen and nutrients to the body's organs and tissues. Cardiac output is influenced by factors such as heart rate and stroke volume.

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• 29.

What drug will often make patients vomit after 5-10 minutes?

• A.

Butorphanol

• B.

Valium

• C.

Morphine

• D.

Atropine

C. Morphine
Explanation
Morphine is known to often cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect in patients. This can occur within 5-10 minutes after administration of the drug.

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• 30.

What rebreathing bag would you select for a 57 lb dog?

• A.

.5 liter bag

• B.

1 liter bag

• C.

1.5 liter bag

• D.

2 liter bag

C. 1.5 liter bag
Explanation
The correct answer is 1.5 liter bag. The size of the rebreathing bag should be selected based on the weight of the patient. In this case, since the dog weighs 57 lbs, a 1.5 liter bag would be appropriate. This bag size allows for adequate ventilation and proper exchange of gases during anesthesia.

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• 31.

What rebreathing bag would you select for an 8 kg cat?

• A.

.5 liter bag

• B.

1 liter bag

• C.

1.5 liter bag

• D.

2 liter bag

A. .5 liter bag
Explanation
The correct answer is the .5 liter bag. This is because the size of the rebreathing bag should be appropriate for the size of the patient. An 8 kg cat is relatively small, so a smaller bag size such as the .5 liter bag would be more suitable for their needs. Using a larger bag could lead to inefficient ventilation and potential harm to the patient.

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• 32.

___________ allow us to deliver oxygen and anesthetic gas to the patient which maintains them at a surgical plane of anesthesia

• A.

Vaporizers

• B.

Rebreathing bags

• C.

Endotracheal tubes

• D.

Scavenger units

C. Endotracheal tubes
Explanation
Endotracheal tubes are used to maintain a patient at a surgical plane of anesthesia by delivering oxygen and anesthetic gas directly to the lungs. These tubes are inserted into the trachea, allowing for the administration of gases and preventing the patient from breathing in atmospheric air. This ensures that the patient receives a consistent and controlled supply of oxygen and anesthetic gas throughout the surgical procedure, helping to maintain the desired level of anesthesia.

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• 33.

When do we give preanesthetic drugs to an animal?

• A.

At least 5 minutes before the patient is induced

• B.

At least 15 minutes before the patient is induced

• C.

At least 30 minutes before the patient is induced

• D.

At least 1 hour before the patient is induced

B. At least 15 minutes before the patient is induced
Explanation
Preanesthetic drugs are given to animals at least 15 minutes before they are induced. This allows sufficient time for the drugs to take effect and provide the desired effects, such as sedation, muscle relaxation, and pain relief. Administering the drugs too close to the induction time may result in inadequate anesthesia or delayed onset of action. Giving the drugs too early may lead to excessive sedation or prolonged effects, which can interfere with the induction process. Therefore, the optimal timing for preanesthetic drug administration is at least 15 minutes before induction.

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• 34.

______________ anesthesia is the process of using several different drugs that have complimentary effects.

balanced
Explanation
Balanced anesthesia refers to the practice of using a combination of different drugs that have complementary effects to achieve the desired anesthesia state. This approach aims to minimize the side effects and risks associated with using a single drug by combining different drugs in appropriate doses. By using a balanced combination, the anesthesiologist can achieve the desired level of anesthesia while reducing the likelihood of complications and adverse reactions.

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• 35.

Which of the following preanesthetic drugs lowers the seizure threshold?

• A.

Acepromazine

• B.

Valium

• C.

Xylazine

• D.

Fentanyl

A. Acepromazine
Explanation
Acepromazine is a preanesthetic drug that lowers the seizure threshold. This means that it increases the likelihood of seizures occurring in patients who are already prone to seizures or have a history of epilepsy. Acepromazine is commonly used as a sedative and tranquilizer in veterinary medicine, but its seizure-lowering effect makes it unsuitable for use in patients with a history of seizures. Valium, Xylazine, and Fentanyl do not have this effect and are not known to lower the seizure threshold.

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• 36.

Which of the following statements regarding opioids is false?

• A.

Analgesics often used in preanesthesia and post-op pain

• B.

Examples include Morphine, Diazepam, Butorphanol, and Fentanyl

• C.

Potent respiratory depressants

• D.

• E.

All of the above are true

B. Examples include Morphine, Diazepam, Butorphanol, and Fentanyl
Explanation
The statement "Examples include Morphine, Diazepam, Butorphanol, and Fentanyl" is false. Diazepam is not an opioid; it is a benzodiazepine used primarily as a sedative and anxiolytic. The other three examples, Morphine, Butorphanol, and Fentanyl, are indeed opioids commonly used for pain management in preanesthesia and post-op settings.

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• 37.

Which of the following statements regarding tranquilizers and sedatives is true?

• A.

Aid in restraint

• B.

Decrease anxiety

• C.

Decrease amount of anesthetic needed

• D.

Aid in smoother recovery

• E.

All of the above are true

E. All of the above are true
Explanation
Tranquilizers and sedatives have multiple benefits in medical settings. They aid in restraint by helping to calm and relax patients, making it easier to perform procedures. They also decrease anxiety, which is beneficial for patients who may be nervous or fearful. Additionally, these medications can decrease the amount of anesthetic needed during procedures, reducing the risk of complications. Finally, tranquilizers and sedatives aid in a smoother recovery by promoting relaxation and reducing post-procedure discomfort. Therefore, all of the given statements are true.

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• 38.

Which preanesthetic drug is used more commonly in equine anesthesia?

• A.

Atropine

• B.

Glycopyrolate

• C.

Acepromazine

• D.

Butorphanol

B. Glycopyrolate
Explanation
Glycopyrolate is used more commonly in equine anesthesia compared to the other options listed. This drug is a preanesthetic medication that is commonly used in horses to reduce excessive salivation and respiratory secretions during anesthesia. It also helps to prevent bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, and can be used to counteract the effects of other medications that may cause bradycardia. Overall, glycopyrolate is a valuable drug in equine anesthesia due to its ability to reduce excessive secretions and maintain a stable heart rate during the procedure.

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• 39.
Bain Circuit
Bain non-rebreather
• 40.
F-circuit
F circuit
F-circuit rebreather
• 41.
Flow Meter
• 42.
Manometer
• 43.
Oxygen source
Oxygen tank
Oxygen
• 44.
Pop-off valve
Pop off valve
• 45.
Pressure Regulator
• 46.
Rebreathing bag
Reservoir bag
• 47.
Scavenger unit
Passive scavenger
• 48.
Soda lime granules
• 49.
Vaporizer
• 50.